Test Me - Foundation Block II

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  • 1/101 Questions

    Which decreases compliance?

    • Repetition 
    • Simplifying info
    • Being general
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About This Quiz

This test consists of 101 questions. The answers along with their explanations are provided at the end. Goodluck!
Done by:
Dalia Nabulsi
Fatima Amiri
Edited by:
Deema Al Enezi

Test Me - Foundation Block II - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Between 14 and 18 months , children’s distress peaks over the separation from their parents, which two factors are associated with the onset and decline of fear?

    • Memory and autonomy

    • Autonomy and synchrony

    Correct Answer
    A. Memory and autonomy
    Explanation
    Between 14 and 18 months, children experience distress over separation from their parents. This distress is associated with the onset and decline of fear. Memory plays a role in this as children start to develop a sense of object permanence, meaning they remember that their parents exist even when they are not present. Autonomy is also a factor as children at this age are starting to assert their independence and may feel anxious when separated from their primary caregivers.

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  • 3. 

    Naif is depressed as he has suffered a family member loss in the last six months, which has left him bedridden in the morning, as a doctor your are focusing on his serotonin levels to treat him or not, what approach are you using?

    • Behavioral

    • Cognitive

    • Psychiatric 

    • Psychoanalysis 

    Correct Answer
    A. Psychiatric 
    Explanation
    The approach being used in this situation is psychiatric. This is because the doctor is focusing on Naif's serotonin levels, which suggests that they are considering a medical or psychiatric treatment for his depression. The other options, behavioral, cognitive, and psychoanalysis, do not directly involve the use of medication or medical interventions.

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  • 4. 

    A child is given 2 balls made of clay which are similar in size. then they changed one of the ball into flattened shape, according to piaget’s theory, what did they try to measure?

    • Conservation

    • Irreversibility 

    • Centration

    • Static reasoning 

    Correct Answer
    A. Conservation
    Explanation
    According to Piaget's theory, the child was trying to measure conservation. Conservation refers to the understanding that certain properties of an object, such as its shape or volume, remain the same even when its appearance is altered. By changing one of the clay balls into a flattened shape, the child was testing their understanding of whether the quantity of clay remained the same or changed. This measurement is related to the concept of conservation in Piaget's theory.

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  • 5. 

    A patient had a car accident and he was diagnosed with retro amnesia. What is he suffering from?

    • Can’t remember anything prior to the injury

    • Can’t remember facts and names after the accident

    Correct Answer
    A. Can’t remember anything prior to the injury
    Explanation
    The patient is suffering from retrograde amnesia, which is the inability to remember events or information that occurred before the injury or accident. This type of amnesia typically affects memories and knowledge that were acquired before the traumatic event.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these in pseudomonas causes systemic infection?

    • Pilli

    • Fimbriae

    • Flagella

    • Exo and endotoxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Exo and endotoxins
    Explanation
    Systemic disease is promoted by antiphagocytic capsule, endo- and exo-toxins (A & S)

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  • 7. 

    Which is a negative acute phase protein?

    • Haptoglobin

    • Pre-albumin

    • Ceruloplasmin

    Correct Answer
    A. Pre-albumin
    Explanation
    Pre albumin is a negative acute phase reactant. Other examples of negative ones are albumin and transferrin.

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  • 8. 

    How can liver cirrhosis cause edema?

    • Reduction of oncotic pressure

    • Increase in hydrostatic pressure

    • Lymphatic obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduction of oncotic pressure
    Explanation
    The liver produces lots of proteins, including albumin. Albumin is responsible for oncotic pressure. So low albumin (due to liver damage) = low oncotic pressure = fluid escape into interstitium = edema

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  • 9. 

    Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen is?

    • Exuberant granulation

    • Keloid

    • Aggressive fibromatoses

    Correct Answer
    A. Keloid
    Explanation
    Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of an excessive amount of collagen. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that occur when the body produces too much collagen during the healing process. This excessive collagen accumulation leads to the formation of a raised, firm, and often larger scar than the original wound. Keloids can be caused by various factors such as injury, surgery, acne, or even minor skin irritation.

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  • 10. 

    An MI patient died and they found his heart to be necrotic. Which type of necrosis is that?

