Computed Tomography (CT) Scan Quiz

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  • 1/154 Questions

    Which type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?1. internal hard disk2. CD3. re-writable optical disk

    • 1 only
    • 2 only
    • 3 only
    • 1,2,& 3
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About This Quiz

Computer tomography scans commonly known as CT scans make use of computer-processed combinations of many X-ray measurements taken at different angles. Take up the quiz below and gauge you knowledge on CT scans. All the best.

Computed Tomography (CT) Scan Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Renal function refers to which of the following organs?

    • Gallbladder

    • Kidney

    • Liver

    • Spleen

    Correct Answer
    A. Kidney
    Explanation
    The correct answer is kidney. Renal function specifically refers to the functioning of the kidneys. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste products, excess water, and toxins from the blood, as well as regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure. They also play a crucial role in the production of urine and the elimination of waste from the body. The other organs listed (gallbladder, liver, and spleen) are not directly involved in renal function.

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  • 3. 

    Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT?

    • Perform only a scan of the pelvis

    • Request clarification from the ordering physician

    • Perform both exams

    • Perform only a scan of the brain

    Correct Answer
    A. Request clarification from the ordering physician
    Explanation
    If a patient arrives with obvious head trauma but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT, it is important to request clarification from the ordering physician. This is because performing a pelvic CT in this situation would not address the patient's immediate medical need. By seeking clarification, the healthcare provider can ensure that the correct imaging study is performed to properly diagnose and treat the patient's head trauma.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?1. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure.2. allergy to iodine3. renal impairment

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    The conditions mentioned in options 1, 2, and 3 can all be indications not to use IV contrast media. A previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure suggests that the patient may be at risk of having a similar reaction again. An allergy to iodine can also cause an adverse reaction to IV contrast media, as many contrast agents contain iodine. Renal impairment can affect the body's ability to excrete the contrast media, leading to potential complications. Therefore, all three conditions can be reasons to avoid using IV contrast media.

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  • 5. 

    What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?

    • Apply ice during the injection

    • Stop the injection immediately

    • Slap the area

    • Apply heat during the injection

    Correct Answer
    A. Stop the injection immediately
    Explanation
    If extravasation is noticed at the injection site, it is important to stop the injection immediately. Extravasation refers to the leakage of medication from the intended vein into the surrounding tissue. This can cause damage and potential complications. By stopping the injection immediately, further leakage can be prevented, minimizing the potential harm to the surrounding tissue. It is crucial to seek appropriate medical attention and follow any additional instructions provided by healthcare professionals.

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  • 6. 

    Platelets are small:

    • Implants

    • Detector elements responsible for capturing attenuated photons

    • Cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation

    • Catheters used for administering contrast media

    Correct Answer
    A. Cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation
    Explanation
    Platelets are small cell fragments that are necessary for blood coagulation. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a clot to stop bleeding. They adhere to the site of injury, aggregate together, and release chemicals that promote clotting. Without platelets, the blood would not be able to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding. Therefore, platelets play a crucial role in the process of blood coagulation.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the follwoing may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?1. mental retardation2. miscarriage3. deformities

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    Exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation can result in mental retardation, miscarriage, and deformities. X-ray radiation is known to cause damage to developing cells and tissues, which can lead to a range of developmental issues. Mental retardation refers to a significant impairment in cognitive abilities, while miscarriage refers to the loss of a pregnancy before 20 weeks. Deformities refer to abnormalities or malformations in the structure or appearance of the embryo. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, & 3) are correct as potential outcomes of exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation.

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  • 8. 

    The most common catheter size used in CT is ______ gauge.

    • 12- 14

    • 15- 17

    • 18 -22

    • 23-25

    Correct Answer
    A. 18 -22
    Explanation
    The most common catheter size used in CT is 18-22 gauge. This size range is commonly chosen because it allows for easy insertion and removal of the catheter while still providing sufficient flow rate for the procedure. Catheters of this size are also less likely to cause complications such as bleeding or damage to blood vessels.

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  • 9. 

