CMA Practice Exam 1

58 Questions

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  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Sagittal

    • B. 

      Median

    • C. 

      Midsagittal

    • D. 

      Frontal plane

    • E. 

      Transverse

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Nervous

    • B. 

      Respiratory

    • C. 

      Sensory

    • D. 

      Cardiovascular

    • E. 

      Integumenatry

  • 3. 
    The four major types of tissue in the body are
    • A. 

      Muscle, nervous, epithelial, and connective

    • B. 

      Nervous, connective, vascular, and epithelial

    • C. 

      Epithelial, nervous, vascular, and epidermis

    • D. 

      Muscle, epithelial, blood, and connective

    • E. 

      Muscle, epithelial, nervous, and vessels

  • 4. 
    The upper respiratory tract includes all of the following EXCEPT the
    • A. 

      Nose

    • B. 

      Pharynx

    • C. 

      Bronchi

    • D. 

      Upper trachea

    • E. 

      Larynx

  • 5. 
    The accessory organs include the
    • A. 

      Gallbladder, liver, and pancreas

    • B. 

      Pancreas, anus, and liver

    • C. 

      Liver, mouth, and esophagus

    • D. 

      Large, intestine, anus, and stomach

    • E. 

      Esophagus, gallbladder, and pancreas

  • 6. 
    Hydrocele means
    • A. 

      Inflammation of the prostate

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the cervix

    • C. 

      Swelling of the testes

    • D. 

      Inflammation of the testes

    • E. 

      Impotence

  • 7. 
    All of the following are true about leukocytes EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Leukocytes are white blood cells

    • B. 

      Leukocytes fight infection

    • C. 

      Leukocytes produce antibodies

    • D. 

      Leukocytes are part of the circulatory system

    • E. 

      Leukocytes are responsible for blood clotting

  • 8. 
    Tendonitis is a(n)
    • A. 

      Broken bone

    • B. 

      Inflammation of a tendon

    • C. 

      Injury to a muscle

    • D. 

      Progressive wasting of muscle tissue

    • E. 

      Muscle pain

  • 9. 
    The function of the skin includes all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Protection from sunlight

    • B. 

      Lubrication

    • C. 

      Protection from microorganisms

    • D. 

      Regulation of temperature

    • E. 

      Transportation of immune cells

  • 10. 
    The nucleus is
    • A. 

      The control center that directs the activity of the cells

    • B. 

      A gel-like fluid in the cell

    • C. 

      A lysosome

    • D. 

      A tissue

    • E. 

      A cell membrane

  • 11. 
    Cholelithiasis is
    • A. 

      Inflammation of a joint.

    • B. 

      Inflammation of the stomach.

    • C. 

      Gallstones.

    • D. 

      Inflammation of the gallbladder.

    • E. 

      Chronic degenerative disease of the liver.

  • 12. 
    The sensory organs include all the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      The pharynx.

    • B. 

      The eyes.

    • C. 

      The nose.

    • D. 

      The tongue.

    • E. 

      The ears.

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Appendectomy

    • B. 

      Cholecystectomy

    • C. 

      Hysterectomy

    • D. 

      Nephrectomy

    • E. 

      Splenectomy

  • 14. 
    The combining form cost/o refers to which of the following anatomic structures?
    • A. 

      Bone marrow

    • B. 

      Clavicle

    • C. 

      Joint

    • D. 

      Ligament

    • E. 

      Rib

  • 15. 
    All of the following components are a part of Sigmunnd Freud's theories of psychology EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Id.

    • B. 

      Subconscious.

    • C. 

      Ego.

    • D. 

      Behaviorism.

    • E. 

      Superego.

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      Dyscrasia

    • B. 

      Dyspepsia

    • C. 

      Dysphagia

    • D. 

      Dyspnea

    • E. 

      Dysuria

  • 17. 
    Cognitive theory offers an approach to psychology that encourages individuals to examine
    • A. 

      Their dreams.

    • B. 

      Errors in their thinking.

    • C. 

      Rational beliefs.

    • D. 

      Grief and loss.

    • E. 

      Needs and desires.

  • 18. 
    Which suffix means “surgical repair”?
    • A. 

      Opsy

    • B. 

      Rrhea

    • C. 

      Plasty

    • D. 

      Tome

    • E. 

