Test Me - Foundation Block II
This test consists of 101 questions. The answers along with their explanations are provided at the end. Goodluck!
Done by:
Dalia Nabulsi
Fatima Amiri
Edited by:
Deema Al Enezi
Questions and Answers
- 1.
Which cell structure differentiates between klebsiella pneumoniae and staphylococcus aures?
- A.
Cell membrane
- B.
Peptidoglycan
- C.
Periplasmic space
- D.
Ribosomes
Correct Answer
C. Periplasmic spaceExplanation
K. pneumonia is gram negative and S. aureus is gram positive. Only gram negative bacteria have a periplasmic space.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
What is the mode of transmission of brucellosis?
- A.
Needle inoculation
- B.
Inhalation of aerosols
- C.
Mosquito bite
- D.
Drinking contaminated water
Correct Answer
B. Inhalation of aerosolsExplanation
The routes of entry of the organism is by ingestion (drinking contaminated milk NOT WATER or eating contaminated meat), aerosol (respiratory tract and conjunctiva) or contact with broken skin.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
What describes endemic diseases?
- A.
It appears suddenly for a short period
- B.
It affects a community continuously
- C.
It affects people in hospitals
- D.
It affects young people
Correct Answer
B. It affects a community continuouslyExplanation
The disease is regularly found in a community/area.
Suddenly for a short period: epidemic (in an area) or pandemic (in the world)
People in hospitals: nosocomialRate this question:
-
- 4.
Which of these in pseudomonas causes systemic infection?
- A.
Pilli
- B.
Fimbriae
- C.
Flagella
- D.
Exo and endotoxins
Correct Answer
D. Exo and endotoxinsExplanation
Systemic disease is promoted by antiphagocytic capsule, endo- and exo-toxins (A & S)Rate this question:
-
- 5.
Which antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aurginosa?
- A.
Cefotazime
- B.
Ceftazidime
- C.
Ampicillin
- D.
Tetracycline
Correct Answer
B. CeftazidimeExplanation
Try to memorize the drugs in Prof. Vincent Rotimi’s notesRate this question:
-
- 6.
Gram positive cocci in chains and do not show hemolysis on blood agar may cause which of the following?
- A.
Endocarditis
- B.
Meningitis
Correct Answer
A. EndocarditisExplanation
Enterococci are gram positive cocci, non-hemolytic, and can cause UTI, bacteremia, endocarditisRate this question:
-
- 7.
What will vibrio parahemolyticus cause?
- A.
Food poisoning
- B.
Cellulitis
- C.
Cutaneous skin lesions
Correct Answer
A. Food poisoningExplanation
Causes explosive diarrhoea
Self limiting (3 days) recovering 3days without anything
Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
Related to ingestion of sea food (fish and shellfish)Rate this question:
-
- 8.
Which is a property of pseudomonas?
- A.
Produces diffusible pigment
- B.
Oxidase negative
Correct Answer
A. Produces diffusible pigmentExplanation
Green and blue pigmentsRate this question:
-
- 9.
What does the pertussis vaccine consist of?
- A.
Lipopolysaccharide
- B.
Fibrous haemagglutinin
- C.
Tracheal toxin
- D.
Adenylate cyclase
Correct Answer
B. Fibrous haemagglutininExplanation
Acellular Pertussis (aP) vaccine which contains pertussis toxoid, pertactin and filamentous haemagglutinin. While DPT: killed whole cellsRate this question:
-
- 10.
MMR vaccine is?
- A.
Conjugated
- B.
Live attenuated
- C.
Toxoid
- D.
Killed
Correct Answer
B. Live attenuatedExplanation
The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus or bacteria that cause the disease. These weakened forms are still able to stimulate an immune response, but they do not cause the full-blown disease in the vaccinated individual. This allows the immune system to recognize and remember the pathogen, providing long-lasting immunity. In the case of the MMR vaccine, it contains weakened forms of the measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
What is the causative agent of smallpox?
- A.
Cowpox virus
- B.
Chickenpox virus
- C.
Variola virus
Correct Answer
C. Variola virusExplanation
The causative agent of smallpox is the Variola virus. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by this virus. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with infected individuals. Smallpox has been eradicated globally through an extensive vaccination campaign, making it the first disease to be eradicated by human effort.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
What type can you find in stool?
- A.
Hepatitis A
- B.
Hepatitis B
- C.