    During a CT scan , the patient must be monitored:

    • Visually and verbally

    • Occasionally

    • By a nurse

    • By a pulse oximeter

    Correct Answer
    A. Visually and verbally
    Explanation
    During a CT scan, it is important to visually and verbally monitor the patient. This is necessary to ensure their safety and well-being throughout the procedure. Visual monitoring allows the healthcare professional to observe any physical distress or discomfort the patient may be experiencing. Verbal monitoring allows for communication with the patient, allowing them to express any concerns or symptoms they may be feeling. By monitoring the patient visually and verbally, any potential issues can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring a successful and safe CT scan.

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  • 10. 

    If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast media must be:

    • Shaken

    • Diluted

    • Heated

    • Discarded

    Correct Answer
    A. Discarded
    Explanation
    If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, it must be discarded. This is because using a potentially contaminated contrast media can lead to infections or other complications in patients. Shaking, diluting, or heating the contrast media will not eliminate any potential contaminants, so the safest course of action is to discard it and use a new, sterile batch.

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  • 11. 

    IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of __________in the agent.

    • Iodine

    • Glucose

    • Meglumine

    • Barium

    Correct Answer
    A. Iodine
    Explanation
    IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of iodine in the agent. Iodine has a high atomic number and is dense, which allows it to absorb more x-rays and enhance the contrast in the image. This increased attenuation helps in highlighting blood vessels, organs, and abnormalities in the body, making it easier for radiologists to diagnose and interpret the CT scan.

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  • 12. 

    A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:

    • Eyeglasses so she can see the technologist

    • A nose ring

    • Her new belt with a large silver buckle

    • Earrings, to look her best

    Correct Answer
    A. Her new belt with a large silver buckle
    Explanation
    The patient may wear her new belt with a large silver buckle during the scan of her sinuses because it is not in the immediate vicinity of her head or face and will not interfere with the imaging process. The other options, such as eyeglasses, a nose ring, or earrings, could potentially obstruct or interfere with the scan by obstructing the sinuses or creating artifacts on the images.

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  • 13. 

    How long does it take to inject 150ML of contrast media with an injection rate of 2ml/sec.?

    • 50 seconds

    • 75 seconds

    • 1 minute

    • 2.5 minutes

    Correct Answer
    A. 75 seconds
    Explanation
    At an injection rate of 2ml/sec, it would take 75 seconds to inject 150ml of contrast media. This can be calculated by dividing the total volume (150ml) by the injection rate (2ml/sec), which gives us 75 seconds.

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  • 14. 

    The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:

    • In the second trimester

    • In the first trimester

    • Equally in all trimesters

    • In the third trimester

    Correct Answer
    A. In the first trimester
    Explanation
    During the first trimester of pregnancy, the human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation. This is because during this period, the organs and tissues are rapidly developing and are therefore more vulnerable to the damaging effects of radiation. Exposure to radiation during the first trimester can increase the risk of birth defects and developmental abnormalities in the baby. As the pregnancy progresses, the organs and tissues become more developed and less susceptible to radiation damage, although it is still important to minimize exposure throughout the entire pregnancy.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?1. BUN2. creatinine3. PTT

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 2 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test used to evaluate the clotting ability of the blood and is not an indication of renal function. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine, on the other hand, are commonly used tests to assess kidney function. BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from urea, a waste product of protein metabolism, while creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism and is filtered out by the kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only, as PTT is not related to renal function.

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  • 16. 

    The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by :

    • Shaking

    • Stirring

    • Aerating

    • Heating

    Correct Answer
    A. Heating
    Explanation
    Heating can reduce the viscosity of IV contrast media. When a substance is heated, its molecules gain energy and move more rapidly. This increased movement causes the molecules to spread out and reduces the intermolecular forces between them, leading to a decrease in viscosity. Therefore, heating the IV contrast media will make it less viscous and easier to administer.

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  • 17. 

    The _______ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.

    • KVp

    • Rotation time

    • MA

    • Pitch

    Correct Answer
    A. KVp
    Explanation
    The kVp (kilovolt peak) determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be. This is because kVp controls the energy of the x-ray photons produced. Higher kVp values result in more energetic photons, which can penetrate through denser tissues more effectively. Lower kVp values produce less energetic photons, which are absorbed more readily by tissues. Therefore, the kVp setting directly influences the depth of penetration and overall image quality in x-ray imaging.

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  • 18. 

