CMA Practice Exam 1

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  • 1/58 Questions

    Which of the following planes divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

    • Sagittal
    • Median
    • Midsagittal
    • Frontal plane
    • Transverse
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CMA Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

CMA Practice Exam 1 assesses knowledge in anatomy, physiology, and various bodily systems. It covers topics from tissue types to major organ systems, suitable for those preparing for CMA certification.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following systems pumps and distributes blood throughout the body?

    • Nervous

    • Respiratory

    • Sensory

    • Cardiovascular

    • Integumenatry

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardiovascular
    Explanation
    The cardiovascular system is responsible for pumping and distributing blood throughout the body. It consists of the heart, blood vessels, and blood. The heart acts as a pump, contracting and relaxing to push blood through the blood vessels. The blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and capillaries, transport the blood to various parts of the body, delivering oxygen, nutrients, and removing waste products. This system plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's overall health and functioning.

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  • 3. 

    The four major types of tissue in the body are

    • Muscle, nervous, epithelial, and connective

    • Nervous, connective, vascular, and epithelial

    • Epithelial, nervous, vascular, and epidermis

    • Muscle, epithelial, blood, and connective

    • Muscle, epithelial, nervous, and vessels

    Correct Answer
    A. Muscle, nervous, epithelial, and connective
    Explanation
    The correct answer is muscle, nervous, epithelial, and connective. This is because these four types of tissue are the main categories that make up the body. Muscle tissue allows for movement and contraction, nervous tissue transmits signals and coordinates body functions, epithelial tissue covers and protects body surfaces, and connective tissue supports and connects different structures in the body.

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  • 4. 

    The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following EXCEPT the

    • Nose

    • Pharynx

    • Bronchi

    • Upper trachea

    • Larynx

    Correct Answer
    A. Bronchi
    Explanation
    The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, pharynx, upper trachea, and larynx. The bronchi, however, are part of the lower respiratory tract. They are the two main branches that lead from the trachea into the lungs. Therefore, the correct answer is bronchi because they are not included in the upper respiratory tract.

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  • 5. 

    The accessory organs include the

    • Gallbladder, liver, and pancreas

    • Pancreas, anus, and liver

    • Liver, mouth, and esophagus

    • Large, intestine, anus, and stomach

    • Esophagus, gallbladder, and pancreas

    Correct Answer
    A. Gallbladder, liver, and pancreas
    Explanation
    The correct answer is gallbladder, liver, and pancreas. These organs are considered accessory organs because they aid in the process of digestion, but food does not pass through them directly. The gallbladder stores bile produced by the liver, which is released into the small intestine to help break down fats. The liver produces bile and also performs many other important functions such as detoxification and metabolism. The pancreas produces digestive enzymes that are released into the small intestine to break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

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  • 6. 

    Hydrocele means

    • Inflammation of the prostate

    • Inflammation of the cervix

    • Swelling of the testes

    • Inflammation of the testes

    • Impotence

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of the prostate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "inflammation of the prostate." Hydrocele refers to the accumulation of fluid in the sac around the testes, causing swelling. However, this condition is not related to the prostate. Inflammation of the prostate is known as prostatitis, which can cause symptoms such as pain, urinary difficulties, and inflammation. Therefore, "inflammation of the prostate" is the most accurate explanation for hydrocele.

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  • 7. 

    All of the following are true about leukocytes EXCEPT

    • Leukocytes are white blood cells

    • Leukocytes fight infection

    • Leukocytes produce antibodies

    • Leukocytes are part of the circulatory system

    • Leukocytes are responsible for blood clotting

    Correct Answer
    A. Leukocytes are responsible for blood clotting
    Explanation
    Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for fighting infection and producing antibodies. They are part of the circulatory system and play a crucial role in the body's immune response. However, leukocytes are not responsible for blood clotting. This function is primarily carried out by platelets, which are another type of blood cell.

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  • 8. 

    Tendonitis is a(n)

    • Broken bone

    • Inflammation of a tendon

    • Injury to a muscle

    • Progressive wasting of muscle tissue

    • Muscle pain

    Correct Answer
    A. Inflammation of a tendon
    Explanation
    Tendonitis is the inflammation of a tendon, which is a fibrous tissue that connects muscle to bone. This condition occurs when the tendon becomes irritated or damaged, often due to overuse or repetitive movements. Symptoms of tendonitis include pain, swelling, and difficulty moving the affected area. Treatment typically involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation, as well as anti-inflammatory medications and physical therapy.

