Test Me - Foundation Block II

  • USMLE
  • NBME
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1. Naif is depressed as he has suffered a family member loss in the last six months, which has left him bedridden in the morning, as a doctor your are focusing on his serotonin levels to treat him or not, what approach are you using?

Explanation

The approach being used in this situation is psychiatric. This is because the doctor is focusing on Naif's serotonin levels, which suggests that they are considering a medical or psychiatric treatment for his depression. The other options, behavioral, cognitive, and psychoanalysis, do not directly involve the use of medication or medical interventions.

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About This Quiz
Test Me - Foundation Block II - Quiz

This test consists of 101 questions. The answers along with their explanations are provided at the end. Goodluck!
Done by:
Dalia Nabulsi
Fatima Amiri
Edited by:
Deema Al Enezi

Personalize your quiz and earn a certificate with your name on it!
2. A child is given 2 balls made of clay which are similar in size. then they changed one of the ball into flattened shape, according to piaget's theory, what did they try to measure?

Explanation

According to Piaget's theory, the child was trying to measure conservation. Conservation refers to the understanding that certain properties of an object, such as its shape or volume, remain the same even when its appearance is altered. By changing one of the clay balls into a flattened shape, the child was testing their understanding of whether the quantity of clay remained the same or changed. This measurement is related to the concept of conservation in Piaget's theory.

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3. Which decreases compliance?

Explanation

Being general decreases compliance because when information is presented in a general and vague manner, it may lack clarity and specificity. This can lead to confusion and uncertainty among individuals, making it difficult for them to understand and follow the instructions or guidelines provided. On the other hand, providing specific and detailed information can enhance comprehension and make it easier for individuals to comply with the given instructions.

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4. A patient had a car accident and he was diagnosed with retro amnesia. What is he suffering from?

Explanation

The patient is suffering from retrograde amnesia, which is the inability to remember events or information that occurred before the injury or accident. This type of amnesia typically affects memories and knowledge that were acquired before the traumatic event.

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5. Between 14 and 18 months , children's distress peaks over the separation from their parents, which two factors are associated with the onset and decline of fear?

Explanation

Between 14 and 18 months, children experience distress over separation from their parents. This distress is associated with the onset and decline of fear. Memory plays a role in this as children start to develop a sense of object permanence, meaning they remember that their parents exist even when they are not present. Autonomy is also a factor as children at this age are starting to assert their independence and may feel anxious when separated from their primary caregivers.

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6. What is the method used to find the relationship between two psychological traits?

Explanation

Correlational research is the method used to find the relationship between two psychological traits. This type of research examines the statistical relationship between variables without manipulating them. It aims to determine whether there is a positive, negative, or no relationship between the traits. Correlational studies involve collecting data from participants and analyzing it to determine the strength and direction of the relationship. This method is useful when it is not possible or ethical to manipulate variables in an experimental setting.

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7. Which of the following is a selective b2 agonist used to treat asthma?

Explanation

Salbutamol is a selective b2 agonist used to treat asthma. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways, allowing easier breathing for individuals with asthma. Cocaine is a stimulant drug with no specific use in treating asthma. Phenylephrine is a nasal decongestant and not indicated for asthma treatment. Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist primarily used for hypertension and not asthma. Therefore, Salbutamol is the correct answer as it specifically targets the b2 receptors in the airways to relieve bronchospasm and improve airflow.

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8. What best characterize cephalocaudal development ?

Explanation

Cephalo (towards the head)
Caudal (towards the tail or in humans, towards the lower body parts away from the head)

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9. Your friend informs you that last night as he was about to fall asleep, he heard a very loud buzzing sound accompanied with flashing light that couldn't be explained by his surroundings. Your friend is most likely experiencing:

Explanation

Hypnagogic hallucinations are vivid, dream-like experiences that occur as a person is falling asleep. They can involve sensory perceptions such as seeing flashing lights and hearing buzzing sounds, which cannot be explained by the person's surroundings. These hallucinations are often harmless and can occur due to the brain transitioning between wakefulness and sleep. Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness, while REM sleep refers to a stage of sleep characterized by rapid eye movement. Therefore, neither of these options is the most likely explanation for your friend's experience.

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10. Which one of the following is used as a Treatment for motion sickness?

Explanation

Scopolamine is used as a treatment for motion sickness. It is an anticholinergic medication that works by blocking certain nerve impulses in the brain and inner ear, which helps to reduce the symptoms of motion sickness such as nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Scopolamine is commonly administered as a patch that is placed behind the ear, providing a continuous release of the medication over a few days. It is considered an effective option for preventing and treating motion sickness, particularly in situations such as travel by boat or car. Atropine and ipratropium are not typically used for motion sickness treatment.

