Test Me - Foundation Block II

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Test Me - Foundation Block II - Quiz

This test consists of 101 questions. The answers along with their explanations are provided at the end. Goodluck!
Done by:
Dalia Nabulsi
Fatima Amiri
Edited by:
Deema Al Enezi


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which cell structure differentiates between klebsiella pneumoniae and staphylococcus aures?

    • A.

      Cell membrane

    • B.

      Peptidoglycan

    • C.

      Periplasmic space

    • D.

      Ribosomes

    Correct Answer
    C. Periplasmic space
    Explanation
    K. pneumonia is gram negative and S. aureus is gram positive. Only gram negative bacteria have a periplasmic space.

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  • 2. 

    What is the mode of transmission of brucellosis?

    • A.

      Needle inoculation

    • B.

      Inhalation of aerosols

    • C.

      Mosquito bite

    • D.

      Drinking contaminated water

    Correct Answer
    B. Inhalation of aerosols
    Explanation
    The routes of entry of the organism is by ingestion (drinking contaminated milk NOT WATER or eating contaminated meat), aerosol (respiratory tract and conjunctiva) or contact with broken skin.

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  • 3. 

    What describes endemic diseases?

    • A.

      It appears suddenly for a short period

    • B.

      It affects a community continuously

    • C.

      It affects people in hospitals

    • D.

      It affects young people

    Correct Answer
    B. It affects a community continuously
    Explanation
    The disease is regularly found in a community/area.
    Suddenly for a short period: epidemic (in an area) or pandemic (in the world)
    People in hospitals: nosocomial

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  • 4. 

    Which of these in pseudomonas causes systemic infection?

    • A.

      Pilli

    • B.

      Fimbriae

    • C.

      Flagella

    • D.

      Exo and endotoxins

    Correct Answer
    D. Exo and endotoxins
    Explanation
    Systemic disease is promoted by antiphagocytic capsule, endo- and exo-toxins (A & S)

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  • 5. 

    Which antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aurginosa?

    • A.

      Cefotazime

    • B.

      Ceftazidime

    • C.

      Ampicillin

    • D.

      Tetracycline

    Correct Answer
    B. Ceftazidime
    Explanation
    Try to memorize the drugs in Prof. Vincent Rotimi’s notes

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  • 6. 

    Gram positive cocci in chains and do not show hemolysis on blood agar may cause which of the following?

    • A.

      Endocarditis

    • B.

      Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocarditis
    Explanation
    Enterococci are gram positive cocci, non-hemolytic, and can cause UTI, bacteremia, endocarditis

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  • 7. 

    What will vibrio parahemolyticus cause?

    • A.

      Food poisoning

    • B.

      Cellulitis

    • C.

      Cutaneous skin lesions

    Correct Answer
    A. Food poisoning
    Explanation
    Causes explosive diarrhoea
    Self limiting (3 days) recovering 3days without anything
    Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
    Related to ingestion of sea food (fish and shellfish)

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  • 8. 

    Which is a property of pseudomonas?

    • A.

      Produces diffusible pigment

    • B.

      Oxidase negative

    Correct Answer
    A. Produces diffusible pigment
    Explanation
    Green and blue pigments

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  • 9. 

    What does the pertussis vaccine consist of?

    • A.

      Lipopolysaccharide

    • B.

      Fibrous haemagglutinin

    • C.

      Tracheal toxin

    • D.

      Adenylate cyclase

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrous haemagglutinin
    Explanation
    Acellular Pertussis (aP) vaccine which contains pertussis toxoid, pertactin and filamentous haemagglutinin. While DPT: killed whole cells

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  • 10. 

    MMR vaccine is?

    • A.

      Conjugated

    • B.

      Live attenuated

    • C.

      Toxoid

    • D.

      Killed

    Correct Answer
    B. Live attenuated
    Explanation
    The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus or bacteria that cause the disease. These weakened forms are still able to stimulate an immune response, but they do not cause the full-blown disease in the vaccinated individual. This allows the immune system to recognize and remember the pathogen, providing long-lasting immunity. In the case of the MMR vaccine, it contains weakened forms of the measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.

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  • 11. 

    What is the causative agent of smallpox?

    • A.

      Cowpox virus

    • B.

      Chickenpox virus

    • C.

      Variola virus

    Correct Answer
    C. Variola virus
    Explanation
    The causative agent of smallpox is the Variola virus. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by this virus. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with infected individuals. Smallpox has been eradicated globally through an extensive vaccination campaign, making it the first disease to be eradicated by human effort.