    • Caseating

    • Coagulative

    • Liquefactive

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulative
    Explanation
    Coagulative: death of cells due to loss of blood supply (ischemia/hypoxia) like in kidneys and heart
    Liquefactive: due to inflammation/bacterial infection (usually in the brain)
    Caseous necrosis: due to tuberculosis (usually in the lungs)

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  • 11. 

    What term used to describe motion that is perceived by normal people when no real motion has occurred?

    • Absolute

    • Relative

    • Stereoscopic

    • Stroboscopic

    Correct Answer
    A. Stroboscopic
    Explanation
    Stroboscopic motion refers to the perception of motion when there is no actual motion occurring. This phenomenon is commonly experienced when viewing a rapid succession of still images or flashing lights, which creates an illusion of movement. Unlike absolute and relative motion, which involve actual physical movement, stroboscopic motion is a perceived motion that occurs due to the way our eyes and brain interpret visual stimuli. Stereoscopic motion, on the other hand, refers to the perception of depth and three-dimensionality in visual images.

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  • 12. 

    What is involved in processing of many natural rewards in the brain?

    • Dopamine

    • Renin

    • Acetylchline

    • Glutamine

    Correct Answer
    A. Dopamine
    Explanation
    Dopamine is involved in the processing of many natural rewards in the brain. It is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in the brain's reward system, which is responsible for regulating feelings of pleasure and motivation. Dopamine is released when we experience something rewarding or pleasurable, such as eating delicious food or engaging in enjoyable activities. It helps to reinforce these behaviors and encourages us to seek out similar rewards in the future. Therefore, dopamine is closely associated with the processing of natural rewards in the brain.

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  • 13. 

    Some girl had car accident and the doctor wanted to check if her working memory was impaired Which Wechsler intelligence test should be performed?

    • Vocabulary 

    • Digit span

    Correct Answer
    A. Digit span
    Explanation
    The doctor should perform the Digit Span test. This test is used to assess a person's working memory by measuring their ability to repeat a series of numbers in the same order they were presented. Since the doctor wants to check if the girl's working memory is impaired after the car accident, the Digit Span test would be the most appropriate choice to evaluate this specific cognitive function.

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  • 14. 

    A child learns that not all nurses are females, what type of cognitive task he developed?

    • Assimilation

    • Accommodation

    • Adaptation

    Correct Answer
    A. Accommodation
    Explanation
    Because it is a new information that made him change the original schema

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  • 15. 

    What best characterize cephalocaudal development ?

    • Learn to talk before read

    • Walk before kick

    • Lift head before chest

    • Use arms before fine hand adjustment

    Correct Answer
    A. Lift head before chest
    Explanation
    Cephalo (towards the head)
    Caudal (towards the tail or in humans, towards the lower body parts away from the head)

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  • 16. 

    Your friend informs you that last night as he was about to fall asleep, he heard a very loud buzzing sound accompanied with flashing light that couldn't be explained by his surroundings. Your friend is most likely experiencing:

    • Narcolepsy

    • REM sleep

    • Hypnopompic hallucinations 

    • Hypnagogic hallucinations

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypnagogic hallucinations
    Explanation
    Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid, dream-like experiences that occur as a person is falling asleep. They can involve sensory perceptions such as seeing flashing lights and hearing buzzing sounds, which cannot be explained by the person's surroundings. These hallucinations are often harmless and can occur due to the brain transitioning between wakefulness and sleep. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, while REM sleep refers to a stage of sleep characterized by rapid eye movement. Therefore, neither of these options is the most likely explanation for your friend's experience.

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  • 17. 

    What is the method used to find the relationship between two psychological traits?

    • Correlational

    • Experimental

    • Observational

    Correct Answer
    A. Correlational
    Explanation
    Correlational research is the method used to find the relationship between two psychological traits. This type of research examines the statistical relationship between variables without manipulating them. It aims to determine whether there is a positive, negative, or no relationship between the traits. Correlational studies involve collecting data from participants and analyzing it to determine the strength and direction of the relationship. This method is useful when it is not possible or ethical to manipulate variables in an experimental setting.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is a selective b2 agonist used to treat asthma?