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11. Which is a negative acute phase protein?

Explanation

Pre albumin is a negative acute phase reactant. Other examples of negative ones are albumin and transferrin.

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12. Which of these in pseudomonas causes systemic infection?

Explanation

Systemic disease is promoted by antiphagocytic capsule, endo- and exo-toxins (A & S)

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13. How can liver cirrhosis cause edema?

Explanation

The liver produces lots of proteins, including albumin. Albumin is responsible for oncotic pressure. So low albumin (due to liver damage) = low oncotic pressure = fluid escape into interstitium = edema

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14. Accumulation of excessive amount of collagen is?

Explanation

Keloid is the correct answer because it refers to the accumulation of an excessive amount of collagen. Keloids are raised, thickened scars that occur when the body produces too much collagen during the healing process. This excessive collagen accumulation leads to the formation of a raised, firm, and often larger scar than the original wound. Keloids can be caused by various factors such as injury, surgery, acne, or even minor skin irritation.

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15. An MI patient died and they found his heart to be necrotic. Which type of necrosis is that?

Explanation

Coagulative: death of cells due to loss of blood supply (ischemia/hypoxia) like in kidneys and heart
Liquefactive: due to inflammation/bacterial infection (usually in the brain)
Caseous necrosis: due to tuberculosis (usually in the lungs)

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16. What term used to describe motion that is perceived by normal people when no real motion has occurred?

Explanation

Stroboscopic motion refers to the perception of motion when there is no actual motion occurring. This phenomenon is commonly experienced when viewing a rapid succession of still images or flashing lights, which creates an illusion of movement. Unlike absolute and relative motion, which involve actual physical movement, stroboscopic motion is a perceived motion that occurs due to the way our eyes and brain interpret visual stimuli. Stereoscopic motion, on the other hand, refers to the perception of depth and three-dimensionality in visual images.

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17. What is involved in processing of many natural rewards in the brain?

Explanation

Dopamine is involved in the processing of many natural rewards in the brain. It is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in the brain's reward system, which is responsible for regulating feelings of pleasure and motivation. Dopamine is released when we experience something rewarding or pleasurable, such as eating delicious food or engaging in enjoyable activities. It helps to reinforce these behaviors and encourages us to seek out similar rewards in the future. Therefore, dopamine is closely associated with the processing of natural rewards in the brain.

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18. Some girl had car accident and the doctor wanted to check if her working memory was impaired Which Wechsler intelligence test should be performed?

Explanation

The doctor should perform the Digit Span test. This test is used to assess a person's working memory by measuring their ability to repeat a series of numbers in the same order they were presented. Since the doctor wants to check if the girl's working memory is impaired after the car accident, the Digit Span test would be the most appropriate choice to evaluate this specific cognitive function.

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19. A child learns that not all nurses are females, what type of cognitive task he developed?

Explanation

Because it is a new information that made him change the original schema

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20. Which of the following indicates the safety margin of a drug?

Explanation

The safety margin of a drug refers to the difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose of a drug. It indicates the level of safety and effectiveness of a drug. The therapeutic index is a measure of this safety margin and is calculated by dividing the median lethal dose (LD50) by the median effective dose (ED50) of a drug. A higher therapeutic index indicates a larger safety margin, meaning the drug is safer to use. Therefore, the therapeutic index is a reliable indicator of the safety margin of a drug.

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21. What is the term used to describe innately determined growth?

Explanation

Maturation is the term used to describe innately determined growth. It refers to the natural process of development and progression that occurs in living organisms. Maturation encompasses physical, cognitive, and emotional changes that happen over time and are driven by genetic factors. Unlike growth, which can be influenced by external factors such as nutrition and environment, maturation is primarily determined by an individual's biological makeup. Therefore, maturation is the correct term to describe innately determined growth.

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22. An EEG recording showed that Rashid does not enter stage 4 nREM sleep What characterizes him?

Explanation

The given information states that Rashid does not enter stage 4 nREM sleep. Stage 4 nREM sleep is a deep sleep stage that typically occurs during the first half of the night and is more common in younger individuals. As Rashid does not enter this stage, it suggests that he is unable to achieve deep sleep, which is a characteristic commonly seen in elderly individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is "He is an elderly."

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23. A tumor is removed from the ovary of a 15 years old girl, it contains hair teeth skin and cartilage, what best describes it?

