Computed Tomography (CT) Scan Quiz

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1. Renal function refers to which of the following organs?

Explanation

The correct answer is kidney. Renal function specifically refers to the functioning of the kidneys. The kidneys are responsible for filtering waste products, excess water, and toxins from the blood, as well as regulating electrolyte balance and blood pressure. They also play a crucial role in the production of urine and the elimination of waste from the body. The other organs listed (gallbladder, liver, and spleen) are not directly involved in renal function.

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About This Quiz
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan Quiz - Quiz

Computer tomography scans commonly known as CT scans make use of computer-processed combinations of many X-ray measurements taken at different angles. Take up the quiz below and gauge... see moreyou knowledge on CT scans. All the best. see less

2.
Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT?

Explanation

If a patient arrives with obvious head trauma but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT, it is important to request clarification from the ordering physician. This is because performing a pelvic CT in this situation would not address the patient's immediate medical need. By seeking clarification, the healthcare provider can ensure that the correct imaging study is performed to properly diagnose and treat the patient's head trauma.

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3. Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?
1. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure.
2. allergy to iodine
3. renal impairment

Explanation

The conditions mentioned in options 1, 2, and 3 can all be indications not to use IV contrast media. A previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure suggests that the patient may be at risk of having a similar reaction again. An allergy to iodine can also cause an adverse reaction to IV contrast media, as many contrast agents contain iodine. Renal impairment can affect the body's ability to excrete the contrast media, leading to potential complications. Therefore, all three conditions can be reasons to avoid using IV contrast media.

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4. What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?

Explanation

If extravasation is noticed at the injection site, it is important to stop the injection immediately. Extravasation refers to the leakage of medication from the intended vein into the surrounding tissue. This can cause damage and potential complications. By stopping the injection immediately, further leakage can be prevented, minimizing the potential harm to the surrounding tissue. It is crucial to seek appropriate medical attention and follow any additional instructions provided by healthcare professionals.

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5. Which type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?
1. internal hard disk
2. CD
3. re-writable optical disk

Explanation

CT image data can be stored on internal hard disks, CDs, and re-writable optical disks. Internal hard disks are commonly used for storing large amounts of data, including CT images. CDs can also be used to store CT image data, providing a portable and easily accessible storage option. Re-writable optical disks offer the advantage of being able to write, erase, and rewrite data, making them suitable for storing and updating CT image data. Therefore, all three options - 1, 2, and 3 - are correct answers.

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6. Which of the follwoing may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?
1. mental retardation
2. miscarriage
3. deformities

Explanation

Exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation can result in mental retardation, miscarriage, and deformities. X-ray radiation is known to cause damage to developing cells and tissues, which can lead to a range of developmental issues. Mental retardation refers to a significant impairment in cognitive abilities, while miscarriage refers to the loss of a pregnancy before 20 weeks. Deformities refer to abnormalities or malformations in the structure or appearance of the embryo. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, & 3) are correct as potential outcomes of exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation.

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7. Platelets are small:

Explanation

Platelets are small cell fragments that are necessary for blood coagulation. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets are activated and form a clot to stop bleeding. They adhere to the site of injury, aggregate together, and release chemicals that promote clotting. Without platelets, the blood would not be able to clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding. Therefore, platelets play a crucial role in the process of blood coagulation.

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8. The most common catheter size used in CT is ______ gauge.

Explanation

The most common catheter size used in CT is 18-22 gauge. This size range is commonly chosen because it allows for easy insertion and removal of the catheter while still providing sufficient flow rate for the procedure. Catheters of this size are also less likely to cause complications such as bleeding or damage to blood vessels.

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9. If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast media must be:

Explanation

If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, it must be discarded. This is because using a potentially contaminated contrast media can lead to infections or other complications in patients. Shaking, diluting, or heating the contrast media will not eliminate any potential contaminants, so the safest course of action is to discard it and use a new, sterile batch.

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10. IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of __________in the agent.

Explanation

IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of iodine in the agent. Iodine has a high atomic number and is dense, which allows it to absorb more x-rays and enhance the contrast in the image. This increased attenuation helps in highlighting blood vessels, organs, and abnormalities in the body, making it easier for radiologists to diagnose and interpret the CT scan.

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11. During a CT scan , the patient must be monitored:

Explanation

During a CT scan, it is important to visually and verbally monitor the patient. This is necessary to ensure their safety and well-being throughout the procedure. Visual monitoring allows the healthcare professional to observe any physical distress or discomfort the patient may be experiencing. Verbal monitoring allows for communication with the patient, allowing them to express any concerns or symptoms they may be feeling. By monitoring the patient visually and verbally, any potential issues can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring a successful and safe CT scan.

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12. A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:

Explanation

The patient may wear her new belt with a large silver buckle during the scan of her sinuses because it is not in the immediate vicinity of her head or face and will not interfere with the imaging process. The other options, such as eyeglasses, a nose ring, or earrings, could potentially obstruct or interfere with the scan by obstructing the sinuses or creating artifacts on the images.

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13. How long does it take to inject 150ML of contrast media with an injection rate of 2ml/sec.?

Explanation

At an injection rate of 2ml/sec, it would take 75 seconds to inject 150ml of contrast media. This can be calculated by dividing the total volume (150ml) by the injection rate (2ml/sec), which gives us 75 seconds.

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14. The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:

Explanation

During the first trimester of pregnancy, the human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation. This is because during this period, the organs and tissues are rapidly developing and are therefore more vulnerable to the damaging effects of radiation. Exposure to radiation during the first trimester can increase the risk of birth defects and developmental abnormalities in the baby. As the pregnancy progresses, the organs and tissues become more developed and less susceptible to radiation damage, although it is still important to minimize exposure throughout the entire pregnancy.

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15. To modify a standard CT protocol so that it is appropriate for children, which of the following should be decreased?
1. pitch
2. kVp
3. mAs

Explanation

To modify a standard CT protocol for children, both the kVp and mAs should be decreased. Decreasing the kVp reduces the radiation dose, as lower energy photons are used. Decreasing the mAs also reduces the radiation dose, as fewer X-ray photons are used. Decreasing both parameters helps to minimize the radiation exposure for children, who are more sensitive to radiation than adults. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 & 3.

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16. The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by :

Explanation

Heating can reduce the viscosity of IV contrast media. When a substance is heated, its molecules gain energy and move more rapidly. This increased movement causes the molecules to spread out and reduces the intermolecular forces between them, leading to a decrease in viscosity. Therefore, heating the IV contrast media will make it less viscous and easier to administer.

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17. Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?
1. BUN
2. creatinine
3. PTT

Explanation

PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time) is a test used to evaluate the clotting ability of the blood and is not an indication of renal function. BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) and creatinine, on the other hand, are commonly used tests to assess kidney function. BUN measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from urea, a waste product of protein metabolism, while creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism and is filtered out by the kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only, as PTT is not related to renal function.

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18. A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period. Which of the following is the best course of action?

Explanation

The best course of action in this scenario is to postpone the procedure until the patient is more certain of her condition. CT scans involve exposure to radiation, which can potentially harm a developing fetus. Since the patient is not certain about her pregnancy status and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period, there is a possibility that she could be pregnant. It is important to prioritize the safety of the patient and the potential fetus, so it is best to wait until the patient can confirm her pregnancy status before proceeding with the CT scan.

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19. Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution use with all patients?

Explanation

The use of an N95 respirator is not a standard infection control precaution used with all patients. N95 respirators are specialized masks that are designed to filter out airborne particles, including viruses and bacteria. They are typically used in healthcare settings when there is a risk of exposure to airborne diseases, such as tuberculosis or influenza. However, for routine infection control precautions, such as hand hygiene, disposal of needles, and wearing gloves, the use of an N95 respirator is not necessary.

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20. Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media?
1. use high osmolar contrast media
2. administer an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection
3. increase the rate of injection

Explanation

Administering an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media. Antihistamines can help to prevent or reduce allergic reactions, such as hives or itching, that may occur as a result of the contrast media. However, using high osmolar contrast media or increasing the rate of injection may actually increase the risk of adverse reactions, so these options are not recommended.

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21. Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:

Explanation

Viscosity refers to the measure of a fluid's resistance to flow or its internal friction. It is determined by the thickness of the fluid, indicating how easily it flows. A fluid with high viscosity is thick and flows slowly, while a fluid with low viscosity is thin and flows quickly. Therefore, the correct answer is "thickness" as it accurately describes the property being measured when referring to a fluid's viscosity.

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22. The distance that the table travels between slices is called:

Explanation

The distance that the table travels between slices is called the table increment. This refers to the movement of the imaging table in a computed tomography (CT) scanner as it acquires multiple slices of the patient's body. The table increment determines the spacing between each slice and affects the overall image quality and accuracy of the reconstructed 3D image.

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23. The _______ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.