    • Cocaine

    • Phenylephrine

    • Salbutamol

    • Clonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Salbutamol
    Explanation
    Salbutamol is a selective b2 agonist used to treat asthma. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways, allowing easier breathing for individuals with asthma. Cocaine is a stimulant drug with no specific use in treating asthma. Phenylephrine is a nasal decongestant and not indicated for asthma treatment. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist primarily used for hypertension and not asthma. Therefore, Salbutamol is the correct answer as it specifically targets the b2 receptors in the airways to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

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  • 19. 

    Which one of the following is used as a Treatment for motion sickness?

    • Scopolamine

    • Atropine

    • Ipratropium

    Correct Answer
    A. Scopolamine
    Explanation
    Scopolamine is used as a treatment for motion sickness. It is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking certain nerve impulses in the brain and inner ear, which helps to reduce the symptoms of motion sickness such as nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Scopolamine is commonly administered as a patch that is placed behind the ear, providing a continuous release of the medication over a few days. It is considered an effective option for preventing and treating motion sickness, particularly in situations such as travel by boat or car. Atropine and ipratropium are not typically used for motion sickness treatment.

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  • 20. 

    What describes endemic diseases?

    • It appears suddenly for a short period

    • It affects a community continuously

    • It affects people in hospitals

    • It affects young people

    Correct Answer
    A. It affects a community continuously
    Explanation
    The disease is regularly found in a community/area.
    Suddenly for a short period: epidemic (in an area) or pandemic (in the world)
    People in hospitals: nosocomial

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  • 21. 

    Gram positive cocci in chains and do not show hemolysis on blood agar may cause which of the following?

    • Endocarditis

    • Meningitis

    Correct Answer
    A. Endocarditis
    Explanation
    Enterococci are gram positive cocci, non-hemolytic, and can cause UTI, bacteremia, endocarditis

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  • 22. 

    What will vibrio parahemolyticus cause?

    • Food poisoning

    • Cellulitis

    • Cutaneous skin lesions

    Correct Answer
    A. Food poisoning
    Explanation
    Causes explosive diarrhoea
    Self limiting (3 days) recovering 3days without anything
    Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
    Related to ingestion of sea food (fish and shellfish)

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  • 23. 

    A tumor is removed from the ovary of a 15 years old girl, it contains hair teeth skin and cartilage, what best describes it?

    • Mature teratoma

    • Hamartoma

    Correct Answer
    A. Mature teratoma
    Explanation
    Teratomas are usually in ovaries/testes and show ecto, meso, and endodermal components. Hamartoma is a mass of cartilage, blood vessels, alveoli, and bronchi, usually in the lungs

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is a labile tissue?

    • Heart

    • Bone marrow

    • Kidney

    • Liver

    Correct Answer
    A. Bone marrow
    Explanation
    Labile: continuously dividing: blood cells in BM, lymph nodes, surface epithelia
    Stable: remain quiescent (G0) with minimal proliferation, but able to divide when injured: liver, kidney, pancreas, endothelial cells, fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells Permanent: non-proliferative in post natal life: neurons, cardiac myocytes, skeletal muscles

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  • 25. 

    What term is used for fracture of normal bone due to sudden and unexpected strain?

    • Pathologic fracture

    • Stress fracture

    • Spontaneous fracture

    • Green-stick fracture

    Correct Answer
    A. Spontaneous fracture
    Explanation
    Spontaneous; fracture of normal bones
    Pathological: of a diseased bone due to normal strain
    Stress: slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity. e.g., sports training
    Green-stick: incomplete fracture

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following describes metaplasia of the esophagus?

    • Squamous to columnar epithelium

    • Columnar to squamous epithelium

    Correct Answer
    A. Squamous to columnar epithelium
    Explanation
    Esophagus is normally lined by squamous epithelium, so after metaplasia it’s not squamous anymore (it’s columnar)

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is the definitive evidence of malignancy?

    • Presence of metastases

    • Abnormal mitosis

    • Hyperchromatic nucleus

    Correct Answer
    A. Presence of metastases
    Explanation
    Benign tumors never metastasize.

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  • 28. 

    While you were walking at night you heard footsteps behind you, you heart started beating faster, and you started to sweat, you realized these physical changes, and started to feel afraid.   Which of the following best explains how you developed this emotion?

