CT CrossTrainer Post Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz

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CT CrossTrainer Post Test! Hardest Trivia Quiz

The CT CrossTrainer is a multiple choice post-test which includes questions related to fundamental physical concepts, jargons, and clinical imaging policy of Computed Tomography. This CT CrossTrainer quiz has been created to test and develop practical knowledge in clinical CT imaging. All questions are mandatory. Take your time and feel the pressure of the real exam. Let's take this challenging quiz. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following men was awarded the first Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901?
    • A. 

      A. Geoffrey Newton

    • B. 

      B. Godfrey Newbold Hounsfield

    • C. 

      C. Wilhelm Conrad Rontgen

    • D. 

      D. Albert von Kolliker

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of the tomographic systems which existed before the first CT scanners?
    • A. 

      A. film was used

    • B. 

      B. a computer used to reconstruct the images

    • C. 

      C. a detector array was used

    • D. 

      D. it was used only for extremity imaging

  • 4. 
    Conventional tomography was Not clinically useful because: 1. the images were often blurry 2. it took too long to make an image 3. the images lacked detail
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 5. 
    CT is commonly referred to as all of the following names EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      A. digital subtraction angiography

    • B. 

      B. computed tomography

    • C. 

      C. CAT-scan

    • D. 

      D. computerized axial tomography

  • 6. 
    The detectors:
    • A. 

      A. shield the patient from the x-rays

    • B. 

      B. produce the beam of x-rays

    • C. 

      C. increase the x-ray exposure of the film

    • D. 

      D. measure the x-rays that pass through the patient's body

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 3 only

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 8. 
    The first commercial CT scanner was available during the:
    • A. 

      A. 1990's

    • B. 

      B. 1980's

    • C. 

      C. 1960's

    • D. 

      D. 1970's

  • 9. 
    A first-generation scanner:
    • A. 

      A. used a curved array of detectors

    • B. 

      B. produced an image in less than 5 seconds

    • C. 

      C. used multiple detectors

    • D. 

      D. used a pencil beam of x-rays

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      A. is stationary in all scanner designs commercially avaiable today

    • B. 

      B. was first seen on third-generation CT scanners

    • C. 

      C. rotates around the patient in all scanner designs

    • D. 

      D. allows for much faster data collection than using single detector

  • 11. 
    Fourth-generation CT scanner_______________while second-generation CT scanner do not.
    • A. 

      A. use multiple detectors

    • B. 

      B. have a detector ring which does not rotate

    • C. 

      C. have a rotating ring of detectors

    • D. 

      D. apply fan beam geometry

  • 12. 
    • A. 

      A. have the capability of advanced scanning techniques

    • B. 

      B. apply fan beam geometry

    • C. 

      C. have detectors which rotate

    • D. 

      D. have a detector ring which does not rotate

  • 13. 
    The slip ring on a CT scanner: 1.  prevents the high voltage cable from winding up. 2.  advances the patient table. 3. alleviates the need for reversal of the rotating assembly to which the tube is attached.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 3 only

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2 only

  • 14. 
    The stationary metal contacts through which electrical signal are transferred to and from the rotating slip ring are known as the:
    • A. 

      A. electrical brushes

    • B. 

      B. CT x-ray tube

    • C. 

      C. power supply

    • D. 

      D. detectors

  • 15. 
    In CT, a thick x-ray beam that not only spreads to the sides of the patient table but also diverges along the length of the patient table is called a __________beam.
    • A. 

      A. fan

    • B. 

      B. cone

    • C. 

      C. spherical

    • D. 

      D. pencil

  • 16. 
    MDCT scanners: 1. can produce images from more than one anatomical location at a time. 2. were first attempted by EMI in the 1970's. 3. have shorter exam times than single-slice CT scanners.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 17. 
    Which of the following CT scanner designs does NOT use an x-ray tube?
    • A. 

      A. PET/CT

    • B. 

      B. electron beam CT

    • C. 

      C. MDCT

    • D. 

      D. first-generation CT

  • 18. 
    The following can be obtained with PET/CT: 1. images with metabolic information. 2. images with high-resolution anatomical information. 3.attenuation correction.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 19. 
    If CT images are reconstructed so that they are aligned perpendicular to the axis which travels from left to right in the patient, they are in__________orientation.
    • A. 

      A. a coronal

    • B. 

      B. a transverse

    • C. 

      C. an oblique

    • D. 

      D. a sagittal

  • 20. 
    Which of the following cross-sectional orientations of an abdomen can be directly scanned in CT? 1. sagittal. 2. coronal. 3. transverse.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1 only

    • C. 

      C. 2 only

    • D. 

      D. 3 only

  • 21. 
    In the CT department the term "axial" is frequently used to reference which of the following orientations?
    • A. 

      A. sagittal

    • B. 

      B. transverse

    • C. 

      C. oblique images

    • D. 

      D. coronal

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is a characteristic of CT but NOT of conventional radiography?
    • A. 

      A. cross-sectional slices

    • B. 

      B. no ionizing radiation is used

    • C. 

      C. magnetization and radio waves are used

    • D. 

      D. differentiation of tissues dependent upon x-ray attenuation

  • 23. 
    Arrange MR imaging, CT imaging and plain film x-ray imaging in order from best to worst in their ability to differentiate soft tissues in the body:
    • A. 

      A. x-ray is better that CT is better than MRI

    • B. 

      B. MRI is better than CT is better than x-ray

    • C. 

      C. CT is better than MRI is better than x-ray

    • D. 

      D. x-ray is better than MRI is better than CT

  • 24. 
    Things which are digital: 1. are less accurate than their analog counter parts. 2. can be electronically transported to remote locations. 3. are easily stored on a computer.
    • A. 

      A. 2 only

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 25. 
    • A. 

      A. sufficient energy to cause ionization of living tissues

    • B. 

      B. repeated exposure has been linked to the development of malignancies

    • C. 

      C. must be limited to below the safe level set by the FDA

    • D. 

      D. must be limited to levels as low as possible given the clinical goals

  • 26. 
    Which of the following imaging modalities uses ionizing radiation? 1. conventional radiography. 2. mammography. 3. computed tomography.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 28. 
    The_________can be found in the nucleus of an atom. 1. protons. 2. electrons. 3. neutrons.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1 only

    • C. 