Explanation

The kVp (kilovolt peak) determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be. This is because kVp controls the energy of the x-ray photons produced. Higher kVp values result in more energetic photons, which can penetrate through denser tissues more effectively. Lower kVp values produce less energetic photons, which are absorbed more readily by tissues. Therefore, the kVp setting directly influences the depth of penetration and overall image quality in x-ray imaging.

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24. The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:

Explanation

The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that air passages are clear. This is crucial because an unconscious patient may not be able to maintain their airway on their own, leading to potential respiratory distress or even respiratory arrest. Clearing the air passages helps to ensure that the patient is able to breathe properly and prevents any obstruction that could compromise their oxygen supply. This is a critical step in providing immediate care to an unconscious patient and ensuring their safety and well-being.

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25. Which of the follwoing is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?
1. cataracts
2. cancer
3. decrease in life expectancy

Explanation

Repeated exposure to radiation can have long-term effects on the body. One possible effect is the development of cataracts, which are clouding of the lens of the eye. Another possible effect is the development of cancer, as radiation exposure can damage DNA and increase the risk of abnormal cell growth. Additionally, repeated exposure to radiation can lead to a decrease in life expectancy, as it can cause various health problems and increase the risk of developing serious illnesses. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, & 3) are possible long-term effects of repeated exposure to radiation.

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26. Exams to rule out ___________ would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest
1. lymphoma
2. hilar mass
3. aortic dissection

Explanation

Exams to rule out lymphoma, hilar mass, and aortic dissection would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest. This suggests that all three conditions can be evaluated using contrast-enhanced imaging techniques such as CT scans or MRI scans with contrast. By using IV contrast media, the radiologists can better visualize and assess any abnormalities or lesions in the lymph nodes, hilar region, or aorta, which can help in diagnosing these conditions. Therefore, all three options, 1, 2, and 3, are correct.

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27. An indication for IV contrast injection is  to rule  out:

Explanation

IV contrast injection is used to enhance the visibility of certain structures in medical imaging, such as CT scans or MRI scans. Meningioma is a type of brain tumor that can be difficult to detect without contrast enhancement. Therefore, an indication for IV contrast injection would be to rule out the presence of a meningioma. This is because the contrast agent can help distinguish the tumor from surrounding healthy brain tissue, making it easier to diagnose or rule out meningioma.

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28. The heating unit on a power injector is for _________________ of the contrast agent.

Explanation

The heating unit on a power injector is used to decrease the viscosity of the contrast agent. Heating the contrast agent reduces its thickness and makes it easier to inject into the patient's bloodstream. This helps to ensure a smooth and efficient injection process, as a lower viscosity allows the contrast agent to flow more easily through the injector and into the patient's body.

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29. The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is __________ the patient's tissues.
1. reflected off of
2. attenuated by
3. generated by

Explanation

The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is attenuated by the patient's tissues. This means that the beam is weakened or reduced in intensity as it passes through the different structures and organs in the body. Attenuation occurs due to the absorption and scattering of the x-rays by the tissues, which helps create the detailed images produced by the CT scan.

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30. When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?
1. re-scan the region using thinner slices
2. re-scan the region using a lower pitch
3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap

Explanation

Retrospectively reconstructing the slices so that they overlap can help in better visualizing the suspicious area without increasing the dose to the patient. This technique involves reconstructing the images in a way that the slices overlap, providing a more detailed and comprehensive view of the area of interest. This can be particularly useful in identifying subtle abnormalities and improving diagnostic accuracy. Rescanning the region using thinner slices or a lower pitch may also help in visualizing the suspicious area, but these options would involve increasing the dose to the patient.

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31. Which of the follwoing characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance?
1. concentration of iodine
2. osmolality
3. viscosity

Explanation

The concentration of iodine in an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance because a higher concentration can cause more side effects such as nausea and allergic reactions. Osmolality also affects patient tolerance as a higher osmolality can lead to discomfort and a sensation of heat or cold at the injection site. Viscosity, or the thickness of the contrast agent, can affect patient tolerance as a higher viscosity can cause pain or discomfort during injection. Therefore, all three characteristics (concentration of iodine, osmolality, and viscosity) can have an impact on patient tolerance.

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32. The________ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation scanner.
1. x-ray tube
2. patient table
3. detector elements

Explanation

During a helical scan on a third-generation scanner, all three components mentioned in the options - the x-ray tube, patient table, and detector elements - move. The x-ray tube moves in a circular motion around the patient, emitting x-rays from different angles. The patient table moves longitudinally, allowing the patient to be scanned continuously. The detector elements also move synchronously with the x-ray tube and capture the x-rays that pass through the patient, producing the necessary data for image reconstruction. Therefore, all three components are involved in the helical scan process.

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33. If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are not changed, the dose is:

Explanation

When the mA of a brain scan is doubled, it means that the current passing through the brain is increased. This increase in current leads to an increase in the dose of radiation delivered to the brain. Therefore, the dose is doubled.

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34. Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears?

Explanation

Noise is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears. Noise in CT images refers to random variations in pixel values, which can result in a loss of image clarity and detail. Higher levels of noise can make the image appear more grainy or speckled, while lower levels of noise result in a smoother image appearance. Therefore, the level of noise in a CT image directly affects its overall quality and can impact the ability to accurately diagnose and interpret the image.

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35. Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:

Explanation

According to HIPAA guidelines, a patient's medical information should only be shared with another employee if it is necessary for them to perform their job duties. This ensures that patient privacy and confidentiality are maintained. Sharing medical information for personal reasons or to make jokes about the patient's condition is a violation of HIPAA regulations.

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36. Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?

Explanation

An adult blood pressure reading of 160/100 is considered abnormal because it indicates hypertension, or high blood pressure. Normal blood pressure for adults is typically around 120/80. A reading of 160/100 suggests that the individual's blood pressure is significantly higher than the normal range, which can increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and other health complications. Therefore, it is important to monitor and manage high blood pressure to maintain overall health and well-being.

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37. A CT number calibration test should be performed:

Explanation

A CT number calibration test should be performed daily to ensure accurate and consistent results. Daily testing helps identify any variations or drift in the CT scanner's performance, allowing for timely adjustments and calibration. This is crucial in maintaining the quality and reliability of the CT images produced. Regular calibration also helps in detecting any potential issues or malfunctions early on, minimizing the risk of diagnostic errors and ensuring patient safety. Therefore, performing a CT number calibration test on a daily basis is necessary for optimal performance and accuracy of the CT scanner.

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38. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1. the amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized.
2. digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy.
3. digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals.

Explanation

The given answer is correct because all three statements are true. Statement 1 is true because the amplified electrical signal from detectors in CT scans needs to be converted into digital form for further processing and analysis. Statement 2 is true because digital CT images are indeed numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy, allowing for detailed analysis and manipulation. Statement 3 is true because digital signals can be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals, which is a common method of converting analog signals into digital form.

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39. If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?

Explanation

An image matrix with 360 rows and 360 columns would have a total of 360 x 360 = 129,600 pixels.

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40. Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?
1. a greater volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time
2. a given volume of anatomy can be covered faster
3. radiation dose to the patient can be increased

Explanation

Increasing the pitch in this context refers to increasing the speed at which a given volume of anatomy can be covered during a medical procedure. This allows for a greater volume of anatomy to be covered in a given time, as well as enabling the coverage of a given volume of anatomy at a faster rate. Increasing the pitch does not have any direct impact on the radiation dose to the patient, so option 3 is not correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1 & 2.

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41. Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying the distal small intestine?
1. an ionic iodinated contrast agent
2. a non-ionic iodinated contrast agent
3. barium sulfate

Explanation

Barium sulfate is the better oral contrast agent for opacifying the distal small intestine. Barium sulfate is a radiopaque substance that is not absorbed by the body and provides excellent visualization of the gastrointestinal tract. It is commonly used in imaging studies such as barium swallow or barium enema to evaluate the structure and function of the digestive system. Ionic and non-ionic iodinated contrast agents are typically used for opacifying other parts of the body, such as blood vessels or organs, and are not as effective in opacifying the distal small intestine.

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42. Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other parameters are the same?

Explanation

The patient dose is determined by the product of mA (milliamperage) and rotation time. In this case, all other parameters are the same except for mA and rotation time. The higher the mA and the longer the rotation time, the higher the patient dose. Therefore, the combination of mA=150 and rotation time=3 sec has the highest patient dose compared to the other options.

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43. A normal adult has _______resperations per minute.

Explanation

The correct answer is 12-20. This range represents the normal respiratory rate for an adult. It is the average number of breaths a person takes per minute when at rest. A respiratory rate within this range indicates that the person's lungs and respiratory system are functioning properly.

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44. A pixel is a :

Explanation

A pixel is a single 2D picture element within the image plane. In digital imaging, an image is composed of a grid of pixels, each representing a specific color or intensity value. Pixels are the smallest units of an image, and they come together to form the overall picture. Each pixel contains information about its position and color, allowing it to be displayed on a screen or printed on paper. Therefore, a pixel is a fundamental building block of a digital image, representing a specific point in the 2D space of the image plane.

