MLT Practice Quiz!
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Medical Laboratory Technician is a person who performs all the microscopic and bacteriological operations such as testing cells, tissues, fluids, human blood etc for medical and research purposes and it's all done a medical technologist. Can you answer the following medical test questions? Test your knowledge on this MLT quiz to see how good you perform and compare your score to others.
- 1.
- A.
Lower the concentration of the analyte
- B.
Higher the concentration of the analyte
- C.
More light transmitted
- D.
Longer the wavelength required
- 2.
- A.
5.0N
- B.
1.0N
- C.
0.5N
- D.
0.4N
- 3.Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen
- A.
1 and 2 only
- B.
1 and 3 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1,2, and 3
- 4.If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
- A.
3
- B.
5
- C.
20
- D.
300
- 5.
- A.
1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent
- B.
1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent
- C.
1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent
- D.
5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent
- 6.WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
- A.
Transports glucose
- B.
Regulates body temperature
- C.
Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation
- D.
Provides humoral immunity
- 7.
- A.
Osmometers
- B.
Spectrophotometers
- C.
Blood gas analyzers
- D.
Immunochemical analyzers
- 8.Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
- A.
Freezing point depression
- B.
Refractive index
- C.
Specific gravity
- D.
Ionic strength
- 9.
- A.
Sulfuric acid
- B.
Alkaline picrate
- C.
Acetic anhydride
- D.
Ammonium hydroxide
- 10.All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
- A.
Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
- B.
Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
- C.
Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
- D.
Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction
- 11.Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
- A.
Conjugated bilirubin
- B.
Prehepatic bilirubin
- C.
Total bilirubin
- D.
Biliverdin
- 12.Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
- A.
Kidney disease
- B.
Liver disease
- C.
Myocardial infarction
- D.
Obstructive jaundice
- 13.The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
- A.
Lactic acid
- B.
3-hydroxy butyric acid
- C.
Oxaloacetic acid
- D.
Acetic acid
- 14.Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
- A.
ACTH
- B.
Insulin
- C.
Thyroxin
- D.
Hydrocortisone
- 15.
- A.
Hemoglobin
- B.
Amino acid
- C.
Serum protein
- D.
Serum lipoprotein
- 16.Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
- A.
Isoenzyme electrophoresis
- B.
Immunoelectrophoresis
- C.
Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
- D.
Blood viscosity studies
- 17.Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
- A.
2 only
- B.
1 and 2 only
- C.
2 and 3 only
- D.
1,2, and 3
- 18.Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
- A.
Bound to globulin
- B.
Bound to albumin
- C.
Free
- D.
Bound to cholesterol
- 19.Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
- A.
Blood coagulation
- B.
Osmotic pressure of body fluids
- C.
Cardiac muscle contractions
- D.
Salt intake
- 20.
- A.
The positive pole
- B.
The negative pole
- C.
Either pole
- D.
Both poles
- 21.The end-product of purine metabolism is
- A.
Urea
- B.
Creatine
- C.
Creatinine
- D.
Uric acid
- 22.
- A.
Normal distribution curve
- B.
Mean deviation curve
- C.
Shift
- D.
Trend
- 23.The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
- A.
Coefficient variation
- B.
Quality control
- C.
Stardard deviation
- D.
Percent deviation
- 24.Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
- A.
Oxyhemoglobin
- B.
Sulfhemoglobin
- C.
Methemoglobin
- D.
Cyanmethemoglobin
- 25.When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
- A.
1:200
- B.
1:50
- C.
1:20
- D.
1:10
- 26.An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
- A.
Variable in shape
- B.
Packed with hemoglobin
- C.
Markedly bluish in color
- D.
Markedly pale in central color
- 27.
- A.
Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
- B.
Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
- C.
Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes
- D.
Do not count nucleated red blood cells
- 28.Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
- A.
Howell-Jolly bodies
- B.
Rubriblasts
- C.
Heniz bodies
- D.
Plasmodium species
- 29.The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
- A.
Macrocytic
- B.
Aplastic
- C.
Hemolytic
- D.
Microcytic
- 30.
- A.
Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
- B.
Size of the particle being counted
- C.
Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
- D.
Value of the cell indices
- 31.
- A.
Finer
- B.
More dense
- C.
Less dense
- D.
More acidic
- 32.As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
- A.
The cell increases in size
- B.
The cell decreases in size
- C.
There is no change in the cell's size
- D.
The nucleus increases in size
- 33.An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
- A.
Bacterial infection
- B.
Viral infection
- C.
Infectious mononucleosis
- D.
Allergic reaction
- 34.Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
- A.
Tourniquet
- B.
