Medical Lab Technician Exam Questions And Answers!

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1. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone

Explanation

Insulin is the correct answer because it is the hormone responsible for regulating blood glucose levels. Insulin is produced by the pancreas and helps to lower blood glucose levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It also promotes the storage of glucose as glycogen in the liver and muscles. Without sufficient insulin, blood glucose levels can become too high, leading to conditions like diabetes. ACTH, thyroxin, and hydrocortisone are not directly involved in the regulation of blood glucose levels.

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Medical Lab Technician Exam Questions And Answers! - Quiz

Ace your medical lab technician exam with our comprehensive resources! A crucial part of your preparation is a realistic lab technician mock test. They cover essential topics like... see morehematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, and immunology, giving you valuable experience and boosting your confidence.

Reinforce your knowledge and test your retention with our engaging MLT quiz questions. Regularly taking these mock tests will familiarize you with the exam format, time constraints, and question types, leading to improved performance on the real exam. see less

2. A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is 

Explanation

Trichomonas vaginalis is the correct answer because it is a flagellate that is commonly found in the urine of female patients. This parasite is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the urogenital tract. It is most commonly found in the vagina, hence the name "vaginalis." Trichomonas hominis, Entamoeba coli, and Trichomonas tenax are all different species of flagellates, but they are not typically found in the urine of female patients.

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3. The RA latex test is used as a screening test for 

Explanation

The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA latex test detects the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

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4. Dilute normal urine is usually

Explanation

Dilute normal urine is usually pale yellow because it contains a lower concentration of waste products and toxins. When urine is diluted, it means that there is a higher water content, leading to a lighter color. Pale yellow urine indicates that the body is well-hydrated and functioning properly. Dark yellow, reddish-yellow, and amber colors may suggest dehydration or the presence of certain substances or medical conditions.

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5. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?

Explanation

Landsteiner is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance. This is because Landsteiner discovered the ABO blood groups and proposed the theory of inheritance based on his experiments. His work laid the foundation for our understanding of blood types and their inheritance patterns, which has been widely accepted in the field of genetics and immunology.

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6. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred

Explanation

A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred permanently because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis B virus infection. This means that the donor is currently infected with the virus and can transmit it to the recipient through blood transfusion. Therefore, it is necessary to permanently defer the donor to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent the transmission of hepatitis B to recipients.

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7. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test

Explanation

The correct answer, "confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies," indicates that a reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test is used to detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to a treponemal infection. This test is commonly used to diagnose syphilis, as the presence of treponemal antibodies confirms the infection. It does not indicate the severity of the infection or the specific stage of syphilis.

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8. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting

Explanation

Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue stains are commonly used for counting reticulocytes. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of RNA. By staining them with these dyes, they become visible under a microscope and can be counted to determine the rate of red blood cell production in the bone marrow. This is particularly useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anemia or bone marrow disorders.

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9. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of 

Explanation

Sodium plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the solutes in a solution, which helps regulate the movement of water across cell membranes. Sodium ions are one of the main solutes in extracellular fluids, and their concentration affects the osmotic pressure. By controlling the osmotic pressure, sodium helps maintain the balance of water inside and outside cells, ensuring proper hydration and functioning of cells and tissues throughout the body.

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10. Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen

Explanation

Carbohydrates are organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. These atoms are bonded together in specific ratios, with the general formula for carbohydrates being (CH2O)n. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3, as all three elements are present in carbohydrates.

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11. Blood group A individuals have

Explanation

Blood group A individuals have anti-B in their serum because they do not have the B antigen on their red blood cells. The presence of anti-B antibodies allows their immune system to recognize and attack any foreign blood cells that do have the B antigen, preventing incompatible blood transfusions.

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12. An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates

Explanation

An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection. Neutrophilic granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response to bacterial infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.

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13. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as

Explanation

The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as the standard deviation. The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is calculated by taking the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences between each value and the mean. A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation indicates less variability.

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14. Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a 

Explanation

In the Gram staining procedure, safranin is used as a secondary stain, also known as a counterstain. After the primary stain (crystal violet) and the mordant (iodine) have been applied, and the decolorizer (usually alcohol or acetone) has been used to differentiate Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria, safranin is applied to stain the Gram-negative bacteria, which do not retain the crystal violet stain. This gives Gram-negative bacteria a red or pink color, while Gram-positive bacteria remain purple.