      Lysis

  • 19. 
    Which of the following conditions is commonly known as a bruise?
    • A. 

      Ecchymosis

    • B. 

      Epistaxis

    • C. 

      Hematoma

    • D. 

      Lesion

    • E. 

      Thrombosis

  • 20. 
    Each of the following identifies one of Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’s five stages of grief EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Denial.

    • B. 

      Anger.

    • C. 

      Shock.

    • D. 

      Bargaining.

    • E. 

      Depression.

  • 21. 
    The most accurate definition of “defense mechanisms” in psychology is
    • A. 

      A means to bring upsetting emotions to the surface of an individual’s consciousness.

    • B. 

      Ways to strike out in anger in difficult situations.

    • C. 

      Strategies individuals use to avoid difficult or painful feelings.

    • D. 

      One type of mood swing experienced by individuals suffering from bipolar disorder.

    • E. 

      A way for humans to avoid talking to each other.

  • 22. 
    All of the following statements about renewing the CMA credential are true EXCEPT
    • A. 

      The CMA credential must be renewed every five years.

    • B. 

      The CMA credential may be renewed by retaking the certifying examination.

    • C. 

      The CMA credential is required in order to practice in the medical assisting profession.

    • D. 

      The CMA credential may be renewed by earning continuing education units (CEUs).

    • E. 

      A current CMA credential may help in career advancement and financial compensation.

  • 23. 
    Which certifying agency allows a medical assistant to use the CMA credential?
    • A. 

      Registered Medical Assistants (RMA)

    • B. 

      Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP)

    • C. 

      American Medical Association (AMA)

    • D. 

      American Association of Medical Assistants (AAMA)

    • E. 

      American Medical Technologists (AMT)

  • 24. 
    Which type of resume is written specifically for an advertised job?
    • A. 

      Letter of recommendation

    • B. 

      Targeted

    • C. 

      Chronological

    • D. 

      Functional

    • E. 

      Cover letter

  • 25. 
    Which of the following incoming calls should the medical assistant transfer immediately to the physician?
    • A. 

      A new patient demanding to speak with the physician before making an appointment

    • B. 

      The emergency room calling about admitting an established patient with chest pain

    • C. 

      The intensive care unit requesting a diet order for tomorrow on one of the physician’s patients

    • D. 

      A pharmaceutical representative excited about a new discovery in medicine

    • E. 

      A patient requesting a prescription refill

  • 26. 
    A physician who specializes in disorders of the eye is known as which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ophthalmologist

    • B. 

      Oncologist

    • C. 

      Orthodontist

    • D. 

      Osteologist

    • E. 

      Otolaryngologist

  • 27. 
    When the medical assistant is preparing to answer incoming calls, what supplies or items should he or she have readily available?
    • A. 

      Patient medical records, coding books, and office policy manual

    • B. 

      Appointment book, calendar, message pad or notepad, and pen and pencil

    • C. 

      Reminder cards, appointment book, and pen and pencil

    • D. 

      New patient registration forms and change of address forms

    • E. 

      Notepad, medical dictionary, and pen and pencil

  • 28. 
    The information needed to make a return appointment for an established patient includes all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Reason for the visit.

    • B. 

      Daytime phone number.

    • C. 

      Type of insurance.

    • D. 

      Name of the patient.

    • E. 

      Patient’s employer.

  • 29. 
    A patient’s neighbor calls, stating that she is concerned about her friend and would like to know what is wrong with the patient. The medical assistant should
    • A. 

      Give just basic information because the neighbor is such a good friend to the patient.

    • B. 

      Tell the neighbor that she should know better than to be prying into someone else’s business.

    • C. 

      Tell the neighbor she needs to come into the office to discuss any information about the patient because the phone lines are not secure.

    • D. 

      Tactfully refuse to release any patient information without the patient’s written permission.

    • E. 

      Ask the neighbor to accompany the patient on her next office visit.

  • 30. 
    When responding to a hearing-impaired caller, the medical assistant should
    • A. 

      Speak a little more slowly and a little more loudly.

    • B. 

      Shout so that he or she will not have to repeat the information too many times.

    • C. 

      Ask to speak to a family member to be sure that the information is received correctly.

    • D. 

      Tell the patient that he or she will mail a response to the patient’s questions as soon as possible.

    • E. 

      Spell out each word so that the patient can write down the information.