Explanation

Teratomas are usually in ovaries/testes and show ecto, meso, and endodermal components. Hamartoma is a mass of cartilage, blood vessels, alveoli, and bronchi, usually in the lungs

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24. Which of the following is a labile tissue?

Explanation

Labile: continuously dividing: blood cells in BM, lymph nodes, surface epithelia
Stable: remain quiescent (G0) with minimal proliferation, but able to divide when injured: liver, kidney, pancreas, endothelial cells, fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells Permanent: non-proliferative in post natal life: neurons, cardiac myocytes, skeletal muscles

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25. What term is used for fracture of normal bone due to sudden and unexpected strain?

Explanation

Spontaneous; fracture of normal bones
Pathological: of a diseased bone due to normal strain
Stress: slowly developing fracture that follows a period of increased physical activity. e.g., sports training
Green-stick: incomplete fracture

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26. What describes endemic diseases?

Explanation

The disease is regularly found in a community/area.
Suddenly for a short period: epidemic (in an area) or pandemic (in the world)
People in hospitals: nosocomial

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27. Which of the following describes metaplasia of the esophagus?

Explanation

Esophagus is normally lined by squamous epithelium, so after metaplasia it’s not squamous anymore (it’s columnar)

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28. Which of the following is the definitive evidence of malignancy?

Explanation

Benign tumors never metastasize.

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29. Sami enjoys challenges, has high control, committed to his family and to his career as commercial airplane pilot. What characteristics of personality is expected to Sami?

Explanation

Sami is expected to have the characteristic of hardiness. Hardiness refers to a person's ability to cope with stress, adversity, and change. Sami's enjoyment of challenges and high control indicate that he has a strong sense of resilience and determination. Additionally, his commitment to his family and career as a commercial airplane pilot suggests that he is dedicated and willing to persevere in the face of difficulties. These qualities align with the concept of hardiness, making it the expected characteristic for Sami.

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30. Gram positive cocci in chains and do not show hemolysis on blood agar may cause which of the following?

Explanation

Enterococci are gram positive cocci, non-hemolytic, and can cause UTI, bacteremia, endocarditis

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31. Which if the following statements is true regarding the routes of administration?

Explanation

C) This is wrong because IV drugs have to be hydrophilic (in the notes: oily and insoluble drugs are not good candidates)

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32. The motivational role of external environment is emphasized in which motivational theory?

Explanation

The motivational theory that emphasizes the motivational role of the external environment is the Incentive theory. This theory suggests that individuals are motivated by external rewards or incentives, such as money, recognition, or praise. It suggests that these external factors play a significant role in driving and influencing behavior. Unlike other theories that focus on internal factors like needs or desires, the Incentive theory highlights the importance of external stimuli in motivating individuals.

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33. What will vibrio parahemolyticus cause?

Explanation

Causes explosive diarrhoea
Self limiting (3 days) recovering 3days without anything
Abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting
Related to ingestion of sea food (fish and shellfish)

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34.  A 16-year-old Ahmed continuously changes his clothes before he gets of the house to make sure he looks presentable. This is an example of what aspect of adolescence egocentrism?

Explanation

The behavior described in the question, where Ahmed continuously changes his clothes to appear presentable, is an example of the imaginary audience aspect of adolescent egocentrism. This aspect refers to the belief that one is constantly being observed and judged by others, leading to self-consciousness and a heightened concern about one's appearance or actions. Ahmed's behavior indicates that he believes there is an audience watching and evaluating him, which is characteristic of the imaginary audience aspect of adolescent egocentrism.

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35. What is the term used to describe innately determined growth?

Explanation

Maturation refers to the process of natural and inherent growth and development. It is a term used to describe the innate and predetermined progression of an organism or individual. Maturation involves the physical, emotional, and cognitive changes that occur over time without external influence or intervention. It is a natural and inherent process that occurs as a result of genetic factors and biological processes.

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36. While you were walking at night you heard footsteps behind you, you heart started beating faster, and you started to sweat, you realized these physical changes, and started to feel afraid.   Which of the following best explains how you developed this emotion?

Explanation

James-Lang theory says that autonomic arousal (in this case, fast heartbeats and sweating) differentiates the emotions.

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37. Events that are controllable and predictable are less likely to be perceived as stressful.  What is the reason behind the above sentence?

Explanation

The reason behind the given sentence is that when events are controllable and predictable, individuals have the ability to prepare for them physically and mentally. This preparation helps to reduce stress because they can anticipate and plan for the event, making them feel more in control and less overwhelmed.