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45. A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected for a(n)_________ exam.

Explanation

A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically not selected for an internal auditory canals exam because this type of filter is used to remove high-frequency noise and artifacts from images. However, the internal auditory canals exam focuses on imaging the structures within the ear, specifically the pathway for sound transmission, and does not require the removal of high-frequency noise. Therefore, a smooth reconstruction filter is not necessary for this type of exam.

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46. Which of the followingis the conversion equation from CT number to housfield unit?

Explanation

The correct answer is CT number = hounsfield unit. This equation states that the CT number is equal to the Hounsfield unit. The Hounsfield unit is a quantitative measurement used in computed tomography (CT) imaging to represent the radiodensity of tissues. The CT number is a way to convert the Hounsfield unit into a numerical value that can be used for diagnostic purposes.

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47. There are ____________ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix

Explanation

A 1024 x 1024 matrix has a total of 1,048,576 pixels.

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48. Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial volume averaging?

Explanation

Partial volume averaging refers to the phenomenon where the image resolution is compromised due to the mixing of different tissue types within a voxel. A thicker slice results in a larger volume of tissue being included in the voxel, increasing the likelihood of different tissue types being present within it. This leads to an averaging effect, where the resulting pixel value represents a mixture of the different tissues. Therefore, slice thickness is responsible for partial volume averaging.

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49. CTA images come from a __________ scan.
1. conventional, or serial
2. helical
3. localizer

Explanation

CTA images come from a helical scan. Helical scanning is a technique used in computed tomography (CT) imaging where the x-ray tube rotates continuously while the patient is moved through the scanner. This allows for a continuous spiral or helical path of data acquisition, resulting in high-resolution images. Conventional or serial scans involve stopping the patient at various intervals to acquire images, while a localizer scan is used to determine the exact position and orientation of the patient before acquiring the actual images. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only, as CTA images specifically come from a helical scan.

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50. If a reconstruction FOV of 32cm and a 512x512 matrix are used, the pixel size is _____________mm.

Explanation

The pixel size can be calculated by dividing the reconstruction FOV by the matrix size. In this case, the reconstruction FOV is 32cm and the matrix size is 512x512. Dividing 32 by 512 gives a result of 0.0625cm. Since the pixel size is usually expressed in millimeters, we convert 0.0625cm to mm, which gives a pixel size of 0.625x0.625mm.

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51. If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the pituitary, and 2.4 cm of coverage, ______ slices are necessary?

Explanation

If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the pituitary and 2.4 cm of coverage, the number of slices necessary can be calculated by dividing the coverage by the slice thickness. In this case, 2.4 cm (or 24 mm) divided by 2 mm gives us 12, indicating that 12 slices are necessary to cover the desired area.

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52. Which of the following values from pitch would stretch the x-ray helix the most?

Explanation

The pitch value determines the distance between each turn of the x-ray helix. A higher pitch value means a larger distance between each turn, resulting in a stretched helix. Therefore, a pitch value of 1.5 would stretch the x-ray helix the most compared to the other given values.

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53. _______mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.

Explanation

80 mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults. Diastolic pressure refers to the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats. Normal diastolic pressure for adults is typically considered to be less than 80 mm Hg. This indicates that the blood vessels are relaxed and the heart is effectively pumping blood throughout the body. Higher diastolic pressure can indicate hypertension, while lower diastolic pressure may be a sign of low blood pressure.

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54. A normal pulse rate for an infant is __________ BPM.

Explanation

The normal pulse rate for an infant is 140 beats per minute (BPM). This is because infants have a higher heart rate compared to older children and adults. A higher heart rate is necessary to meet the metabolic demands of their growing bodies.

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55. ___________________ is the mathematical process used by single row detector scanners to reconstruct CT image from raw data.

Explanation

Filtered back projection is the mathematical process used by single row detector scanners to reconstruct CT images from raw data. This process involves filtering the raw data and then back projecting it onto a two-dimensional image space. The filtering helps to remove noise and artifacts from the raw data, while the back projection reconstructs the image by tracing the path of the X-ray beams through the patient's body. This technique is widely used in CT imaging as it allows for fast and accurate reconstruction of images.

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56. The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single detector is called a:

Explanation

The correct answer is "ray" because in x-ray imaging, a fan beam is used to project a narrow section onto a single detector. This narrow section is referred to as a "ray" because it represents a straight line of x-ray radiation that is emitted from the source and passes through the patient's body before reaching the detector. The term "ray" accurately describes the pencil thin section of the fan beam that strikes a single detector.

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57. Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the patient?

Explanation

Decreasing the distance from the x-ray tube to the patient does not minimize the radiation dose to the patient. The closer the patient is to the x-ray tube, the higher the radiation dose received. Therefore, increasing the distance between the x-ray tube and the patient would actually minimize the radiation dose.

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58. Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling?
1. a claustrophobic patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a prescription sedative.
2. time can be saved the day of the exam by skipping the screening process
3. if it has been determined that the patient has no prior illness of conditions, monitoring is unnecessary

Explanation

If the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling, it means that the medical staff already has information about the patient's claustrophobia. Therefore, it is true that a claustrophobic patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a prescription sedative, as the medical staff would have already taken this into account and made the necessary arrangements.

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59. Which of the follwoing is a common patient reaction to IV contrast media?
1. warmth at the injection site
2. headache
3. nausea

Explanation

A common patient reaction to IV contrast media includes warmth at the injection site, headache, and nausea. These reactions are often seen in patients who receive IV contrast media during medical procedures.

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60. The definition of osmolality is the ________________ the contrast agent solution.

Explanation

Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of molecular particles in a solution. It determines the number of solute particles present in a solvent, regardless of their size or charge. Osmolality is important in medical and laboratory settings as it helps in understanding the osmotic pressure and the movement of water across cell membranes.

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61. Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:
1. enhance structures because they are absorbed into the blood stream
2. enhance structures because they are absorbed through the small intestine
3. pass through the GI tract unchanged

Explanation

Contrast agents containing barium sulfate pass through the GI tract unchanged. This means that they are not absorbed into the bloodstream or through the small intestine. Instead, they remain in the GI tract and provide contrast for imaging purposes, allowing for better visualization of the structures in that area.

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62. Which of the following parameters causes helical slices to be reconstructed so they overlap?

Explanation

The reconstruction interval parameter causes helical slices to be reconstructed so they overlap. This parameter determines the spacing between the reconstructed slices. If the reconstruction interval is smaller than the table increment, the slices will overlap. This can be useful in certain cases to ensure complete coverage of an area of interest or to improve image quality by reducing gaps between slices.

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63. Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral contrast media used in CT?

Explanation

Hives, or urticaria, is a skin rash characterized by raised, itchy bumps that appear suddenly and can vary in size and shape. It is typically caused by an allergic reaction to certain substances, such as medications, foods, or insect bites. While diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and flatulence are common adverse reactions to oral contrast media used in CT, hives are not typically associated with this type of contrast agent.

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64. In a _________, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA images are projected along many "rays".

Explanation

MIP stands for Maximum Intensity Projection. In this technique, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA (Computed Tomography Angiography) images are projected along multiple "rays". This allows for the visualization of the maximum intensity or brightness along each ray, resulting in a clear representation of the blood vessels or structures with the highest contrast in the images.

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65. Which of the following is the expected result of a CT number calibration test performed on a water phantom?

Explanation

A CT number calibration test performed on a water phantom is expected to result in a CT number of 0 with a tolerance of plus or minus 3. This means that the CT scanner should accurately measure the density of water and assign it a CT number of 0, with a margin of error of 3 units in either direction. This calibration ensures that the CT scanner is accurately calibrated to measure the density of other tissues and materials in the body.

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66. Which of the following would be used in a high resolution study of the temporal bone?
1. reduced slice thickness
2. reduced reconstruction FOV
3. sharp reconstruction filter

Explanation

In a high resolution study of the temporal bone, all three options would be used. A reduced slice thickness allows for thinner slices to be obtained, resulting in higher resolution images. A reduced reconstruction FOV (field of view) focuses on a smaller area, allowing for more detailed imaging of the temporal bone. A sharp reconstruction filter enhances the sharpness and clarity of the images, further improving the resolution of the study. Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are all necessary for a high resolution study of the temporal bone.

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67. A ___________ scan uses only a single projection.
1. conventional, or serial
2. helical
3. localizer

Explanation

A localizer scan uses only a single projection. This type of scan is typically used to obtain a single image that provides an overview or localization of the area of interest. It is often performed before a more detailed scan to help guide the radiologist or technician in positioning the patient and identifying the specific region to be imaged. Unlike conventional or serial scans, which involve multiple projections, a localizer scan is focused on obtaining a single image for localization purposes.

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68. CT numbers _____________ would appear black if a window width of 400 and a window level of -100 are used.