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  • 9. 

    The function of the skin includes all of the following EXCEPT

    • Protection from sunlight

    • Lubrication

    • Protection from microorganisms

    • Regulation of temperature

    • Transportation of immune cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Transportation of immune cells
    Explanation
    The skin performs various functions, including protection from sunlight, lubrication, protection from microorganisms, and regulation of temperature. However, the transportation of immune cells is not a function of the skin. Immune cells are typically transported through the bloodstream and lymphatic system to reach different parts of the body where they are needed for immune responses. The skin itself does not have a direct role in transporting immune cells.

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  • 10. 

    The nucleus is

    • The control center that directs the activity of the cells

    • A gel-like fluid in the cell

    • A lysosome

    • A tissue

    • A cell membrane

    Correct Answer
    A. The control center that directs the activity of the cells
    Explanation
    The nucleus is the control center that directs the activity of the cells. It contains the cell's genetic material, DNA, which carries instructions for the cell's functions and activities. The nucleus regulates the synthesis of proteins and controls cell division. It acts as a command center, sending out signals and instructions to other parts of the cell to carry out specific tasks. Without the nucleus, the cell would not be able to function properly and carry out its necessary functions.

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  • 11. 

    Cholelithiasis is

    • Inflammation of a joint.

    • Inflammation of the stomach.

    • Gallstones.

    • Inflammation of the gallbladder.

    • Chronic degenerative disease of the liver.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gallstones.
    Explanation
    Cholelithiasis refers to the presence of gallstones in the gallbladder. It is not related to inflammation of a joint, inflammation of the stomach, or chronic degenerative disease of the liver. While inflammation of the gallbladder is a possible complication of cholelithiasis, it is not the same as cholelithiasis itself. Therefore, the correct answer is gallstones.

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  • 12. 

    The sensory organs include all the following EXCEPT

    • The pharynx.

    • The eyes.

    • The nose.

    • The tongue.

    • The ears.

    Correct Answer
    A. The pharynx.
    Explanation
    The pharynx is not considered a sensory organ. It is a muscular tube that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the esophagus and larynx, and is involved in the process of swallowing and vocalization. On the other hand, the eyes, nose, tongue, and ears are all sensory organs that are responsible for receiving and transmitting sensory information such as vision, smell, taste, and hearing, respectively.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following term means "surgical removal of the kidney"?

    • Appendectomy

    • Cholecystectomy

    • Hysterectomy

    • Nephrectomy

    • Splenectomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Nephrectomy
    Explanation
    Nephrectomy refers to the surgical removal of the kidney. It is a medical procedure performed to treat conditions such as kidney cancer, kidney stones, and severe kidney damage. During a nephrectomy, the affected kidney is completely or partially removed, depending on the extent of the disease or injury. This procedure may be done using open surgery or minimally invasive techniques such as laparoscopy or robotic-assisted surgery.

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  • 14. 

    The combining form cost/o refers to which of the following anatomic structures?

    • Bone marrow

    • Clavicle

    • Joint

    • Ligament

    • Rib

    Correct Answer
    A. Rib
    Explanation
    The combining form cost/o specifically refers to ribs. This can be understood by breaking down the word "cost/o" where "cost" refers to ribs and the suffix "-o" indicates a combining form. Therefore, the correct answer is rib.

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  • 15. 

    All of the following components are a part of Sigmunnd Freud's theories of psychology EXCEPT

    • Id.

    • Subconscious.

    • Ego.

    • Behaviorism.

    • Superego.

    Correct Answer
    A. Behaviorism.
    Explanation
    Sigmund Freud's theories of psychology include the id, subconscious, ego, and superego. Behaviorism, on the other hand, is not a component of Freud's theories. Behaviorism is a school of psychology that focuses on observable behavior and external stimuli, whereas Freud's theories primarily focus on the unconscious mind and internal psychological processes.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following terms means "difficulty swallowing"?