      C. 3 only

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 29. 
    The material in the CT x-ray tube which is bombarded with electrons and which gives off x-rays photons is known as the:
    • A. 

      A. detector

    • B. 

      B. target

    • C. 

      C.electrical brushes

    • D. 

      D. power supply

  • 30. 
    The CT x-ray tube:
    • A. 

      A. measures the x-ray information coming from the patient

    • B. 

      B. moves the patient table during the scan

    • C. 

      C. produces the beam of x-rays

    • D. 

      D. shields the patient from the x-rays

  • 31. 
    Tungsten is used as the target material in a CT tube because it has a_____atomic weight and a_____melting point.
    • A. 

      A. high, high

    • B. 

      B. low, low

    • C. 

      C. high, low

    • D. 

      D. low, hig

  • 32. 
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 33. 
    The x-ray beam produced by a CT x-ray tube is composed of:
    • A. 

      A. 75% characteristic radiation and 25% bremsstrahlung radiation

    • B. 

      B. almost 100% bremsstrahlung radiation

    • C. 

      C. almost 100% characteristic radiation

    • D. 

      D. 50% characteristic radiation and 50% bremsstrahlung radiation

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is a factor in determining the attenuation of an x-ray beam? 1. the energy of the x-ray photons. 2. the atomic number of the atoms in the tissues penetrated by the beam. 3. the density of electrons of the atoms in the tissues penetrated by the beam.
    • A. 

      1. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1,2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 35. 
    • A. 

      A. a structure with a low atomic number will attenuate an x-ray beam more than a structure with a high atomic number

    • B. 

      B. the density of a structure has nothing to do with how it attenuates an x-ray beam

    • C. 

      C. a dense structure will attenuate an x-ray beam less than a structure which is not dense

    • D. 

      D. a dense structure will attenuate an x-ray beam more than a structure which is not dense

  • 36. 
    Which of the following are the two mechanisms by which x-rays are attenuated?
    • A. 

      A. collisions and absorption

    • B. 

      B. absorption and characteristic

    • C. 

      C. ionizing and scattering

    • D. 

      D. absorption and scattering

  • 37. 
    The attenuation information measured by the detectors is called the:
    • A. 

      A. back projection

    • B. 

      B. filtered data

    • C. 

      C. CT image

    • D. 

      D. raw data

  • 38. 
    Which of the following events is responsible for changing the raw data into image data?
    • A. 

      A. attenuation

    • B. 

      B. ionization

    • C. 

      C. reconstruction

    • D. 

      D. reconversion

  • 39. 
    What is the most common type of film used for recording CT images?
    • A. 

      A. paper

    • B. 

      B. thermal

    • C. 

      C. single emulsion

    • D. 

      D. double emulsion

  • 40. 
    Archiving refers to which of the following?
    • A. 

      A. saving the images for long term storage

    • B. 

      B. converting from raw data to CT images

    • C. 

      C. a reduction in the number of x-ray photons in the x-ray beam

    • D. 

      D. detecting the x-ray photons after they have passed through the patient

  • 41. 
    Through which component are most of the commands from the technologist entered?
    • A. 

      A. ADC

    • B. 

      B. array processor

    • C. 

      C. amplifier

    • D. 

      D. operator's console

  • 42. 
    The operator's console may include which of the following? 1. keyboard. 2. monitor. 3. graphic input device.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 43. 
    Which of following could be executed at the operator's console? 1. image viewing. 2. image archiving. 3. patient registration.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is the location of the CT raw data storage device?
    • A. 

      A. host computer

    • B. 

      B. PACS

    • C. 

      C. array processor

    • D. 

      D. scan controller

  • 45. 
    Continuously without stopping and incrementally, stopping at discrete positions, are typical movements of the__________through the gantry.
    • A. 

      A. detector array

    • B. 

      B. CT tube

    • C. 

      C. patient table

    • D. 

      D. DAC

  • 46. 
    The patient table: 1. aligns the anatomy of interest with the x-ray beam. 2. has its motion controlled by the patient table controller. 3. advances through the opening in the gantry.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1,2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 47. 
    CT systems:
    • A. 

      A. utilize radio waves

    • B. 

      B. utilize ionizing radiation

    • C. 

      C. have no moving parts

    • D. 

      D. are limited to scanning strictly in the transverse orientation

  • 48. 
    If a patient is positioned on her back perfectly parallel to the patient table with a gantry tilt of 25 degrees, the resulting image is:
    • A. 

      A. between coronal and sagittal

    • B. 

      B. coronal

    • C. 

      C. between transverse and coronal

    • D. 

      D. sagittal

  • 49. 
    CT images which are NOT strictly transverse can be directly acquired by:
    • A. 

      A. shielding the patient

    • B. 

      B. tilting the gantry

    • C. 

      C. collimating the x-ray beam

    • D. 

      D. turning the x-ray tube

  • 50. 
    The high voltage generator:
    • A. 

      A. may be a stationary component which is not on the gantry

    • B. 

      B. is responsible for measuring the attenuated x-ray beam

    • C. 

      C. is responsible for the motion of the patient table

    • D. 

      D. is always mounted on the rotating assembly of the gantry

  • 51. 
    The________provides the high voltage to the CT x-ray tube.
    • A. 

      A. high voltage generator

    • B. 

      B. host computer

    • C. 

      C. array processor

    • D. 

      D. scan controller

  • 52. 
    Through which part of the CT x-ray tube do the electrons enter?
    • A. 

      A. cathode terminal

    • B. 

      B. tube window

    • C. 

      C. anode terminal

    • D. 

      D. cathode window

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is NOT on the inside of the CT x-ray tube?
    • A. 

      A. filament

    • B. 

      B. rotating anode

    • C. 

      C. collimator

    • D. 

      D. tungsten target

  • 54. 
    The anode in a CT a-ray tube rotates to:
    • A. 

      A. reduce scatter

    • B. 

      B. collect data at different positions and around the patient

    • C. 

      C. acquire angled slices

    • D. 

      D. prevent the tungsten target from melting

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 56. 
    The cathode filament:
    • A. 

      A. emits electrons which are attenuated by the patient's tissues

    • B. 

      B. emits x-rays in response to being bombarded by fast-moving electrons

    • C. 

      C. emits electrons which travel to the anode target

    • D. 