    The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:

    • Air passages are clear

    • The body temperature is decreased

    • Fluids are maintained

    • No medications are administered

    Correct Answer
    A. Air passages are clear
    Explanation
    The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that air passages are clear. This is crucial because an unconscious patient may not be able to maintain their airway on their own, leading to potential respiratory distress or even respiratory arrest. Clearing the air passages helps to ensure that the patient is able to breathe properly and prevents any obstruction that could compromise their oxygen supply. This is a critical step in providing immediate care to an unconscious patient and ensuring their safety and well-being.

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  • 19. 

    A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period. Which of the following is the best course of action?

    • Perform the exam immediately, while she is experiencing sinus problems

    • Postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition

    • Cancel the procedure indefinitely

    • Suggest she get an MRI instead

    Correct Answer
    A. Postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition
    Explanation
    The best course of action in this scenario is to postpone the procedure until the patient is more certain of her condition. CT scans involve exposure to radiation, which can potentially harm a developing fetus. Since the patient is not certain about her pregnancy status and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period, there is a possibility that she could be pregnant. It is important to prioritize the safety of the patient and the potential fetus, so it is best to wait until the patient can confirm her pregnancy status before proceeding with the CT scan.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the follwoing is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?1. cataracts2. cancer3. decrease in life expectancy

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    Repeated exposure to radiation can have long-term effects on the body. One possible effect is the development of cataracts, which are clouding of the lens of the eye. Another possible effect is the development of cancer, as radiation exposure can damage DNA and increase the risk of abnormal cell growth. Additionally, repeated exposure to radiation can lead to a decrease in life expectancy, as it can cause various health problems and increase the risk of developing serious illnesses. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, & 3) are possible long-term effects of repeated exposure to radiation.

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  • 21. 

    Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution use with all patients?

    • Use of an N95 respirator

    • Wash hands after touching a patient

    • Disposal of needle in sharps container

    • Wear gloves when starting an IV

    Correct Answer
    A. Use of an N95 respirator
    Explanation
    The use of an N95 respirator is not a standard infection control precaution used with all patients. N95 respirators are specialized masks that are designed to filter out airborne particles, including viruses and bacteria. They are typically used in healthcare settings when there is a risk of exposure to airborne diseases, such as tuberculosis or influenza. However, for routine infection control precautions, such as hand hygiene, disposal of needles, and wearing gloves, the use of an N95 respirator is not necessary.

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  • 22. 

    To modify a standard CT protocol so that it is appropriate for children, which of the following should be decreased?1. pitch 2. kVp3. mAs

    • 1 only

    • 1& 2

    • 1& 3

    • 2 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 & 3
    Explanation
    To modify a standard CT protocol for children, both the kVp and mAs should be decreased. Decreasing the kVp reduces the radiation dose, as lower energy photons are used. Decreasing the mAs also reduces the radiation dose, as fewer X-ray photons are used. Decreasing both parameters helps to minimize the radiation exposure for children, who are more sensitive to radiation than adults. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 & 3.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media?1. use high osmolar contrast media2. administer an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection3. increase the rate of injection

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 only
    Explanation
    Administering an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media. Antihistamines can help to prevent or reduce allergic reactions, such as hives or itching, that may occur as a result of the contrast media. However, using high osmolar contrast media or increasing the rate of injection may actually increase the risk of adverse reactions, so these options are not recommended.

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  • 24. 

    Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:

    • Atomic weight

    • Thickness

    • Temperature

    • Injection rate

    Correct Answer
    A. Thickness
    Explanation
    Viscosity refers to the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow or its internal friction. It is determined by the thickness of the fluid, indicating how easily it flows. A fluid with high viscosity is thick and flows slowly, while a fluid with low viscosity is thin and flows quickly. Therefore, the correct answer is "thickness" as it accurately describes the property being measured when referring to a fluid's viscosity.

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  • 25. 

    Exams to rule out ___________ would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest1. lymphoma2. hilar mass3. aortic dissection

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    Exams to rule out lymphoma, hilar mass, and aortic dissection would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest. This suggests that all three conditions can be evaluated using contrast-enhanced imaging techniques such as CT scans or MRI scans with contrast. By using IV contrast media, the radiologists can better visualize and assess any abnormalities or lesions in the lymph nodes, hilar region, or aorta, which can help in diagnosing these conditions. Therefore, all three options, 1, 2, and 3, are correct.