    • Dyscrasia

    • Dyspepsia

    • Dysphagia

    • Dyspnea

    • Dysuria

    Correct Answer
    A. Dysphagia
    Explanation
    Dysphagia is the term that means "difficulty swallowing". It is a medical condition characterized by the inability or discomfort in swallowing food or liquids. This difficulty can be caused by various factors such as muscle weakness, nerve damage, or obstruction in the throat or esophagus. Dysphagia can lead to complications like malnutrition and dehydration if left untreated.

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  • 17. 

    Cognitive theory offers an approach to psychology that encourages individuals to examine

    • Their dreams.

    • Errors in their thinking.

    • Rational beliefs.

    • Grief and loss.

    • Needs and desires.

    Correct Answer
    A. Errors in their thinking.
    Explanation
    Cognitive theory suggests that individuals should analyze and evaluate their thinking processes, including any errors or distortions in their thoughts. This approach emphasizes the importance of identifying and correcting cognitive distortions, such as negative thinking patterns or irrational beliefs, in order to improve mental well-being. By examining errors in thinking, individuals can gain insight into their cognitive processes and make necessary adjustments to promote more positive and rational thoughts.

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  • 18. 

    Which suffix means “surgical repair”?

    • Opsy

    • Rrhea

    • Plasty

    • Tome

    • Lysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasty
    Explanation
    The suffix "plasty" means "surgical repair." It is commonly used in medical terminology to indicate a surgical procedure that involves the reconstruction or restoration of a body part or tissue. Examples of procedures that use this suffix include rhinoplasty (surgical repair of the nose) and mammoplasty (surgical repair of the breast).

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following conditions is commonly known as a bruise?

    • Ecchymosis

    • Epistaxis

    • Hematoma

    • Lesion

    • Thrombosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hematoma
    Explanation
    A hematoma is a condition commonly known as a bruise. It occurs when blood vessels rupture, causing blood to pool under the skin. This pooling of blood leads to discoloration and tenderness in the affected area, which are typical symptoms of a bruise. Ecchymosis, epistaxis, lesion, and thrombosis are all different conditions with distinct characteristics and causes, and they are not commonly referred to as bruises.

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  • 20. 

    Each of the following identifies one of Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’s five stages of grief EXCEPT

    • Denial.

    • Anger.

    • Shock.

    • Bargaining.

    • Depression.

    Correct Answer
    A. Shock.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is shock. Elizabeth Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Shock is not one of the stages identified by Kübler-Ross.

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  • 21. 

    The most accurate definition of “defense mechanisms” in psychology is

    • A means to bring upsetting emotions to the surface of an individual’s consciousness.

    • Ways to strike out in anger in difficult situations.

    • Strategies individuals use to avoid difficult or painful feelings.

    • One type of mood swing experienced by individuals suffering from bipolar disorder.

    • A way for humans to avoid talking to each other.

    Correct Answer
    A. Strategies individuals use to avoid difficult or painful feelings.
    Explanation
    Defense mechanisms in psychology refer to the strategies or techniques that individuals use to cope with or avoid difficult or painful emotions. These mechanisms help individuals protect themselves from anxiety, stress, or other negative emotions by unconsciously distorting reality or redirecting their thoughts and behaviors. These strategies can include repression, denial, projection, or rationalization, among others. By employing defense mechanisms, individuals can temporarily alleviate distress and maintain their psychological well-being.

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  • 22. 

    All of the following statements about renewing the CMA credential are true EXCEPT

    • The CMA credential must be renewed every five years.

    • The CMA credential may be renewed by retaking the certifying examination.

    • The CMA credential is required in order to practice in the medical assisting profession.

    • The CMA credential may be renewed by earning continuing education units (CEUs).

    • A current CMA credential may help in career advancement and financial compensation.

    Correct Answer
    A. The CMA credential is required in order to practice in the medical assisting profession.
    Explanation
    The CMA credential is not required in order to practice in the medical assisting profession.

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  • 23. 

    Which certifying agency allows a medical assistant to use the CMA credential?

