Computed Tomography (CT) Scan Quiz

154 Questions

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Computed Tomography Quizzes & Trivia

Computer tomography scans commonly known as CT scans make use of computer-processed combinations of many X-ray measurements taken at different angles. Take up the quiz below and gauge you knowledge on CT scans. All the best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Using _________ reconstruction filter would decrease the appearance of noise in a CT image.1. no2. a sharp3. a smooth
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2&3

    • D. 

      3 only

  • 2. 
    A ___________ scan uses only a single projection.1. conventional, or serial2. helical3. localizer
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1,2,&3

  • 3. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 3D SSD?
    • A. 

      Helical image data is well suited for 3D SSD because there is minimal misregistration or gaps.

    • B. 

      The volume data, from which the 3D SSD is generated, is created by combining transverse, sagittal, and coronal reconstructions

    • C. 

      The tissue surface may be selected by using a threshold value equal to the tissue's CT number.

    • D. 

      Patient motion during the scan is detrimental to the quality of the 3D images

  • 4. 
    Which type(s) of storage media may hold CT image data?1. internal hard disk2. CD3. re-writable optical disk
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1,2,& 3

  • 5. 
    ____________ may have to be edited from the data set to get a diagnostic MIP of a CTA exam.
    • A. 

      Iodinated contrast media

    • B. 

      Vessels of inetrest

    • C. 

      Air

    • D. 

      Bones

  • 6. 
    Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a helical study compared to a conventional, serial CT study?
    • A. 

      Minimal anatomical mis-registration sometimes caused by inconsistent breath holding

    • B. 

      Shorter total exam time

    • C. 

      Can retrospectively reconstruct a slice at any arbitrary position

    • D. 

      Offers the best image quality for a brain exam

  • 7. 
    Which of the following utilizes convolution?1. 3D SSD2. fourier transform3. filtered back projection
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 8. 
    In which technique are tissues other than the surface of structure excluded by setting a threshold value and eliminating pixels above or below that threshold?
    • A. 

      Volume rendering

    • B. 

      Multi-planar reconstruction

    • C. 

      Maximum intensity projection

    • D. 

      3D shaded surface display

  • 9. 
    From which of the following can the most diagnostic multi-planar reconstructions be generated?1. stacked transverse images from a helical scan2. stacked transverse images from a conventional, serial scan3. stacked localizer images
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 10. 
    The actual attenuation data measured by the detectors from all projections during a scan is contained in CT ____________ data.1. image2. convolved3. raw
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding the slice thickness of an image reconstructed from a helical scan?1. on a multi-row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation.2. on a single-row detector scanner, the thickness is equal to the beam collimation.3. on a single-row detector scanner, the thickness can be varied retrospectively.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 12. 
    A retrospective reconstruction, in which the reconstruction field-of-view is varied, uses:
    • A. 

      A reconstructed image in the sagittal plane

    • B. 

      CT raw data

    • C. 

      More photons

    • D. 

      CT image data

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is common to both localizer scan and a conventional, serial CT scan?
    • A. 

      They both produce saggital images

    • B. 

      The patient table moves at a constant velocity

    • C. 

      They both produce cross-sectional images

    • D. 

      The x-ray tube makes complete 360 degree rotations

  • 14. 
    Which of the following statements are TRUE?1. the amplified electrical signal obtained from the detectors must be digitized.2. digital CT images are numerical representations of cross-sectional anatomy.3. digital signals may be formed by sampling analog signals at discrete time intervals.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 15. 
    ___________________ is the mathematical process used by single row detector scanners to reconstruct CT image from raw data.
    • A. 

      Weighted averaging

    • B. 

      Filtered back projection

    • C. 

      The fourier transform

    • D. 

      Integration of the area under the curve

  • 16. 
    3D shaded surface displays are performed on CT:1. image data2. raw data3. attenuation profiles
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 17. 
    A pixel is a :
    • A. 

      Bright artifact on a film

    • B. 

      Single 3D volume element within a volume of anatomical data

    • C. 

      Single 2D picture element within the image plane

    • D. 

      Range of gray levels on a CT image

  • 18. 
    The pencil thin section of the x-ray fan beam that strikes a single detector is called a:
    • A. 