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  • 26. 

    The distance that the table travels between slices is called:

    • Table increment

    • Collimation

    • Rotation

    • Reconstruction interval

    Correct Answer
    A. Table increment
    Explanation
    The distance that the table travels between slices is called the table increment. This refers to the movement of the imaging table in a computed tomography (CT) scanner as it acquires multiple slices of the patient's body. The table increment determines the spacing between each slice and affects the overall image quality and accuracy of the reconstructed 3D image.

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  • 27. 

    An indication for IV contrast injection is  to rule  out:

    • Mastoiditis

    • Sinusitis

    • Meningioma

    • Grave's disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Meningioma
    Explanation
    IV contrast injection is used to enhance the visibility of certain structures in medical imaging, such as CT scans or MRI scans. Meningioma is a type of brain tumor that can be difficult to detect without contrast enhancement. Therefore, an indication for IV contrast injection would be to rule out the presence of a meningioma. This is because the contrast agent can help distinguish the tumor from surrounding healthy brain tissue, making it easier to diagnose or rule out meningioma.

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  • 28. 

    The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is __________ the patient's tissues.1. reflected off of2. attenuated by3. generated by

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 only
    Explanation
    The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is attenuated by the patient's tissues. This means that the beam is weakened or reduced in intensity as it passes through the different structures and organs in the body. Attenuation occurs due to the absorption and scattering of the x-rays by the tissues, which helps create the detailed images produced by the CT scan.

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  • 29. 

    The heating unit on a power injector is for _________________ of the contrast agent.

    • Increasing the iodine concentration

    • Decreasing the viscosity

    • Increasing the density

    • Decreasing the osmolality

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing the viscosity
    Explanation
    The heating unit on a power injector is used to decrease the viscosity of the contrast agent. Heating the contrast agent reduces its thickness and makes it easier to inject into the patient's bloodstream. This helps to ensure a smooth and efficient injection process, as a lower viscosity allows the contrast agent to flow more easily through the injector and into the patient's body.

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  • 30. 

    The________ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation scanner.1. x-ray tube2. patient table3. detector elements

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    During a helical scan on a third-generation scanner, all three components mentioned in the options - the x-ray tube, patient table, and detector elements - move. The x-ray tube moves in a circular motion around the patient, emitting x-rays from different angles. The patient table moves longitudinally, allowing the patient to be scanned continuously. The detector elements also move synchronously with the x-ray tube and capture the x-rays that pass through the patient, producing the necessary data for image reconstruction. Therefore, all three components are involved in the helical scan process.

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  • 31. 

    If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are not changed, the dose is:

    • Doubled

    • Unaffected

    • Halved

    • Quadrupled

    Correct Answer
    A. Doubled
    Explanation
    When the mA of a brain scan is doubled, it means that the current passing through the brain is increased. This increase in current leads to an increase in the dose of radiation delivered to the brain. Therefore, the dose is doubled.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the follwoing characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance?1. concentration of iodine2. osmolality3. viscosity

    • 1 only

    • 1 & 2

    • 2 & 3

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    The concentration of iodine in an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance because a higher concentration can cause more side effects such as nausea and allergic reactions. Osmolality also affects patient tolerance as a higher osmolality can lead to discomfort and a sensation of heat or cold at the injection site. Viscosity, or the thickness of the contrast agent, can affect patient tolerance as a higher viscosity can cause pain or discomfort during injection. Therefore, all three characteristics (concentration of iodine, osmolality, and viscosity) can have an impact on patient tolerance.

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  • 33. 

    Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears?

    • Resolution

    • Linearity

    • Noise

    • Contrast

    Correct Answer
    A. Noise
    Explanation
    Noise is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears. Noise in CT images refers to random variations in pixel values, which can result in a loss of image clarity and detail. Higher levels of noise can make the image appear more grainy or speckled, while lower levels of noise result in a smoother image appearance. Therefore, the level of noise in a CT image directly affects its overall quality and can impact the ability to accurately diagnose and interpret the image.

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  • 34. 

    Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:

    • If it is in plain sight on the CT console and the employee has already read it

    • If the employee is related to the patient

    • Only if it is needed to do their job

    • To joke about the patient's excessive weight

    Correct Answer
    A. Only if it is needed to do their job
    Explanation
    According to HIPAA guidelines, a patient's medical information should only be shared with another employee if it is necessary for them to perform their job duties. This ensures that patient privacy and confidentiality are maintained. Sharing medical information for personal reasons or to make jokes about the patient's condition is a violation of HIPAA regulations.

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  • 35. 

    When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?1. re-scan the region using thinner slices2. re-scan the region using a lower pitch3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    Retrospectively reconstructing the slices so that they overlap can help in better visualizing the suspicious area without increasing the dose to the patient. This technique involves reconstructing the images in a way that the slices overlap, providing a more detailed and comprehensive view of the area of interest. This can be particularly useful in identifying subtle abnormalities and improving diagnostic accuracy. Rescanning the region using thinner slices or a lower pitch may also help in visualizing the suspicious area, but these options would involve increasing the dose to the patient.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?

    • Adult pulse of 75 BPM

    • Pediatric pulse of 11o BPM

    • Adult blood pressure of 160/100

    • Oral temperature of 97 degrees

    Correct Answer
    A. Adult blood pressure of 160/100
    Explanation
    An adult blood pressure reading of 160/100 is considered abnormal because it indicates hypertension, or high blood pressure. Normal blood pressure for adults is typically around 120/80. A reading of 160/100 suggests that the individual's blood pressure is significantly higher than the normal range, which can increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and other health complications. Therefore, it is important to monitor and manage high blood pressure to maintain overall health and well-being.

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  • 37. 

    A CT number calibration test should be performed:

    • Weekly

    • Annually

    • Monthly

    • Daily

    Correct Answer
    A. Daily
    Explanation
    A CT number calibration test should be performed daily to ensure accurate and consistent results. Daily testing helps identify any variations or drift in the CT scanner's performance, allowing for timely adjustments and calibration. This is crucial in maintaining the quality and reliability of the CT images produced. Regular calibration also helps in detecting any potential issues or malfunctions early on, minimizing the risk of diagnostic errors and ensuring patient safety. Therefore, performing a CT number calibration test on a daily basis is necessary for optimal performance and accuracy of the CT scanner.

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  • 38. 

    If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?

    • 21,600

    • 129,600

    • 259,200

    • 379,800

    Correct Answer
    A. 129,600
    Explanation
    An image matrix with 360 rows and 360 columns would have a total of 360 x 360 = 129,600 pixels.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following statements are TRUE?1. the amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized.2. digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy.3. digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals.

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1, 2, & 3
    Explanation
    The given answer is correct because all three statements are true. Statement 1 is true because the amplified electrical signal from detectors in CT scans needs to be converted into digital form for further processing and analysis. Statement 2 is true because digital CT images are indeed numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy, allowing for detailed analysis and manipulation. Statement 3 is true because digital signals can be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals, which is a common method of converting analog signals into digital form.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?1. a greater volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time2. a given volume of anatomy can be covered faster3. radiation dose to the patient can be increased

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 1 & 2

    • 2 & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 & 2
    Explanation
    Increasing the pitch in this context refers to increasing the speed at which a given volume of anatomy can be covered during a medical procedure. This allows for a greater volume of anatomy to be covered in a given time, as well as enabling the coverage of a given volume of anatomy at a faster rate. Increasing the pitch does not have any direct impact on the radiation dose to the patient, so option 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 & 2.

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  • 41. 

    A normal adult has _______resperations per minute.

    • 5-8

    • 12-20

    • 20-30

    • 30-40

    Correct Answer
    A. 12-20
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12-20. This range represents the normal respiratory rate for an adult. It is the average number of breaths a person takes per minute when at rest. A respiratory rate within this range indicates that the person's lungs and respiratory system are functioning properly.

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  • 42. 

    A pixel is a :

    • Bright artifact on a film

    • Single 3D volume element within a volume of anatomical data

    • Single 2D picture element within the image plane

    • Range of gray levels on a CT image

    Correct Answer
    A. Single 2D picture element within the image plane
    Explanation
    A pixel is a single 2D picture element within the image plane. In digital imaging, an image is composed of a grid of pixels, each representing a specific color or intensity value. Pixels are the smallest units of an image, and they come together to form the overall picture. Each pixel contains information about its position and color, allowing it to be displayed on a screen or printed on paper. Therefore, a pixel is a fundamental building block of a digital image, representing a specific point in the 2D space of the image plane.