      D. light up the tube so it can be serviced by an engineer

  • 57. 
    The number of electrons that flow from the cathode to the anode in the  tube is controlled by the:
    • A. 

      A. temperature of the anode

    • B. 

      B. kV

    • C. 

      C. temperature of the cathode filament

    • D. 

      D. gantry and table controllers

  • 58. 
    The enormous heat that builds up in the CT x-ray tube is caused by the:
    • A. 

      A. rotation of the cathode within the x-ray tube

    • B. 

      B. rotation of the x-ray tube in the gantry

    • C. 

      C. generation of the electron beam from the cathode

    • D. 

      D. creation of x-ray photons when electrons bombard the tungsten target

  • 59. 
    Which of the following will increase the number of x-ray photons produced by the CT x-ray tube?
    • A. 

      A. decreased mA

    • B. 

      B. increased mA

    • C. 

      C. decreased kV

    • D. 

      D. increased kV

  • 60. 
    What control does the operator have over the x-rays in a CT exam?
    • A. 

      A. temperature and color of the x-rays can be tuned

    • B. 

      B. volume and tone of the x-rays can be dialed

    • C. 

      C.energy level and quantity of x-rays can be selected

    • D. 

      D. phase and frequency of the x-rays can be adjusted

  • 61. 
    The____controls the energy level of the x-ray photons and the____controls the number of x-ray photons emitted from the tube.
    • A. 

      A. mA,mA

    • B. 

      B. kV,mA

    • C. 

      C. mA,kV

    • D. 

      D. kV,kV

  • 62. 
    A tube voltage of____kV will produce x-ray photons that penetrate tissue the most easily.
    • A. 

      A. 70

    • B. 

      B. 90

    • C. 

      C. 100

    • D. 

      D. 120

  • 63. 
    The purpose of the tube window is to allow:
    • A. 

      A. electrons to enter the tube

    • B. 

      B. x-rays to exit the tube

    • C. 

      C. observation of the tube performance during scans

    • D. 

      D. for tube cooling

  • 64. 
    Collimators: 1. reduce scatter radiation. 2. restrict the path of the x-ray beam. 3. minimize the x-ray dose to the patient.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 65. 
    Collimation:
    • A. 

      A. is accomplished by physically blocking x-rays

    • B. 

      B. converts attenuation information into a form which can be used by computer components

    • C. 

      C. is used to reconstruct the CT images

    • D. 

      D. is the process of bombarding the cathode with electrons to produce the x-ray beam

  • 66. 
    Which of the following affects the slice thickness on a single-row detector scanner? 1. cathode filament. 2. focal spot. 3. collimation.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 67. 
    The_____________is a component NOT normally located in the gantry of a modern CT system.
    • A. 

      A. collimators

    • B. 

      B. x-ray tube

    • C. 

      C. detectors

    • D. 

      D. host computer

  • 68. 
    Which of the following components requires digital signals?
    • A. 

      A. detectors

    • B. 

      B. CT x-ray tube filament

    • C. 

      C. array processor

    • D. 

      D. high voltage generator

  • 69. 
    The main purpose of the detector is to:
    • A. 

      A. amplify the measured signal

    • B. 

      B. collimate the x-ray beam before it enters the patient's body

    • C. 

      C. generate a measurable signal from captured x-ray photons

    • D. 

      D. limit the x-ray dose to the patient

  • 70. 
    In order for an x-ray photon to be measured it must: 1. produce a measurable event. 2. collide with a detector atom. 3. enter the detector.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 71. 
    Gas detectors:
    • A. 

      A. use solid crystals to measure x-ray photons

    • B. 

      B. use a photodiode to detect the generated flash of light

    • C. 

      C. create an electrical event in response to incoming photons

    • D. 

      D. are the most commonly used type of detector on CT scanners today

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding solid state detectors? 1. they contain pressurized xenon gas. 2. they are rarely used on current models of CT scanners. 3. x-ray photons cause the detector material to generate a flash of light.
    • A. 

      A. 3 only

    • B. 

      B. 1 only

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2 only

  • 73. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding MDCT scanners?
    • A. 

      A. all of the detector arrays are used for every scan

    • B. 

      B. the x-ray beam is collimated so that it is only detected by one detector array during each rotation of the gantry

    • C. 

      C. the detectors used in asymmetric detector arrays must all be the same size

    • D. 

      D. the attenuation information from detectors in more than one detector array may be added to obtain thicker slices

  • 74. 
    On a MDCT scanner, which of the following may be TRUE when acquiring thicker slices compared to thinner slices? 1. attenuation information from adjacent detector arrays is added together. 2. the x-ray beam is collimated to a greater thickness. 3. the same anatomical region is scanned in less time.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 75. 
    The attenuation information received from the patient must go through an amplifier to:
    • A. 

      A. provides the high voltage to the CT x-ray tube

    • B. 

      B. greatly increase its strength

    • C. 

      C. convert it into a digital signal

    • D. 

      D. perform the image reconstruction

  • 76. 
    The ADC:
    • A. 

      A. provides the high voltage for the CT x-ray tube

    • B. 

      B. digitizes the attenuation information

    • C. 

      C. reconstructs the CT images

    • D. 

      D. controls the movement of the patient table

  • 77. 
    Reconstruction of CT images from raw data is performed by the:
    • A. 

      A. host computer

    • B. 

      B. array processor

    • C. 

      C. amplifier

    • D. 

      D. DAC

  • 78. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE? 1. the high voltage generator may be attached to the rotating slip ring. 2. the  image reconstruction process occurs in the array processor. 3. all of the x-ray photons which leave the x-ray tube will be measured by the detectors.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 2 only

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 79. 
    The array processor:
    • A. 

      A. reduces the amount of scatter radiation

    • B. 

      B. greatly increases the strength of the detected attenuation information

    • C. 

      C. reconstructs the CT images from the raw data

    • D. 

      D. produces the x-ray beam

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is NOT a function of a PACS system?
    • A. 

      A. long term data storage

    • B. 

      B. reconstruction of the image from the raw data

    • C. 

      C. digital distribution of images

    • D. 

      D. image display for the radiologists

  • 81. 
    What term describes a view of the anatomical cross-section along the path of the x-ray beam from a single vantage point?
    • A. 

      A. line

    • B. 