Explanation

If CT numbers below -300 are used with a window width of 400 and a window level of -100, they would appear black. This is because the window level of -100 is lower than the CT numbers below -300, causing them to fall outside the range of the window and appear as the darkest shade, which is black.

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69. Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test known as PTT?

Explanation

The correct answer is partial thromboplastin time. This laboratory test measures the time it takes for blood to clot. It is used to evaluate the effectiveness of the clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. By measuring the time it takes for blood to clot after the addition of calcium and an activator, the PTT test can help diagnose and monitor conditions such as hemophilia, liver disease, and certain clotting disorders.

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70. The result of which of the following lab tests may impart the decision to administer IV contrast media?
1 BUN
2. creatinine
3. PT

Explanation

The decision to administer IV contrast media is based on the results of lab tests such as BUN, creatinine, and PT. BUN (blood urea nitrogen) and creatinine levels are used to assess kidney function, as contrast media can potentially cause kidney damage. If these levels are within normal range, it is generally safe to administer IV contrast. PT (prothrombin time) is a test used to evaluate blood clotting ability, as contrast media can interfere with blood clotting. If the PT is abnormal, caution should be exercised when administering IV contrast. Therefore, all three lab tests (BUN, creatinine, and PT) are important in making the decision to administer IV contrast media.

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71. If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan, CTDI ____________MSAD

Explanation

If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan, it means that the CTDI (Computed Tomography Dose Index) is equal to the MSAD (Mean Slice Absorbed Dose). This is because when there is no overlap or gap, the dose delivered to the patient is evenly distributed across each slice, resulting in the CTDI being equal to the MSAD.

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72. CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of ____ minute(s) before there is a risk of brain damage.

Explanation

CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of 4 minutes before there is a risk of brain damage. During a cardiac arrest, the heart stops pumping blood to the brain and other vital organs, which can lead to brain damage if not treated promptly. CPR helps to maintain blood flow and oxygenation to the brain until advanced medical help arrives. After 4 minutes without CPR, the brain may not receive enough oxygen, increasing the risk of permanent damage. Therefore, it is crucial to initiate CPR as soon as possible to improve the chances of survival and minimize the risk of brain damage.

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73. When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is known as __________ contrast

Explanation

When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space, it is known as intraarticular contrast. This type of contrast is specifically used for imaging studies of the joints, such as arthrography, to help visualize the structures within the joint space. Intraarticular contrast allows for enhanced visualization and assessment of the joint structures, such as ligaments, tendons, and cartilage, which can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various joint conditions and injuries.

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74. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
1. repirators are not allowed in the CT suite
2. pulse oximeters are allowed the CT suite
3. the patient should be removed form the CT suite to treat cardiac arrest

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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75. Making up the ARRT standard of ethics are the code of ethics, which is __________, and the rules of ethics, which are _____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "a conduct guideline, enforceable." The ARRT standard of ethics is made up of a code of ethics, which serves as a conduct guideline, and the rules of ethics, which are enforceable. This means that the code of ethics provides guidance on appropriate conduct, while the rules of ethics are binding and can be enforced to ensure ethical behavior in the profession.

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76. A delay of about ____ secounds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the neck.

Explanation

A delay of about 35 seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the neck. This delay allows enough time for the contrast to circulate and enhance the blood vessels in the neck area, providing better visibility and more accurate imaging of the structures in that region. A shorter delay may result in insufficient contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast dispersion and suboptimal imaging quality.

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77. Using _________ reconstruction filter would decrease the appearance of noise in a CT image.
1. no
2. a sharp
3. a smooth

Explanation

Using a smooth reconstruction filter would decrease the appearance of noise in a CT image. A smooth filter helps to reduce noise by averaging out the pixel values in the image, resulting in a smoother and less noisy image. A sharp filter, on the other hand, enhances the edges and details in the image, which can amplify the noise. Therefore, using a smooth reconstruction filter is the most effective way to decrease noise in a CT image.

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78. ____________ may have to be edited from the data set to get a diagnostic MIP of a CTA exam.

Explanation

To obtain a diagnostic MIP (Maximum Intensity Projection) of a CTA (Computed Tomography Angiography) exam, bones may need to be edited from the data set. This is because bones can obstruct the visualization of blood vessels and other structures of interest in the image. By removing the bones from the data set, a clearer and more accurate MIP can be generated, allowing for a better assessment of the vascular system.

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79. A kernel is a:

Explanation

A kernel is a filter applied to the CT raw data. In CT imaging, raw data is collected from the X-ray detectors and then processed to create the final image. The kernel is a mathematical filter that is applied to this raw data to enhance or modify certain aspects of the image, such as sharpness or noise reduction. By applying different kernels, the radiologist can adjust the image appearance according to the specific diagnostic needs. Therefore, a kernel is a filter applied to the CT raw data to improve the quality and diagnostic value of the resulting image.

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80. Which of the following may occur during the interscan delay of a conventional, or serial, CT scan performed on a continuous rotation scanner?
1. the table position is incremented
2. the tube continues to rotate in the same direction as during the scan
3. the tube assembly makes a 360 degree rotation.

Explanation

During the interscan delay of a conventional CT scan performed on a continuous rotation scanner, all three of the mentioned actions may occur. The table position may be incremented, allowing for the movement of the patient or object being scanned. The tube may continue to rotate in the same direction as during the scan, ensuring a continuous and smooth scanning process. Additionally, the tube assembly may make a 360-degree rotation, completing a full rotation before the next scan begins.

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81. From which of the following can the most diagnostic multi-planar reconstructions be generated?
1. stacked transverse images from a helical scan
2. stacked transverse images from a conventional, serial scan
3. stacked localizer images

Explanation

Stacked transverse images from a helical scan can generate the most diagnostic multi-planar reconstructions. Helical scanning is a technique that allows continuous acquisition of data during the scan, resulting in a volumetric dataset. This volumetric dataset can be reconstructed into various planes, including sagittal, coronal, and oblique, providing a comprehensive view of the anatomy. In contrast, conventional serial scans acquire data slice by slice, resulting in a limited dataset for multi-planar reconstructions. Stacked localizer images are typically used for initial scan planning and do not provide as much diagnostic information as the stacked transverse images from a helical scan.

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82. ________________ affects the CT number of water.

Explanation

The CT number of water is not affected by any imaging parameter. CT number is a measure of the attenuation of X-rays by a particular material, and water has a specific CT number that remains constant regardless of the imaging parameters used. The slice thickness, kVp, and mAs can affect the overall image quality and contrast, but they do not specifically impact the CT number of water.

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83. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 3D SSD?

Explanation

The volume data, from which the 3D SSD is generated, is not created by combining transverse, sagittal, and coronal reconstructions. This statement is false because the volume data for 3D SSD is typically acquired directly from the CT scanner, without the need for additional reconstructions. The 3D SSD algorithm then processes this volume data to generate the desired images.

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84. The smallest object that can be resolved if a reconstruction FOV of 24cm. and a 515x512 matrix are used is  __________mm.

Explanation

The smallest object that can be resolved is determined by the formula FOV/matrix size. In this case, the reconstruction FOV is given as 24cm and the matrix size is 515x512. By substituting these values into the formula, the smallest object that can be resolved is calculated as 0.47mm.

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85. In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for the following reason:

Explanation

The correct answer is that signed consent forms are not required by law in every state. This means that there are some states where patients are not legally required to sign consent forms. The other options listed (permission to administer contrast, permission to perform a surgical procedure, permission to administer sedation) are not the correct answer because they do not apply to all states, but rather specific medical procedures or interventions.

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86. Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding barium sulfate solutions used in
CT?

Explanation

Barium sulfate solutions used in CT scans are less concentrated than those used in conventional radiography. This is because CT scans require a lower concentration of barium sulfate to achieve the desired contrast, compared to conventional radiography. The lower concentration helps to minimize any potential side effects or adverse reactions that may occur from the use of barium sulfate.

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87. The hepatic arterial phase occurs about ______________seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection.

Explanation

The hepatic arterial phase occurs approximately 20 to 40 seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection. This phase is characterized by the enhancement of the hepatic arteries, which supply oxygenated blood to the liver. During this phase, the contrast agent reaches the liver and enhances the arterial blood vessels, allowing for better visualization of the hepatic arterial system on imaging studies such as CT scans or MRI.

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88. Which of the following is NOT directly proportional to mAs?

Explanation

The mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube is not directly proportional to mAs. This means that as the mAs increases, the mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube does not necessarily increase. The mean energy of the x-ray photons is determined by factors such as the kilovoltage (kVp) setting on the x-ray machine, which affects the penetration and energy of the x-rays. The mAs, on the other hand, determines the quantity of x-rays produced. Therefore, while increasing the mAs will increase the number of x-ray photons and the dose to the patient, it does not directly affect the mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube.