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38. Ahmad's parents got a salary raise and now they work for longer times and don't have time to watch ahmad, as a result ahmad started smoking. According to urie bronfenbrenner's ecological model, what system is represented here?

Explanation

In Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological model, the exosystem refers to the external environments that indirectly influence an individual's development. In this scenario, Ahmad's parents' salary raise and longer work hours are part of the exosystem because they are external factors that impact Ahmad's life. The changes in his parents' work schedule have led to a lack of supervision and attention, which has resulted in Ahmad engaging in smoking.

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39. What is a restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being defined as?

Explanation

Disability refers to a restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being. It encompasses various physical, cognitive, and sensory impairments that can hinder a person's functioning and participation in daily life activities. Handicapped and impairment are related terms, but disability is a broader and more commonly used term to describe such limitations.

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40. What is the pathophysiology of giardia lamblia?

Explanation

Trophozoites are attached to the small intestine but do not invade the cells. They take up pancreatic bile salts and interfere with pancreatic lipase, so fat cannot be metabolized/absorbed, resulting in fatty stool.

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41. Which neuromuscular blocker may cause postoperative muscle pain and hyperkalemia as side effects?

Explanation

Suxamethonium is a neuromuscular blocker that can cause postoperative muscle pain and hyperkalemia as side effects. This is because suxamethonium stimulates the release of potassium from the muscle cells, leading to an increase in serum potassium levels. Additionally, the depolarizing action of suxamethonium can cause muscle fasciculations, which can contribute to postoperative muscle pain. Atracurium, vecuronium, and rocuronium are non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers and do not typically cause these side effects.

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42. Which neurotransmitter is similar in autonomic and somatic nervous system?

Explanation

Acetylcholine is the correct answer because it is the neurotransmitter that is similar in both the autonomic and somatic nervous systems. It is responsible for transmitting signals between nerve cells and muscle cells, allowing for the control of voluntary and involuntary movements. Acetylcholine is released by both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system, as well as by motor neurons in the somatic nervous system. It plays a crucial role in various physiological processes, including muscle contraction, heart rate regulation, and digestion.

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43. What best describes drug absorption?

Explanation

Weak acidic drugs are non-ionized in the stomach because the stomach has an acidic pH. Non-ionized drugs are able to pass through the lipid membranes of cells more easily, allowing for better absorption. Weak basic drugs, on the other hand, are more likely to be ionized in the stomach due to the acidic environment, which reduces their absorption. Therefore, the statement that weak acidic drugs are non-ionized in the stomach is the best description of drug absorption.

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44. You conduct an experiment in which you gradually add sugar into a jug of water. The participant in the experiment repeatedly tastes the water. At first the participant tastes nothing. What is the point at which the subject begins to taste water as sugary?

Explanation

The absolute threshold refers to the minimum amount of stimulus that is required for a person to detect a particular sensation. In this experiment, the participant does not taste any sweetness in the water initially. However, at a certain point, when enough sugar has been added to the water, the participant starts to taste the sweetness. This point can be considered as the absolute threshold for the participant to detect the taste of sugar in the water.

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45. Events that are controllable and predictable are less likely to be perceived as stressful. The possible reason of this observation is:

Explanation

The correct answer is the ability to prepare physically and mentally for the event. When individuals are able to predict and control an event, they have the opportunity to make necessary preparations. This includes both physical preparations, such as gathering resources or creating a plan, as well as mental preparations, such as developing coping strategies or building resilience. By being able to prepare, individuals can reduce the perceived stress associated with the event, as they feel more equipped to handle it.

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46. Rick drives in hurry, is hostile, impatient, and very competent. You like Rick and want to reduce his risk of suffering from cardiovascular diseases. Which of these should you address?

Explanation

To reduce Rick's risk of suffering from cardiovascular diseases, you should address his hostility. Hostility has been linked to increased levels of stress, which can have detrimental effects on cardiovascular health. By addressing Rick's hostility, you can help him manage his anger and promote a more positive and calm demeanor, thereby reducing his risk of cardiovascular issues.

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47. Which is a phase II type of reaction? 

Explanation

Sulfation is a phase II type of reaction. Phase II reactions involve the conjugation of a drug or metabolite with an endogenous molecule to increase its water solubility and facilitate its excretion from the body. Sulfation specifically involves the addition of a sulfate group to a molecule, typically through the action of sulfotransferase enzymes. This reaction is important for the metabolism and elimination of various drugs, hormones, and xenobiotics from the body.

