MLT Practice Quiz!

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MLT Practice Quiz!

Medical Laboratory Technician is a person who performs all the microscopic and bacteriological operations such as testing cells, tissues, fluids, human blood etc for medical and research purposes and it's all done a medical technologist. Can you answer the following medical test questions? Test your knowledge on this MLT quiz to see how good you perform and compare your score to others.


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Lower the concentration of the analyte

    • B. 

      Higher the concentration of the analyte

    • C. 

      More light transmitted

    • D. 

      Longer the wavelength required

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      5.0N

    • B. 

      1.0N

    • C. 

      0.5N

    • D. 

      0.4N

  • 3. 
    Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen
    • A. 

      1 and 2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 3 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2, and 3

  • 4. 
    If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      300

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent

    • B. 

      1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent

    • C. 

      1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent

    • D. 

      5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent

  • 6. 
    WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
    • A. 

      Transports glucose

    • B. 

      Regulates body temperature

    • C. 

      Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation

    • D. 

      Provides humoral immunity

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Osmometers

    • B. 

      Spectrophotometers

    • C. 

      Blood gas analyzers

    • D. 

      Immunochemical analyzers

  • 8. 
    Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
    • A. 

      Freezing point depression

    • B. 

      Refractive index

    • C. 

      Specific gravity

    • D. 

      Ionic strength

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Sulfuric acid

    • B. 

      Alkaline picrate

    • C. 

      Acetic anhydride

    • D. 

      Ammonium hydroxide

  • 10. 
    All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure

    • B. 

      Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi

    • C. 

      Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow

    • D. 

      Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction

  • 11. 
    Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
    • A. 

      Conjugated bilirubin

    • B. 

      Prehepatic bilirubin

    • C. 

      Total bilirubin

    • D. 

      Biliverdin

  • 12. 
    Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in 
    • A. 

      Kidney disease

    • B. 

      Liver disease

    • C. 

      Myocardial infarction

    • D. 

      Obstructive jaundice

  • 13. 
    The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 
    • A. 

      Lactic acid

    • B. 

      3-hydroxy butyric acid

    • C. 

      Oxaloacetic acid

    • D. 

      Acetic acid

  • 14. 
    Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
    • A. 

      ACTH

    • B. 

      Insulin

    • C. 

      Thyroxin

    • D. 

      Hydrocortisone

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Hemoglobin

    • B. 

      Amino acid

    • C. 

      Serum protein

    • D. 

      Serum lipoprotein

  • 16. 
    Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
    • A. 

      Isoenzyme electrophoresis

    • B. 

      Immunoelectrophoresis

    • C. 

      Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum

    • D. 

      Blood viscosity studies

  • 17. 
    Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. creatinine phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
    • A. 

      2 only

    • B. 

      1 and 2 only

    • C. 

      2 and 3 only

    • D. 

      1,2, and 3

  • 18. 
    Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
    • A. 

      Bound to globulin

    • B. 

      Bound to albumin

    • C. 

      Free

    • D. 

      Bound to cholesterol

  • 19. 
    Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of 
    • A. 

      Blood coagulation

    • B. 

      Osmotic pressure of body fluids

    • C. 

      Cardiac muscle contractions

    • D. 

      Salt intake

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      The positive pole

    • B. 

      The negative pole

    • C. 

      Either pole

    • D. 

      Both poles

  • 21. 
    The end-product of purine metabolism is
    • A. 

      Urea

    • B. 

      Creatine

    • C. 

      Creatinine

    • D. 

      Uric acid

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Normal distribution curve

    • B. 

      Mean deviation curve

    • C. 

      Shift

    • D. 

      Trend

  • 23. 
    The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
    • A. 

      Coefficient variation

    • B. 

      Quality control

    • C. 

      Stardard deviation

    • D. 

      Percent deviation

  • 24. 
    Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
    • A. 

      Oxyhemoglobin

    • B. 

      Sulfhemoglobin

    • C. 

      Methemoglobin

    • D. 

      Cyanmethemoglobin

  • 25. 
    When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
    • A. 

      1:200

    • B. 

      1:50

    • C. 

      1:20

    • D. 

      1:10

  • 26. 
    An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
    • A. 

      Variable in shape

    • B. 

      Packed with hemoglobin

    • C. 

      Markedly bluish in color

    • D. 

      Markedly pale in central color

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes

    • B. 

      Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets

    • C. 

      Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes

    • D. 

      Do not count nucleated red blood cells

  • 28. 
    Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of 
    • A. 