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15. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 

Explanation

Fibrinogen is a blood plasma protein that is essential for blood clotting. It is not found in serum because fibrinogen is converted to fibrin during the clotting process, which is removed from the blood to create serum. Therefore, fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only, as plasma contains fibrinogen and other clotting factors.

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16. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their 

Explanation

Fungi are commonly identified based on their sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae. Sporulation refers to the formation of spores, which are reproductive structures in fungi. The arrangement of spores on the hyphae, which are thread-like structures in fungi, can vary and be used to distinguish different species. This method of identification is important because it allows scientists to differentiate between different types of fungi and classify them accordingly. Other characteristics mentioned in the options, such as serologic and biochemical characteristics, staining properties, and solubility in potassium hydroxide, may also be used in fungal identification but are not as commonly relied upon as sporulation and spore arrangement.

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17. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of 

Explanation

Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by an increase in acid levels in the body. Ketone bodies are produced when the body breaks down fatty acids for energy, particularly in conditions like diabetes or starvation. Therefore, testing urine for the presence of ketone bodies can help detect metabolic acidosis. Protein, glucose, and uric acid are not directly related to the detection of metabolic acidosis, making them incorrect options.

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18. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?

Explanation

Freezing point depression measurements are used to determine the osmolality of a solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, specifically in this case, in urine. By measuring the freezing point depression, the osmolality of the urine can be determined, which can provide important information about kidney function and hydration levels. Therefore, freezing point depression measurements are part of the urine test procedure for osmolality.

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19. Antihuman serum globulin reagent 

Explanation

The correct answer is "is produced in laboratory animals." This is because antihuman serum globulin reagent is a reagent that is used in laboratory tests to detect antibodies in human serum. It is produced by injecting laboratory animals with human serum globulin, which stimulates the animals to produce antibodies against the human serum globulin. These antibodies are then collected and used as the antihuman serum globulin reagent in laboratory tests.

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20. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

Explanation

An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of the RBC.

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21. To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute

Explanation

To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the total volume of the diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL being the diluent. This dilution ratio indicates that for every 1 part of serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts. This dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the concentration of a sample for various analyses or experiments.

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22. Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as 

Explanation

The description of the cells having an oval "head" with a long, delicate, whip-like tail is characteristic of spermatozoa. Proteus vulgaris is a bacterium and would not have this specific morphology. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that has flagella, but its morphology is different from the described cells. Spirochetes are a type of bacteria that have a spiral shape and would not match the given description. Therefore, the most likely identification based on the given description is spermatozoa.

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23. Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the

Explanation

According to Beer's law, the darker the color produced in a specimen, the more light is absorbed. This means that as the concentration of the analyte increases, more light is absorbed, resulting in a darker color. Therefore, the correct answer is "Higher the concentration of the analyte."

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24. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

Explanation

Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh(D) antigen, which can occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses. Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the negative mother after delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these antibodies.

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25. What is the distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer called?

Explanation

The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is called 0.1 mm.

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26. Enterobius vermilcularis is a 

Explanation

Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as the pinworm. It is a parasitic worm that infects the human intestines. Pinworms are transmitted through the ingestion of their eggs, which are usually found on contaminated surfaces or in food and water. Once inside the body, the eggs hatch in the small intestine and the larvae migrate to the large intestine, where they mature into adult worms. The female pinworms then migrate to the anus to lay their eggs, causing intense itching and discomfort. Pinworm infections are common, especially in children, and can be treated with medication.

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27. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 

Explanation

The glomerulus is responsible for simple filtration in the formation of urine. It acts as a filter, allowing small molecules like water, electrolytes, and waste products to pass through while preventing larger molecules like proteins and blood cells from entering the filtrate. This initial filtration process helps to remove waste products from the blood and create a concentrated urine solution.

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28. Which of the following organisms are described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that are media enriched with X and V factors?