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  • 12. 

    What type can you find in stool?

    • A.

      Hepatitis A

    • B.

      Hepatitis B

    • C.

      Hepatitis C

    • D.

      Hepatitis D

    Correct Answer
    A. Hepatitis A
    Explanation
    Hep A and E are found in stool. The rest are in blood/body fluids

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following produce black pigment on agar?

    • A.

      Prevotella brevis

    • B.

      Porphyromonas gingivalis

    • C.

      Clostridium difficile

    • D.

      Porphyromonas endodontalis

    Correct Answer
    B. Porphyromonas gingivalis
    Explanation
    Non-sporing anaerobe (from the tables at the end of “anaerobes” note)

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  • 14. 

    Which herpes virus has the largest genome?

    • A.

      CMV

    • B.

      VZV

    • C.

      EBV

    • D.

      HSV

    Correct Answer
    A. CMV
    Explanation
    CMV, also known as Cytomegalovirus, has the largest genome among the given herpes viruses. This virus is known for its complex genetic structure, consisting of approximately 236,000 base pairs. CMV's large genome allows it to encode a wide range of proteins, enabling the virus to manipulate host cells and evade the immune system more effectively.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is a non septate hyphae?

    • A.

      Basidiomycota

    • B.

      Aspergellius

    • C.

      Chitincomycota

    • D.

      Zygomycota

    Correct Answer
    D. Zygomycota
    Explanation
    Zygomycota is the correct answer because it is a group of fungi that have non-septate hyphae. Non-septate hyphae are hyphae that do not have cross-walls, or septa, separating the cells. Instead, the cytoplasm and nuclei are continuous throughout the hyphae. This characteristic distinguishes Zygomycota from other groups of fungi, such as Basidiomycota, Aspergellius, and Chitincomycota, which typically have septate hyphae.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following spores reproduce sexually?

    • A.

      Conidia

    • B.

      Basidiospore

    • C.

      Blastomyces/blastoconidia

    • D.

      Chlamydospore

    • E.

      Sporangiospore

    Correct Answer
    B. Basidiospore
    Explanation
    Basidiospores are the only spores among the options that reproduce sexually. Basidiospores are produced by basidiomycetes, a group of fungi that includes mushrooms and toadstools. They are formed through the process of meiosis, which involves the fusion of two haploid nuclei to form a diploid nucleus. This diploid nucleus then undergoes meiosis to produce haploid basidiospores, which can germinate and give rise to new individuals. In contrast, the other options listed (conidia, blastomyces/blastoconidia, chlamydospore, and sporangiospore) are all asexual spores that are formed through mitosis and do not involve sexual reproduction.

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  • 17. 

    What is the causative agent of keratin specula?

    • A.

      BK virus

    • B.

      JC virus

    • C.

      Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus

    • D.

      Polyomavirus WU

    Correct Answer
    C. Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus
    Explanation
    The causative agent of keratin specula is the Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus.

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  • 18. 

    Which virus cause hemorrhagic fever?

    • A.

      West Nile virus

    • B.

      Rift valley river virus

    • C.

      Japanese b virus

    • D.

      Marburg virus

    Correct Answer
    D. Marburg virus
    Explanation
    The rest are vector borne but non-hemorrhagic

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  • 19. 

    What is the pathophysiology of giardia lamblia?

    • A.

      Invasion of duodenal epithelial cells

    • B.

      Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cells

    • C.

      Secretion of endotoxins

    Correct Answer
    B. Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cells
    Explanation
    Trophozoites are attached to the small intestine but do not invade the cells. They take up pancreatic bile salts and interfere with pancreatic lipase, so fat cannot be metabolized/absorbed, resulting in fatty stool.

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  • 20. 

    Which malarial species developed drug resistance against many antibiotics?

    • A.

      Falciparum

    • B.

      Ovals

    • C.

      Vivax

    • D.

      Malariae

    Correct Answer
    A. Falciparum
    Explanation
    Falciparum is the correct answer because it is the malarial species that has developed drug resistance against many antibiotics. This species is responsible for the majority of malaria-related deaths worldwide and has shown resistance to commonly used antimalarial drugs such as chloroquine.

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  • 21. 

    A man has a long history of rheumatoid arthritis and recently developed systemic amyloidosis affecting the liver and the kidney, what are the kidney and liver diseases termed as?

    • A.

      Complication

    • B.

      Manifestation

    • C.

      Prognosis

    • D.