      B. view

    • C. 

      C. projection

    • D. 

      D. arc

  • 82. 
    The ______is in motion during a localizer scan.
    • A. 

      A. detectors

    • B. 

      B. patient table

    • C. 

      C. high voltage generator

    • D. 

      D. CT x-ray tube

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      A. the slices can be positioned from any orientation localizer image

    • B. 

      B. lateral

    • C. 

      C. oblique

    • D. 

      D. AP

  • 84. 
    If the x-ray tube is positioned directly above a supine patient(lying face up) during a localizer scan, what type of localizer image will result?
    • A. 

      A. transverse

    • B. 

      B. AP

    • C. 

      C. oblique

    • D. 

      D. lateral

  • 85. 
    The image in Figure 3-28 is an example of a:
    • A. 

      A. localizer image

    • B. 

      B. multiplanar reconstruction

    • C. 

      C. 3D suface rendering

    • D. 

      D. conventional CT image

  • 86. 
    Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a localizer image?
    • A. 

      A. it allows us to position slices for a helical scan

    • B. 

      B. it has lower resolution than a conventional CT image

    • C. 

      C. it may be obtained in a lateral orientation

    • D. 

      D. it is a cross-sectional image

  • 87. 
    NOT considering patient motion, and with all other factors equal, which of the following CT scanning methods generates the best image quality, free from artifacts, demonstrating the greatest detail?
    • A. 

      A. localizer scan

    • B. 

      B. the three methods generate equal image quality

    • C. 

      C. conventional scan

    • D. 

      D. helical scan

  • 88. 
    The x-ray beam used in CT scanning: 1. is generated by the CT x-ray tube. 2. is attenuated by the patient's tissues. 3. rotates around the patient during a conventional scan.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 89. 
    Which of the following is common to both a localizer scan and a conventional CT scan?
    • A. 

      A. they produce cross-sectional images

    • B. 

      B. they produce digital images

    • C. 

      C. the x-ray tube rotates around the patient

    • D. 

      D. the patient table is stationary

  • 90. 
    The______is used to store the actual attenuation data measured by the detectors prior to image reconstruction.
    • A. 

      A. image matrix

    • B. 

      B. detector file

    • C. 

      C. raw data file

    • D. 

      D. kernal

  • 91. 
    Which of the following in NOT another name for helical scan? 1. volumetric. 2. conventional. 3. spiral.
    • A. 

      A. 2 only

    • B. 

      B. 3 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 92. 
    Which of the following moves during a helical scan on a third-generation scanner? 1. the CT x-ray tube. 2. the patient table. 3. the detector array.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1,2&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 93. 
    Patients are asked to hold their breath during a CT scan to:
    • A. 

      A. reduce the edge gradient artifact

    • B. 

      B. minimize motion artifacts and to avoid misregistration of slices

    • C. 

      C. keep the patient from touching the sides of the gantry

    • D. 

      D. minimize the amount of air in the lungs

  • 94. 
    Which of the following is an advantage of a helical study compared to a conventional CT study? 1. can cover a given range of anatomy faster. 2. more coverage in a breath-hold. 3. minimal anatomical misregistration sometimes caused by inconsistent breath-holding.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 95. 
    Attenuation data collected from the projections during a helical scan:
    • A. 

      A. is used in making the localizer image

    • B. 

      B. is the data required for multiplanar reconstructions

    • C. 

      C. is planar

    • D. 

      D. does not correspond to any one slice plane

  • 96. 
    A kernel is a:
    • A. 

      A. component in the x-ray tube

    • B. 

      B. filter applied to raw data

    • C. 

      C. type of detector

    • D. 

      D. component in the operator's console

  • 97. 
    Convolution is the__________the raw data.
    • A. 

      A. digitization of

    • B. 

      B. amplification of

    • C. 

      C. application of a reconstruction filter to

    • D. 

      D. attenuation of

  • 98. 
    If we want to accentuate the bony detail on a case of ankle trauma,________reconstruction filter would be the best choice.
    • A. 

      A. no

    • B. 

      B. a sharp

    • C. 

      C. a multiplanar

    • D. 

      D. a smooth

  • 99. 
    The purpose of a reconstruction filter is to: 1. improve soft tissue contrast in the final image. 2. enhance the important characteristics in the raw data before image reconstruction is performed. 3. enhance sharp edges in the final image.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 100. 
    Which of the following would result if no reconstruction filter was used in the image reconstruction process? 1. tissues in the resulting images would have blurry edges. 2. the resulting images would appear speckled, or grainy. 3. the resulting image would be inverted.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2 only

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 101. 
    MDCT scanners capable of collecting 64 slices in a single rotation do NOT:
    • A. 

      A. perform conventional CT scans

    • B. 

      B. perform localizer scans

    • C. 

      C. perform helical CT scans

    • D. 

      D. use filtered back projection as their method of image reconstruction

  • 102. 
    A helical scan performed on a 64 slice MDCT scanner is reconstructed with:
    • A. 

      A. back projection

    • B. 

      B. cone beam reconstruction

    • C. 

      C. no reconstruction

    • D. 

      D. simple reconstruction because it is a single projection scan

  • 103. 
    What is the mathematical process used by single-row detector CT scanners to reconstruct images from raw data?
    • A. 

      A. integration of the area under the curve

    • B. 

      B. the Fourier transform

    • C. 

      C. weighted averaging

    • D. 

      D. filtered back projection

  • 104. 
    A pixel is a:
    • A. 

      A. single 2D picture element within a digital image

    • B. 

      B. bright artifact on an image

    • C. 

      C. row of 2D picture elements within a digital image

    • D. 

      D. range of gray levels on a CT image

  • 105. 
    If an image matrix has 256 rows and 256 columns, how many pixels are there in the image?
    • A. 

      A. 32,768

    • B. 

      B. 131,072

    • C. 

      C. 145,585

    • D. 

      D. 65,536

  • 106. 
    How many shades of gray can be found in one pixel of a digital image?
    • A. 

      A. 1

    • B. 

      B. 100

    • C. 

      C. unlimited number of gray shades

    • D. 

      D. 10

  • 107. 
    Of the following, which contributes most to  the shade of gray assigned to a pixel in a CT image?
    • A. 

      A. the heat capacity of the x-ray tube

    • B. 