Hepatitis C
- D.
Hepatitis D
Correct Answer
A. Hepatitis AExplanation
Hep A and E are found in stool. The rest are in blood/body fluidsRate this question:
-
- 13.
Which of the following produce black pigment on agar?
- A.
Prevotella brevis
- B.
Porphyromonas gingivalis
- C.
Clostridium difficile
- D.
Porphyromonas endodontalis
Correct Answer
B. Porphyromonas gingivalisExplanation
Non-sporing anaerobe (from the tables at the end of “anaerobes” note)Rate this question:
-
- 14.
Which herpes virus has the largest genome?
- A.
CMV
- B.
VZV
- C.
EBV
- D.
HSV
Correct Answer
A. CMVExplanation
CMV, also known as Cytomegalovirus, has the largest genome among the given herpes viruses. This virus is known for its complex genetic structure, consisting of approximately 236,000 base pairs. CMV's large genome allows it to encode a wide range of proteins, enabling the virus to manipulate host cells and evade the immune system more effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
Which of the following is a non septate hyphae?
- A.
Basidiomycota
- B.
Aspergellius
- C.
Chitincomycota
- D.
Zygomycota
Correct Answer
D. ZygomycotaExplanation
Zygomycota is the correct answer because it is a group of fungi that have non-septate hyphae. Non-septate hyphae are hyphae that do not have cross-walls, or septa, separating the cells. Instead, the cytoplasm and nuclei are continuous throughout the hyphae. This characteristic distinguishes Zygomycota from other groups of fungi, such as Basidiomycota, Aspergellius, and Chitincomycota, which typically have septate hyphae.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
Which of the following spores reproduce sexually?
- A.
Conidia
- B.
Basidiospore
- C.
Blastomyces/blastoconidia
- D.
Chlamydospore
- E.
Sporangiospore
Correct Answer
B. BasidiosporeExplanation
Basidiospores are the only spores among the options that reproduce sexually. Basidiospores are produced by basidiomycetes, a group of fungi that includes mushrooms and toadstools. They are formed through the process of meiosis, which involves the fusion of two haploid nuclei to form a diploid nucleus. This diploid nucleus then undergoes meiosis to produce haploid basidiospores, which can germinate and give rise to new individuals. In contrast, the other options listed (conidia, blastomyces/blastoconidia, chlamydospore, and sporangiospore) are all asexual spores that are formed through mitosis and do not involve sexual reproduction.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
What is the causative agent of keratin specula?
- A.
BK virus
- B.
JC virus
- C.
Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus
- D.
Polyomavirus WU
Correct Answer
C. Trichodysplasia spinulosa virusExplanation
The causative agent of keratin specula is the Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
Which virus cause hemorrhagic fever?
- A.
West Nile virus
- B.
Rift valley river virus
- C.
Japanese b virus
- D.
Marburg virus
Correct Answer
D. Marburg virusExplanation
The rest are vector borne but non-hemorrhagicRate this question:
-
- 19.
What is the pathophysiology of giardia lamblia?
- A.
Invasion of duodenal epithelial cells
- B.
Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cells
- C.
Secretion of endotoxins
Correct Answer
B. Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cellsExplanation
Trophozoites are attached to the small intestine but do not invade the cells. They take up pancreatic bile salts and interfere with pancreatic lipase, so fat cannot be metabolized/absorbed, resulting in fatty stool.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
Which malarial species developed drug resistance against many antibiotics?
- A.
Falciparum
- B.
Ovals
- C.
Vivax
- D.
Malariae
Correct Answer
A. FalciparumExplanation
Falciparum is the correct answer because it is the malarial species that has developed drug resistance against many antibiotics. This species is responsible for the majority of malaria-related deaths worldwide and has shown resistance to commonly used antimalarial drugs such as chloroquine.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
A man has a long history of rheumatoid arthritis and recently developed systemic amyloidosis affecting the liver and the kidney, what are the kidney and liver diseases termed as?
- A.
Complication
- B.
Manifestation
- C.
Prognosis
- D.
Pathogenesis
Correct Answer
A. ComplicationExplanation
Complications are the bad effects of a disease.
Manifestations = symptoms.
Prognosis is the outcome (good or bad).
Pathogenesis is how the disease develops (mechanism)Rate this question:
-
- 22.
A tumor is removed from the ovary of a 15 years old girl, it contains hair teeth skin and cartilage, what best describes it?