      Pathogenesis

    Correct Answer
    A. Complication
    Explanation
    Complications are the bad effects of a disease.
    Manifestations = symptoms.
    Prognosis is the outcome (good or bad).
    Pathogenesis is how the disease develops (mechanism)

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  • 22. 

    A tumor is removed from the ovary of a 15 years old girl, it contains hair teeth skin and cartilage, what best describes it?

    • A.

      Mature teratoma

    • B.

      Hamartoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Mature teratoma
    Explanation
    Teratomas are usually in ovaries/testes and show ecto, meso, and endodermal components. Hamartoma is a mass of cartilage, blood vessels, alveoli, and bronchi, usually in the lungs

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is a labile tissue?

    • A.

      Heart

    • B.

      Bone marrow

    • C.

      Kidney

    • D.

      Liver

    Correct Answer
    B. Bone marrow
    Explanation
    Labile: continuously dividing: blood cells in BM, lymph nodes, surface epithelia
    Stable: remain quiescent (G0) with minimal proliferation, but able to divide when injured: liver, kidney, pancreas, endothelial cells, fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells Permanent: non-proliferative in post natal life: neurons, cardiac myocytes, skeletal muscles

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  • 24. 

    What term is used for fracture of normal bone due to sudden and unexpected strain?

    • A.

      Pathologic fracture

    • B.

      Stress fracture

    • C.

      Spontaneous fracture

    • D.

      Green-stick fracture

    Correct Answer
    C. Spontaneous fracture
    Explanation
    Spontaneous; fracture of normal bones
    Pathological: of a diseased bone due to normal strain
    Stress: slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity. e.g., sports training
    Green-stick: incomplete fracture

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  • 25. 

    Which is a negative acute phase protein?

    • A.

      Haptoglobin

    • B.

      Pre-albumin

    • C.

      Ceruloplasmin

    Correct Answer
    B. Pre-albumin
    Explanation
    Pre albumin is a negative acute phase reactant. Other examples of negative ones are albumin and transferrin.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following proteins measures renal function?

    • A.

      Microglobulin & albumin

    • B.

      Haptoglobin

    • C.

      Ceruplasmin

    Correct Answer
    A. Microglobulin & albumin
    Explanation
    Because beta2-microglobulin and albumin have low molecular weights and can pass through the kidneys easily. And if present in high amounts in urine, it can indicate impaired kidney function.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following describes metaplasia of the esophagus?

    • A.

      Squamous to columnar epithelium

    • B.

      Columnar to squamous epithelium

    Correct Answer
    A. Squamous to columnar epithelium
    Explanation
    Esophagus is normally lined by squamous epithelium, so after metaplasia it’s not squamous anymore (it’s columnar)

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  • 28. 

    A man experienced a myocardial infarction and expired. What will you find when you examine the heart 48 hours later?

    • A.

      No change

    • B.

      Inflammation and edema

    • C.

      Fibrosis

    Correct Answer
    B. Inflammation and edema
    Explanation
    Acute inflammation (48 hours) to try and repair the damage

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  • 29. 

    How can liver cirrhosis cause edema?

    • A.

      Reduction of oncotic pressure

    • B.

      Increase in hydrostatic pressure

    • C.

      Lymphatic obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduction of oncotic pressure
    Explanation
    The liver produces lots of proteins, including albumin. Albumin is responsible for oncotic pressure. So low albumin (due to liver damage) = low oncotic pressure = fluid escape into interstitium = edema

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  • 30. 

    Shock is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion. In which condition is shock attributed to generalized peripheral vasodilation?

    • A.

      Severe dehydration

    • B.

      Severe prolonged diarrhea

    • C.

      Gram negative septicemia

    • D.

      Severe myocardial infraction

    Correct Answer
    C. Gram negative septicemia
    Explanation
    Gram negative bacteria have LPS that directly injure the endothelial cells and activate the coagulation cascade and cause SEPTIC shock. Then cytokines and secondary mediators cause systemic vasodilation.

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  • 31. 

    What is the gross examination of a 75-year-old male most likely to show?

    • A.

      Decrease in the size of the ventricular system

    • B.

      Increase in the brain volume

    • C.

      Uniform atrophy of the cerebral white matter

    • D.

      Uniform atrophy of the cerebral gray matter

    Correct Answer
    C. Uniform atrophy of the cerebral white matter
    Explanation
    Due to aging, there is a decrease in brain volume. This decrease is uniform in the WHITE MATTER. However, in the grey matter, there are regional differences in the decrease in brain volume, frontal cortex and parietal cortex are affected more than temporal and occipital cortices

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  • 32. 