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  • 43. 

    A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected for a(n)_________ exam.

    • Pituitary

    • Kidneys

    • Liver

    • Internal auditory canals

    Correct Answer
    A. Internal auditory canals
    Explanation
    A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically not selected for an internal auditory canals exam because this type of filter is used to remove high-frequency noise and artifacts from images. However, the internal auditory canals exam focuses on imaging the structures within the ear, specifically the pathway for sound transmission, and does not require the removal of high-frequency noise. Therefore, a smooth reconstruction filter is not necessary for this type of exam.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other parameters are the same?

    • MA=200, rotation time=2 sec.

    • MA=200, rotation time=1 sec.

    • MA=150, rotation time=3 sec.

    • MA=400, rotation time=1 sec.

    Correct Answer
    A. MA=150, rotation time=3 sec.
    Explanation
    The patient dose is determined by the product of mA (milliamperage) and rotation time. In this case, all other parameters are the same except for mA and rotation time. The higher the mA and the longer the rotation time, the higher the patient dose. Therefore, the combination of mA=150 and rotation time=3 sec has the highest patient dose compared to the other options.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the followingis the conversion equation from CT number to housfield unit?

    • CT number = 0.5 x hounsfield unit

    • CT number = (hounsfield unit)^2

    • CT number = hounsfield unit

    • CT number = 2 x hounsfield unit

    Correct Answer
    A. CT number = hounsfield unit
    Explanation
    The correct answer is CT number = hounsfield unit. This equation states that the CT number is equal to the Hounsfield unit. The Hounsfield unit is a quantitative measurement used in computed tomography (CT) imaging to represent the radiodensity of tissues. The CT number is a way to convert the Hounsfield unit into a numerical value that can be used for diagnostic purposes.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying the distal small intestine?1. an ionic iodinated contrast agent2. a non-ionic iodinated contrast agent3. barium sulfate

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 only
    Explanation
    Barium sulfate is the better oral contrast agent for opacifying the distal small intestine. Barium sulfate is a radiopaque substance that is not absorbed by the body and provides excellent visualization of the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in imaging studies such as barium swallow or barium enema to evaluate the structure and function of the digestive system. Ionic and non-ionic iodinated contrast agents are typically used for opacifying other parts of the body, such as blood vessels or organs, and are not as effective in opacifying the distal small intestine.

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  • 47. 

    CTA images come from a __________ scan.1. conventional, or serial2. helical3. localizer

    • 1 only

    • 2 only

    • 3 only

    • 1, 2, & 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 2 only
    Explanation
    CTA images come from a helical scan. Helical scanning is a technique used in computed tomography (CT) imaging where the x-ray tube rotates continuously while the patient is moved through the scanner. This allows for a continuous spiral or helical path of data acquisition, resulting in high-resolution images. Conventional or serial scans involve stopping the patient at various intervals to acquire images, while a localizer scan is used to determine the exact position and orientation of the patient before acquiring the actual images. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only, as CTA images specifically come from a helical scan.

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  • 48. 

    If a reconstruction FOV of 32cm and a 512x512 matrix are used, the pixel size is _____________mm.

    • 0.35x0.35

    • 0.625x0.625

    • 1.6x1.6

    • 3.25x3.25

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.625x0.625
    Explanation
    The pixel size can be calculated by dividing the reconstruction FOV by the matrix size. In this case, the reconstruction FOV is 32cm and the matrix size is 512x512. Dividing 32 by 512 gives a result of 0.0625cm. Since the pixel size is usually expressed in millimeters, we convert 0.0625cm to mm, which gives a pixel size of 0.625x0.625mm.

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  • 49. 

    There are ____________ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix

    • 2048

    • 524,288

    • More than 1 million

    • More than 2 million

    Correct Answer
    A. More than 1 million
    Explanation
    A 1024 x 1024 matrix has a total of 1,048,576 pixels.

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 04, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Aug 03, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Radgirl86

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