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89. A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:
1. kidneys are not removing waste products from the urine
2. patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media
3. value is below the normal range

Explanation

A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates that the patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media. This is because IV contrast media can put additional strain on the kidneys, and a high creatinine level suggests that the kidneys are already not functioning properly. Therefore, it would be risky to administer IV contrast media to the patient in this case.

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90. Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of iofinated oral contrast media because:
1. it passes through the GI tract more quickly
2. the trauma patient may have a perforated bowel
3. the contrast media stays more dense in the distal GI tract

Explanation

Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of iodinated oral contrast media because it stays more dense in the distal GI tract. This is important for imaging purposes as it allows for better visualization of the lower gastrointestinal tract. Additionally, barium sulfate passes through the GI tract more quickly, which can be beneficial in certain situations. However, it is not selected specifically because of a potential perforated bowel in trauma patients, as both types of contrast media can be problematic in this scenario. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only.

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91. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a helical study compared to a conventional, serial CT study?

Explanation

A helical study is a type of CT scan that uses a continuous spiral motion to capture images of the body. One advantage of a helical study is that it minimizes anatomical mis-registration caused by inconsistent breath holding. This means that the images obtained are more accurate and aligned properly. Another advantage is that it allows for shorter total exam time, as the continuous motion eliminates the need to stop and reposition the patient between each scan. Additionally, a helical study can retrospectively reconstruct a slice at any arbitrary position, providing flexibility in image analysis. However, the given answer states that a helical study does not offer the best image quality for a brain exam, suggesting that other types of CT studies may provide better image quality specifically for brain examinations.

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92. Which of the following tissues appears the brightest (most radiodense) on a typical computed tomography (CT) scan without contrast?

Explanation

On a CT scan, bone appears the brightest because it is highly radiodense, meaning it absorbs more X-rays compared to other tissues like muscle, fat, or air. This high density results in a bright white appearance on the scan. Air in the lungs appears black, while fat and muscle appear in shades of gray. CT scans are widely used to assess bone injuries, internal organs, and other abnormalities by differentiating tissue densities.

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93. An increase in _____________ will result in hardening of an x-ray beam.
1. tissue density
2. tissue thickness
3. kVp

Explanation

An increase in tissue density, tissue thickness, and kVp (kilovolt peak) will result in hardening of an x-ray beam. When tissue density increases, more photons are absorbed by the tissue, causing the remaining photons to have higher energy and a harder beam. Similarly, an increase in tissue thickness results in more absorption and a harder beam. Finally, increasing the kVp increases the energy of the x-ray photons, leading to a harder beam. Therefore, all three factors contribute to the hardening of an x-ray beam.

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94. On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT decrease the patient dose?

Explanation

Decreasing the slice thickness while covering the same anatomical region does not decrease the patient dose. The slice thickness refers to the thickness of each image slice that is obtained during a scan. By decreasing the slice thickness, more slices are obtained, resulting in a higher image resolution. However, this does not affect the patient dose as it does not involve any change in the radiation exposure. The other options mentioned in the question, such as decreasing the scan time, reformatting the data, or increasing the pitch, can all potentially decrease the patient dose.

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95. A blood urea nitrogen level of ____ mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.
1. 10
2. 18
3. 32

Explanation

A blood urea nitrogen level of 32 mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.

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96. Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?

Explanation

Convulsive seizures are not a typical indication of shock. Shock is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is inadequate blood flow and oxygen delivery to the body's organs and tissues. Common signs of shock include hypotension (low blood pressure), tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and a grayish skin tone. Convulsive seizures, on the other hand, are not directly related to shock and may be caused by other underlying conditions such as epilepsy or a neurological disorder.

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97. Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the basillic vein?

Explanation

The cephalic vein is a less desirable site for injection compared to the basilic vein because flow may be impeded as the patient's arms are raised. When the arms are raised, the blood flow in the cephalic vein can be restricted, making it difficult to administer medication or draw blood effectively. In contrast, the basilic vein is not affected by arm movement and provides better blood flow for injection purposes.

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98. The osmolality of plasma is ________ mOsm/kg

Explanation

The osmolality of plasma refers to the concentration of solutes in the plasma. It is measured in milliosmoles per kilogram (mOsm/kg). The correct answer, 285 mOsm/kg, represents the osmolality of plasma. This value indicates the concentration of solutes in the plasma, which is important for maintaining the balance of fluids and electrolytes in the body.

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99. Which of the following is a reconstruction technique applied to the raw data after the primary reconstruction has already been accomplished?

Explanation

Retrospective reconstruction is a technique applied to the raw data after the primary reconstruction has already been accomplished. It involves reprocessing the data using different parameters or algorithms to obtain additional information or improve the image quality. This technique allows for a more detailed analysis and interpretation of the data, and can be particularly useful in cases where the initial reconstruction did not provide sufficient information or clarity.

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100. Which of the following are possible results of partial voluming?
1. decreased sharpness of edges
2. misleading CT numbers
3. improvement in resolution

Explanation

Partial voluming refers to the mixing of different tissues within a voxel, resulting in a loss of sharpness at the edges of structures. This can lead to a decreased sharpness of edges (option 1) and also to misleading CT numbers (option 2). Option 3, improvement in resolution, is not a possible result of partial voluming.

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101. On MDCT, the final reconstructed slice thickness is determined by the:

Explanation

The final reconstructed slice thickness on MDCT is determined by the number of rows of detectors and the size of the detectors whose attenuation data gets combined. The more rows of detectors and the smaller the size of the detectors, the higher the spatial resolution and the thinner the reconstructed slice thickness. This is because more detectors and smaller detector size allow for more detailed information to be collected and combined, resulting in a thinner slice thickness.

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102. On a conventional, or serial, CT scan, if we want 5mm slices with 1mm of overlap, the table increment should be _______mm.

Explanation

The table increment should be 4mm because in a conventional CT scan, the table increment is equal to the slice thickness minus the overlap. In this case, the slice thickness is 5mm and the overlap is 1mm, so the table increment would be 5mm - 1mm = 4mm.

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103. To best visualize the stomach wall, which of the following should the patient drink last?
1. iodinated oral contrast media
2. water
3. barium sulfate oral contrast

Explanation

Drinking water last would be the best option to visualize the stomach wall. This is because water does not interfere with the imaging process and does not contain any contrast agents. Contrast agents such as iodinated oral contrast media and barium sulfate oral contrast are typically used to enhance the visibility of certain structures or abnormalities in the gastrointestinal tract. Drinking water last ensures that any residual contrast agents from previous tests are cleared from the stomach, providing a clear view of the stomach wall.

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104. A retrospective reconstruction, in which the reconstruction field-of-view is varied, uses:

Explanation

A retrospective reconstruction refers to the process of reconstructing an image using CT raw data. This raw data consists of a series of measurements taken by the CT scanner, which are then processed to create a detailed image. By varying the reconstruction field-of-view, different aspects of the image can be emphasized or highlighted. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is CT raw data.

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105. A helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is reconstructed with:

Explanation

The helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is reconstructed using cone beam reconstruction. This technique is commonly used for helical or spiral scans, where the X-ray source and detector continuously rotate around the patient as they move through the scanner. Cone beam reconstruction takes into account the cone-shaped X-ray beam and the curved path of the detector, allowing for accurate reconstruction of the 3D image from the acquired data. This method is necessary for helical scans to ensure proper image quality and spatial resolution.

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106. On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:

Explanation

A radiation penumbra refers to the blurring or fading of the edges of an image produced by a scanner. In the case of a multi-row detector scanner, the penumbra may only be found on the first and last slices of the slice volume. This is because the radiation beams used in the scanning process are typically wider than the detector rows, causing the edges of the first and last slices to be less defined. The slices in between, however, are not affected by this penumbra effect.

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107. If the slice thickness is changed from 5mm to 7mm and all other parameters are held constant, _______________ % more photons will be used in making the slice.

Explanation

If the slice thickness is changed from 5mm to 7mm and all other parameters are held constant, 40% more photons will be used in making the slice. This is because as the slice thickness increases, more photons are required to penetrate the increased depth of tissue. Therefore, a 40% increase in slice thickness will result in a 40% increase in the number of photons needed.

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108. Increasing ___________ results in lowering the patient dose.
1. pitch
2. mAs
3.table increment

Explanation

Increasing pitch and table increment both result in lowering the patient dose. Increasing pitch refers to increasing the distance between the slices in a CT scan, which reduces the amount of radiation exposure to the patient. Table increment refers to the distance the patient moves through the scanner per rotation, and increasing this distance also reduces the dose received by the patient. Therefore, options 1 and 3 are correct.

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109. Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal:

Explanation

Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal liver tissue because these agents are commonly used in medical imaging to enhance the visibility of blood vessels and organs. The liver is a highly vascular organ, meaning it has a rich blood supply, and the iodinated contrast agents can easily flow through the blood vessels in the liver, allowing for better visualization of the organ during imaging procedures.