      Line

    • B. 

      Projection

    • C. 

      View

    • D. 

      Ray

  • 19. 
    A kernel is a:
    • A. 

      Component in the x-ray tube

    • B. 

      Post-processing filter applied to image data

    • C. 

      Type of detector

    • D. 

      Filter applied to the CT raw data

  • 20. 
    An increase in ___________ does NOT occur in the resulting images when applying a sharp, or high-pass reconstruction filter during the image reconstruction of CT raw data.1. contrast resolution2. edge enhancement3. the appearance of noise
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 21. 
    CTA images come from a __________ scan.1. conventional, or serial2. helical3. localizer
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 22. 
    If an image matrix has 360 rows and 360 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?
    • A. 

      21,600

    • B. 

      129,600

    • C. 

      259,200

    • D. 

      379,800

  • 23. 
    The ______________ determines the intensity of the laser beam in a laser camera.1. intensifying grid2. pixel values in the image data3. mgnifying power of the lens
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is a reconstruction technique applied to the raw data after the primary reconstruction has already been accomplished?
    • A. 

      Maximum intensity projection

    • B. 

      Volume rendering

    • C. 

      Retrospective reconstruction

    • D. 

      Multi-planar reconstruction

  • 25. 
    What does convolution do to the image quality when it is added to the back projection reconstruction process?
    • A. 

      Normalizes the attenuation coefficients to ensure tissues are displayed with correct CT numbers.

    • B. 

      Increases the number of projections thereby reducing streaking artifacts

    • C. 

      Improves contrast resolution by reducing scatter radiation

    • D. 

      Enhances important characteristics of attenuation profiles thus reducing streak and star artifacts

  • 26. 
    Which of the following may occur during the interscan delay of a conventional, or serial, CT scan performed on a continuous rotation scanner?1. the table position is incremented 2. the tube continues to rotate in the same direction as during the scan3. the tube assembly makes a 360 degree rotation.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 27. 
    ____________ allows helical data to be converted into planar raw data.
    • A. 

      Retrospective reconstruction

    • B. 

      Interpolation

    • C. 

      Cone beam reconstruction

    • D. 

      Convolution

  • 28. 
    What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?
    • A. 

      Thermal

    • B. 

      Double emulsion

    • C. 

      Single emulsion

    • D. 

      Paper

  • 29. 
    A helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is reconstructed with:
    • A. 

      Back projection

    • B. 

      Simple reconstruction because it is a single projection scan

    • C. 

      No reconstrction filter

    • D. 

      Cone beam reconstruction

  • 30. 
    _____________ yields an image that appears 3D but also shows anatomical details above and below the 3D surface.
    • A. 

      SSD

    • B. 

      VR

    • C. 

      MIP

    • D. 

      Multi-planar reconstruction

  • 31. 
    MDCT scanners capable of collection 64 slices in a ingle rotation do NOT:
    • A. 

      Perform conventional CT scans

    • B. 

      Perform helical CT scans

    • C. 

      Use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction

    • D. 

      Perform localizer scans

  • 32. 
    MIP images:
    • A. 

      Are most frequently used for visualizing air-filled spaces

    • B. 

      Can NOT be run in a cine loop

    • C. 

      Are most accurate when a large volume of interest is selected

    • D. 

      Do NOT demonstrate detail beneath the brightest pixel

  • 33. 
    Multi-planar reconstructions are performed on which of the following?1. image data2. raw data3. attenuation profiles
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 34. 
    The________ move(s) during a helical scan on a third-generation scanner.1. x-ray tube2. patient table3. detector elements
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 36. 
    On a third-generation single-row detector scanner, if there are 715 detectors and there are 900 projections in a full rotation, how many samples of attenuation data are collected for the raw data of a single slice if the scan calls for an overscan of a 400 degree rotation?
    • A. 

      286,000

    • B. 

      643,500

    • C. 

      715,000

    • D. 

      845,000

  • 37. 
    A smooth, or low-pass, reconstruction filter is typically NOT selected for a(n)_________ exam.
    • A. 

      Pituitary

    • B. 

      Kidneys

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Internal auditory canals

  • 38. 
    In a _________, the highest pixel values from a stack of CTA images are projected along many "rays".
    • A. 