      B. the x-ray attenuation properties of the tissue represented in the pixel

    • C. 

      C.whether the scanner is third- or fourth-generation

    • D. 

      D. the type of detectors used in the scanner

  • 108. 
    The_____contributes to the attenuation properties of a tissue. 1.  atomic number of the atoms in the tissue being scanned. 2. density of the electrons in the tissue being scanned. 3. energy level of the photons.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2 only

  • 109. 
    The CT number of water is:
    • A. 

      A. +100

    • B. 

      B. 0

    • C. 

      C. -1000

    • D. 

      D. -100

  • 110. 
    Which of the following CT numbers may represent calcification?
    • A. 

      A. +60

    • B. 

      B. 0

    • C. 

      C. -80

    • D. 

      D. +125

  • 111. 
    If tissue A has a CT number of 30, tissue B has a CT number of 100 and tissue C has a CT number of -90, arrange the three tissues from lightest to darkest in the final CT image.
    • A. 

      A. ABC

    • B. 

      B. BAC

    • C. 

      C. CBA

    • D. 

      D. CAB

  • 112. 
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 113. 
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 114. 
    Which of the following is used to reconstruct images in orientation other than the one in which they were acquired?
    • A. 

      A. 3D surface rendering

    • B. 

      B. multi-planar reconstruction

    • C. 

      C. retrospective reconstruction

    • D. 

      D. back projection

  • 115. 
    Multiplanar reconstructions are performed on which of the following? 1. image data. 2. raw data. 3. attenuation profiles.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 3 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2 only

  • 116. 
    Which of the following is the definition of contiguous?
    • A. 

      A. the process of applying a reconstruction filter

    • B. 

      B. the act of filtering the x-ray beam

    • C. 

      C. the grid of row and columns of pixels which makes up a digital image

    • D. 

      C. having no gaps between the slices

  • 117. 
    From which of the following can the most diagnostic multiplanar reconstructions be generated?
    • A. 

      A. localizer images

    • B. 

      B. overlapping transverse images from a helical scan

    • C. 

      C. transverse images with minimal gaps

    • D. 

      D. transverse images from a conventional scan

  • 118. 
    Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding 3D surface rendering?
    • A. 

      A. only the image data is needed

    • B. 

      B. helical image data is well suited for 3D rendering because there is minimal misregistration or gaps

    • C. 

      C. it can make images of bony surfaces and skin surfaces

    • D. 

      D. the raw data is needed

  • 119. 
    Which of the following processes utilizes the raw data? 1. 3D surface rendering. 2. multiplanar reconstruction. 3. retrospective reconstruction.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 3 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 2 only

  • 120. 
    The image in Figure 3-29 is an example of a:
    • A. 

      A. localizer image

    • B. 

      B. conventional CT image

    • C. 

      C. 3D surface rendering

    • D. 

      D. multiplanar reconstruction

  • 121. 
    "The ability to differentiate slight differences in density on an image" is the definition of:
    • A. 

      A. contrast

    • B. 

      B. dose

    • C. 

      C. resolution

    • D. 

      D. noise

  • 122. 
    Which of the following would improve spatial resolution?
    • A. 

      A. decrease the kVp

    • B. 

      B. decrease the reconstruction field-of-view

    • C. 

      C. increase the mAs

    • D. 

      D. increase the slice thickness

  • 123. 
    Noise is more apparent in an image when:
    • A. 

      A. using a high mAs

    • B. 

      B. a smooth reconstruction filter is used

    • C. 

      C. there is an insufficient number of photons to make the image

    • D. 

      D. the slice thickness is greater

  • 124. 
    Which of the following affects the patient dose? 1. rotation time. 2. anatomical coverage. 3. pitch.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 125. 
    Which of the following statements is TRUE? 1. CT scanners usually have saved protocols for various types of clinical studies. 2. varying a single CT scan parameter can simultaneously affect the ability to visualize small structures on the image and how grainy the image appears. 3. a new value for every CT imaging parameter must be entered prior to each scan.
    • A. 

      A. 1 only

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 126. 
    If all other factors are held constant, a scan using____mAs will produce an image with the least amount of apparent noise.
    • A. 

      A. 200

    • B. 

      B. 300

    • C. 

      C. 250

    • D. 

      D. 100

  • 127. 
    • A. 

      A. mA=200, 1 sec. rotation

    • B. 

      B. mA=100, 0.5 sec. rotation

    • C. 

      C. mA=200, 0.5 sec. rotation

    • D. 

      D. mA=100, 1 sec. rotation

  • 128. 
    Which of the following could be used to compensate for the increased image noise which results when a reduced reconstruction FOV is used? 1. increased mAs. 2. increased slice thickness. 3. decreased matrix.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 129. 
    If a thin slice is used, which of the following would help reduce the image noise?
    • A. 

      A. increased mAs

    • B. 

      B. decreased kV

    • C. 

      C. increased matrix

    • D. 

      D. reduced reconstruction field-of-view

  • 130. 
    Which of the following CT scan parameters affects the contrast of the image?
    • A. 

      A. kVp

    • B. 

      B. reconstruction field-of-view

    • C. 

      C. mAs

    • D. 

      D. slice thickness

  • 131. 
    To convert an abdominal protocol for adults to an abdominal protocol for pediatric patients, the kVp should be_____to achieve optimal tissue contrast.
    • A. 

      A. left alone

    • B. 

      B. tripled

    • C. 

      C. doubled

    • D. 

      D. decreased

  • 132. 
    On MDCT, the final, reconstructed slice thickness is determined by the:
    • A. 

      A. pitch

    • B. 

      B. reconstruction interval

    • C. 

      C. collimation of the x-ray beam

    • D. 

      D. number of row of detectors and the size of the detectors whose attenuation data gets combined

  • 133. 
    Which of the following can be changed retrospectively? 1. the slice thickness from an MDCT helical scan. 2. the slice overlap from a single-row detector scanner helical scan. 3. the slice thickness from a single-row detector scanner helical scan.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 134. 
    Which of the following occurs when the slice thickness is reduced(and all other parameters are held constant)? 1. the number of photons contributing to the image decreases. 2. partial voluming decreases. 3. the image appears more noisy.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 135. 
    Which of the following parameters is responsible for partial volume averaging?
    • A. 