Bleeding time
- C.
Prothrombin time
- D.
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- 35.On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
- A.
Distilled water
- B.
Highly-diluted blood
- C.
Diluting fluid
- D.
Lysing reagent only
- 36.Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
- A.
Reticulocytes
- B.
Platelets
- C.
Malaria
- D.
Howell-Jolly bodies
- 37.
- A.
Clear (colorless)
- B.
Bright red
- C.
Light yellow or straw colored
- D.
Greeen
- 38.The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is
- A.
0.1 cm
- B.
1.0 cm
- C.
0.1 mm
- D.
1.0 mm
- 39.On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
- A.
WBC and Hgb
- B.
RBC and Hgb
- C.
RBC and WBC
- D.
Hct and WBC
- 40.
- A.
Hemolysis
- B.
Icteric plasma
- C.
A high hematocrit
- D.
A heavy buffy coat
- 41.Hansel's stain is appropriate for
- A.
Circulating eosinophiles
- B.
Phagocytic neutrophils
- C.
Nasal secrection for eosinophiles
- D.
Leukocytes in spinal fluid
- 42.Reticulocytes contain
- A.
DNA remnants
- B.
RNA remnants
- C.
Basophilic granules
- D.
Howell-Jolly bodies
- 43.A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
- A.
Heparin
- B.
Protamine sulfate
- C.
Saliclate
- D.
Coumadin
- 44.The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
- A.
0.50% NaCl
- B.
0.85% NaCl
- C.
0.90% NaCl
- D.
1.34% NaCl
- 45.Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of
- A.
Factor VII deficiency
- B.
Factor X deficiency
- C.
Hemophilia
- D.
Platelet function
- 46.Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fourth
- 47.Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
- A.
Serum only
- B.
Plasma only
- C.
Either serum or plasma
- D.
Any body fluid
- 48.In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
- A.
Pneumonia
- B.
Infectious hepatitis
- C.
Lupus erythematosus
- D.
Helicobacter pylori
- 49.The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
- A.
0.02 mL
- B.
0.05 mL
- C.
0.10 mL
- D.
0.15 mL
- 50.
- A.
High molecular weight
- B.
High order of specificity
- C.
Foreign to animal
- D.
Produced by action of antibody
- 51.The RA latex test is used as a screening test for
- A.
Rheumatoid arthritis
- B.
Thyroiditis
- C.
Vulvovaginitis
- D.
Infectious mononucleosis
- 52.
- A.
25 C for 1 hour
- B.
37 C for 30 min
- C.
56 C for 30 min
- D.
56 C for 10 min
- 53.
- A.
A only
- B.
AB only
- C.
O only
- D.
A, AB, or O
- 54.
- A.
Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
- B.
Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband
- C.
Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus
- D.
Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
- 55.Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
- A.
Urine porphyrins
- B.
Serum haptoglobin
- C.
Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin
- D.
Pre-transfusion bilirubin
- 56.To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
- A.
Anti-A serum
- B.
Anti-AB serum
- C.
Anti-A2 serum
- D.
Dolichos biflorus serum
- 57.
- A.
D(u)
- B.
Elution
- C.
Direct anti-human globulin test
- D.
Indirect anti-human globulin test
- 58.Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
- A.
Weiner
- B.
Landsteiner
- C.
Levine
- D.
Bernstein
- 59.
- A.
Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused
- B.
Crossmatch is incompatible
- C.
Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test.
- D.
Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch procedures.
- 60.The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is
- A.
Chloride
- B.
Potassium
- C.
Sodium
- D.
Bicarbonate
- 61.
- A.
Is produced in humans
- B.
Occurs naturally in most humans
- C.
Is produced in laboratory animals
- D.
Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
- 62.Blood group A individuals have
- A.
Anti-A in their serum
- B.
Anti-B in their serum
- C.
Antigen A and B on their red cells
- D.
Anti-O in their serum
- 63.
- A.
For 6 months
- B.
For 1 year
- C.
For 5 years
- D.
Permanently
- 64.Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
- A.
Reverse typing
- B.
Immunoglobulin testing
- C.
D(u) testing
- D.
Autoagglutination tests
- 65.A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
- A.
Erythroblastotic
- B.
Homozygous Rh(D) positive
- C.
Heterozygous Rh(D) positive
- D.
50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
- 66.According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
- A.
Is present in the serum
- B.
Is absent from the serum
- C.
Is present in the blood cells
- D.
May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
- 67.Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for
- A.
15-30 seconds @ 1000
- B.
2 min @ 2000
- C.
3 min @ 3000
- D.
5 min @ 5000
- 68.Water-soluble pigments are produced by
- A.