- A.
Mature teratoma
- B.
Hamartoma
Correct Answer
A. Mature teratomaExplanation
Teratomas are usually in ovaries/testes and show ecto, meso, and endodermal components. Hamartoma is a mass of cartilage, blood vessels, alveoli, and bronchi, usually in the lungsRate this question:
-
- 23.
Which of the following is a labile tissue?
- A.
Heart
- B.
Bone marrow
- C.
Kidney
- D.
Liver
Correct Answer
B. Bone marrowExplanation
Labile: continuously dividing: blood cells in BM, lymph nodes, surface epithelia
Stable: remain quiescent (G0) with minimal proliferation, but able to divide when injured: liver, kidney, pancreas, endothelial cells, fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells Permanent: non-proliferative in post natal life: neurons, cardiac myocytes, skeletal musclesRate this question:
-
- 24.
What term is used for fracture of normal bone due to sudden and unexpected strain?
- A.
Pathologic fracture
- B.
Stress fracture
- C.
Spontaneous fracture
- D.
Green-stick fracture
Correct Answer
C. Spontaneous fractureExplanation
Spontaneous; fracture of normal bones
Pathological: of a diseased bone due to normal strain
Stress: slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity. e.g., sports training
Green-stick: incomplete fractureRate this question:
-
- 25.
Which is a negative acute phase protein?
- A.
Haptoglobin
- B.
Pre-albumin
- C.
Ceruloplasmin
Correct Answer
B. Pre-albuminExplanation
Pre albumin is a negative acute phase reactant. Other examples of negative ones are albumin and transferrin.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Which of the following proteins measures renal function?
- A.
Microglobulin & albumin
- B.
Haptoglobin
- C.
Ceruplasmin
Correct Answer
A. Microglobulin & albuminExplanation
Because beta2-microglobulin and albumin have low molecular weights and can pass through the kidneys easily. And if present in high amounts in urine, it can indicate impaired kidney function.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
Which of the following describes metaplasia of the esophagus?
- A.
Squamous to columnar epithelium
- B.
Columnar to squamous epithelium
Correct Answer
A. Squamous to columnar epitheliumExplanation
Esophagus is normally lined by squamous epithelium, so after metaplasia it’s not squamous anymore (it’s columnar)Rate this question:
-
- 28.
A man experienced a myocardial infarction and expired. What will you find when you examine the heart 48 hours later?
- A.
No change
- B.
Inflammation and edema
- C.
Fibrosis
Correct Answer
B. Inflammation and edemaExplanation
Acute inflammation (48 hours) to try and repair the damageRate this question:
-
- 29.
How can liver cirrhosis cause edema?
- A.
Reduction of oncotic pressure
- B.
Increase in hydrostatic pressure
- C.
Lymphatic obstruction
Correct Answer
A. Reduction of oncotic pressureExplanation
The liver produces lots of proteins, including albumin. Albumin is responsible for oncotic pressure. So low albumin (due to liver damage) = low oncotic pressure = fluid escape into interstitium = edemaRate this question:
-
- 30.
Shock is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion. In which condition is shock attributed to generalized peripheral vasodilation?
- A.
Severe dehydration
- B.
Severe prolonged diarrhea
- C.
Gram negative septicemia
- D.
Severe myocardial infraction
Correct Answer
C. Gram negative septicemiaExplanation
Gram negative bacteria have LPS that directly injure the endothelial cells and activate the coagulation cascade and cause SEPTIC shock. Then cytokines and secondary mediators cause systemic vasodilation.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
What is the gross examination of a 75-year-old male most likely to show?
- A.
Decrease in the size of the ventricular system
- B.
Increase in the brain volume
- C.
Uniform atrophy of the cerebral white matter
- D.
Uniform atrophy of the cerebral gray matter
Correct Answer
C. Uniform atrophy of the cerebral white matterExplanation
Due to aging, there is a decrease in brain volume. This decrease is uniform in the WHITE MATTER. However, in the grey matter, there are regional differences in the decrease in brain volume, frontal cortex and parietal cortex are affected more than temporal and occipital corticesRate this question:
-
- 32.
What is mostly responsible for heterogeneity in cancer cells?
- A.
Constitutive growth factors
- B.
Genetic instability
- C.
Clonal proliferation
- D.