      SSD

    • B. 

      MIP

    • C. 

      PR

    • D. 

      VR

  • 39. 
    The x-ray beam used in CT scanning is __________ the patient's tissues.1. reflected off of2. attenuated by3. generated by
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 40. 
    Which of the following are possible results of partial voluming?1. decreased sharpness of edges2. misleading CT numbers3. improvement in resolution
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 & 2

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 41. 
    Which of the following has the highest patient dose assuming all other parameters are the same?
    • A. 

      MA=200, rotation time=2 sec.

    • B. 

      MA=200, rotation time=1 sec.

    • C. 

      MA=150, rotation time=3 sec.

    • D. 

      MA=400, rotation time=1 sec.

  • 42. 
    CT numbers _____________ would appear black if a window width of 400 and a window level of -100 are used.
    • A. 

      Above +200

    • B. 

      Below -300

    • C. 

      Below -200

    • D. 

      Above +100

  • 43. 
    If a calcification with a CT number of +300 appears pure white on an image, which of the following could be the window width and window level selected?1. window level = 0, window width = 5002. window level = +300, window width =5003. window level = +100, window width = 1000
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 44. 
    Which of the following determinants of CT image quality is responsible for how grainy or speckled a CT image appears?
    • A. 

      Resolution

    • B. 

      Linearity

    • C. 

      Noise

    • D. 

      Contrast

  • 45. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE?1. magnification requires the raw data2. increasing magnification increases resolution3. magnification decreases the size of displayed anatomy
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      3 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 46. 
    If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the apparent image noise?
    • A. 

      Reduced reconstruction field of view

    • B. 

      Increased matrix

    • C. 

      Increased mAs

    • D. 

      Increased kVp

  • 47. 
    A CT number calibration test should be performed:
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Daily

  • 48. 
    Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch?1. a greater volume of anatomy can be covered in a given time2. a given volume of anatomy can be covered faster3. radiation dose to the patient can be increased
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 & 2

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 49. 
    An increase in _____________ will result in hardening of an x-ray beam.1. tissue density2. tissue thickness3. kVp
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 50. 
    If the slice thickness is changed from 5mm to 7mm and all other parameters are held constant, _______________ % more photons will be used in making the slice.
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      80

  • 51. 
    Which of the following will result in an increased voxel size? 1. decreased reconstruction FOV 2. increased slice thickness 3. increased matrix
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 52. 
    If a reconstruction FOV of 32cm and a 512x512 matrix are used, the pixel size is _____________mm.
    • A. 

      0.35x0.35

    • B. 

      0.625x0.625

    • C. 

      1.6x1.6

    • D. 

      3.25x3.25

  • 53. 
    Which of the following does NOT occur when reconstruction FOV is decreased?1. spatial resolution is increased2. pixel size is increased3. noise in the image increases
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 54. 
    Which of the followingis the conversion equation from CT number to housfield unit?
    • A. 

      CT number = 0.5 x hounsfield unit

    • B. 

      CT number = (hounsfield unit)^2

    • C. 

      CT number = hounsfield unit

    • D. 

      CT number = 2 x hounsfield unit

  • 55. 
    There are ____________ total pixels in a 1024 x 1024 matrix
    • A. 

      2048

    • B. 

      524,288

    • C. 

      More than 1 million

    • D. 

      More than 2 million

  • 56. 
    Which of the following occurs when slice thickness is redued?1. appearance of noise in the image increases.2. the number of photons used in making the slice decreases3. partial volume averaging decreases
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 57. 
    Increasing ___________ results in lowering the patient dose.1. pitch2. mAs3.table increment
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 & 2

    • C. 

      1 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 58. 
    ________________ affects the CT number of water.
    • A. 

      No imaging parameter

    • B. 

      The slice thickness

    • C. 

      The kVp

    • D. 

      The mAs

  • 59. 
    The smallest object that can be resolved if a reconstruction FOV of 24cm. and a 515x512 matrix are used is  __________mm.
    • A. 

      0.47

    • B. 

      1.00

    • C. 

      2.13

    • D. 