Explanation

Haemophilus influenzae is the correct answer because it fits the description given in the question. It is described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods. Additionally, Haemophilus influenzae requires media enriched with X and V factors for growth. Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, and Bacillus anthracis do not fit the given description.

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29. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of 

Explanation

Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic fractionation is a technique used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this case, the given fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the correct answer is serum protein.

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30. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals 

Explanation

A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets that separates from the red blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is usually thin. However, in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

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31. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?

Explanation

Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin determination by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards. This method involves the conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately. This method is widely used in clinical laboratories for accurate and reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.

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32. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of 

Explanation

Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more compact and retracts, leading to the formation of a stable clot. This process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a crucial role in clot formation and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet function the correct answer.

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33. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is 

Explanation

Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.

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34. Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci?

Explanation

Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that causes the plasma to clot. This test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci because it is specific to this bacteria. The presence of coagulase activity indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of coagulase activity suggests the presence of other types of staphylococci.

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35. Reticulocytes contain 

Explanation

Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA remnants. These remnants are leftover from the process of synthesizing hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes (mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants. Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.

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36. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the 

Explanation

Automated blood cell counters use the principle of counting the size of the particles. These counters measure the size of the red blood cells to determine the number of cells present. By analyzing the size of the particles, the counter can differentiate between different types of blood cells and provide accurate cell counts. This principle is effective because different blood cell types have different sizes, allowing the counter to distinguish between them and provide valuable information about the blood sample.

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37. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?

Explanation

Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and treatment.

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38. The end-product of purine metabolism is

Explanation

Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the breakdown of purine nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of these nucleotides leads to the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are not the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism, creatine is involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism.

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39. During Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in 

Explanation

The correct answer is cattle because Taenia saginata is a tapeworm that primarily infects cattle. The larval stage of the tapeworm develops in the muscles of cattle, and when humans consume undercooked or raw beef contaminated with these larvae, they can become infected. Swine and fish can also be hosts for other types of tapeworms, but in the case of Taenia saginata, the larval stage specifically develops in cattle.

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40. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted

Explanation

In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio determines the amount of blood that is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for every 1 part of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood cells, as it helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it easier to count them under a microscope.

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41. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which organisms?

Explanation

Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasitic protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike the other organisms mentioned, Trichomonas vaginalis does not have a cystic stage of development. Cystic stages are a common feature in many protozoa, including Balantidium coli, Endolimax nana, and Iodamoeba butschlii. These cysts allow the organisms to survive outside of a host and are an important part of their life cycle. However, Trichomonas vaginalis does not form cysts and instead exists in a motile form throughout its life cycle.

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42. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

Explanation

As a general rule, when a blood cell matures, it typically decreases in size. This is particularly evident in the development of red blood cells (erythrocytes) and white blood cells (leukocytes). For example, during erythropoiesis (the production of red blood cells), the cell starts as a large progenitor cell and gradually decreases in size as it matures into a fully functional erythrocyte. Similarly, many types of white blood cells also decrease in size as they mature.

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43. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

Explanation

Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point depression. This is because the freezing point of a solution is lower than that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly related to the number of solute particles present in the solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and by measuring the freezing point depression, one can determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity, and ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.

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44. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

Explanation

Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells break down and is transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is another term for unconjugated bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, refers to bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is converted to bilirubin in the body.

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45. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 

Explanation

The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid are not considered ketone bodies.

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46. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be

Explanation

A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an increased number of non-cellular particles in the sample, which can interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC). These non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter. Therefore, a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both RBC and WBC parameters.

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47. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

Explanation

Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. It is a component of the immune system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and diseases. These antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune response and helps protect against various pathogens.

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48. When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward

Explanation

When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively charged particles migrate towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate towards the positive pole in this scenario.

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49. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for 

Explanation

Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged at a speed of 1000 for a duration of 15-30 seconds. Centrifugation is done to separate the cells from the serum or plasma in the mixture. This process helps in obtaining a clear supernatant, which is necessary for accurate interpretation of the test results. Centrifuging for a longer duration or at higher speeds may lead to hemolysis or improper separation of the components, affecting the reliability of the test.

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50. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and 

Explanation

The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine with alkaline picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured spectrophotometrically. By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.