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110. Which of the following utilizes convolution?
1. 3D SSD
2. fourier transform
3. filtered back projection

Explanation

Filtered back projection is the only option that utilizes convolution. Convolution is a mathematical operation that combines two functions to produce a third function. In the case of filtered back projection, convolution is used to filter the raw data obtained from a CT scan before reconstructing the image. This filtering process helps to remove noise and enhance the quality of the final image. Both 3D SSD and Fourier transform do not involve convolution in their operations.

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111. MDCT scanners capable of collection 64 slices in a ingle rotation do NOT:

Explanation

MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do not use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction. Filtered back projection is an older method of image reconstruction that is used in conventional CT scans. MDCT scanners use a different method called iterative reconstruction, which allows for higher image quality and reduced radiation dose. Therefore, MDCT scanners with 64-slice capabilities do not rely on filtered back projection for image reconstruction.

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112. The portal venous phase occurs about _______seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection.

Explanation

The portal venous phase occurs approximately 60 to 90 seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection. During this phase, the contrast material has reached the portal vein, which supplies blood to the liver. This phase is important for evaluating the liver and its vasculature, as well as detecting any abnormalities or lesions. Timing is crucial in order to capture the optimal enhancement of the liver parenchyma and vasculature for accurate diagnosis.

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113. What does convolution do to the image quality when it is added to the back projection reconstruction process?

Explanation

Convolution enhances important characteristics of attenuation profiles, which in turn reduces streak and star artifacts in the image. This means that the process of convolution improves the quality of the image by reducing the unwanted artifacts, resulting in a clearer and more accurate representation of the tissues.

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114. Which of the following parameters allows adjacent slices to be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient?

Explanation

The reconstruction interval refers to the distance between the centers of two adjacent slices. By increasing the reconstruction interval, the slices can be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient. This is because overlapping the slices allows for a more accurate and detailed reconstruction of the image, while maintaining a consistent dose level. By contrast, increasing the slice thickness or table increment would result in a larger gap between the slices, potentially missing important details in the image. The pitch, on the other hand, refers to the distance the table moves per rotation of the X-ray tube, and does not directly affect the overlap of the slices.

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115. For a given distance of coverage, which of the following is TRUE?
1. as reconstruction FOV increases, patient dose increases
2. as pitch increases , patient dose decreases
3. as slice thickness increases, patient dose decreases

Explanation

As per the given answer, it is true that as pitch increases, patient dose decreases. This is because pitch refers to the distance the table moves during one rotation of the CT scanner. When the pitch is higher, the table moves faster, resulting in less overlap between the slices and therefore a lower patient dose. Similarly, it is also true that as slice thickness increases, patient dose decreases. This is because thicker slices require less radiation exposure compared to thinner slices to achieve the same level of image quality.

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116. For x-ray radiation, which of the following is TRUE?

Explanation

The answer is 1 rem=1 rad. In radiation measurement, rem (roentgen equivalent in man) is a unit used to measure the biological effect of radiation on humans, while rad (radiation absorbed dose) is a unit used to measure the amount of radiation energy absorbed by an object. The statement 1 rem=1 rad means that 1 rem of radiation is equivalent to 1 rad of absorbed dose, indicating that both units represent the same amount of radiation exposure.

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117. There is substantial enhancement of the liver compared to tumors during the __________ phase, but during the _________________ phase, there is the possibility of tumor enhancement, which omay make hepatic tumors isodense with liver tissue.

Explanation

During the non-equilibrium phase, there is substantial enhancement of the liver compared to tumors. This means that the liver tissue appears brighter and stands out more compared to the tumors. However, during the equilibrium phase, there is the possibility of tumor enhancement, which may make hepatic tumors isodense with liver tissue. This means that the tumors can appear similar in brightness and density to the surrounding liver tissue, making them harder to distinguish.

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118. 3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT:
1. image data
2. raw data
3. attenuation profiles

Explanation

3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT image data. This technique involves creating a three-dimensional representation of the scanned object using the image data obtained from the CT scan. The shading is applied to the surface of the object to enhance its visual appearance and provide depth perception. Raw data refers to the unprocessed data obtained from the CT scan, and attenuation profiles are measurements of the radiation absorption by the tissues. However, neither raw data nor attenuation profiles are directly used for creating shaded surface displays. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only, indicating that shaded surface displays are performed on CT image data.

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119. Which of the following reduces patient dose at the expense of increasing the apparent noise in the image?

Explanation

Increasing the mAs (milliampere-seconds) reduces patient dose by increasing the amount of radiation used to create the image. However, this also increases the apparent noise in the image, as more radiation can result in a grainier appearance. Therefore, increasing the mAs reduces patient dose at the expense of increasing the apparent noise in the image.

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120. Which of the following is common to both localizer scan and a conventional, serial CT scan?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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121. Which of the following parameters affects the contrast of a CT image?

Explanation

The parameter that affects the contrast of a CT image is kVp. kVp stands for kilovolt peak and it determines the energy of the X-ray beam used in the CT scan. Higher kVp values result in increased X-ray penetration and lower image contrast, while lower kVp values result in decreased X-ray penetration and higher image contrast. Therefore, the choice of kVp directly affects the contrast of the CT image.

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122. Which of the following values for prothrombin time are considered outside the normal range?
1 12 sec.
2. 20 sec.
3. 30sec.

Explanation

Prothrombin time is a blood test that measures how long it takes for blood to clot. The normal range for prothrombin time is usually between 11 and 13.5 seconds. Since both options 2 and 3 have values outside this normal range (20 seconds and 30 seconds respectively), they are considered to be outside the normal range. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 & 3.

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123. A difference in density of ______HU between the aorta and the inferior vena cava would indicate the non-equilibrium phase of enhancement.

Explanation

A difference in density of 25 HU between the aorta and the inferior vena cava would indicate the non-equilibrium phase of enhancement. This means that there is a difference in the contrast enhancement between the two blood vessels, indicating that the contrast agent is still being distributed and absorbed by the tissues. This is typically seen in the early stages of contrast-enhanced imaging, where the contrast agent is being actively taken up by the blood vessels.

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124. Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on which of the following?
1. image data
2. raw data
3. attenuation profiles

Explanation

Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on image data. This technique allows for the creation of two-dimensional images from three-dimensional data, enabling visualization of structures from different angles and planes. Raw data refers to the unprocessed data acquired by the imaging system, while attenuation profiles are measurements of the attenuation of radiation as it passes through an object. However, multi-planar reconstructions are not directly performed on raw data or attenuation profiles. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.

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125. Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra
1. it occurs because the collimator is broken
2. it is radiation that extends outside of the imaging region
3. it is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD

Explanation

The radiation penumbra refers to the region where the radiation beam starts to spread out and extend beyond the intended imaging region. This occurs due to the physical properties of the radiation beam and the limitations of the collimator. It is not necessarily caused by a broken collimator, but rather a natural phenomenon. The penumbra is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD (Mean Source-to-Axis Distance), which is a parameter used to evaluate the dose distribution of the radiation beam. Therefore, both statements 2 and 3 are true regarding a radiation penumbra.

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126. If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the apparent image noise?

Explanation

Increasing the mAs (milliamperes per second) would help reduce the apparent image noise when using a thin slice. Image noise refers to random variations in brightness or color that can degrade image quality. By increasing the mAs, more X-ray photons are used to create the image, resulting in a higher signal-to-noise ratio. This means that the signal (desired image information) is stronger compared to the noise (unwanted variations), leading to a clearer and less noisy image. Therefore, increasing the mAs would help reduce the apparent image noise in this scenario.

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127. Which of the following is NOT a result of reducing the reconstruction FOV?
1. imp;roved spatial resolution
2. increased appearance of image noise
3. anatomical structures appear smaller

Explanation

Reducing the reconstruction FOV (Field of View) does not result in anatomical structures appearing smaller. This is because the FOV determines the size of the area being imaged, not the size of the structures within that area. Therefore, reducing the FOV does not affect the size of anatomical structures.

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128. Which of the following would be used to better visualize low contrast resolution? 1. decreased mAs 2 sharp reconstruction filter 3. narrow window width

Explanation



To better visualize low contrast resolution in medical imaging, which refers to the ability to distinguish subtle differences in shades of gray, the following techniques are commonly used:

Decreased mAs (milliampere-seconds): Lowering the mAs reduces the amount of radiation exposure and enhances contrast resolution by reducing scatter radiation, thereby improving image clarity.

Sharp reconstruction filter: A sharp reconstruction filter enhances edge detail and spatial resolution, which can help improve the visualization of subtle differences in contrast.
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129. What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?

Explanation

Double emulsion is the most common type of film used for recording CT images. This type of film has two layers of emulsion, which allows for better image quality and sensitivity to X-rays. The double emulsion film is designed to capture the varying densities of tissues in the body, making it ideal for CT imaging. Thermal film is not suitable for CT imaging as it is used for thermal printing. Single emulsion film is less commonly used in CT imaging. Paper is not used for recording CT images as it does not have the necessary sensitivity to X-rays.