      3.57

  • 60. 
    If the radiologist requires 2 mm thick contiguous slices through the pituitary, and 2.4 cm of coverage, ______ slices are necessary?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      13

  • 61. 
    Which of the following is NOT a result of reducing the reconstruction FOV?1. imp;roved spatial resolution2. increased appearance of image noise3. anatomical structures appear smaller
    • A. 

      1 ony

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 62. 
    Which of the following parameters affects the contrast of a CT image?
    • A. 

      Reconstruction interval

    • B. 

      MAs

    • C. 

      KVp

    • D. 

      CT number

  • 63. 
    Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial volume averaging?
    • A. 

      Matrix size

    • B. 

      KVp

    • C. 

      Slice thickness

    • D. 

      Patient dose

  • 64. 
    On MDCT, the final reconstructed slice thickness is determined by the:
    • A. 

      Number of rows of detectors and the size of the detectors whose attenuation data gets combined

    • B. 

      Pitch

    • C. 

      Reconstruction interval

    • D. 

      Collimation of the x-ray beam

  • 65. 
    The distance that the table travels between slices is called:
    • A. 

      Table increment

    • B. 

      Collimation

    • C. 

      Rotation

    • D. 

      Reconstruction interval

  • 66. 
    A set of imges is reconstructed with a 150mm reconstruction FOV. keeping all other parameters constant, a second set of images is reconstructed with a 300mm reconstruction FOV, and then magnified so that the anatomical structures in the first and second set appear the same size. Which of the following statements is FALSE?1. the resolution of the second set of images is better than the first set2. the apparent noise in the second set of images is more pronounced than the first set3. the patient dose of the first set of images is higher than the second set
    • A. 

      1 & 2

    • B. 

      1 & 3

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is NOT directly proportional to mAs?
    • A. 

      The mean energy of the x-ray photons leaving the tube

    • B. 

      The number of x-ray photons leaving the x-ray tube

    • C. 

      X-ray tube heating

    • D. 

      Dose to the patient

  • 68. 
    Which of the following parameters causes helical slices to be reconstructed so they overlap?
    • A. 

      Table increment

    • B. 

      Reconstruction interval

    • C. 

      Pitch

    • D. 

      Collimation

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is the expected result of a CT number calibration test performed on a water phantom?
    • A. 

      0 + or - 3

    • B. 

      0 + or - 5

    • C. 

      1000 + or - 5

    • D. 

      100 + or - 3

  • 70. 
    On a conventional, or serial, CT scan, if we want 5mm slices with 1mm of overlap, the table increment should be _______mm.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      1

  • 71. 
    Which of the following parameters allows adjacent slices to be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient?
    • A. 

      Reconstruction interval

    • B. 

      Slice thickness

    • C. 

      Table increment

    • D. 

      Pitch

  • 72. 
    Which of the following can be changed retrospectively?1. the slice thickness from an MDCT helical scan2. the slice overlap from a single-row detector scanner hlical scan3. the slice thickness from a single=row detector scanner helical scan
    • A. 

      1 & 3

    • B. 

      1 & 2

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 73. 
    Which of the following values from pitch would stretch the x-ray helix the most?
    • A. 

      1.5

    • B. 

      1.0

    • C. 

      0.8

    • D. 

      0.5

  • 74. 
    The _______ determines how penetrating the x-ray beam will be.
    • A. 

      KVp

    • B. 

      Rotation time

    • C. 

      MA

    • D. 

      Pitch

  • 75. 
    Which of the following would be used in a high resolution study of the temporal bone?1. reduced slice thickness2. reduced reconstruction FOV3. sharp reconstruction filter
    • A. 

      1only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 76. 
    Which of the following would be used to better visualize low contrast resolution?1. decreased mAs2 sharp reconstruction filter3. narrow window width
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      1 & 2

    • D. 

      3 only

  • 77. 
    For a given distance of coverage, which of the following is TRUE?1. as reconstruction FOV increases, patient dose increases2. as pitch increases , patient dose decreases 3. as slice thickness increases, patient dose decreases
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 78. 
    ________ the window ____________ will make the image appear darker so that bony structures can be evaluated.
    • A. 

      Increasing, width

    • B. 

      Decreasing, level

    • C. 

      Decreasing, width

    • D. 