    • Registered Medical Assistants (RMA)

    • Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP)

    • American Medical Association (AMA)

    • American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)

    • American Medical Technologists (AMT)

    Correct Answer
    A. Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP). CAAHEP is a certifying agency that allows medical assistants to use the CMA (Certified Medical Assistant) credential. CAAHEP is responsible for accrediting and approving medical assisting programs that meet certain standards of education and training. By completing an accredited program, medical assistants are eligible to take the CMA exam and earn their certification. This certification demonstrates their competency and professionalism in the field of medical assisting.

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  • 24. 

    Which type of resume is written specifically for an advertised job?

    • Letter of recommendation

    • Targeted

    • Chronological

    • Functional

    • Cover letter

    Correct Answer
    A. Targeted
    Explanation
    A resume that is written specifically for an advertised job is called a targeted resume. A targeted resume is customized and tailored to match the qualifications and requirements of a specific job advertisement. It highlights the relevant skills, experiences, and achievements that make the applicant a strong fit for the advertised position. This type of resume is often more effective in capturing the attention of potential employers because it directly addresses their needs and showcases how the applicant can meet them.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following incoming calls should the medical assistant transfer immediately to the physician?

    • A new patient demanding to speak with the physician before making an appointment

    • The emergency room calling about admitting an established patient with chest pain

    • The intensive care unit requesting a diet order for tomorrow on one of the physician’s patients

    • A pharmaceutical representative excited about a new discovery in medicine

    • A patient requesting a prescription refill

    Correct Answer
    A. The emergency room calling about admitting an established patient with chest pain
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should transfer the call from the emergency room about admitting an established patient with chest pain immediately to the physician because it is a potentially urgent situation that requires immediate attention and medical decision-making.

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  • 26. 

    A physician who specializes in disorders of the eye is known as which of the following?

    • Ophthalmologist

    • Oncologist

    • Orthodontist

    • Osteologist

    • Otolaryngologist

    Correct Answer
    A. Ophthalmologist
    Explanation
    An ophthalmologist is a physician who specializes in disorders of the eye. They are trained to diagnose and treat various eye conditions such as cataracts, glaucoma, and macular degeneration. They are also skilled in performing eye surgeries and prescribing corrective lenses. Ophthalmologists undergo extensive medical training and education specifically focused on eye health, making them the correct answer for this question.

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  • 27. 

    When the medical assistant is preparing to answer incoming calls, what supplies or items should he or she have readily available?

    • Patient medical records, coding books, and office policy manual

    • Appointment book, calendar, message pad or notepad, and pen and pencil

    • Reminder cards, appointment book, and pen and pencil

    • New patient registration forms and change of address forms

    • Notepad, medical dictionary, and pen and pencil

    Correct Answer
    A. Appointment book, calendar, message pad or notepad, and pen and pencil
    Explanation
    The medical assistant should have an appointment book, calendar, message pad or notepad, and pen and pencil readily available when preparing to answer incoming calls. These supplies will help the assistant efficiently schedule appointments, keep track of important dates, take messages, and jot down any necessary information during phone conversations.

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  • 28. 

    The information needed to make a return appointment for an established patient includes all of the following EXCEPT

    • Reason for the visit.

    • Daytime phone number.

    • Type of insurance.

    • Name of the patient.

    • Patient’s employer.

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient’s employer.
    Explanation
    To make a return appointment for an established patient, the necessary information typically includes the reason for the visit, the daytime phone number, the type of insurance, and the name of the patient. However, the patient's employer is not typically required for scheduling a return appointment.

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  • 29. 

    A patient’s neighbor calls, stating that she is concerned about her friend and would like to know what is wrong with the patient. The medical assistant should

    • Give just basic information because the neighbor is such a good friend to the patient.

    • Tell the neighbor that she should know better than to be prying into someone else’s business.

    • Tell the neighbor she needs to come into the office to discuss any information about the patient because the phone lines are not secure.

    • Tactfully refuse to release any patient information without the patient’s written permission.

    • Ask the neighbor to accompany the patient on her next office visit.

    Correct Answer
    A. Tactfully refuse to release any patient information without the patient’s written permission.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to tactfully refuse to release any patient information without the patient's written permission. This is the appropriate response because it upholds patient confidentiality and protects the patient's privacy rights. As a medical assistant, it is important to adhere to ethical and legal guidelines regarding patient information and not disclose any sensitive medical details without proper authorization.

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  • 30. 