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130. Which of the following occurs when slice thickness is redued?
1. appearance of noise in the image increases.
2. the number of photons used in making the slice decreases
3. partial volume averaging decreases

Explanation

When slice thickness is reduced, several changes occur. Firstly, the appearance of noise in the image increases. This is because reducing the slice thickness allows for more noise to be present in the image. Secondly, the number of photons used in making the slice decreases. This is because the thinner the slice, the fewer photons are able to pass through it. Lastly, partial volume averaging decreases. Partial volume averaging occurs when different tissues are present within the same voxel, and reducing the slice thickness helps to minimize this effect.

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131. Low osmolar contrast media:

Explanation

Low osmolar contrast media typically has a higher concentration of particles compared to blood. This means that it contains a greater number of particles per unit volume compared to the blood. This higher concentration allows for better visualization of blood vessels and other structures during imaging procedures. Additionally, the higher concentration of particles can help to enhance the contrast between different tissues and improve the accuracy of the diagnostic test.

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132. A delay of about ______seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the chest.

Explanation

A delay of about 25 seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the chest. This delay allows the contrast agent to circulate through the blood vessels and enhance the visualization of the chest structures during the scan. A shorter delay may result in inadequate contrast enhancement, while a longer delay may lead to excessive contrast dispersion and suboptimal imaging. Therefore, a delay of 25 seconds strikes a balance between achieving optimal contrast enhancement and minimizing potential artifacts.

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133. Which of the following is a typical scan delay following the start of the injection for helical CT examinations of the pancreas?

Explanation

A typical scan delay following the start of the injection for helical CT examinations of the pancreas is 50 to 60 seconds. This delay allows the contrast material to circulate through the blood vessels in the pancreas, ensuring optimal visualization of the organ during the scan. Waiting too long may result in the contrast material being washed out, while scanning too early may result in inadequate enhancement of the pancreas. Therefore, a delay of 50 to 60 seconds strikes a balance between ensuring sufficient contrast enhancement and minimizing the risk of contrast material washout.

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134. ____________ allows helical data to be converted into planar raw data.

Explanation

Interpolation is the correct answer because it is a mathematical technique used to estimate values between known data points. In the context of converting helical data into planar raw data, interpolation can be used to fill in the missing information and create a smooth, continuous image. It helps to reconstruct the data by estimating the values at positions that were not directly sampled, allowing for a more complete representation of the original helical data in a planar format.

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135. _____________ yields an image that appears 3D but also shows anatomical details above and below the 3D surface.

Explanation

VR stands for virtual reality. Virtual reality technology can create a realistic and immersive 3D environment. In the context of medical imaging, VR can be used to visualize anatomical structures in a way that gives the illusion of depth and allows the user to explore the image from different angles. This technology can provide a more comprehensive understanding of the anatomical details by showing structures both above and below the 3D surface, making it the correct answer for the given question.

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136. MIP images:

Explanation

MIP (Maximum Intensity Projection) images are a type of visualization technique commonly used to display air-filled spaces in medical imaging. They are not able to be run in a cine loop, which means they cannot be displayed as a continuous moving image. MIP images are most accurate when a large volume of interest is selected, allowing for a comprehensive view of the air-filled spaces. However, they do not demonstrate detail beneath the brightest pixel, meaning that any structures or information below the brightest point may not be visible in the image.

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137. ________ the window ____________ will make the image appear darker so that bony structures can be evaluated.

Explanation

By increasing the level of the window, the image will appear darker. This is because the level controls the midpoint of the image's grayscale range, and increasing it shifts the midpoint towards the darker end. This adjustment is useful for evaluating bony structures, as it enhances their visibility by reducing the overall brightness of the image.

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138. A set of imges is reconstructed with a 150mm reconstruction FOV. keeping all other parameters constant, a second set of images is reconstructed with a 300mm reconstruction FOV, and then magnified so that the anatomical structures in the first and second set appear the same size. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
1. the resolution of the second set of images is better than the first set
2. the apparent noise in the second set of images is more pronounced than the first set
3. the patient dose of the first set of images is higher than the second set

Explanation

The statement that is FALSE is 1, 2, & 3. This means that all of the statements are true. The resolution of the second set of images is better than the first set because the reconstruction FOV is larger. The apparent noise in the second set of images is more pronounced because the images are magnified. And finally, the patient dose of the first set of images is higher than the second set because a larger FOV requires more radiation exposure.

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139. If a calcification with a CT number of +300 appears pure white on an image, which of the following could be the window width and window level selected?
1. window level = 0, window width = 500
2. window level = +300, window width =500
3. window level = +100, window width = 1000

Explanation

If a calcification with a CT number of +300 appears pure white on an image, it means that the window level is set to a value higher than +300. Option 1 suggests a window level of 0, which is lower than +300, and therefore the calcification would not appear pure white. Option 2 suggests a window level of +300, which matches the CT number of the calcification, and the window width of 500 would determine the contrast of the image. Option 3 suggests a window level of +100, which is lower than +300, and therefore the calcification would not appear pure white. Therefore, the correct answer is 1 only.

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140. Which of the follwong is a result of injecting a hypertonic solution into the vascular space?

Explanation

When a hypertonic solution is injected into the vascular space, there is a higher concentration of solutes in the solution compared to the surrounding cells and tissues. This creates a hypertonic environment, causing water to move from the cells and tissues into the vascular space in an attempt to equalize the concentration. Therefore, there is a net movement of water into the vascular space.

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141. Which of the following does NOT occur when reconstruction FOV is decreased?
1. spatial resolution is increased
2. pixel size is increased
3. noise in the image increases

Explanation

When the reconstruction FOV is decreased, it means that the field of view for the reconstructed image is smaller. This does not affect the spatial resolution, as it refers to the ability to distinguish between two closely spaced objects. However, when the FOV is decreased, the pixel size of the image increases, which means that each pixel represents a larger area. This can result in a decrease in image detail and clarity. Additionally, reducing the FOV can also increase the noise in the image, as the smaller FOV may amplify any random variations or artifacts present in the data. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 only.

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142. The contrast between a lesion and the surrounding tissue may _____________ following the injection of contrast media.
1. improve
2. remain unchanged
3. be degraded

Explanation

The contrast between a lesion and the surrounding tissue may improve, remain unchanged, or be degraded following the injection of contrast media. This means that the contrast media can have different effects on the visibility of the lesion compared to the surrounding tissue. It can either enhance the contrast, not have any effect on it, or even decrease the contrast. Therefore, all three options (1, 2, & 3) are correct.

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143. Which of the following could be the dose experienced by the pituitary from a typical CT brain scan?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 rads. The dose experienced by the pituitary from a typical CT brain scan is measured in rads, which is a unit of absorbed radiation dose. The other options, 9 rads, 5 mGy, and 1 mGy, are not the correct units of measurement for the dose experienced by the pituitary.

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144. Which of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast agents?
1. ionic agents are charged ions
2. ionic agents dissociate into ions in solution
3. ionic agents ionize tissues they contact

Explanation

Ionic contrast agents are substances that are used in medical imaging to enhance the visibility of certain tissues or structures. The given answer states that ionic agents dissociate into ions in solution, which is true. Ionic agents are composed of charged particles, and when they are dissolved in a solution, they break apart into their constituent ions. This dissociation allows the contrast agent to interact with tissues and enhance the image quality during medical imaging procedures. The other statements, 1 and 3, are not mentioned in the answer and therefore cannot be confirmed as true.

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145. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
1. magnification requires the raw data
2. increasing magnification increases resolution
3. magnification decreases the size of displayed anatomy

Explanation

The given answer states that statements 1, 2, and 3 are all false. However, upon analyzing the statements, we can see that statement 1 is true because magnification does require raw data. Statement 2 is also true because increasing magnification does increase resolution. Therefore, the given answer is incorrect.

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146. The ______________ determines the intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera.
1. intensifying grid
2. pixel values in the image data
3. mgnifying power of the lens

Explanation

The pixel values in the image data determine the intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera. This is because the image data captured by the camera represents the intensity of the laser beam at each pixel. By analyzing these pixel values, the intensity of the laser beam can be determined. The intensifying grid and magnifying power of the lens may affect other aspects of the image, but they do not directly determine the intensity of the laser beam.

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147. Which of the following is associated with a bi-phasic study of the liver?
1. differentiation of lesions with arterial and portal venous blood supplies
2. two injection rates used during the study
3. two images for each slice position

Explanation

A bi-phasic study of the liver involves two different phases of imaging. In this case, the correct answer is 1 & 3 because both options involve two different aspects of the study. Option 1 mentions the differentiation of lesions with arterial and portal venous blood supplies, indicating that two different types of blood supply are being studied. Option 3 mentions two images for each slice position, indicating that two images are being taken for each specific area of the liver. Therefore, both options 1 and 3 are associated with a bi-phasic study of the liver.