      Increasing, level

  • 79. 
    Following the HIPAA guidelines, you may give a patient's medical information to another employee:
    • A. 

      If it is in plain sight on the CT console and the employee has already read it

    • B. 

      If the employee is related to the patient

    • C. 

      Only if it is needed to do their job

    • D. 

      To joke about the patient's excessive weight

  • 80. 
    If the mA of a 2 second brain scan is doubled and all other parameters are not changed, the dose is:
    • A. 

      Doubled

    • B. 

      Unaffected

    • C. 

      Halved

    • D. 

      Quadrupled

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is the complete name of the laboratory test known as PTT?
    • A. 

      Thromboplastin time

    • B. 

      Prothrombin time

    • C. 

      Partial thromboplastin time

    • D. 

      Partial prothrombin time

  • 82. 
    Renal function refers to which of the following organs?
    • A. 

      Gallbladder

    • B. 

      Kidney

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Spleen

  • 83. 
    In all states, patients are required by law to sign consent forms for the following reason:
    • A. 

      Permission to administer contrast

    • B. 

      Permission to perform a surgical procedure

    • C. 

      Signed consent forms are not required by law in every state

    • D. 

      Permission to administer sedation

  • 84. 
    Which of the following values for prothrombin time are considered outside the normal range?1 12 sec.2. 20 sec.3. 30sec.
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 85. 
    _______mm Hg is within the normal diastolic pressure range for adults.
    • A. 

      40

    • B. 

      80

    • C. 

      120

    • D. 

      140

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 87. 
    On a multi-row detector scanner, a radiation penumbra may be found:
    • A. 

      On every other slice

    • B. 

      Only on the trailing edges of the slices

    • C. 

      On every slice

    • D. 

      Only on the first and last slices of the slice volume

  • 88. 
    On a single-row detector scanner, which of the following does NOT decrease the patient dose?
    • A. 

      Decreasing the scan time while leaving the mA constant

    • B. 

      Decreasing the slice thickness while covering the same anatomical region

    • C. 

      Reformat the data instead of re-scanning

    • D. 

      Increasing the pitch

  • 89. 
    Which of the following is the correct action to take if a patient arrives with obvious head trauma, expecting a CT of the brain, but the paperwork requests a pelvic CT?
    • A. 

      Perform only a scan of the pelvis

    • B. 

      Request clarification from the ordering physician

    • C. 

      Perform both exams

    • D. 

      Perform only a scan of the brain

  • 90. 
    During a CT scan , the patient must be monitored:
    • A. 

      Visually and verbally

    • B. 

      Occasionally

    • C. 

      By a nurse

    • D. 

      By a pulse oximeter

  • 91. 
    Which of the following does NOT minimize the radiation dose to the patient?
    • A. 

      Decreasing the distance from the x-ray tube to the patient

    • B. 

      Filtration of the low energy photons from the x-ray beam

    • C. 

      Increasing the pitch

    • D. 

      Pre-patient collimation

  • 92. 
    For x-ray radiation, which of the following is TRUE?
    • A. 

      1 rem=1 rad

    • B. 

      1 rem=1 Gy

    • C. 

      1 rad=1 Gy

    • D. 

      1 rad=1 Sv

  • 93. 
    A normal pulse rate for an infant is __________ BPM.
    • A. 

      140

    • B. 

      85

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      30

  • 94. 
    The most important consideration in the care of an unconscious patient is to ensure that:
    • A. 

      Air passages are clear

    • B. 

      The body temperature is decreased

    • C. 

      Fluids are maintained

    • D. 

      No medications are administered

  • 95. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE if the patient history was taken at the time of scheduling?1. a claustrophobic patient can arrive for the scan prepared with a prescription sedative.2. time can be saved the day of the exam by skipping the screening process3. if it has been determined that the patient has no prior illness of conditions, monitoring is unnecessary
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 96. 
    The human embryo/fetus is most sensitive to radiation:
    • A. 

      In the second trimester

    • B. 

      In the first trimester

    • C. 

      Equally in all trimesters

    • D. 

      In the third trimester

  • 97. 
    Which of the following could be the dose experienced by the pituitary from a typical CT brain scan?
    • A. 

      9 rads

    • B. 

      5 mGy

    • C. 

      1 rads

    • D. 