Yeasts
- B.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- C.
Staphylococcus epidermidis
- D.
Group A streptococcus
- 69.A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
- A.
Indicates no infection
- B.
Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies
- C.
Indicates the severity of infection
- D.
Is positive during the chancre stage
- 70.Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
- A.
Bacillus anthracis
- B.
Listeria monocytogenes
- C.
Clostridium botulinum
- D.
Nocardia asteroides
- 71.Optochin is used to help identify
- A.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B.
Staphylococcus aureus
- C.
Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)
- D.
Strepococci producing alpha hemolysis
- 72.A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
- A.
Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
- B.
Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
- C.
A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
- D.
Red blood cells int he cytoplasm
- 73.Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces?
- A.
Mannitol salt agar
- B.
An enrichment broth
- C.
MacConkey agar
- D.
Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB)
- 74.A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is
- A.
Trichomonas hominis
- B.
Entamoeba coli
- C.
Trichomonas tenax
- D.
Trichomonas vaginalis
- 75.Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that must have media enriched with X and V factors?
- A.
Escherichia coli
- B.
Listeria monocytogenes
- C.
Haemophilus influenzae
- D.
Bacillus anthracis
- 76.Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
- A.
Haemophilus
- B.
Bordetella
- C.
Pasteurello
- D.
Yersinia
- 77.
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
- D.
D
- 78.
- A.
Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
- B.
Grows best at slightly acid pH
- C.
Is motile
- D.
Capsules are produced by virulent strians
- 79.Which one fo the following test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphlococci?
- A.
Oxidase
- B.
Coagulase
- C.
Catalase
- D.
Fibrinolysin
- 80.The etiologic agent of chancroid is
- A.
Haemophilus aegyptius
- B.
Haemophilus ducreyi
- C.
Haemophilus influenzae
- D.
Bordetella pertussis
- 81.Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a
- A.
Mordant
- B.
Decolorizer
- C.
Secondary stain
- D.
Primary stain
- 82.The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
- A.
Staphylococcus aureus
- B.
Streptococcus pyogenes
- C.
Streptococcus viridans
- D.
Staphylococcus haemolyticus
- 83.A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
- A.
Maintain them at room temperature
- B.
Retain their moisture
- C.
Avoid exposing them to light
- D.
Maintain them in an incubator
- 84.In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) divided the Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their classification scheme?
- A.
Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella
- B.
Citrobactereae Citobacter
- C.
Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella
- D.
Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella
- 85.In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
- A.
Cattle
- B.
Swine
- C.
Fish
- D.
Man
- 86.A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
- A.
Ammonium sulfate
- B.
Zinc chloride
- C.
Zinc sulfate
- D.
Concentrated formalin
- 87.The infective stage of the hookworm is the
- A.
Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
- B.
Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
- C.
Filariform larva with a pointed tail
- D.
Filariform larva with a notched tail
- 88.Enterobius vermilcularis is a
- A.
Hookworm
- B.
Pinworm
- C.
Filarial worm
- D.
Flat worm
- 89.The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which of the following organisms?
- A.
Balantidium coli
- B.
Endolimax nana
- C.
Trichomonas vaginalis
- D.
Iodamoeba butschlii
- 90.The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is
- A.
Schistosoma mansoni
- B.
Schistosoma haematobium
- C.
Schistosoma japonicum
- D.
Schistosoma hepatica
- 91.Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
- A.
Serologic and biochemical characteristics
- B.
Staining properties with polychrome dyes
- C.
Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
- D.
Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae
- 92.The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of
- A.
Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
- B.
Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
- C.
Bilirubin in the urine
- D.
Phenylalanine in the urine
- 93.In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is
- A.
Simple filtration
- B.
Secretion
- C.
Selective re-absorption
- D.
Re-absorption of water
- 94.In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is
- A.
+/- 1.001
- B.
+/- 0.100
- C.
+/- 0.010
- D.
+/- 0.001
- 95.
- A.
Benedict's
- B.
Clinitest
- C.
Pandy
- D.
Dip stick
- 96.Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as
- A.
Proteus vulgaris
- B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
- C.
Spirochetes
- D.
Spermatozoa
- 97.Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
- A.
Ketone bodies
- B.
Protein
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Uric acid
- 98.Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
- A.
Hydrometry
- B.
Osmolality
- C.
Refractive index
- D.
Specific gravity
- 99.Dilute normal urine is usually
- A.
Pale yellow
- B.
Dark yellow
- C.
Reddish-yellow
- D.
Amber
- 100.The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
- A.
Alkaline copper
- B.
Nitroprusside
- C.
Ferric chloride
- D.
2,4 dichloraniline
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