  • 31. 
    The best way to handle an unidentified caller who insists on speaking with the physician but refuses to give her phone number or the reason for her call would be to
    • A. 

      Transfer the call to the physician because the patient is becoming upset.

    • B. 

      Transfer the call to the office manager, who may be able to get the patient’s name and phone number.

    • C. 

      Ask the caller not to call back until she is prepared to give the requested information.

    • D. 

      Tell the caller that unidentified calls are never transferred to the physician and then hang up.

    • E. 

      Ask the caller to send a letter to the physician.

  • 32. 
    Which of the following conditions is most characteristic of an asthma attack?
    • A. 

      Dyspareunia

    • B. 

      Dysphagia

    • C. 

      Dysphasia

    • D. 

      Dyspnea

    • E. 

      Dystonia

  • 33. 
    To obtain confidential patient information, which caller does NOT need a patient’s written consent?
    • A. 

      Insurance carrier

    • B. 

      Lawyer

    • C. 

      Patient’s neighbor

    • D. 

      Referring physician

    • E. 

      Member of the patient’s family

  • 34. 
    Which of the following situations is NOT considered to be a reportable incident?
    • A. 

      A gunshot wound

    • B. 

      A sexually transmitted disease

    • C. 

      A negative result for HIV

    • D. 

      A case of pertussis

    • E. 

      Child abuse

  • 35. 
    Which of the following terms means “the thing speaks for itself” when applied to the law of negligence?
    • A. 

      Malfeasance

    • B. 

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • C. 

      Nonfeasance

    • D. 

      Jurisprudence

    • E. 

      Respondant superior

  • 36. 
    Which type of insurance would cover the medical expenses of an employee injured on the job?
    • A. 

      Major medical

    • B. 

      TRICARE

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Workers’ compensation

    • E. 

      Health maintenance organization

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Information documented in the medical record may be used to reassure an employer about the health of an employee.

    • B. 

      Information documented in the medical record may be used in a court of law in the defense of a physician being sued.

    • C. 

      Information documented in the medical record may be used to provide information to referring physicians.

    • D. 

      Information documented in the medical record may be used to gather statistical information for research.

    • E. 

      Information documented in the medical record allows physicians to keep track of the medical treatments and care provided to a patient.

  • 38. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the narrowing of the urethra?
    • A. 

      Urethralgia

    • B. 

      Urethritis

    • C. 

      Urethrorrhagia

    • D. 

      Urethroscope

    • E. 

      Urethrostenosis

  • 39. 
    Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term for an enlarged spleen?
    • A. 

      Spleenamegly

    • B. 

      Spleenomegaly

    • C. 

      Splenamegaly

    • D. 

      Splenomegaly

    • E. 

      Splenomeglly

  • 40. 
    The Personnel Record Act prohibits an employer from keeping information about
    • A. 

      An employee’s job performance.

    • B. 

      An employee’s political affiliation.

    • C. 

      Recent disciplinary actions against the employee.

    • D. 

      Recent work incidences.

    • E. 

      An employee in a locked file.

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
    • A. 

      “How are you today, Mrs. Jones?”

    • B. 

      “Do you have any questions about your diet?”

    • C. 

      “Would you please describe the exercises you do each day that tend to cause the chest pain you are experiencing?”

    • D. 

      “Do you enjoy the foods on the low-sodium list the nutritionist gave you?”

    • E. 

      “Are you happy with the progress you are making?”

  • 42. 
    When should the W-2 form, the wage and tax statement, be given to an employee?
    • A. 

      Annually in April

    • B. 

      Annually in January

    • C. 

      Biannually in January and June

    • D. 

      Quarterly in March, June, September, and December

    • E. 

      Every time there is a change in the employee’s work status

  • 43. 
    All of the following may interfere with a therapeutic relationship between the patient and the healthcare provider EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Stress.

    • B. 

      Physical disabilities.

    • C. 

      Anger.

    • D. 

      Empathy.

    • E. 

      Mistrust.

  • 44. 
    Which of the following statements would be an example of stereotyping?
    • A. 

      All elderly patients have difficulty walking.

    • B. 

      Some elderly patients have difficulty hearing.

    • C. 

      Many patients have some type of vision impairment.

    • D. 

      A lot of patients have memory lapses.

    • E. 

      A few elderly patients have high blood pressure.