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51. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with 

Explanation

The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with nitroprusside. Nitroprusside is a chemical compound that reacts with ketones in the urine to produce a purple color. This color change indicates the presence of ketones in the urine, which can be a sign of uncontrolled diabetes or other metabolic disorders. The impregnation of nitroprusside on the dip stick allows for a quick and easy detection of ketones in the urine sample.

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52. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of 

Explanation

Bordet-Gengou agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of Bordetella. This agar medium is selective for Bordetella species as it contains specific nutrients and inhibitors that promote the growth of these bacteria while inhibiting the growth of other organisms. Fresh blood is added to enhance the growth of Bordetella species by providing essential nutrients. Therefore, this agar medium is specifically designed for the isolation and identification of Bordetella bacteria.

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53. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is 

Explanation

Streptococcus pyogenes is the correct answer because it is known to cause both rheumatic fever and glomerular nephritis. Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can occur after a streptococcal infection, specifically caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Glomerular nephritis, on the other hand, is a type of kidney inflammation that can also be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus viridans, and Staphylococcus haemolyticus are not typically associated with these conditions.

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54. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments

Explanation

Most automated cell counting instruments count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes. Leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, are responsible for the body's immune response and are found in the bloodstream. Nucleated red blood cells are abnormal cells that may be present in certain medical conditions. Since leukocytes are also present in the bloodstream and are involved in the immune response, automated cell counting instruments include them when counting nucleated red blood cells.

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55. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of 

Explanation

Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of Heinz bodies. Heinz bodies are abnormal aggregates of denatured hemoglobin that form within red blood cells. In individuals with G-6-PD deficiency, the red blood cells are more susceptible to oxidative damage, leading to the formation of Heinz bodies. These bodies can be visualized using supravital staining techniques, which stain the bodies and make them visible under a microscope. Therefore, the presence of Heinz bodies indicates a deficiency of G-6-PD.

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56. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing

Explanation

Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not used in performing reverse typing. Reverse typing is a blood typing technique that involves testing the patient's serum against known red blood cell antigens. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is used in other blood typing techniques, such as direct typing and indirect antiglobulin testing, to detect antibodies that have coated the patient's red blood cells. However, in reverse typing, the patient's serum is tested for the presence of antibodies, so antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not necessary.

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57. Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?

Explanation

Clostridium botulinum is a strict anaerobe because it cannot survive in the presence of oxygen. It is a bacterium that produces the botulinum toxin, which causes the serious illness botulism. This bacterium is commonly found in soil and water, and it thrives in environments with low oxygen levels. Its ability to survive and produce toxins in anaerobic conditions makes it a strict anaerobe. Bacillus anthracis, Listeria monocytogenes, and Nocardia asteroides are not strict anaerobes as they can tolerate or even grow in the presence of oxygen.

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58. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of

Explanation

In a normal distribution, approximately 95% of the data falls within ±2 standard deviations of the mean. This leaves about 5% of the data outside this range. Since 5% of 100 is 5, the ratio of test results beyond the ±2 standard deviations limit will be 5 out of 100. Simplified, this is 1 out of 20. Therefore, for every 20 test results, 1 is expected to fall outside the ±2 standard deviation range.

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59. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT)

Explanation

Lactic Dehydrogenase (LDH), Creatinine Phosphokinase (CPK), and Serum Glutamic Oxaloacetic Transaminase (SGOT) are all enzymes that can be found in the heart muscle. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

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60. A patient's blood sample shows elevated levels of ALT (Alanine Aminotransferase) and AST (Aspartate Aminotransferase) with a low albumin level and prolonged PT (Prothrombin Time). Which of the following conditions is most likely indicated?

Explanation

Elevated levels of ALT and AST are markers of liver injury, while low albumin and prolonged PT indicate impaired liver function. These findings are characteristic of liver cirrhosis, a condition where the liver is severely scarred and unable to perform its normal functions effectively. In contrast, acute myocardial infarction, chronic kidney disease, and hemolytic anemia do not typically present with this combination of laboratory abnormalities.

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61. Which of the following tasks is typically performed by a Medical Lab Technician (MLT)?