    • James-Lang theory

    • Cannon theory

    • Two factor theory

    • Facial expression theory

    Correct Answer
    A. James-Lang theory
    Explanation
    James-Lang theory says that autonomic arousal (in this case, fast heartbeats and sweating) differentiates the emotions.

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  • 29. 

    Ahmad’s parents got a salary raise and now they work for longer times and don’t have time to watch ahmad, as a result ahmad started smoking. According to urie bronfenbrenner’s ecological model, what system is represented here?

    • Exosystem

    • Microsystem

    • Macrosystem

    Correct Answer
    A. Exosystem
    Explanation
    In Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological model, the exosystem refers to the external environments that indirectly influence an individual's development. In this scenario, Ahmad's parents' salary raise and longer work hours are part of the exosystem because they are external factors that impact Ahmad's life. The changes in his parents' work schedule have led to a lack of supervision and attention, which has resulted in Ahmad engaging in smoking.

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  • 30. 

    An EEG recording showed that Rashid does not enter stage 4 nREM sleep What characterizes him?

    •  He is a sleep walker

    • He is an elderly

    • He wakes up periodically trying to recall his dream

    • He is an infant less than a year of age

    Correct Answer
    A. He is an elderly
    Explanation
    The given information states that Rashid does not enter stage 4 nREM sleep. Stage 4 nREM sleep is a deep sleep stage that typically occurs during the first half of the night and is more common in younger individuals. As Rashid does not enter this stage, it suggests that he is unable to achieve deep sleep, which is a characteristic commonly seen in elderly individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is "He is an elderly."

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  • 31. 

    Sami enjoys challenges, has high control, committed to his family and to his career as commercial airplane pilot. What characteristics of personality is expected to Sami?

    • Introversion

    • Mastery

    • Hostility

    • Hardiness

    Correct Answer
    A. Hardiness
    Explanation
    Sami is expected to have the characteristic of hardiness. Hardiness refers to a person's ability to cope with stress, adversity, and change. Sami's enjoyment of challenges and high control indicate that he has a strong sense of resilience and determination. Additionally, his commitment to his family and career as a commercial airplane pilot suggests that he is dedicated and willing to persevere in the face of difficulties. These qualities align with the concept of hardiness, making it the expected characteristic for Sami.

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  • 32. 

    The motivational role of external environment is emphasized in which motivational theory?

    • Psychological

    • Psychodynamic

    • Incentive

    • Derive

    Correct Answer
    A. Incentive
    Explanation
    The motivational theory that emphasizes the motivational role of the external environment is the Incentive theory. This theory suggests that individuals are motivated by external rewards or incentives, such as money, recognition, or praise. It suggests that these external factors play a significant role in driving and influencing behavior. Unlike other theories that focus on internal factors like needs or desires, the Incentive theory highlights the importance of external stimuli in motivating individuals.

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  • 33. 

     A 16-year-old Ahmed continuously changes his clothes before he gets of the house to make sure he looks presentable. This is an example of what aspect of adolescence egocentrism?

    • Invincibility fable

    • Personal fable

    • Social anxiety 

    •  Imaginary audience

    Correct Answer
    A.  Imaginary audience
    Explanation
    The behavior described in the question, where Ahmed continuously changes his clothes to appear presentable, is an example of the imaginary audience aspect of adolescent egocentrism. This aspect refers to the belief that one is constantly being observed and judged by others, leading to self-consciousness and a heightened concern about one's appearance or actions. Ahmed's behavior indicates that he believes there is an audience watching and evaluating him, which is characteristic of the imaginary audience aspect of adolescent egocentrism.

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  • 34. 

    What is the term used to describe innately determined growth?

    • Growth

    • Development

    • Progression

    • Maturation

    Correct Answer
    A. Maturation
    Explanation
    Maturation refers to the process of natural and inherent growth and development. It is a term used to describe the innate and predetermined progression of an organism or individual. Maturation involves the physical, emotional, and cognitive changes that occur over time without external influence or intervention. It is a natural and inherent process that occurs as a result of genetic factors and biological processes.

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  • 35. 

    Events that are controllable and predictable are less likely to be perceived as stressful.  What is the reason behind the above sentence?