      A. image matrix

    • B. 

      B. slice thickness

    • C. 

      C. mAs

    • D. 

      D. scan field-of-view

  • 136. 
    On a conventional CT scan on an MDCT scanner that acquires the data for sixteen, contiguous 1mm slices in one rotation, in order to have the next group of slices also be contiguous, at the end of the rotation, the table moves_____mm.
    • A. 

      A. 1

    • B. 

      B. 16

    • C. 

      C. 8

    • D. 

      D. 32

  • 137. 
    A single-row detector scanner performs a helical scan with a pitch of 1 and 7 mm slices and the scanner makes 50 rotations. The total anatomical distance covered during the scan is___mm.
    • A. 

      A. 350

    • B. 

      B. 50

    • C. 

      C. 500

    • D. 

      D. 100

  • 138. 
    Which of the following values for pitch would stretch the x-ray helix the most?
    • A. 

      A. 1.0

    • B. 

      B. 1.5

    • C. 

      C. 0.7

    • D. 

      D. 0.5

  • 139. 
    Which of the following is a result of increasing the pitch?
    • A. 

      A. increased dose to the patient

    • B. 

      B. decreased image contrast

    • C. 

      C. cover the anatomy faster without increasing the slice thickness

    • D. 

      D. increased number of rotations necessary to cover the anatomy

  • 140. 
    Which of the following values for pitch generates the lowest patient dose(assuming the same anatomical coverage)?
    • A. 

      A. 1.5

    • B. 

      B. 0.5

    • C. 

      C. 1.0

    • D. 

      D. 0.7

  • 141. 
    Which of the following is a reason to increase the pitch? 1. to scan a trauma patient more quickly. 2. to increase the rate of anatomical coverage. 3. to cover the vessels of interest in a CTA study while they contain the contrast agent and before the agent is visualized in the veins.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1,2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 142. 
    If the pitch is selected such that the distance moved by the patient table in one rotation is less than the slice volume, which of the following is TRUE? 1. the final reconstructed slices will be overlapped. 2. the acquired attenuation data is overlapped. 3. the dose is unaffected by selecting the pitch in this manner.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 143. 
    Which of the following parameters allows adjacent slices to be overlapped without increasing the dose to the patient?
    • A. 

      A. reconstruction interval

    • B. 

      B. pitch

    • C. 

      C. table increment

    • D. 

      D. slice thickness

  • 144. 
    On a helical scan, which of the following parameters specifies the amount of overlap between adjacent slices?
    • A. 

      A. reconstruction interval

    • B. 

      B. pitch

    • C. 

      C. kernal

    • D. 

      D. reconstruction filter

  • 145. 
    Which of the following might improve our ability to visualize a tiny lung nodule? 1. decrease the acquired slice thickness. 2. decrease the reconstructed slice thickness. 3. decrease the reconstruction interval.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1,2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 146. 
    If a reconstruction FOV of 250 mm and a 512 x 512 matrix are used, what is the pixel size?
    • A. 

      A. 0.49 mm x 0.49 mm

    • B. 

      B. 1.0 mm x 1.0 mm

    • C. 

      C. 2.05 mm x 2.05 mm

    • D. 

      D. 0.05 mm x 0.05 mm

  • 147. 
    Which of the following  is a result of reducing the reconstruction FOV? 1. reduction in the ability to resolve small objects. 2. decreased appearance of image noise. 3. anatomical structures appear larger on the display monitor.
    • A. 

      A. 2 only

    • B. 

      B. 3 only

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 148. 
    How many total pixels are there in a 512 x 512 matrix?
    • A. 

      A. 1024

    • B. 

      B. 2,000,000

    • C. 

      C. 2048

    • D. 

      D. 262,144

  • 149. 
    A CT artifact is:
    • A. 

      A. a parameter used to control the brightness of the image

    • B. 

      B. an anomaly in the CT image

    • C. 

      C. always a reason to call for repair of the CT scanner

    • D. 

      D. used to time the injection of contrast media

  • 150. 
    Beam hardening refers to the increase in the:
    • A. 

      A. average energy of the photons that reach the detectors

    • B. 

      B. number of photons reaching the detectors

    • C. 

      C. number of photons striking the anode

    • D. 

      D. number of low energy photons reaching the detectors

  • 151. 
    Which of the following affects beam hardening? 1. the energies of the photons in the x-ray beam. 2. the thickness of the tissues penetrated by the x-ray beam. 3. the types of tissues penetrated by the x-ray beam.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 152. 
    A___mm thick slice would display the greatest amount of partial volume artifact.
    • A. 

      A. 7

    • B. 

      B. 0.5

    • C. 

      C. 1

    • D. 

      D. 5

  • 153. 
    Which of the following could be done to minimize motion artifacts on CT images? 1. explain the procedure to the patient. 2. immobilize the anatomy. 3. use a helical scanning technique to acquire the necessary slices in a single breath-hold (assuming the patient can refrain from breathing for the required time).
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 154. 
    Which of the following may be the cause of a metal artifiact? 1. a zipper on the patient's clothing. 2. jewelry. 3. dental fillings.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 155. 
    Which of the following strategies can minimize metal artifacts? 1. remove as much metal from the patient as possible. 2. orient slices to avoid the metal. 3. inspect the localizer for any metal on the patient.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 156. 
    • A. 

      A. the metal will appear as a bright, dense object

    • B. 

      B. the entire image will appear blurry

    • C. 

      C. the CT number of all the tissues in the image will be misrepresented

    • D. 

      D. streaks will emanate from the object in the image

  • 157. 
    On a localizer image, a bad detector is characterized by______on the image.
    • A. 

      A. streaks

    • B. 

      B. blurring

    • C. 

      C. a line

    • D. 

      D. a circle

  • 158. 
    On a transverse image, a bad detector is characterized by________on the image.
    • A. 

      A. a circle

    • B. 

      B. blurring

    • C. 

      C. a line

    • D. 

      D. streaks

  • 159. 
    Which of the following will make the image appear darker so that bony structures can be evaluated?
    • A. 

      A. increase the window level

    • B. 

      B. decrease the window level

    • C. 

      C. increase the window width

    • D. 

      D. decrease the window width

  • 160. 
    Which of the following is the conversion equation from CT number to Hounsfield unit?
    • A. 