Explanation

Medical Lab Technicians (MLTs) are responsible for conducting and analyzing laboratory tests. They perform various tests on blood, tissues, and other body fluids to help diagnose and monitor diseases. Prescribing medication, performing surgical procedures, and diagnosing diseases based on symptoms are tasks typically performed by doctors or other healthcare professionals, not by MLTs.

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62. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using

Explanation

The correct answer is diluting fluid because it is commonly used in automated cell counters to create a dilution of the blood sample. This dilution helps in obtaining accurate and reliable cell counts by ensuring that the cells are evenly distributed and not clumped together. The diluting fluid also helps in maintaining the integrity of the cells and preventing any interference or contamination from other substances present in the sample.

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63. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the enterococci are placed in ______________ group.

Explanation



In the Lancefield classification, which categorizes streptococci based on the carbohydrate composition of bacterial antigens found on their cell walls, the enterococci are placed in Group D. This group includes Streptococcus species such as Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium, which are significant in medical microbiology due to their role in human intestinal tracts and their relevance in hospital-acquired infections.
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64. The variety of media may be safely stored for months and is taken care to 

Explanation

The correct answer is "retain their moisture". This means that the variety of media needs to be stored in a way that ensures that they do not dry out. Moisture is important for the viability and effectiveness of the media, so it is important to maintain the right level of moisture to prevent them from becoming unusable.

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65. Water-soluble pigments are produced by

Explanation

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is known to produce water-soluble pigments such as pyocyanin, pyoverdine, and pyorubin. These pigments are important for the survival and virulence of the bacterium. Pyocyanin, for example, has been shown to have antimicrobial properties and can help Pseudomonas aeruginosa compete with other microorganisms in its environment. Therefore, it is the most likely organism to produce water-soluble pigments among the options given.

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66. Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?

Explanation

Osmometers are instruments that measure the total ions and molecules in a solution, rather than specifically measuring the concentration of a particular molecule. They do this by determining the osmotic pressure of the solution, which is a measure of the number of moles of solute per kilogram of water. Osmometers are commonly used in medical and research laboratories to measure the osmolality of bodily fluids and other solutions. This information is useful in diagnosing and monitoring certain medical conditions, as well as in various scientific and industrial applications.

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67. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears

Explanation

The correct answer is light yellow or straw colored. Cerebral spinal fluid in patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage may appear this way due to the presence of red blood cells and breakdown products of blood. The yellow color is caused by the bilirubin pigment, which is a product of the breakdown of red blood cells. This color indicates that there is a small amount of blood present in the fluid, but not enough to cause it to be bright red or green.

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68. Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces?

Explanation

Mannitol salt agar is a selective and differential medium commonly used to isolate Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that contain mixed bacterial flora such as feces. This medium contains high salt concentration which inhibits the growth of most bacteria except for Staphylococcus species. Additionally, it contains mannitol and a pH indicator that allows for the differentiation of Staphylococcus aureus based on its ability to ferment mannitol, producing acid and causing a change in color of the medium. Therefore, mannitol salt agar is the appropriate choice for isolating Staphylococcus aureus from mixed bacterial flora.

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69. Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group

Explanation

Plasma from AB donors is considered universal plasma, meaning it can be given to patients of any blood group. This is because AB plasma does not contain anti-A or anti-B antibodies, which could react with the recipient's red blood cells. 

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70. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is 

Explanation

Coumadin is the correct answer because it is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver, including prothrombin. When Coumadin is given orally, it prolongs the prothrombin time, which is a measure of how long it takes for blood to clot. This effect is desired in certain medical conditions where there is a risk of excessive blood clotting. Heparin, protamine sulfate, and saliclate do not produce a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally.

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71. Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is 

Explanation

Hemolytic anemia is usually associated with severe burns. In this type of anemia, red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a decrease in the overall number of red blood cells in the body. Severe burns can cause damage to blood vessels and tissues, leading to the release of substances that can trigger the destruction of red blood cells. This can result in hemolytic anemia, which is characterized by symptoms such as fatigue, pale skin, and shortness of breath.

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72. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes

Explanation

As a blood cell matures, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes more dense. This means that the DNA and associated proteins in the nucleus become more tightly packed. This denser chromatin pattern allows for more efficient regulation of gene expression and helps to maintain the stability and integrity of the genetic material within the cell.