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48. What is one of the 3 key questions to ask yourself about your believes?

Explanation

This question is asking about one of the three key questions to ask oneself about their beliefs. One of these questions is whether the belief helps or hinders on the long term. This suggests that it is important to consider the consequences and impact of one's beliefs in the long run.

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49. Which context helps perception of an ambiguous situation

Explanation

Perception stimuli are faster in a familiar context because familiarity allows the brain to quickly process and interpret incoming sensory information. When we are familiar with a context, our brain can rely on past experiences and stored knowledge to make sense of ambiguous situations more efficiently. This familiarity helps in reducing the cognitive load and allows for faster perception and decision-making.

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50. Study of IQ, Ahmed's score was 150 and his mental age was 18, what is his chronological age?

Explanation

Chronological age = ( mental age / IQ ) x 100
(18/150) x 100 = 12

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51. What does "B" include in the ABC's of the rational emotive behavioral therapy? 

Explanation

In the ABC's of rational emotive behavioral therapy, "B" stands for assumptions. Assumptions refer to the beliefs and thoughts that individuals hold about themselves, others, and the world around them. These assumptions can be irrational and lead to negative emotions and behaviors. Rational emotive behavioral therapy aims to identify and challenge these irrational assumptions in order to promote healthier and more rational thinking patterns.

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52. What is the causative agent of smallpox?

Explanation

The causative agent of smallpox is the Variola virus. Smallpox is a highly contagious and deadly disease caused by this virus. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and direct contact with infected individuals. Smallpox has been eradicated globally through an extensive vaccination campaign, making it the first disease to be eradicated by human effort.

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53. Which herpes virus has the largest genome?

Explanation

CMV, also known as Cytomegalovirus, has the largest genome among the given herpes viruses. This virus is known for its complex genetic structure, consisting of approximately 236,000 base pairs. CMV's large genome allows it to encode a wide range of proteins, enabling the virus to manipulate host cells and evade the immune system more effectively.

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54. What is the characteristic finding in granulomatous inflammation?

Explanation

Granuloma: Central necrosis ± (sometimes)
Epithelioid cells
Multinucleated giant cells
Lymphocytes
Fibroblasts

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55. Which of these mechanisms is an example of a pharmacodynamic drug interaction?

Explanation

Note slide 20: Beta receptor antagonists reduce the effectiveness of Beta2-agonists

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56. Polymorphism in which genes lead to a direct pharmacodynamics effect?

Explanation

Genes involved with drug targets can lead to a direct pharmacodynamics effect. Pharmacodynamics refers to how drugs interact with specific targets in the body to produce a therapeutic effect. Genes involved with drug targets encode proteins that are the intended targets of drugs. When a drug binds to its target protein, it can directly affect the biological processes or signaling pathways regulated by that protein, resulting in the desired pharmacological effect. Therefore, genes involved with drug targets play a crucial role in determining the pharmacodynamics of a drug.

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57. A solider dresses in dark splotchy "camouflage" clothing while hiding in terrain of the same color trying to make it harder for the enemy to see.Camouflage interferes with which of Gestalt perceptual theory?

Explanation

Camouflage interferes with the Gestalt perceptual theory of figure-ground. The soldier dressing in dark splotchy camouflage clothing blends with the terrain of the same color, making it difficult for the enemy to distinguish the soldier from the background. This disrupts the perception of figure and ground, as the soldier becomes part of the background and is not easily separated or identified as a distinct object.

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58. Aminoglycoside has a higher half life in elderly because of?

Explanation

The higher half-life of aminoglycoside in the elderly is due to decreased kidney excretion. As people age, their kidney function tends to decline, leading to a decrease in the ability of the kidneys to eliminate drugs from the body. Aminoglycosides are primarily eliminated through the kidneys, so when kidney excretion is decreased, the drug remains in the body for a longer period, resulting in a higher half-life. This can increase the risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity in elderly patients.

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59. Which type of drugs bind to 10% of its available receptors and gives maximal effect?

Explanation

A full agonist is a type of drug that binds to all of its available receptors and produces a maximal effect. This means that when a full agonist binds to its receptors, it activates them fully and produces the maximum response that the receptors are capable of generating. In contrast, partial agonists only bind to a subset of receptors and produce a submaximal effect. Therefore, a full agonist is the correct answer because it binds to 100% of its receptors and produces the maximum effect.

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60. Which of the following is true regarding renal clearance?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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61. A baby changed from being breastfed to drinking bottled milk. What is this called? 