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148. A CT system manufacturer has a scanner in which the focal spot of the x-ray beam can move to two, slightly separated distinct locations. What benefis does the dual focal spot provide compared to an identical scanner possessing a single focal spot?
1. the number of projections is doubled
2. the numble of rays in a single projection is doubled
3. the patient dose halved

Explanation

The dual focal spot in the CT scanner allows for the number of projections to be doubled. This means that more images can be obtained from different angles, providing a more comprehensive view of the patient's anatomy. This can lead to improved image quality and accuracy in diagnosis. However, the dual focal spot does not directly affect the number of rays in a single projection or the patient dose, so options 2 and 3 are not correct.

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149. The actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all projections during a scan is contained in CT ____________ data.
1. image
2. convolved
3. raw

Explanation

CT image data contains the actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all projections during a scan. This data is obtained by convolving the raw data, which is also included in the CT image data. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, & 3.

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150. In which technique are tissues other than the surface of structure excluded by setting a threshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold?

Explanation

Multi-planar reconstruction is a technique in which tissues other than the surface of a structure are excluded by setting a threshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold. This technique allows for the creation of multiple planes or slices through a 3D volume, which can be viewed individually or in combination to provide a comprehensive understanding of the structure's internal features. By eliminating pixels that do not meet the threshold criteria, only the desired tissues are visualized, enhancing the clarity and accuracy of the reconstructed images.

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151. An increase in ___________ does NOT occur in the resulting images when applying a sharp, or high-pass reconstruction filter during the image reconstruction of CT raw data.
1. contrast resolution
2. edge enhancement
3. the appearance of noise

Explanation

When applying a sharp or high-pass reconstruction filter during the image reconstruction of CT raw data, an increase in contrast resolution and edge enhancement may occur. However, the appearance of noise does not increase. Therefore, the correct answer is 3 only.

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152. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the slice thickness of an image reconstructed from a helical scan?
1. on a multi-row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation.
2. on a single-row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation.
3. on a single-row detector scanner, the thickness can be varied retrospectively.

Explanation

The correct answer is 2 & 3. On a single-row detector scanner, the thickness of the image slice is equal to the beam collimation. Additionally, on a single-row detector scanner, the thickness can be varied retrospectively, meaning that it can be adjusted or changed after the scan has been completed. This allows for greater flexibility and customization in the resulting image.

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153. Which of the following will result in an increased voxel size?
1. decreased reconstruction FOV
2. increased slice thickness
3. increased matrix

Explanation

Increasing the slice thickness will result in an increased voxel size. Voxel size refers to the volume of each pixel in a 3D image. When the slice thickness is increased, each slice will have a larger volume, leading to larger voxels. This means that the image will have lower spatial resolution, as smaller details will be less accurately represented. The other options, decreased reconstruction FOV and increased matrix, do not directly affect voxel size.

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154. Which of the following can be changed retrospectively?
1. the slice thickness from an MDCT helical scan
2. the slice overlap from a single-row detector scanner hlical scan
3. the slice thickness from a single=row detector scanner helical scan

Explanation

The correct answer is 1 & 2. Both the slice thickness from an MDCT helical scan and the slice overlap from a single-row detector scanner helical scan can be changed retrospectively. This means that after the scan has been completed, these parameters can be adjusted or modified. However, the slice thickness from a single-row detector scanner helical scan cannot be changed retrospectively.

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Renal function refers to which of the following organs?
Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient...
Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV...
What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?
Which type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?1. internal hard...
Which of the follwoing may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray...
Platelets are small:
The most common catheter size used in CT is ______ gauge.
If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the...
IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray...
During a CT scan , the patient must be monitored:
A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:
How long does it take to inject 150ML of contrast media with an...
The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:
To modify a standard CT protocol so that it is appropriate for...
The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by :
Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?1....
A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. She is...
Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution use with all...
Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting...
Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:
The distance that the table travels between slices is called:
The _______ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.
The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient...
Which of the follwoing is a possible long-term effect of repeated...
Exams to rule out ___________ would indicate the use of IV contrast...
An indication for IV contrast injection is  to rule  out:
The heating unit on a power injector is for _________________ of the...
The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is __________ the patient's...
When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious...
Which of the follwoing characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects...
The________ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation...
If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters...
Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible...
Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical...
Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?
A CT number calibration test should be performed:
Which of the following statements are TRUE?1. the amplified electrical...
If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are...
Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?1. a greater...
Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying...
Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other...
A normal adult has _______resperations per minute.
A pixel is a :
A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected...
Which of the followingis the conversion equation from CT number to...
There are ____________ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix
Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial volume...
CTA images come from a __________ scan.1. conventional, or serial2....
If a reconstruction FOV of 32cm and a 512x512 matrix are used, the...
If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the...
Which of the following values from pitch would stretch the x-ray helix...
_______mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.
A normal pulse rate for an infant is __________ BPM.
___________________ is the mathematical process used by single row...
The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single...
Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the...
Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was...
Which of the follwoing is a common patient reaction to IV contrast...
The definition of osmolality is the ________________ the contrast...
Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:1. enhance structures...
Which of the following parameters causes helical slices to be...
Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral...
In a _________, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA images...
Which of the following is the expected result of a CT number...
Which of the following would be used in a high resolution study of the...
A ___________ scan uses only a single projection.1. conventional, or...
CT numbers _____________ would appear black if a window width of 400...
Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test...
The result of which of the following lab tests may impart the decision...
If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan,...
CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum...
When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is...
Which of the following statements is TRUE?1. repirators are not...
Making up the ARRT standard of ethics are the code of ethics, which is...
A delay of about ____ secounds after the start of the IV contrast...
Using _________ reconstruction filter would decrease the appearance of...
____________ may have to be edited from the data set to get a...
A kernel is a:
Which of the following may occur during the interscan delay of a...
From which of the following can the most diagnostic multi-planar...
________________ affects the CT number of water.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 3D SSD?
The smallest object that can be resolved if a reconstruction FOV of...
In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for...
Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding barium sulfate solutions used...
The hepatic arterial phase occurs about ______________seconds after...
Which of the following is NOT directly proportional to mAs?
A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:1. kidneys are not...
Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of...
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a helical study compared...
Which of the following tissues appears the brightest (most radiodense)...
An increase in _____________ will result in hardening of an x-ray...
On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT...
A blood urea nitrogen level of ____ mg/dl is considered outside the...
Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?
Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the...
The osmolality of plasma is ________ mOsm/kg
Which of the following is a reconstruction technique applied to the...
Which of the following are possible results of partial voluming?1....
On MDCT, the final reconstructed slice thickness is determined by the:
On a conventional, or serial, CT scan, if we want 5mm slices with 1mm...
To best visualize the stomach wall, which of the following should the...
A retrospective reconstruction, in which the reconstruction...
A helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is reconstructed...
On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:
If the slice thickness is changed from 5mm to 7mm and all other...
Increasing ___________ results in lowering the patient dose.1. pitch2....
Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal:
Which of the following utilizes convolution?1. 3D SSD2. fourier...
MDCT scanners capable of collection 64 slices in a ingle rotation do...
The portal venous phase occurs about _______seconds after the start of...
What does convolution do to the image quality when it is added to the...
Which of the following parameters allows adjacent slices to be...
For a given distance of coverage, which of the following is TRUE?1. as...
For x-ray radiation, which of the following is TRUE?
There is substantial enhancement of the liver compared to tumors...
3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT:1. image data2. raw...
Which of the following reduces patient dose at the expense of...
Which of the following is common to both localizer scan and a...
Which of the following parameters affects the contrast of a CT image?
Which of the following values for prothrombin time are considered...
A difference in density of ______HU between the aorta and the inferior...
Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on which of the...
Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra1. it...
If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the...
Which of the following is NOT a result of reducing the reconstruction...
Which of the following would be used to better visualize low contrast...
What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?
Which of the following occurs when slice thickness is redued?1....
Low osmolar contrast media:
A delay of about ______seconds after the start of the IV contrast...
Which of the following is a typical scan delay following the start of...
____________ allows helical data to be converted into planar raw data.
_____________ yields an image that appears 3D but also shows...
MIP images:
________ the window ____________ will make the image appear darker so...
A set of imges is reconstructed with a 150mm reconstruction FOV....
If a calcification with a CT number of +300 appears pure white on an...
Which of the follwong is a result of injecting a hypertonic solution...
Which of the following does NOT occur when reconstruction FOV is...
The contrast between a lesion and the surrounding tissue may...
Which of the following could be the dose experienced by the pituitary...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast agents?1....
Which of the following statements is FALSE?1. magnification requires...
The ______________ determines the intensity of the laser beam in a...
Which of the following is associated with a bi-phasic study of the...
A CT system manufacturer has a scanner in which the focal spot of the...
The actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all...
In which technique are tissues other than the surface of structure...
An increase in ___________ does NOT occur in the resulting images when...
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the slice thickness of an...
Which of the following will result in an increased voxel size? 1....
Which of the following can be changed retrospectively?1. the slice...
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