    When responding to a hearing-impaired caller, the medical assistant should

    • Speak a little more slowly and a little more loudly.

    • Shout so that he or she will not have to repeat the information too many times.

    • Ask to speak to a family member to be sure that the information is received correctly.

    • Tell the patient that he or she will mail a response to the patient’s questions as soon as possible.

    • Spell out each word so that the patient can write down the information.

    Correct Answer
    A. Speak a little more slowly and a little more loudly.
    Explanation
    When responding to a hearing-impaired caller, it is important for the medical assistant to speak a little more slowly and a little more loudly. This allows the caller to better understand and hear the information being communicated. Shouting may be counterproductive and cause discomfort for the caller. Asking to speak to a family member may not be necessary if the caller is able to communicate effectively. Mailing a response may not address the immediate needs of the caller. Spelling out each word can be time-consuming and may not be necessary if the caller can hear some words.

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  • 31. 

    The best way to handle an unidentified caller who insists on speaking with the physician but refuses to give her phone number or the reason for her call would be to

    • Transfer the call to the physician because the patient is becoming upset.

    • Transfer the call to the office manager, who may be able to get the patient’s name and phone number.

    • Ask the caller not to call back until she is prepared to give the requested information.

    • Tell the caller that unidentified calls are never transferred to the physician and then hang up.

    • Ask the caller to send a letter to the physician.

    Correct Answer
    A. Ask the caller to send a letter to the physician.
    Explanation
    If the unidentified caller refuses to provide her phone number or reason for her call, the best course of action would be to ask the caller to send a letter to the physician. This allows the caller to provide the necessary information in a written format, ensuring that the physician can address the issue appropriately. It also maintains the office's protocol of not transferring unidentified calls directly to the physician.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following conditions is most characteristic of an asthma attack?

    • Dyspareunia

    • Dysphagia

    • Dysphasia

    • Dyspnea

    • Dystonia

    Correct Answer
    A. Dyspnea
    Explanation
    Dyspnea is the most characteristic condition of an asthma attack. Dyspnea refers to difficulty in breathing or shortness of breath, which is a common symptom experienced during an asthma attack. It occurs due to the narrowing of airways and inflammation in the lungs, leading to restricted airflow and breathing difficulties.

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  • 33. 

    To obtain confidential patient information, which caller does NOT need a patient’s written consent?

    • Insurance carrier

    • Lawyer

    • Patient’s neighbor

    • Referring physician

    • Member of the patient’s family

    Correct Answer
    A. Referring physician
    Explanation
    A referring physician does not need a patient's written consent to obtain confidential patient information because they are directly involved in the patient's medical care and treatment. Referring physicians often need access to patient information in order to make appropriate referrals and coordinate care with other healthcare providers. This is different from other individuals such as insurance carriers, lawyers, neighbors, or family members who would typically require written consent from the patient to access their confidential information.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following situations is NOT considered to be a reportable incident?

    • A gunshot wound

    • A sexually transmitted disease

    • A negative result for HIV

    • A case of pertussis

    • Child abuse

    Correct Answer
    A. A negative result for HIV
    Explanation
    A negative result for HIV is not considered to be a reportable incident because it indicates that the person tested does not have the virus. Reportable incidents typically refer to situations that require immediate action or intervention, such as gunshot wounds, sexually transmitted diseases, cases of pertussis, or child abuse. However, a negative HIV result does not pose a threat or require any further reporting as it indicates a non-infection status.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following terms means “the thing speaks for itself” when applied to the law of negligence?

    • Malfeasance

    • Res ipsa loquitur

    • Nonfeasance

    • Jurisprudence

    • Respondant superior

    Correct Answer
    A. Res ipsa loquitur
    Explanation
    Res ipsa loquitur is a Latin term that translates to "the thing speaks for itself." When applied to the law of negligence, it means that the occurrence of an accident or injury itself implies negligence on the part of the defendant. In other words, the circumstances surrounding the incident are so clear that negligence can be inferred without direct evidence. This legal doctrine allows the plaintiff to establish a prima facie case of negligence without having to prove specific acts of negligence.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of insurance would cover the medical expenses of an employee injured on the job?