Explanation

It is the same action (drinking milk) but from a different source. Same schema, only few adjustments.

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62. Which one do you like? What is Ethology?

Explanation

Ethology is the scientific study of animal behavior in their natural environment. It focuses on understanding how animals interact with each other and their surroundings. By studying animals in their natural habitat, researchers can observe their behavior in a more accurate and realistic way, allowing for a better understanding of their natural instincts, social structures, and ecological relationships. This knowledge is crucial for conservation efforts, understanding animal welfare, and gaining insights into human behavior as well.

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63. Changing of negative a healthy behavior, shame to what?

Explanation

When a negative behavior is changed into a healthy one, the feeling that is most likely to be experienced is regret. This is because regret is a negative emotion that arises when one feels remorse or disappointment for past actions or choices. In this context, the person may regret engaging in the unhealthy behavior in the past and feel a sense of remorse for not adopting the healthy behavior earlier. Concern and sadness may also be relevant emotions, but regret is the most fitting answer as it specifically relates to the act of changing a negative behavior.

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64. A number of students suffered from stress, some of them performed physical activity while others smoked and took drugs. What kind of coping is being done?

Explanation

The coping being done in this situation is emotion focused. This is because the students are not directly addressing or trying to alleviate the source of their stress (stress focused coping), but rather they are engaging in activities such as smoking and taking drugs as a way to manage or distract themselves from their emotions and stress.

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65. Which of the following proteins measures renal function?

Explanation

Because beta2-microglobulin and albumin have low molecular weights and can pass through the kidneys easily. And if present in high amounts in urine, it can indicate impaired kidney function.

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66. What pigment is associated with aging?

Explanation

Also called wear-and-tear pigment. An insoluble brownish-yellow granular material that accumulates in a variety of tissues ( heart, liver, and brain) as a function of age or atrophy. It is a complex of lipid and protein resulting from free radical peroxidation of subcellular membranes. It is a marker of free radical injury.

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67. Which is present in LDL?

Explanation

B48 in chylomicrons
Lipoprotein A in HDL

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68. Someone rushed and entered your office, skipping people who were waiting before him. What's your perspective on his situation if you are following fundamental attribution error?

Explanation

Fundamental attribution error means social judgment (tendency to explain others’ actions wether positive or negative based on personal causes, instead of situational/environmental causes)

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69. Shock is characterized by decreased tissue perfusion. In which condition is shock attributed to generalized peripheral vasodilation?

Explanation

Gram negative bacteria have LPS that directly injure the endothelial cells and activate the coagulation cascade and cause SEPTIC shock. Then cytokines and secondary mediators cause systemic vasodilation.

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70. The following arterial blood gas results were taken from a patient: (normal ranges between brackets) (PH)= 7.2 (7.38-7.42) [HCO3] = 5 (22-26) (PCO2) = 15 (38-42) What is the acid base status?

Explanation

HCO3 is low, correlates with acidosis, while the low CO2 doesn’t correlate with acidosis, CO2 is low because the lungs are trying to compensate the acidosis caused by HCO3. So this is metabolic acidosis.

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71. What is mostly responsible for heterogeneity in cancer cells?

Explanation

Due to lots of mutations, there’s genetic instability in cancer.

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72. What differentiates between an agonist from Antagonist? 

Explanation

Intrinsic activity refers to the ability of a drug or molecule to activate a receptor and produce a biological response. An agonist has high intrinsic activity, meaning it can fully activate the receptor and produce a maximal response. On the other hand, an antagonist has low or no intrinsic activity, meaning it can bind to the receptor but does not activate it, therefore blocking the action of an agonist. Intrinsic activity is a key factor that differentiates between agonists and antagonists in terms of their ability to activate or inhibit receptor activity.

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73. A man has a long history of rheumatoid arthritis and recently developed systemic amyloidosis affecting the liver and the kidney, what are the kidney and liver diseases termed as?

Explanation

Complications are the bad effects of a disease.
Manifestations = symptoms.
Prognosis is the outcome (good or bad).
Pathogenesis is how the disease develops (mechanism)

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74. A variety of studies have suggested that a variety of personality traits are determined by genetic differences not normally influenced by environmental factors. Which paired individuals have correlation to this?

Explanation

Identical twins reared together have a correlation to the suggestion that personality traits are determined by genetic differences not normally influenced by environmental factors. This is because identical twins share the same genetic makeup, so any similarities in their personality traits are more likely to be attributed to their genes rather than their shared environment. By growing up together, they are exposed to similar environmental factors, making it easier to isolate the influence of genetics on their personality traits.