    • We will develop immunity so the stress will not occur. 

    • The ability to prepare for the event physically and mentally will reduce the stress. 

    • Lack of safety

    • The ability to control and predict the stressful situation will prevent it. 

    Correct Answer
    A. The ability to prepare for the event physically and mentally will reduce the stress. 
    Explanation
    The reason behind the given sentence is that when events are controllable and predictable, individuals have the ability to prepare for them physically and mentally. This preparation helps to reduce stress because they can anticipate and plan for the event, making them feel more in control and less overwhelmed.

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  • 36. 

    What is a restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being defined as?

    • Handicapped 

    • Disability

    • Impairment

    Correct Answer
    A. Disability
    Explanation
    Disability refers to a restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being. It encompasses various physical, cognitive, and sensory impairments that can hinder a person's functioning and participation in daily life activities. Handicapped and impairment are related terms, but disability is a broader and more commonly used term to describe such limitations.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following indicates the safety margin of a drug?

    • Efficacy

    • Therapeutic index

    • Efficiency 

    Correct Answer
    A. Therapeutic index
    Explanation
    The safety margin of a drug refers to the difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a drug. It indicates the level of safety and effectiveness of a drug. The therapeutic index is a measure of this safety margin and is calculated by dividing the median lethal dose (LD50) by the median effective dose (ED50) of a drug. A higher therapeutic index indicates a larger safety margin, meaning the drug is safer to use. Therefore, the therapeutic index is a reliable indicator of the safety margin of a drug.

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  • 38. 

    What is the term used to describe innately determined growth?

    • Growth

    • Development

    • Progression

    • Maturation

    Correct Answer
    A. Maturation
    Explanation
    Maturation is the term used to describe innately determined growth. It refers to the natural process of development and progression that occurs in living organisms. Maturation encompasses physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that happen over time and are driven by genetic factors. Unlike growth, which can be influenced by external factors such as nutrition and environment, maturation is primarily determined by an individual's biological makeup. Therefore, maturation is the correct term to describe innately determined growth.

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  • 39. 

    Which if the following statements is true regarding the routes of administration?

    • Gastric motility affects the absorption of a drug if administered orally

    • Oral drugs have 100% bioavailability

    • IV drugs can cross the blood brain barrier

    • Intramuscular administration is not good for unconscious patients

    Correct Answer
    A. Gastric motility affects the absorption of a drug if administered orally
    Explanation
    C) This is wrong because IV drugs have to be hydrophilic (in the notes: oily and insoluble drugs are not good candidates)

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  • 40. 

    What is the pathophysiology of giardia lamblia?

    • Invasion of duodenal epithelial cells

    • Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cells

    • Secretion of endotoxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Attachment to the duodenal epithelial cells
    Explanation
    Trophozoites are attached to the small intestine but do not invade the cells. They take up pancreatic bile salts and interfere with pancreatic lipase, so fat cannot be metabolized/absorbed, resulting in fatty stool.

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  • 41. 

    What is one of the 3 key questions to ask yourself about your believes?

    • Does my belief  help me or hinder on the long term

    • My belief is unavailable

    • Does my belief hurt other people

    • Is my belief true

    Correct Answer
    A. Does my belief  help me or hinder on the long term
    Explanation
    This question is asking about one of the three key questions to ask oneself about their beliefs. One of these questions is whether the belief helps or hinders on the long term. This suggests that it is important to consider the consequences and impact of one's beliefs in the long run.

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  • 42. 

    You conduct an experiment in which you gradually add sugar into a jug of water. The participant in the experiment repeatedly tastes the water. At first the participant tastes nothing. What is the point at which the subject begins to taste water as sugary?

    •  Just noticeable difference

    • Absolute threshold

    • Difference threshold

    • Weber's constant

    Correct Answer
    A. Absolute threshold
    Explanation
    The absolute threshold refers to the minimum amount of stimulus that is required for a person to detect a particular sensation. In this experiment, the participant does not taste any sweetness in the water initially. However, at a certain point, when enough sugar has been added to the water, the participant starts to taste the sweetness. This point can be considered as the absolute threshold for the participant to detect the taste of sugar in the water.

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  • 43. 