      A. CT number=(Hounsfield unit)2

    • B. 

      B. CT number=Hounsfield unit

    • C. 

      C. CT number=0.5 x Housfield unit

    • D. 

      D. CT number=2 x Hounsfield unit

  • 161. 
    Which of the following CT numbers would appear white if a window width of 200 and a window level of 50 are used?
    • A. 

      A. all CT numbers above +150

    • B. 

      B. all CT numbers below -250

    • C. 

      C. only CT numbers below -250

    • D. 

      D. only CT numbers above +250

  • 162. 
    • A. 

      A. decreasing the window width

    • B. 

      B. increasing the window width

    • C. 

      C. neither increasing nor decreasing the window width would emphasize the tissue boundary

    • D. 

      D. both increasing and decreasing the window width would equally emphasize the tissue boundary

  • 163. 
    Which of the following will result in displaying a wider range of CT numbers as shades of gray on the CT image?
    • A. 

      A. increasing the window level

    • B. 

      B. decreasing the window width

    • C. 

      C. decreasing the window level

    • D. 

      D. increasing the window width

  • 164. 
    A display filter: 1. can be used to either enhance edge definition or smooth the appearance of noise. 2. is the same as a reconstruction filter. 3. must be applied prior to the image reconstruction process.
    • A. 

      A. 3 only

    • B. 

      B. 1 only

    • C. 

      C. 2 only

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 165. 
    Magnification: 1. is performed on raw data. 2. does not affect image resolution. 3. does not affect apparent noise in the image.
    • A. 

      A. 3 only

    • B. 

      B. 2 only

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1 only

  • 166. 
    Which of the following organizations enforces radiation protection standards? 1. OSHA. 2. EPA. 3. NRC.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 167. 
    It is acceptable to perform a CT scan on a pregnant patient only:
    • A. 

      A. during the first trimester

    • B. 

      B. during the second trimester

    • C. 

      C. if the radiologist determines the benefit of the scan outweighs the risk to the patient

    • D. 

      D. if the technologist determines the scan is medically necessary

  • 168. 
    __________can occur due to radiation exposure. 1. Detrimental short-term effects. 2. Detrimental long-term effects. 3. Cancer.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 169. 
    For x-ray radiation:
    • A. 

      A. 1 rad=1 Sv

    • B. 

      B. 1 rad=1 Gy

    • C. 

      C. 1 rem=1 Gy

    • D. 

      D. 1 rem=1 rad

  • 170. 
    The skin dose for one conventional radiography film is 0.6 rad and 5 films using the same technique are required. The cumulative skin dose of the radiography study is______that of a 20 slice CT study in which the skin dose is 3.0 rad.
    • A. 

      A. three times

    • B. 

      B. the same as

    • C. 

      C. one half

    • D. 

      D. twice

  • 171. 
    Which of the following is a reasonable skin dose from a CT head scan?
    • A. 

      A. 0.35 rad

    • B. 

      B. 35 Gy

    • C. 

      C. 3.5 rad

    • D. 

      D. 35 rad

  • 172. 
    On a single-row detector scanner, if CT slices overlap:
    • A. 

      A. MSAD>CTDI

    • B. 

      B. MSAD=CTDI

    • C. 

      C. CTDI=3 x MSAD

    • D. 

      D. CTDI=2 x MSAD

  • 173. 
    In a CT scan, increasing______would reduce the dose to the patient, assuming all other parameters and variables are held constant.
    • A. 

      A. kVp

    • B. 

      B. anatomical coverage

    • C. 

      C. mAs

    • D. 

      D.pitch

  • 174. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Scenario 1 and Scenario 2: Scenario 1: We cover the same amount of anatomy faster, but maintain the slice thickness by increasing the pitch. Scenario 2: We keep the same slice thickness, but by increasing the number of slices we cover more anatomy.
    • A. 

      A. Scenario 1 decreases the dose to the patient and Scenario 2 increases the dose to the patient

    • B. 

      B. both Scenario 1 and 2 increase the dose to the patient

    • C. 

      C. both Scenario 1 and 2 decrease the dose to the patient

    • D. 

      D. Scenario 1 increases the dose to the patient and Scenario 2 decreases the dose to the patient

  • 175. 
    To gather additional diagnostic information on a suspicious finding, which of the following would increase the dose to the patient? 1. re-scan the region of interest using thinner slices. 2. change the reconstruction interval and perform retrospective reconstructions. 3. perform multi-planar reconstructions through the region of interest.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1 only

    • D. 

      D. 3 only

  • 176. 
    If the only kind of radiation a technologist is exposed to is x-ray radiation, which of the following is the federal government limit for her exposure in a given year?
    • A. 

      A. 5 Gy

    • B. 

      B. 50 Gy

    • C. 

      C. 5 rad

    • D. 

      D. 50 rem

  • 177. 
    Which of the following is the whole body cumulative dose equivalent limit for a 42 year old radiologist?
    • A. 

      A. 42 Gy

    • B. 

      B. 42 rad

    • C. 

      C. 42 mSv

    • D. 

      D. 42 rem

  • 178. 
    A typical contrast agent used in CT_______the CT number of a perfused tissue.
    • A. 

      A. inverts

    • B. 

      B. decreases

    • C. 

      C. does not alter

    • D. 

      D. increases

  • 179. 
    Which of the following is the ingredient in an IV contrast agent that is responsible for attenuating the x-ray beam?
    • A. 

      A. tungsten

    • B. 

      B. barium sulfate

    • C. 

      C. lead

    • D. 

      D. iodine

  • 180. 
    Which of the following types of contrast media would cause the carotid arteries to have a higher CT number than if no contrast media were used?
    • A. 

      A. intrathecal contrast media

    • B. 

      B. oral contrast media, administered rectally

    • C. 

      C. oral contrast media, swallowed

    • D. 

      D. IV contrast media

  • 181. 
    A CTA study requires:
    • A. 

      A. an overnight hospital stay

    • B. 

      B. intrathecal contrast

    • C. 

      C. extra patient preparation compared to a typical CT exam

    • D. 

      D. IV constrast

  • 182. 
    A CT study of the_____typically calls for IV contrast. 1. chest for pulmonary emboli. 2. abdomen for hepatic lesions. 3. head for multiple sclerosis.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 183. 
    A contrast agent's______may have clinical impact on a patient. 1. ability to form ions in solution. 2. osmolality. 3. viscosity.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 184. 
    When it comes to administering IV contrast agents, the injection:
    • A. 