      1 mGy

  • 98. 
    If there is no overlap or gap between adjacent slices of a CT scan, CTDI ____________MSAD
    • A. 

      Is less than

    • B. 

      Equals

    • C. 

      Is much greater than

    • D. 

      Is slightly greater than

  • 99. 
    A normal adult has _______resperations per minute.
    • A. 

      5-8

    • B. 

      12-20

    • C. 

      20-30

    • D. 

      30-40

  • 100. 
    A blood urea nitrogen level of ____ mg/dl is considered outside the normal range.1. 102. 183. 32
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 101. 
    Which of the following tests is NOT an indication of renal function?1. BUN2. creatinine3. PTT
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 102. 
    Which of the following conditions may be an indication NOT to use IV contrast media?1. previous serious reaction to contrast media used during another diagnostic procedure.2. allergy to iodine3. renal impairment
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 103. 
    Which of the following is NOT a typical indication of shock?
    • A. 

      Grayish skin tone

    • B. 

      Convulsive seizures

    • C. 

      Hypotension

    • D. 

      Tachycardia

  • 104. 
    Platelets are small:
    • A. 

      Implants

    • B. 

      Detector elements responsible for capturing attenuated photons

    • C. 

      Cell fragments necessary for blood coagulation

    • D. 

      Catheters used for administering contrast media

  • 105. 
    Which of the following reduces patient dose at the expense of increasing the apparent noise in the image?
    • A. 

      KVp

    • B. 

      Pitch

    • C. 

      Table increment

    • D. 

      MAs

  • 106. 
    A 25 year old female is scheduled for a CT scan of the sinuses. She is not absolutely certain that she is not pregnant and it has been three weeks since her last menstrual period. Which of the following is the best course of action?
    • A. 

      Perform the exam immediately, while she is experiencing sinus problems

    • B. 

      Postpone the procedure until she is more certain of her condition

    • C. 

      Cancel the procedure indefinitely

    • D. 

      Suggest she get an MRI instead

  • 107. 
    Which of the follwoing is a possible long-term effect of repeated exposure to radiation?1. cataracts2. cancer3. decrease in life expectancy
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 108. 
    CPR must be administered to a cardiac arrest victim within a maximum of ____ minute(s) before there is a risk of brain damage.
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      12

  • 109. 
    Which is NOT a standard infection control precaution use with all patients?
    • A. 

      Use of an N95 respirator

    • B. 

      Wash hands after touching a patient

    • C. 

      Disposal of needle in sharps container

    • D. 

      Wear gloves when starting an IV

  • 110. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE?1. repirators are not allowed in the CT suite2. pulse oximeters are allowed the CT suite3. the patient should be removed form the CT suite to treat cardiac arrest
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 111. 
    A patient about to get a scan of her sinuses may wear:
    • A. 

      Eyeglasses so she can see the technologist

    • B. 

      A nose ring

    • C. 

      Her new belt with a large silver buckle

    • D. 

      Earrings, to look her best

  • 112. 
    Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding a radiation penumbra1. it occurs because the collimator is broken2. it is radiation that extends outside of the imaging region3. it is accounted for in the calculation of the MSAD
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      3 only

  • 113. 
    A creatinine level of 3.1 mg/dl indicates the:1. kidneys are not removing waste products from the urine2. patient is not a good candidate to receive IV contrast media3. value is below the normal range
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 114. 
    Making up the ARRT standard of ethics are the code of ethics, which is __________, and the rules of ethics, which are _____________.
    • A. 

      A law, variable depending upon the state you're in

    • B. 

      A conduct guideline, variable depending upon the state you're in

    • C. 

      A conduct guideline, enforceable

    • D. 

      A law, recommended job descriptions

  • 115. 
    When reviewing the images from a helical CT scan, a subtle, suspicious area of possible pathology is noticed. What could be done to better visualize the suspicious area WITHOUT increasing the dose to the patient?1. re-scan the region using thinner slices2. re-scan the region using a lower pitch3. retrospectively reconstruct the slices so that they overlap
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 116. 
    Which of the following vital signs is considered abnormal?
    • A. 

      Adult pulse of 75 BPM

    • B. 

      Pediatric pulse of 11o BPM

    • C. 