    Events that are controllable and predictable are less likely to be perceived as stressful. The possible reason of this observation is:

    • People become immune to stress if they know when and how it will occur

    • Lack of safety period from stressful situation

    • The ability to predict and control an event can prevent it

    • The ability to prepare physically and mentally for the event

    Correct Answer
    A. The ability to prepare physically and mentally for the event
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the ability to prepare physically and mentally for the event. When individuals are able to predict and control an event, they have the opportunity to make necessary preparations. This includes both physical preparations, such as gathering resources or creating a plan, as well as mental preparations, such as developing coping strategies or building resilience. By being able to prepare, individuals can reduce the perceived stress associated with the event, as they feel more equipped to handle it.

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  • 44. 

    Rick drives in hurry, is hostile, impatient, and very competent. You like Rick and want to reduce his risk of suffering from cardiovascular diseases. Which of these should you address?

    • Hurriness

    • Hostility

    • Impatience

    • Competence

    Correct Answer
    A. Hostility
    Explanation
    To reduce Rick's risk of suffering from cardiovascular diseases, you should address his hostility. Hostility has been linked to increased levels of stress, which can have detrimental effects on cardiovascular health. By addressing Rick's hostility, you can help him manage his anger and promote a more positive and calm demeanor, thereby reducing his risk of cardiovascular issues.

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  • 45. 

    Which context helps perception of an ambiguous situation

    • Perception is more accurate in an unfamiliar context

    • Perception errors happen in a familiar context

    • The perception of an ambiguous situation is regardless of context

    • Perception stimuli are faster in a familiar context 

    Correct Answer
    A. Perception stimuli are faster in a familiar context 
    Explanation
    Perception stimuli are faster in a familiar context because familiarity allows the brain to quickly process and interpret incoming sensory information. When we are familiar with a context, our brain can rely on past experiences and stored knowledge to make sense of ambiguous situations more efficiently. This familiarity helps in reducing the cognitive load and allows for faster perception and decision-making.

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  • 46. 

    Study of IQ, Ahmed's score was 150 and his mental age was 18, what is his chronological age?

    • 9

    • 12

    • 18

    • 27

    Correct Answer
    A. 12
    Explanation
    Chronological age = ( mental age / IQ ) x 100
    (18/150) x 100 = 12

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  • 47. 

    What does “B” include in the ABC’s of the rational emotive behavioral therapy? 

    • Adversities

    • Assumptions

    • Behaviors

    • Aggravation

    Correct Answer
    A. Assumptions
    Explanation
    In the ABC's of rational emotive behavioral therapy, "B" stands for assumptions. Assumptions refer to the beliefs and thoughts that individuals hold about themselves, others, and the world around them. These assumptions can be irrational and lead to negative emotions and behaviors. Rational emotive behavioral therapy aims to identify and challenge these irrational assumptions in order to promote healthier and more rational thinking patterns.

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  • 48. 

    Which neuromuscular blocker may cause postoperative muscle pain and hyperkalemia as side effects?

    • Suxamethonium

    • Atracurium

    • Vecuronium

    • Rocuronium

    Correct Answer
    A. Suxamethonium
    Explanation
    Suxamethonium is a neuromuscular blocker that can cause postoperative muscle pain and hyperkalemia as side effects. This is because suxamethonium stimulates the release of potassium from the muscle cells, leading to an increase in serum potassium levels. Additionally, the depolarizing action of suxamethonium can cause muscle fasciculations, which can contribute to postoperative muscle pain. Atracurium, vecuronium, and rocuronium are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers and do not typically cause these side effects.

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  • 49. 

    Which neurotransmitter is similar in autonomic and somatic nervous system?

    • Acetylcholine

    • Dopamine

    • Norepinephrine 

    • Epinephrine 

    Correct Answer
    A. Acetylcholine
    Explanation
    Acetylcholine is the correct answer because it is the neurotransmitter that is similar in both the autonomic and somatic nervous systems. It is responsible for transmitting signals between nerve cells and muscle cells, allowing for the control of voluntary and involuntary movements. Acetylcholine is released by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system, as well as by motor neurons in the somatic nervous system. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including muscle contraction, heart rate regulation, and digestion.

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  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Mar 22, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Faisal
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