  • 45. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the surgical removal of a lymph node?
    • A. 

      Lymphadenectomy

    • B. 

      Lymhadenitis

    • C. 

      Lymphadenopathy

    • D. 

      Lymphadenotomy

    • E. 

      Lymphectasia

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is NOT considered a special accessibility alteration designed just for disabled patients coming to the physician’s office?
    • A. 

      Mats on the floors near entryways to prevent patient falls because of wet floors

    • B. 

      Widened corridors enabling easy movement of wheelchairs

    • C. 

      Bathroom stalls with handrails

    • D. 

      Braille signs to mark the elevator levels

    • E. 

      Examining rooms designed to allow easy movement of wheelchairs

  • 47. 
    Which organization registers physicians to prescribe controlled substances?
    • A. 

      Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO)

    • B. 

      Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

    • C. 

      Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

    • D. 

      Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

    • E. 

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

  • 48. 
    Which of the following describes a wrong and unlawful act performed by a physician?
    • A. 

      Malfeasance

    • B. 

      Misfeasance

    • C. 

      Nonfeasance

    • D. 

      Feasance

    • E. 

      Disfeasance

  • 49. 
    A legal, valid contract may include all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Offer and acceptance.

    • B. 

      A legal subject matter.

    • C. 

      Signatures made by mentally competent emancipated minors.

    • D. 

      A valid consideration or something of value.

    • E. 

      Any two individuals.

  • 50. 
    Which of the following terms describes written statements made to damage an individual’s reputation?
    • A. 

      Libel

    • B. 

      Negligence

    • C. 

      Battery

    • D. 

      Slander

    • E. 

      Bias

  • 51. 
    All of the following actions may result in revocation of a physician’s license EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Impersonating another physician.

    • B. 

      Providing substandard care.

    • C. 

      Practicing without a license.

    • D. 

      Prescribing legal drugs.

    • E. 

      Substance abuse.

  • 52. 
    A healthcare agent with durable power of attorney is
    • A. 

      An individual who will be responsible for all decisions should the patient become physically and mentally incapable of making decisions.

    • B. 

      Considered to be the patient’s primary care physician.

    • C. 

      An attorney who will be able to make the best legal decisions for the patient.

    • D. 

      The person chosen to make the final decisions about the patient’s end-of-life healthcare.

    • E. 

      The medical assistant in the physician’s office who is charge of billing and insurance reimbursement.

  • 53. 
    Which of the following situations is NOT considered to be a reportable incidence?
    • A. 

      Accidental stabbing

    • B. 

      Spousal abuse

    • C. 

      A positive result for HIV

    • D. 

      A case of rubeola

    • E. 

      A case of bronchitis

  • 54. 
    The Occupational Safety and Health Act was legislation passed to ensure all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      More control for employers over employee non-working hours.

    • B. 

      Safer and healthier working environments for employees.

    • C. 

      Enforcements of its safety regulations.

    • D. 

      Training and education on safety issues for employers and employees.

    • E. 

      Compliance assistance to worksites.

  • 55. 
    Which of the following federal agencies was formed as the first attempt to establish consumer protection in the manufacture of drugs and foods?
    • A. 

      OSHA

    • B. 

      HIPAA

    • C. 

      FDA

    • D. 

      DEA

    • E. 

      CLIA

  • 56. 
    The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988 was developed for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
    • A. 

      To increase the waiting time for specimen results.

    • B. 

      To develop comprehensive standards for better accuracy.

    • C. 

      To improve reliability of testing in smaller facilities.

    • D. 

      To categorize lab tests by complexity for better regulation.

    • E. 

      To decrease waiting time for specimen results.

  • 57. 
    All of the following accommodations may be made to comply with the regulations recommended in the Americans with Disabilities Act EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Providing ramps for easier access to buildings

    • B. 

      Providing elevators in buildings having more than one level

    • C. 

      Widening doorways to accommodate wheelchairs

    • D. 

      Replacing stairs with elevators in all buildings

    • E. 

      Placing handrails and grip bars in bathrooms

  • 58. 
    Which of the following terms states that a physician is liable for the negligent actions of any employee working under his or her supervision?
    • A. 

      Malfeasance

    • B. 

      Res ipsa loquitur

    • C. 

      Nonfeasance

    • D. 

      Jurisprudence

    • E. 

      Respondeat superior