    What is mostly responsible for heterogeneity in cancer cells?

    • A.

      Constitutive growth factors

    • B.

      Genetic instability

    • C.

      Clonal proliferation

    • D.

      Resistance to death

    Correct Answer
    B. Genetic instability
    Explanation
    Due to lots of mutations, there’s genetic instability in cancer.

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  • 33. 

    What is the characteristic finding in granulomatous inflammation?

    • A.

      Dense infiltrate of lymphocytes

    • B.

      Collection of pus

    • C.

      Group of epithelial cells

    • D.

      Group of epitheloid cells

    Correct Answer
    D. Group of epitheloid cells
    Explanation
    Granuloma: Central necrosis ± (sometimes)
    Epithelioid cells
    Multinucleated giant cells
    Lymphocytes
    Fibroblasts

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  • 34. 

    What pigment is associated with aging?

    • A.

      Lipofuscin

    • B.

      Bilirubin

    • C.

      Hemosiderin

    • D.

      Melanin

    Correct Answer
    A. Lipofuscin
    Explanation
    Also called wear-and-tear pigment. An insoluble brownish-yellow granular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues ( heart, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy. It is a complex of lipid and protein resulting from free radical peroxidation of subcellular membranes. It is a marker of free radical injury.

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  • 35. 

    Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen is?

    • A.

      Exuberant granulation

    • B.

      Keloid

    • C.

      Aggressive fibromatoses

    Correct Answer
    B. Keloid
    Explanation
    Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of an excessive amount of collagen. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that occur when the body produces too much collagen during the healing process. This excessive collagen accumulation leads to the formation of a raised, firm, and often larger scar than the original wound. Keloids can be caused by various factors such as injury, surgery, acne, or even minor skin irritation.

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  • 36. 

    The following arterial blood gas results were taken from a patient: (normal ranges between brackets) (PH)= 7.2 (7.38-7.42) [HCO3] = 5 (22-26) (PCO2) = 15 (38-42) What is the acid base status?

    • A.

      Metabolic acidosis 

    • B.

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D.

      Respiratory alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Metabolic acidosis 
    Explanation
    HCO3 is low, correlates with acidosis, while the low CO2 doesn’t correlate with acidosis, CO2 is low because the lungs are trying to compensate the acidosis caused by HCO3. So this is metabolic acidosis.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is the definitive evidence of malignancy?

    • A.

      Presence of metastases

    • B.

      Abnormal mitosis

    • C.

      Hyperchromatic nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of metastases
    Explanation
    Benign tumors never metastasize.

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  • 38. 

    An MI patient died and they found his heart to be necrotic. Which type of necrosis is that?

    • A.

      Caseating

    • B.

      Coagulative

    • C.

      Liquefactive

    Correct Answer
    B. Coagulative
    Explanation
    Coagulative: death of cells due to loss of blood supply (ischemia/hypoxia) like in kidneys and heart
    Liquefactive: due to inflammation/bacterial infection (usually in the brain)
    Caseous necrosis: due to tuberculosis (usually in the lungs)

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  • 39. 

    Which is present in LDL?

    • A.

      B100

    • B.

      B48

    • C.

      Lipoprotein A

    Correct Answer
    A. B100
    Explanation
    B48 in chylomicrons
    Lipoprotein A in HDL

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  • 40. 

    What is the main source for TNF, IL1 and IL6 in acute inflammation?

    • A.

      Macrophage

    • B.

      Mast cells

    • C.

      Endothelial cells

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    A. Macrophage
    Explanation
    Macrophages are the main source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation. These immune cells are activated in response to infection or tissue damage, and they release these pro-inflammatory cytokines to recruit and activate other immune cells. Macrophages are present in tissues throughout the body and play a crucial role in initiating and regulating the inflammatory response. They can also produce other inflammatory mediators and phagocytose pathogens or cellular debris, contributing to the resolution of inflammation. Therefore, macrophages are the primary source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation.

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  • 41. 

    What occurs in chronic alcoholism?

    • A.

      Necorosis in the liver

    • B.

      Liver atrophy

    • C.

      Fatty liver

    Correct Answer
    C. Fatty liver
    Explanation
    Lipid(steatosis), an example in intracellular accumulations in cell injury: Mostly in the liver, the major organ involved in fat metabolism; It may also occur in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney. Steatosis may be caused by toxins, protein malnutrition, diabetes mellitus, obesity, or anoxia.
    Alcohol can be an example of toxins because it causes liver damage.