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73. Which test is used to measure capillary fragility?

Explanation

The test used to measure capillary fragility is the Tourniquet test. This test involves applying a tourniquet to the upper arm for 5 minutes and then releasing it. The appearance of petechiae (small red spots) on the skin within 20 minutes indicates increased capillary fragility. This test is commonly used to evaluate disorders such as thrombocytopenia, dengue fever, and vasculitis.

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74. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with 

Explanation

Dolichos biflorus serum is used to determine if a patient is A1 or A2. This serum is specifically used to detect the presence of A2 antigen on red blood cells. If the serum reacts with the blood sample, it indicates that the patient is A2. If there is no reaction, it means the patient is A1. The other serums listed (anti-A serum, anti-AB serum) are used for different blood typing purposes and do not specifically differentiate between A1 and A2.

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75. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is 

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.05 mL. In the qualitative VDRL test, a small amount of inactivated serum is used to detect the presence of antibodies to syphilis. This test is used to determine if a person has been exposed to the syphilis bacteria. The quantity of 0.05 mL is sufficient to ensure accurate results without using an excessive amount of serum.

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76. When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is known as a _____________.

Explanation

Shift: A shift in data occurs when a set of values consistently stays above or below the mean for a series of points, indicating a change in the process being measured. This indicates a change or a systematic effect in the process that is being monitored, which could be due to a variety of reasons such as a change in materials, methods, or environment.

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77. Which of the following blood components is responsible for carrying the majority of oxygen in the human body and has a unique structure that allows it to efficiently bind to and release oxygen within tissues?

Explanation

Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, have a unique biconcave shape and contain hemoglobin, which enables them to carry the majority of oxygen in the human body. The biconcave shape increases their surface area, making it easier for them to release and absorb oxygen as they circulate through the body. This efficient oxygen-carrying capacity is vital for oxygen transport to tissues and organs.

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78. Hansel's stain is appropriate for 

Explanation

Hansel's stain is appropriate for nasal secretion for eosinophils. This staining technique is used to identify and count eosinophils, which are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections. By staining the nasal secretion with Hansel's stain, eosinophils can be easily visualized under a microscope, allowing for the assessment of eosinophil levels in the sample. This can be useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as allergic rhinitis or eosinophilic rhinosinusitis.

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79. In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is 

Explanation

The correction factor for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is +/- 0.001. This means that for every 3 degrees Celsius difference from the calibration temperature, the specific gravity reading obtained from the urinometer needs to be adjusted by adding or subtracting 0.001. This correction factor accounts for the expansion or contraction of the liquid being measured due to temperature changes, ensuring accurate readings.

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80. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?

Explanation

The dip stick test is specific for urinary glucose. It utilizes a glucose oxidase-peroxidase method, which is highly sensitive and specific for glucose. The other tests mentioned, Benedict's and Clinitest, are less specific as they detect reducing sugars, which can include other substances besides glucose. The Pandy test is used to detect proteins in the urine, not glucose.

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81. The etiologic agent of chancroid is 

Explanation

The correct answer is Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection that is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. This bacterium is primarily transmitted through sexual contact and can lead to the development of painful genital ulcers. It is important to correctly identify the etiologic agent in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of the infection. Haemophilus aegyptius, Haemophilus influenzae, and Bordetella pertussis are not associated with chancroid.

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82. The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in 

Explanation

The osmotic fragility of red cells refers to their susceptibility to rupture when exposed to different concentrations of salt solutions. In this case, the correct answer is 0.50% NaCl because at this concentration, the red cells start to undergo hemolysis or rupture. This indicates that they are more fragile and susceptible to bursting in lower salt concentrations compared to the other options provided.

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83. Optochin is used to help identify

Explanation

Optochin is a chemical compound that is used in the identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus. This bacteria is a common cause of respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, and can also cause meningitis and other invasive diseases. Optochin is added to a culture of bacteria, and if the bacteria are sensitive to optochin, they will not grow. Streptococcus pneumoniae is sensitive to optochin, whereas the other bacteria listed in the options are not affected by it. Therefore, the correct answer is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

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84. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used

Explanation

Zinc sulfate is used in the floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts. This method involves mixing the sample with a solution containing zinc sulfate, which has a higher specific gravity than the ova and cysts. As a result, the ova and cysts float to the surface while other debris sinks. This allows for easier detection and examination of the ova and cysts under a microscope.