    • Major medical

    • TRICARE

    • Medicare

    • Workers’ compensation

    • Health maintenance organization

    Correct Answer
    A. Workers’ compensation
    Explanation
    Workers' compensation insurance is specifically designed to cover the medical expenses of employees who are injured on the job. This type of insurance provides compensation for medical treatment, rehabilitation, and lost wages for employees who suffer work-related injuries or illnesses. It is a legal requirement in most countries to have workers' compensation insurance to protect both employers and employees in case of workplace accidents or injuries.

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  • 37. 

    All of the following are reasons for proper documentation of procedures performed in a medical office EXCEPT

    • Information documented in the medical record may be used to reassure an employer about the health of an employee.

    • Information documented in the medical record may be used in a court of law in the defense of a physician being sued.

    • Information documented in the medical record may be used to provide information to referring physicians.

    • Information documented in the medical record may be used to gather statistical information for research.

    • Information documented in the medical record allows physicians to keep track of the medical treatments and care provided to a patient.

    Correct Answer
    A. Information documented in the medical record may be used to reassure an employer about the health of an employee.
    Explanation
    Proper documentation of procedures performed in a medical office is important for several reasons. It allows physicians to keep track of the medical treatments and care provided to a patient. It also provides information to referring physicians and may be used to gather statistical information for research purposes. Additionally, information documented in the medical record may be used in a court of law to defend a physician being sued. However, it is not typically used to reassure an employer about the health of an employee.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the narrowing of the urethra?

    • Urethralgia

    • Urethritis

    • Urethrorrhagia

    • Urethroscope

    • Urethrostenosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Urethrostenosis
    Explanation
    Urethrostenosis refers to the narrowing of the urethra.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term for an enlarged spleen?

    • Spleenamegly

    • Spleenomegaly

    • Splenamegaly

    • Splenomegaly

    • Splenomeglly

    Correct Answer
    A. Splenomegaly
    Explanation
    Splenomegaly is the correct spelling of the term for an enlarged spleen. The word is derived from "spleen" which refers to the organ and "megaly" which means enlargement.

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  • 40. 

    The Personnel Record Act prohibits an employer from keeping information about

    • An employee’s job performance.

    • An employee’s political affiliation.

    • Recent disciplinary actions against the employee.

    • Recent work incidences.

    • An employee in a locked file.

    Correct Answer
    A. An employee’s political affiliation.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an employee’s political affiliation." The Personnel Record Act prohibits employers from keeping information about an employee's political affiliation. This is to protect employees' privacy and prevent any potential discrimination or bias based on their political beliefs. Employers should focus on job performance and relevant work-related information rather than personal political affiliations.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

    • “How are you today, Mrs. Jones?”

    • “Do you have any questions about your diet?”

    • “Would you please describe the exercises you do each day that tend to cause the chest pain you are experiencing?”

    • “Do you enjoy the foods on the low-sodium list the nutritionist gave you?”

    • “Are you happy with the progress you are making?”

    Correct Answer
    A. “Would you please describe the exercises you do each day that tend to cause the chest pain you are experiencing?”
    Explanation
    The question "Would you please describe the exercises you do each day that tend to cause the chest pain you are experiencing?" is an example of an open-ended question because it allows the respondent to provide a detailed and personalized response. It does not limit the answer to a simple yes or no, but rather encourages the person to provide specific information about their experiences with chest pain and the exercises that may be causing it.

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  • 42. 

    When should the W-2 form, the wage and tax statement, be given to an employee?

    • Annually in April

    • Annually in January

    • Biannually in January and June

    • Quarterly in March, June, September, and December

    • Every time there is a change in the employee’s work status

    Correct Answer
    A. Annually in January
    Explanation
    The W-2 form, the wage and tax statement, should be given to an employee annually in January. This is because the W-2 form reports the employee's annual wages and the amount of taxes withheld from their paycheck throughout the year. By providing the form in January, the employee has enough time to review and file their taxes before the April deadline.

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  • 43. 

    All of the following may interfere with a therapeutic relationship between the patient and the healthcare provider EXCEPT

    • Stress.

    • Physical disabilities.

    • Anger.

    • Empathy.

    • Mistrust.