Resistance to death
Correct Answer
B. Genetic instabilityExplanation
Due to lots of mutations, there’s genetic instability in cancer.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
What is the characteristic finding in granulomatous inflammation?
- A.
Dense infiltrate of lymphocytes
- B.
Collection of pus
- C.
Group of epithelial cells
- D.
Group of epitheloid cells
Correct Answer
D. Group of epitheloid cellsExplanation
Granuloma: Central necrosis ± (sometimes)
Epithelioid cells
Multinucleated giant cells
Lymphocytes
FibroblastsRate this question:
-
- 34.
What pigment is associated with aging?
- A.
Lipofuscin
- B.
Bilirubin
- C.
Hemosiderin
- D.
Melanin
Correct Answer
A. LipofuscinExplanation
Also called wear-and-tear pigment. An insoluble brownish-yellow granular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues ( heart, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy. It is a complex of lipid and protein resulting from free radical peroxidation of subcellular membranes. It is a marker of free radical injury.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen is?
- A.
Exuberant granulation
- B.
Keloid
- C.
Aggressive fibromatoses
Correct Answer
B. KeloidExplanation
Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of an excessive amount of collagen. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that occur when the body produces too much collagen during the healing process. This excessive collagen accumulation leads to the formation of a raised, firm, and often larger scar than the original wound. Keloids can be caused by various factors such as injury, surgery, acne, or even minor skin irritation.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
The following arterial blood gas results were taken from a patient: (normal ranges between brackets) (PH)= 7.2 (7.38-7.42) [HCO3] = 5 (22-26) (PCO2) = 15 (38-42) What is the acid base status?
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer
A. Metabolic acidosisExplanation
HCO3 is low, correlates with acidosis, while the low CO2 doesn’t correlate with acidosis, CO2 is low because the lungs are trying to compensate the acidosis caused by HCO3. So this is metabolic acidosis.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Which of the following is the definitive evidence of malignancy?
- A.
Presence of metastases
- B.
Abnormal mitosis
- C.
Hyperchromatic nucleus
Correct Answer
A. Presence of metastasesExplanation
Benign tumors never metastasize.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
An MI patient died and they found his heart to be necrotic. Which type of necrosis is that?
- A.
Caseating
- B.
Coagulative
- C.
Liquefactive
Correct Answer
B. CoagulativeExplanation
Coagulative: death of cells due to loss of blood supply (ischemia/hypoxia) like in kidneys and heart
Liquefactive: due to inflammation/bacterial infection (usually in the brain)
Caseous necrosis: due to tuberculosis (usually in the lungs)Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which is present in LDL?
- A.
B100
- B.
B48
- C.
Lipoprotein A
Correct Answer
A. B100Explanation
B48 in chylomicrons
Lipoprotein A in HDLRate this question:
-
- 40.
What is the main source for TNF, IL1 and IL6 in acute inflammation?
- A.
Macrophage
- B.
Mast cells
- C.
Endothelial cells
- D.
Lymphocytes
Correct Answer
A. MacrophageExplanation
Macrophages are the main source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation. These immune cells are activated in response to infection or tissue damage, and they release these pro-inflammatory cytokines to recruit and activate other immune cells. Macrophages are present in tissues throughout the body and play a crucial role in initiating and regulating the inflammatory response. They can also produce other inflammatory mediators and phagocytose pathogens or cellular debris, contributing to the resolution of inflammation. Therefore, macrophages are the primary source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation.Rate this question:
-
- 41.
What occurs in chronic alcoholism?
- A.
Necorosis in the liver
- B.
Liver atrophy
- C.
Fatty liver
Correct Answer
C. Fatty liverExplanation
Lipid(steatosis), an example in intracellular accumulations in cell injury: Mostly in the liver, the major organ involved in fat metabolism; It may also occur in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney. Steatosis may be caused by toxins, protein malnutrition, diabetes mellitus, obesity, or anoxia.
Alcohol can be an example of toxins because it causes liver damage.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
What term used to describe motion that is perceived by normal people when no real motion has occurred?
- A.
Absolute
- B.
Relative
- C.
Stereoscopic
- D.