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75. If weber constant for a sound intensity of 200 Hz is 1%, what is the JND of sound intensity of 600Hz?

Explanation

JND ( △I ) = K x I = .01 x 600

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76. When is the binocular disparity considered the largest? 

Explanation

B) Same as putting your finger in front of your nose and closing one eye and opening another one, the position of the finger seems different when seen by either eye

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77. According to the old Kuwaiti saying "those who do not listen advice will be lost" is classified as?

Explanation

Instrumental conditioning is a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened or weakened by the consequences that follow it. In this case, the old Kuwaiti saying implies that those who do not listen to advice will face negative consequences and be lost. This aligns with the principles of instrumental conditioning, where behavior is shaped by the outcomes or consequences it produces. Therefore, the saying is classified as instrumental conditioning.

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78. What is the mode of transmission of brucellosis?

Explanation

The routes of entry of the organism is by ingestion (drinking contaminated milk NOT WATER or eating contaminated meat), aerosol (respiratory tract and conjunctiva) or contact with broken skin.

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79. What type can you find in stool?

Explanation

Hep A and E are found in stool. The rest are in blood/body fluids

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80. What is the most likely cause of the increase in the elimination half-life of polar drugs like Aminoglycosides in the elderly, compared to adults?

Explanation

As individuals age, there are natural changes that occur in the body, including a decrease in kidney function. The kidneys play a crucial role in eliminating drugs from the body, so a decrease in kidney function would result in a slower elimination of drugs. This slower elimination leads to an increase in the elimination half-life of polar drugs like Aminoglycosides in the elderly compared to adults. This is the most likely cause for the observed increase in elimination half-life.

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81. Which malarial species developed drug resistance against many antibiotics?

Explanation

Falciparum is the correct answer because it is the malarial species that has developed drug resistance against many antibiotics. This species is responsible for the majority of malaria-related deaths worldwide and has shown resistance to commonly used antimalarial drugs such as chloroquine.

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82. What is the main source for TNF, IL1 and IL6 in acute inflammation?

Explanation

Macrophages are the main source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation. These immune cells are activated in response to infection or tissue damage, and they release these pro-inflammatory cytokines to recruit and activate other immune cells. Macrophages are present in tissues throughout the body and play a crucial role in initiating and regulating the inflammatory response. They can also produce other inflammatory mediators and phagocytose pathogens or cellular debris, contributing to the resolution of inflammation. Therefore, macrophages are the primary source of TNF, IL1, and IL6 in acute inflammation.

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83. A drug is administered every 12 hours, it has a clearance rate of 60 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose that should be administered in order to keep the steady-state concentration at 10 mg/L?

Explanation

The maintenance dose of a drug is calculated using the formula: maintenance dose = clearance rate x desired steady-state concentration. In this case, the clearance rate is given as 60 ml/min and the desired steady-state concentration is 10 mg/L. Plugging these values into the formula, we get: maintenance dose = 60 ml/min x 10 mg/L = 600 mg/min. However, the question asks for the maintenance dose in a different unit, so we need to convert mg/min to the appropriate unit. Since 1 mg = 0.001 g and 1 min = 60 seconds, we can convert mg/min to g/hour by multiplying by 0.001 g/mg and 60 min/hour, resulting in a maintenance dose of 0.001 g/mg x 60 min/hour x 600 mg/min = 36 g/hour. Converting g/hour to the given unit of 432, we find that the maintenance dose should be 432.

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84. Which is a property of pseudomonas?

Explanation

Green and blue pigments

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85. Taste aversion is an example of which of the following?

Explanation

Taste aversion is an example of classical conditioning. Classical conditioning is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus becomes associated with a meaningful stimulus and elicits a similar response. In the case of taste aversion, a specific taste or food becomes associated with a negative experience, such as illness, and as a result, the individual develops an aversion or dislike towards that taste or food. This is a classic example of how a conditioned response can be formed through classical conditioning.

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86. A man experienced a myocardial infarction and expired. What will you find when you examine the heart 48 hours later?

Explanation

Acute inflammation (48 hours) to try and repair the damage

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87. Which cell structure differentiates between klebsiella pneumoniae and staphylococcus aures?

Explanation

K. pneumonia is gram negative and S. aureus is gram positive. Only gram negative bacteria have a periplasmic space.

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88. A drug with a half life of 12 hours, how many hours are needed to reach 75% of steady state concentration? 