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85. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody

Explanation

According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody is absent from the serum. This means that if a particular antigen is found on the surface of blood cells, the corresponding antibody that can recognize and bind to that antigen is not present in the serum. This is an important concept in blood typing and understanding immune responses, as it helps to explain why certain blood types can be incompatible with others.

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86. Which of the following tasks is NOT typically performed by a Medical Lab Technician (MLT)?

Explanation

Medical Lab Technicians (MLTs) are responsible for collecting and processing patient samples, performing blood tests and urinalysis, and maintaining laboratory equipment. However, interpreting test results for patient diagnosis is typically performed by a medical doctor or a specialized medical professional, such as a pathologist. MLTs provide the necessary data from laboratory tests, but they do not diagnose patients.

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87. In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) divided the Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their classification scheme?

Explanation

The given answer, Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella, is not a valid tribe under the classification scheme proposed by Ewing, Bergey, and the CDC in the 1980s. The other options listed, Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella, Citrobactereae Citobacter, and Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella, are valid tribes according to their classification.

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88. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is 

Explanation

The correct answer is Schistosoma mansoni because it is known to have eggs with a pronounced lateral spine. Schistosoma haematobium, Schistosoma japonicum, and Schistosoma hepatica do not have this characteristic.

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89. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in 

Explanation

Obstructive jaundice is a condition characterized by the blockage of bile ducts, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in various tissues, including the liver and bile ducts. When there is a blockage in the bile ducts, such as in obstructive jaundice, the enzyme is released into the bloodstream, resulting in greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Therefore, obstructive jaundice is the most likely cause for the greatly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase mentioned in the question.

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90. The infective stage of the hookworm is the 

Explanation

The infective stage of the hookworm is the filariform larva with a pointed tail. This stage is able to penetrate the skin of the host and migrate to the small intestine where it matures into an adult worm. The pointed tail helps the larva to penetrate the skin more effectively. The rhabditiform larva, on the other hand, is the non-infective stage and is found in the feces of the infected host.

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91. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of 

Explanation

The modified Griess nitrite test is used to detect the presence of nitrites in urine, which indicates the presence of bacteria. A positive result in this test suggests the presence of significant bacteriuria, meaning a high concentration of bacteria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine). This level of bacteriuria is considered clinically significant and may indicate a urinary tract infection. The other options, such as any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine), bilirubin in the urine, and phenylalanine in the urine, are not relevant to the Griess nitrite test.

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92. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be

Explanation

In this scenario, the mother is Rh(D) negative, which means she does not have the Rh(D) antigen on her red blood cells. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive, meaning he has two copies of the Rh(D) antigen. Since Rh(D) positive is dominant over Rh(D) negative, all of their offspring will inherit one Rh(D) positive allele from the father and one Rh(D) negative allele from the mother, making them heterozygous Rh(D) positive.

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93. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT

Explanation

The correct answer is hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction. Glomerular filtration is primarily influenced by factors such as renal blood flow and cardiac function, as well as the presence of renal or urinary calculi. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction, on the other hand, are not directly related to glomerular filtration.

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94. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains

Explanation

A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains red blood cells in the cytoplasm. This is a characteristic feature of this parasite, as it is known to invade and feed on red blood cells. The presence of red blood cells in the cytoplasm can be used as a diagnostic feature to identify Entamoeba histolytica in a clinical sample.

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95. What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100 mL of solution?

Explanation

The normality (N) of a solution is defined as the number of equivalents of solute per liter of solution. To calculate the normality, we need to determine the number of equivalents of sodium hydroxide in the given solution. Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is a strong base that dissociates completely in water to form one hydroxide ion (OH-) per molecule. Therefore, the number of equivalents is equal to the number of moles of sodium hydroxide.

First, we need to calculate the number of moles of sodium hydroxide in 20 grams. The molecular weight of sodium hydroxide is 40 g/mol, so the number of moles is 20 g / 40 g/mol = 0.5 mol.