Stroboscopic
Correct Answer
D. StroboscopicExplanation
Stroboscopic motion refers to the perception of motion when there is no actual motion occurring. This phenomenon is commonly experienced when viewing a rapid succession of still images or flashing lights, which creates an illusion of movement. Unlike absolute and relative motion, which involve actual physical movement, stroboscopic motion is a perceived motion that occurs due to the way our eyes and brain interpret visual stimuli. Stereoscopic motion, on the other hand, refers to the perception of depth and three-dimensionality in visual images.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
What is one of the 3 key questions to ask yourself about your believes?
- A.
Does my belief help me or hinder on the long term
- B.
My belief is unavailable
- C.
Does my belief hurt other people
- D.
Is my belief true
Correct Answer
A. Does my belief help me or hinder on the long termExplanation
This question is asking about one of the three key questions to ask oneself about their beliefs. One of these questions is whether the belief helps or hinders on the long term. This suggests that it is important to consider the consequences and impact of one's beliefs in the long run.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
Which decreases compliance?
- A.
Repetition
- B.
Simplifying info
- C.
Being general
Correct Answer
C. Being generalExplanation
Being general decreases compliance because when information is presented in a general and vague manner, it may lack clarity and specificity. This can lead to confusion and uncertainty among individuals, making it difficult for them to understand and follow the instructions or guidelines provided. On the other hand, providing specific and detailed information can enhance comprehension and make it easier for individuals to comply with the given instructions.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
What is involved in processing of many natural rewards in the brain?
- A.
Dopamine
- B.
Renin
- C.
Acetylchline
- D.
Glutamine
Correct Answer
A. DopamineExplanation
Dopamine is involved in the processing of many natural rewards in the brain. It is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in the brain's reward system, which is responsible for regulating feelings of pleasure and motivation. Dopamine is released when we experience something rewarding or pleasurable, such as eating delicious food or engaging in enjoyable activities. It helps to reinforce these behaviors and encourages us to seek out similar rewards in the future. Therefore, dopamine is closely associated with the processing of natural rewards in the brain.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
What is the definition of a territory?
- A.
Defended area that excludes animals from the same species
- B.
Defended area that exclude animal from the all species
- C.
The same as home range for animals
- D.
Applies for birds and animals
Correct Answer
A. Defended area that excludes animals from the same speciesExplanation
A territory is a defended area that excludes animals from the same species. This means that an individual or a group of animals will actively defend a specific area from others of their own species. This behavior is often observed in animals that are territorial, such as certain birds and mammals. By defending their territory, animals can ensure access to resources such as food, mates, and shelter, and establish their dominance within their species.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
Some girl had car accident and the doctor wanted to check if her working memory was impaired Which Wechsler intelligence test should be performed?
- A.
Vocabulary
- B.
Digit span
Correct Answer
B. Digit spanExplanation
The doctor should perform the Digit Span test. This test is used to assess a person's working memory by measuring their ability to repeat a series of numbers in the same order they were presented. Since the doctor wants to check if the girl's working memory is impaired after the car accident, the Digit Span test would be the most appropriate choice to evaluate this specific cognitive function.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
If weber constant for a sound intensity of 200 Hz is 1%, what is the JND of sound intensity of 600Hz?
- A.
5
- B.
5.5
- C.
6
- D.
6.5
Correct Answer
C. 6Explanation
JND ( △I ) = K x I = .01 x 600Rate this question:
-
- 49.
Someone rushed and entered your office, skipping people who were waiting before him. What’s your perspective on his situation if you are following fundamental attribution error?
- A.
He is rude
- B.
He has an emergency
- C.
He was told by his employer
Correct Answer
A. He is rudeExplanation
Fundamental attribution error means social judgment (tendency to explain others’ actions wether positive or negative based on personal causes, instead of situational/environmental causes)Rate this question:
-
- 50.
A child learns that not all nurses are females, what type of cognitive task he developed?
- A.
Assimilation
- B.
Accommodation
- C.
Adaptation
Correct Answer
B. AccommodationExplanation
Because it is a new information that made him change the original schemaRate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 20, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Mar 22, 2019Quiz Created by
Faisal
- Aptitude Test Quizzes
- Course Test Quizzes
- Driving Test Quizzes
- English Test Quizzes
- FCAT Quizzes
- General Knowledge Quizzes
- Intelligence Test Quizzes
- Mock Test Quizzes
- Philosophy Test Quizzes
- Practice Test Quizzes
- Pretest Quizzes
- Safety Test Quizzes
- Skill Assessment Quizzes
- Spelling Test Quizzes
- Standardized Test Quizzes
Back to top