Explanation

Let’s say we gave 100 (units) of the medication. After 12 hours 50% will be cleared which leaves us with 50 (units) of the medication... then we gave another 100 (it is a steady infusion) , after another 12 hours the 100 will be 50 and the previous 50 will now be 25
50 + 20 = 75

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89. According to facial feedback hypothesis, in what does facial expression play a role?

Explanation

Facial expression plays a role in experiencing emotion. According to the facial feedback hypothesis, our facial expressions can influence our emotional state. When we smile, for example, it can actually make us feel happier. Similarly, frowning can make us feel sad or angry. This suggests that our facial expressions not only reflect our emotions but also have the ability to influence and shape our emotional experiences.

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90. Which antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aurginosa?

Explanation

Try to memorize the drugs in Prof. Vincent Rotimi’s notes

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91. What is the gross examination of a 75-year-old male most likely to show?

Explanation

Due to aging, there is a decrease in brain volume. This decrease is uniform in the WHITE MATTER. However, in the grey matter, there are regional differences in the decrease in brain volume, frontal cortex and parietal cortex are affected more than temporal and occipital cortices

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92. Which of the following is a non septate hyphae?

Explanation

Zygomycota is the correct answer because it is a group of fungi that have non-septate hyphae. Non-septate hyphae are hyphae that do not have cross-walls, or septa, separating the cells. Instead, the cytoplasm and nuclei are continuous throughout the hyphae. This characteristic distinguishes Zygomycota from other groups of fungi, such as Basidiomycota, Aspergellius, and Chitincomycota, which typically have septate hyphae.

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93. A patient was going to have a surgery & intubation, he was given a non depolarizing NMB and was subjected to a prolonged muscle paralysis. Which of the following was present in his body that potentiated this symptom?

Explanation

Gentamycin is an antibiotic that belongs to the aminoglycoside class. One of the known side effects of aminoglycosides is neuromuscular blockade, which can lead to muscle paralysis. This occurs due to the inhibition of acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, leading to prolonged muscle relaxation. Therefore, the presence of gentamycin in the patient's body could have potentiated the symptom of prolonged muscle paralysis during surgery and intubation.

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94. What is the definition of a territory?

Explanation

A territory is a defended area that excludes animals from the same species. This means that an individual or a group of animals will actively defend a specific area from others of their own species. This behavior is often observed in animals that are territorial, such as certain birds and mammals. By defending their territory, animals can ensure access to resources such as food, mates, and shelter, and establish their dominance within their species.

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95. Which virus cause hemorrhagic fever?

Explanation

The rest are vector borne but non-hemorrhagic

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96. Which of the following produce black pigment on agar?

Explanation

Non-sporing anaerobe (from the tables at the end of “anaerobes” note)

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97. MMR vaccine is?

Explanation

The MMR vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine. Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus or bacteria that cause the disease. These weakened forms are still able to stimulate an immune response, but they do not cause the full-blown disease in the vaccinated individual. This allows the immune system to recognize and remember the pathogen, providing long-lasting immunity. In the case of the MMR vaccine, it contains weakened forms of the measles, mumps, and rubella viruses.

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98. What occurs in chronic alcoholism?

Explanation

Lipid(steatosis), an example in intracellular accumulations in cell injury: Mostly in the liver, the major organ involved in fat metabolism; It may also occur in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney. Steatosis may be caused by toxins, protein malnutrition, diabetes mellitus, obesity, or anoxia.
Alcohol can be an example of toxins because it causes liver damage.

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99. What is the causative agent of keratin specula?

Explanation

The causative agent of keratin specula is the Trichodysplasia spinulosa virus.

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100. Which of the following spores reproduce sexually?

Explanation

Basidiospores are the only spores among the options that reproduce sexually. Basidiospores are produced by basidiomycetes, a group of fungi that includes mushrooms and toadstools. They are formed through the process of meiosis, which involves the fusion of two haploid nuclei to form a diploid nucleus. This diploid nucleus then undergoes meiosis to produce haploid basidiospores, which can germinate and give rise to new individuals. In contrast, the other options listed (conidia, blastomyces/blastoconidia, chlamydospore, and sporangiospore) are all asexual spores that are formed through mitosis and do not involve sexual reproduction.

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101. What does the pertussis vaccine consist of?

Explanation

Acellular Pertussis (aP) vaccine which contains pertussis toxoid, pertactin and filamentous haemagglutinin. While DPT: killed whole cells

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Which antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aurginosa?
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What does the pertussis vaccine consist of?
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