      A. must be done by a nurse

    • B. 

      B. may be done by the CT technologist is some states, provided that a doctor is in the vicinity

    • C. 

      C. must be done by a doctor.

    • D. 

      D. must be done by the Ct technologist

  • 185. 
    When administering IV contrast media, which of the following is NOT acceptable sterile technique? 1. using dirty IV tubing. 2. using discolored contrast media. 3. continuing to wear the same gloves that were used with the previous patient.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 186. 
    For a 5 cc/sec IV contrast injection, on a patient with good veins, for a CTA study, which of the following is the best choice?
    • A. 

      A. 18 gauge catheter

    • B. 

      B. 21 gauge catheter

    • C. 

      C. you will have equal success with all of these

    • D. 

      D. butterfly needle

  • 187. 
    Which of the following would reduce the viscosity of an IV contrast agent?
    • A. 

      A. cooling

    • B. 

      B. shaking

    • C. 

      C. warming

    • D. 

      D. stirring

  • 188. 
    If IV contrast is injected at a rate of 3 ml/sec, it takes____seconds to inject 100 ml of contrast.
    • A. 

      A. 333

    • B. 

      B. 30

    • C. 

      C. 33.3

    • D. 

      D. 3

  • 189. 
    Which of the following is a valid method to prepare the basilic vein for IV contrast administration? 1. apply a tourniquet to the upper arm. 2. have the patient make a fist. 3. slap the vein briskly.
    • A. 

      A. 1&2

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 190. 
    Which of the following are settings on a power injector? 1. kV. 2. flow rate. 3. amount of contrast administered.
    • A. 

      A. 3 only

    • B. 

      B. 1 only

    • C. 

      C. 2 only

    • D. 

      D. 2&3

  • 191. 
    Following IV contrast injection, which of the following is the correct order for the phases of enhancement?
    • A. 

      A. bolus, equilibrium, non-equilibrium

    • B. 

      B. non-equilibrium, equilibrium, bolus

    • C. 

      C. bolus, non-equilibrium, equilibrium

    • D. 

      D. non-equilibrium, bolus, equilibrium

  • 192. 
    During the bolus phase of enhancement:
    • A. 

      A. the contrast agent is disbursed into the capillaries and veins

    • B. 

      B. the contrast agent travels away from the heart through the arteries

    • C. 

      C. the inferior vena cava is hyperdense compared to the aorta

    • D. 

      D. the inferior vena cava is isodense with the abdominal aorta

  • 193. 
    For optimal contrast enhancement, scanning of the liver should occur:
    • A. 

      A. anytime, because the liver has excellent contrast

    • B. 

      B. at the exact moment that the injection is started

    • C. 

      C. 3 minutes after the IV injection

    • D. 

      D. during the non-equilibrium stage of enhancement

  • 194. 
    The liver receives its blood supply from:
    • A. 

      A. both the hepatic artery and the portal vein

    • B. 

      B. both the hepatic artery and the renal vein

    • C. 

      C. only the hepatic artery

    • D. 

      D. only the renal artery

  • 195. 
    What should be done if extravasation is noticed at the injection site?
    • A. 

      A. stop the injection

    • B. 

      B. apply heat during the injection

    • C. 

      C. slap the area

    • D. 

      D. apply ice during the injection

  • 196. 
    Which of the following IV contrast agents causes the most adverse reactions?
    • A. 

      A. non-ionic agents

    • B. 

      B. they all cause about the same number and severity of reactions

    • C. 

      C. ionic agents

    • D. 

      D. iso-osmolar agents

  • 197. 
    For typical CT exams of the abdomen:
    • A. 

      A. oral contrast agents are never used

    • B. 

      B. IV contrast agents are never used

    • C. 

      C. neither IV nor oral contrast agents are used

    • D. 

      D. both IV and oral contrast agents are often used together

  • 198. 
    Which of the following types of contrast media would cause the small intestine to have a high CT number?
    • A. 

      A. air

    • B. 

      B. oral

    • C. 

      C. intrathecal

    • D. 

      D. IV

  • 199. 
    Which of the following is FALSE regarding barium sulfate oral contrast media?
    • A. 

      A. it tends to pass through the GI tract faster than iodinated agents

    • B. 

      B. it is more dilute than similar compounds used in conventional radiography

    • C. 

      C. it is contraindicated for colon perforation

    • D. 

      D. it may be administered rectally

  • 200. 
    Intrathecal contrast media: 1. is injected into the theca of the patient's spine by the CT technologist. 2. can seperate and layer out from the CSF if the patient is stationary for too long. 3. can cause streak artifacts if it is too dense.
    • A. 

      A. 1&3

    • B. 

      B. 1,2&3

    • C. 

      C. 2&3

    • D. 

      D. 1&2

  • 201. 
    ______BPM is considered a normal pulse rate for an infant.
    • A. 

      A. 45

    • B. 

      B. 60

    • C. 

      C. 85

    • D. 

      D. 130

  • 202. 
    Which of the following is considered a normal adult blood pressure?
    • A. 

      A. 100 mm HG/70 mm Hg

    • B. 

      B. 140 mm Hg/100 mm Hg

    • C. 

      C. 70 mm Hg/100 mm Hg

    • D. 

      D. 80 mm Hg/40 mm Hg

  • 203. 
    Which of the following vital signs is considered normal? 1. blood pressure of 110/90. 2. pediatric heart rate of 120 beats per minute. 3. adult heart rate of 68 beats per minute.
    • A. 

      A. 2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1,2&3

  • 204. 
    __________can be performed on a 4 year old female patient. 1. injection of IV contrast. 2. CT of the pelvis. 3. Sedation.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 2&3

    • C. 

      C. 1&2

    • D. 

      D. 1&3

  • 205. 
    Which of the following should be done with a pediatric patient? 1. reduce the technique in order to minimize the dose. 2. decrease the amount of contrast media, proportional to the patient's body weight. 3. secure the patient's body in order to minimize motion.
    • A. 

      A. 1,2&3

    • B. 

      B. 1&2

    • C. 

      C. 1&3

    • D. 

      D. 2&3