      Adult blood pressure of 160/100

    • D. 

      Oral temperature of 97 degrees

  • 117. 
    To modify a standard CT protocol so that it is appropriate for children, which of the following should be decreased?1. pitch 2. kVp3. mAs
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1& 2

    • C. 

      1& 3

    • D. 

      2 & 3

  • 118. 
    Which of the follwoing may result from exposing an embryo to x-ray radiation?1. mental retardation2. miscarriage3. deformities
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 119. 
    Which of the follwong is a result of injecting a hypertonic solution into the vascular space?
    • A. 

      Thre is a net movemtn of water into the vascular space

    • B. 

      There is a net movement of contrast media out of the vascular space

    • C. 

      There is a net movement of water out of the vascular space

    • D. 

      There is nothing noteworthy about injecting a hypertonic solution into the vascular space

  • 120. 
    Which of the follwoing is a common patient reaction to IV contrast media?1. warmth at the injection site2. headache3. nausea
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 121. 
    Low osmolar contrast media:
    • A. 

      Typically has the same concentration of particles as the blood

    • B. 

      Typically has a higher concentration of particles compared to blood

    • C. 

      Tends to cause more adverse reactions than high osmolar contrast media

    • D. 

      Is never used in CT

  • 122. 
    Which of the follwoing is TRUE regarding barium sulfate solutions used in CT?
    • A. 

      They are less concentrated than those used in conventionsl radiography

    • B. 

      They are the sam as those used in conventional radiography

    • C. 

      They are in no way related to those used in conventional radiography

    • D. 

      They are more concentrated than those used in conventional radiography

  • 123. 
    Barium sulfate oral contrast media would be selected instead of iofinated oral contrast media because:1. it passes through the GI tract more quickly2. the trauma patient may have a perforated bowel3. the contrast media stays more dense in the distal GI tract
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      3 only

  • 124. 
    Which of the following may help to reduce adverse reactions resulting from the administration of IV contrast media?1. use high osmolar contrast media2. administer an antihistamine prior to the IV contrast injection3. increase the rate of injection
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 125. 
    Which of the following oral contrast agents is better for opacifying the distal small intestine?1. an ionic iodinated contrast agent2. a non-ionic iodinated contrast agent3. barium sulfate
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 126. 
    Iodinated IV contrast agents perfuse normal:
    • A. 

      Liver tissue

    • B. 

      Brain tissue

    • C. 

      Thecal sac

    • D. 

      Lymph nodes

  • 127. 
    Which of the following is NOT a typical adverse reaction to oral contrast media used in CT?
    • A. 

      Diarrhea

    • B. 

      Abdominal cramping

    • C. 

      Flatulence

    • D. 

      Hives

  • 128. 
    A delay of about ____ secounds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the neck.
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      75

  • 129. 
    If there is doubt regarding the sterility of the contrast media, the contrast media must be:
    • A. 

      Shaken

    • B. 

      Diluted

    • C. 

      Heated

    • D. 

      Discarded

  • 130. 
    The most common catheter size used in CT is ______ gauge.
    • A. 

      12- 14

    • B. 

      15- 17

    • C. 

      18 -22

    • D. 

      23-25

  • 131. 
    Viscosity is a measure of a fluid's:
    • A. 

      Atomic weight

    • B. 

      Thickness

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      Injection rate

  • 132. 
    The viscosity of IV contrast media can be reduced by :
    • A. 

      Shaking

    • B. 

      Stirring

    • C. 

      Aerating

    • D. 

      Heating

  • 133. 
    Why is the cephalic vein a less desirable site for injection than the basillic vein?
    • A. 

      It is usually a very small vein with poor blood flow

    • B. 

      The blood must traverse the vessels in the head before reaching the heart

    • C. 

      It is a deep vein and not easily catheterized

    • D. 

      Flow may be impeded as the patient's arms are raised

  • 134. 
    A difference in density of ______HU between the aorta and the inferior vena cava would indicate the non-equilibrium phase of enhancement.
    • A. 

      43

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      8

  • 135. 
    There is substantial enhancement of the liver compared to tumors during the __________ phase, but during the _________________ phase, there is the possibility of tumor enhancement, which omay make hepatic tumors isodense with liver tissue.
    • A. 