    Correct Answer
    A. Empathy.
    Explanation
    Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another. In a therapeutic relationship, empathy is essential as it helps the healthcare provider to connect with the patient on an emotional level and understand their experiences. It fosters trust, promotes open communication, and enhances the overall quality of care. Therefore, empathy does not interfere with the therapeutic relationship between the patient and the healthcare provider.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following statements would be an example of stereotyping?

    • All elderly patients have difficulty walking.

    • Some elderly patients have difficulty hearing.

    • Many patients have some type of vision impairment.

    • A lot of patients have memory lapses.

    • A few elderly patients have high blood pressure.

    Correct Answer
    A. All elderly patients have difficulty walking.
    Explanation
    This statement would be an example of stereotyping because it generalizes and assumes that all elderly patients have difficulty walking, without considering individual differences or circumstances. Stereotyping involves making assumptions or judgments about a group of people based on their shared characteristics or attributes, without considering the diversity within that group.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following terms refers to the surgical removal of a lymph node?

    • Lymphadenectomy

    • Lymhadenitis

    • Lymphadenopathy

    • Lymphadenotomy

    • Lymphectasia

    Correct Answer
    A. Lymphadenectomy
    Explanation
    Lymphadenectomy refers to the surgical removal of a lymph node. It is a procedure commonly performed to diagnose or treat certain conditions, such as cancer or infection. During a lymphadenectomy, one or more lymph nodes are removed and examined under a microscope to determine the presence of abnormal cells or to assess the extent of disease spread. This procedure can help in staging the disease and determining the appropriate treatment plan.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered a special accessibility alteration designed just for disabled patients coming to the physician’s office?

    • Mats on the floors near entryways to prevent patient falls because of wet floors

    • Widened corridors enabling easy movement of wheelchairs

    • Bathroom stalls with handrails

    • Braille signs to mark the elevator levels

    • Examining rooms designed to allow easy movement of wheelchairs

    Correct Answer
    A. Mats on the floors near entryways to prevent patient falls because of wet floors
    Explanation
    The other options listed in the question are all examples of special accessibility alterations designed for disabled patients, such as widened corridors for wheelchair movement, bathroom stalls with handrails, Braille signs for elevator levels, and examining rooms designed for wheelchair accessibility. However, mats on the floors near entryways to prevent patient falls due to wet floors are not specifically designed for disabled patients, but rather for general safety purposes.

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  • 47. 

    Which organization registers physicians to prescribe controlled substances?

    • Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

    • Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

    • Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

    • Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

    • Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
    Explanation
    The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is the organization responsible for registering physicians to prescribe controlled substances. The DEA is a federal agency that enforces controlled substances laws and regulations in the United States. They oversee the registration process for healthcare providers who wish to prescribe medications with a high potential for abuse, such as opioids. By registering with the DEA, physicians are granted the authority to prescribe these substances in accordance with federal guidelines and regulations.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following describes a wrong and unlawful act performed by a physician?

    • Malfeasance

    • Misfeasance

    • Nonfeasance

    • Feasance

    • Disfeasance

    Correct Answer
    A. Malfeasance
    Explanation
    Malfeasance refers to the intentional and wrongful act committed by a physician, such as providing improper treatment, prescribing unnecessary medication, or engaging in fraudulent activities. It involves the deliberate violation of professional standards and ethics, resulting in harm or injury to the patient. This term specifically denotes a physician's deliberate misconduct or illegal behavior, distinguishing it from misfeasance (a mistake or improper action) and nonfeasance (failure to act or fulfill a duty). Feasance and disfeasance are not relevant to describing a physician's wrongful act.

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  • 49. 

    A legal, valid contract may include all of the following EXCEPT

    • Offer and acceptance.

    • A legal subject matter.

    • Signatures made by mentally competent emancipated minors.

    • A valid consideration or something of value.

    • Any two individuals.

    Correct Answer
    A. Any two individuals.
    Explanation
    A legal, valid contract may include offer and acceptance, a legal subject matter, signatures made by mentally competent emancipated minors, and a valid consideration or something of value. However, the involvement of any two individuals is not a requirement for a contract to be legal and valid. Contracts can be formed between individuals, organizations, or a combination of both. Therefore, the correct answer is any two individuals.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Oct 16, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Oct 16, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2013
    Quiz Created by
    Maricela07

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