Next, we need to determine the volume of the solution in liters. The given solution has a volume of 100 mL, which is equal to 0.1 L.

Finally, we can calculate the normality by dividing the number of equivalents (moles) by the volume in liters: 0.5 mol / 0.1 L = 5.0N.

Therefore, the normality of the sodium hydroxide solution is 5.0N.

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96. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is

Explanation

Plasma thyroxine (T4) is mostly bound to globulin because globulin is a type of protein that acts as a carrier for T4 in the bloodstream. This binding helps to protect T4 from being rapidly metabolized or excreted by the body. By being bound to globulin, T4 can be transported to target tissues where it can be released and exert its hormonal effects.

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97. During the crossmatch procedure, a negative result on the addition of Coombs control cells indicated that the 

Explanation

In the crossmatch procedure, the addition of Coombs control cells (or check cells) is used to confirm that the antiglobulin reagent was active and present during the test. A negative result after adding Coombs control cells indicates that the antiglobulin reagent was inactivated, neutralized, or not added, suggesting that the test results may not be valid. This would require the test to be repeated to ensure accurate crossmatching.

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98. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that is attached to the patient's cells IN VIVO?

Explanation



This test detects antibodies that are already bound to the surface of red blood cells within the patient's body. It is commonly used to diagnose conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and transfusion reactions. In this test, anti-human globulin (Coombs reagent) is added to a sample of the patient's red blood cells. If the cells agglutinate, it indicates that antibodies are present on the red cell surface.
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99. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?

Explanation

An antigen is any substance that triggers an immune response when introduced into the body and is recognized as foreign. This could include pathogens like bacteria and viruses, as well as other substances like pollen or transplanted tissues. Antigens are not necessarily high in molecular weight, nor are they produced by the action of antibodies. While antigens do often exhibit a high order of specificity in how they interact with antibodies, the defining characteristic of an antigen is its foreign nature to the host organism.

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100. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

Explanation

Serum haptoglobin may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Haptoglobin is a protein that binds to free hemoglobin released from red blood cells during hemolysis. In a hemolytic transfusion reaction, there is destruction of red blood cells, leading to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream. The binding of haptoglobin to free hemoglobin forms a complex that is then cleared from the bloodstream. Therefore, a decrease in serum haptoglobin levels may indicate a hemolytic transfusion reaction. Urine porphyrins, post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin, and pre-transfusion bilirubin are not specifically related to detecting hemolytic transfusion reactions.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is 
The RA latex test is used as a screening test for 
Dilute normal urine is usually
Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of...
A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for...
Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of 
Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33....
Blood group A individuals have
An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic...
The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a...
Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a 
Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 
Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their 
Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence...
Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the...
Antihuman serum globulin reagent 
An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute
Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile...
Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more...
Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)
What is the distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the...
Enterobius vermilcularis is a 
In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 
Which of the following organisms are described as minute, very...
Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic...
Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination...
Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is...
Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of 
The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is 
Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of...
Reticulocytes contain 
The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based...
Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein...
The end-product of purine metabolism is
During Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in 
When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count,...
The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which...
As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 
On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a...
WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an...
Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group...
Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on...
The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with 
Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the...
The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular...
When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted...
Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will...
Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test...
Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? ...
A patient's blood sample shows elevated levels of ALT (Alanine...
Which of the following tasks is typically performed by a Medical Lab...
On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus...
The variety of media may be safely stored for months and is taken care...
Water-soluble pigments are produced by
Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular...
Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens...
Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor who is group
A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given...
Which anemia is usually associated with severe burns is 
During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern...
Which test is used to measure capillary fragility?
To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with 
The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test...
When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side...
Which of the following blood components is responsible for carrying...
Hansel's stain is appropriate for 
In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction...
Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
The etiologic agent of chancroid is 
The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red...
Optochin is used to help identify
A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood...
Which of the following tasks is NOT typically performed by a Medical...
In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and...
The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine...
Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in 
The infective stage of the hookworm is the 
The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is...
A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive....
All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular...
Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
During the crossmatch procedure, a negative result on the addition of...
When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would...
Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion...
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