      Bolus, equilibrium

    • B. 

      Non-equilibrium, equilibrium

    • C. 

      Non-equilibrium, bolus

    • D. 

      Equilibrium, non -equilibrium

  • 136. 
    IV contrast agents used in CT increase the attenuation of the x-ray beam due to the concentration of __________in the agent.
    • A. 

      Iodine

    • B. 

      Glucose

    • C. 

      Meglumine

    • D. 

      Barium

  • 137. 
    The definition of osmolality is the ________________ the contrast agent solution.
    • A. 

      Thickness of

    • B. 

      Measure of dissociation

    • C. 

      Concentration of molecular particles in

    • D. 

      Rate of injection of

  • 138. 
    The osmolality of plasma is ________ mOsm/kg
    • A. 

      175

    • B. 

      235

    • C. 

      285

    • D. 

      325

  • 139. 
    The portal venous phase occurs about _______seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection.
    • A. 

      20 to 30

    • B. 

      40 to 60

    • C. 

      60 to 90

    • D. 

      90 to 120

  • 140. 
    The hepatic arterial phase occurs about ______________seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection.
    • A. 

      60 to 80

    • B. 

      40 to 60

    • C. 

      20 to 40

    • D. 

      0 to 20

  • 141. 
    A delay of about ______seconds after the start of the IV contrast injection should be used for a helical scan of the chest.
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      35

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      15

  • 142. 
    Which of the following is a typical scan delay following the start of the injection for helical CT examinations of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      50 to 60 seconds

    • B. 

      70 to 80 seconds

    • C. 

      80 to 90 seconds

    • D. 

      2 to 3 secons

  • 143. 
    Exams to rule out ___________ would indicate the use of IV contrast media in the chest1. lymphoma2. hilar mass3. aortic dissection
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 144. 
    To best visualize the stomach wall, which of the following should the patient drink last?1. iodinated oral contrast media2. water3. barium sulfate oral contrast
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 145. 
    How long does it take to inject 150ML of contrast media with an injection rate of 2ml/sec.?
    • A. 

      50 seconds

    • B. 

      75 seconds

    • C. 

      1 minute

    • D. 

      2.5 minutes

  • 146. 
    The heating unit on a power injector is for _________________ of the contrast agent.
    • A. 

      Increasing the iodine concentration

    • B. 

      Decreasing the viscosity

    • C. 

      Increasing the density

    • D. 

      Decreasing the osmolality

  • 147. 
    What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?
    • A. 

      Apply ice during the injection

    • B. 

      Stop the injection immediately

    • C. 

      Slap the area

    • D. 

      Apply heat during the injection

  • 148. 
    Which of the follwoing characteristics of an IV contrast agent affects patient tolerance?1. concentration of iodine2. osmolality3. viscosity
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 & 2

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3

  • 149. 
    Which of the following is associated with a bi-phasic study of the liver?1. differentiation of lesions with arterial and portal venous blood supplies2. two injection rates used during the study3. two images for each slice position
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      1 & 2

    • C. 

      2 & 3

    • D. 

      1 & 3

  • 150. 
    Contrast agents containing barium sulfate:1. enhance structures because they are absorbed into the blood stream2. enhance structures because they are absorbed through the small intestine3. pass through the GI tract unchanged
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1 & 2

  • 151. 
    An indication for IV contrast injection is  to rule  out:
    • A. 

      Mastoiditis

    • B. 

      Sinusitis

    • C. 

      Meningioma

    • D. 

      Grave's disease

  • 152. 
    When a contrast agent is injected directly into the joint space it is known as __________ contrast
    • A. 

      Intravenous

    • B. 

      Intrathecal

    • C. 

      Oral

    • D. 

      Intraarticular

  • 153. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding ionic contrast agents?1. ionic agents are charged ions2. ionic agents dissociate into ions in solution3. ionic agents ionize tissues they contact
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2 & 3

  • 154. 
    The contrast between a lesion and the surrounding tissue may _____________ following the injection of contrast media.1. improve2. remain unchanged3. be degraded
    • A. 

      1 only

    • B. 

      2 only

    • C. 

      3 only

    • D. 

      1, 2, & 3