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  • 42. 

    What term used to describe motion that is perceived by normal people when no real motion has occurred?

    • A.

      Absolute

    • B.

      Relative

    • C.

      Stereoscopic

    • D.

      Stroboscopic

    Correct Answer
    D. Stroboscopic
    Explanation
    Stroboscopic motion refers to the perception of motion when there is no actual motion occurring. This phenomenon is commonly experienced when viewing a rapid succession of still images or flashing lights, which creates an illusion of movement. Unlike absolute and relative motion, which involve actual physical movement, stroboscopic motion is a perceived motion that occurs due to the way our eyes and brain interpret visual stimuli. Stereoscopic motion, on the other hand, refers to the perception of depth and three-dimensionality in visual images.

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  • 43. 

    What is one of the 3 key questions to ask yourself about your believes?

    • A.

      Does my belief  help me or hinder on the long term

    • B.

      My belief is unavailable

    • C.

      Does my belief hurt other people

    • D.

      Is my belief true

    Correct Answer
    A. Does my belief  help me or hinder on the long term
    Explanation
    This question is asking about one of the three key questions to ask oneself about their beliefs. One of these questions is whether the belief helps or hinders on the long term. This suggests that it is important to consider the consequences and impact of one's beliefs in the long run.

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  • 44. 

    Which decreases compliance?

    • A.

      Repetition 

    • B.

      Simplifying info

    • C.

      Being general

    Correct Answer
    C. Being general
    Explanation
    Being general decreases compliance because when information is presented in a general and vague manner, it may lack clarity and specificity. This can lead to confusion and uncertainty among individuals, making it difficult for them to understand and follow the instructions or guidelines provided. On the other hand, providing specific and detailed information can enhance comprehension and make it easier for individuals to comply with the given instructions.

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  • 45. 

    What is involved in processing of many natural rewards in the brain?

    • A.

      Dopamine

    • B.

      Renin

    • C.

      Acetylchline

    • D.

      Glutamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopamine
    Explanation
    Dopamine is involved in the processing of many natural rewards in the brain. It is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in the brain's reward system, which is responsible for regulating feelings of pleasure and motivation. Dopamine is released when we experience something rewarding or pleasurable, such as eating delicious food or engaging in enjoyable activities. It helps to reinforce these behaviors and encourages us to seek out similar rewards in the future. Therefore, dopamine is closely associated with the processing of natural rewards in the brain.

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  • 46. 

    What is the definition of a territory?

    • A.

      Defended area that excludes animals from the same species

    • B.

      Defended area that exclude animal from the all species

    • C.

       The same as home range for animals

    • D.

      Applies for birds and animals

    Correct Answer
    A. Defended area that excludes animals from the same species
    Explanation
    A territory is a defended area that excludes animals from the same species. This means that an individual or a group of animals will actively defend a specific area from others of their own species. This behavior is often observed in animals that are territorial, such as certain birds and mammals. By defending their territory, animals can ensure access to resources such as food, mates, and shelter, and establish their dominance within their species.

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  • 47. 

    Some girl had car accident and the doctor wanted to check if her working memory was impaired Which Wechsler intelligence test should be performed?

    • A.

      Vocabulary 

    • B.

      Digit span

    Correct Answer
    B. Digit span
    Explanation
    The doctor should perform the Digit Span test. This test is used to assess a person's working memory by measuring their ability to repeat a series of numbers in the same order they were presented. Since the doctor wants to check if the girl's working memory is impaired after the car accident, the Digit Span test would be the most appropriate choice to evaluate this specific cognitive function.

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  • 48. 

    If weber constant for a sound intensity of 200 Hz is 1%, what is the JND of sound intensity of 600Hz?

    • A.

      5

    • B.

      5.5

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      6.5

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    JND ( △I ) = K x I = .01 x 600

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  • 49. 

    Someone rushed and entered your office, skipping people who were waiting before him. What’s your perspective on his situation if you are following fundamental attribution error?

    • A.

      He is rude

    • B.

      He has an emergency

    • C.

      He was told by his employer

    Correct Answer
    A. He is rude
    Explanation
    Fundamental attribution error means social judgment (tendency to explain others’ actions wether positive or negative based on personal causes, instead of situational/environmental causes)

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  • 50. 

    A child learns that not all nurses are females, what type of cognitive task he developed?

    • A.

      Assimilation

    • B.

      Accommodation

    • C.

      Adaptation

    Correct Answer
    B. Accommodation
    Explanation
    Because it is a new information that made him change the original schema

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