      Howell-Jolly bodies

    • B. 

      Rubriblasts

    • C. 

      Heniz bodies

    • D. 

      Plasmodium species

  • 29. 
    The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is 
    • A. 

      Macrocytic

    • B. 

      Aplastic

    • C. 

      Hemolytic

    • D. 

      Microcytic

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell

    • B. 

      Size of the particle being counted

    • C. 

      Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell

    • D. 

      Value of the cell indices

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Finer

    • B. 

      More dense

    • C. 

      Less dense

    • D. 

      More acidic

  • 32. 
    As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
    • A. 

      The cell increases in size

    • B. 

      The cell decreases in size

    • C. 

      There is no change in the cell's size

    • D. 

      The nucleus increases in size

  • 33. 
    An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
    • A. 

      Bacterial infection

    • B. 

      Viral infection

    • C. 

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • D. 

      Allergic reaction

  • 34. 
    Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
    • A. 

      Tourniquet

    • B. 

      Bleeding time

    • C. 

      Prothrombin time

    • D. 

      Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

  • 35. 
    On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
    • A. 

      Distilled water

    • B. 

      Highly-diluted blood

    • C. 

      Diluting fluid

    • D. 

      Lysing reagent only

  • 36. 
    Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
    • A. 

      Reticulocytes

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Malaria

    • D. 

      Howell-Jolly bodies

  • 37. 
    • A. 

      Clear (colorless)

    • B. 

      Bright red

    • C. 

      Light yellow or straw colored

    • D. 

      Greeen

  • 38. 
    The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is 
    • A. 

      0.1 cm

    • B. 

      1.0 cm

    • C. 

      0.1 mm

    • D. 

      1.0 mm

  • 39. 
    On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
    • A. 

      WBC and Hgb

    • B. 

      RBC and Hgb

    • C. 

      RBC and WBC

    • D. 

      Hct and WBC

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Hemolysis

    • B. 

      Icteric plasma

    • C. 

      A high hematocrit

    • D. 

      A heavy buffy coat

  • 41. 
    Hansel's stain is appropriate for 
    • A. 

      Circulating eosinophiles

    • B. 

      Phagocytic neutrophils

    • C. 

      Nasal secrection for eosinophiles

    • D. 

      Leukocytes in spinal fluid

  • 42. 
    Reticulocytes contain 
    • A. 

      DNA remnants

    • B. 

      RNA remnants

    • C. 

      Basophilic granules

    • D. 

      Howell-Jolly bodies

  • 43. 
    A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is 
    • A. 

      Heparin

    • B. 

      Protamine sulfate

    • C. 

      Saliclate

    • D. 

      Coumadin

  • 44. 
    The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in 
    • A. 

      0.50% NaCl

    • B. 

      0.85% NaCl

    • C. 

      0.90% NaCl

    • D. 

      1.34% NaCl

  • 45. 
    Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of 
    • A. 

      Factor VII deficiency

    • B. 

      Factor X deficiency

    • C. 

      Hemophilia

    • D. 

      Platelet function

  • 46. 
    Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
    • A. 

      First

    • B. 

      Second

    • C. 

      Third

    • D. 

      Fourth

  • 47. 
    Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 
    • A. 

      Serum only

    • B. 

      Plasma only

    • C. 

      Either serum or plasma

    • D. 

      Any body fluid

  • 48. 
    In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
    • A. 

      Pneumonia

    • B. 

      Infectious hepatitis

    • C. 

      Lupus erythematosus

    • D. 

      Helicobacter pylori

  • 49. 
    The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is 
    • A. 

      0.02 mL

    • B. 

      0.05 mL

    • C. 

      0.10 mL

    • D. 

      0.15 mL

  • 50. 
    • A. 

      High molecular weight

    • B. 

      High order of specificity

    • C. 

      Foreign to animal

    • D. 

      Produced by action of antibody

  • 51. 
    The RA latex test is used as a screening test for 
    • A. 

      Rheumatoid arthritis

    • B. 

      Thyroiditis

    • C. 

      Vulvovaginitis

    • D. 

      Infectious mononucleosis

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      25 C for 1 hour

    • B. 

      37 C for 30 min

    • C. 

      56 C for 30 min

    • D. 

      56 C for 10 min

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      A only

    • B. 

      AB only

    • C. 

      O only

    • D. 

      A, AB, or O

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

    • B. 

      Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband

    • C. 

      Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus

    • D. 

      Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

  • 55. 
    Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
    • A. 

      Urine porphyrins

    • B. 

      Serum haptoglobin

    • C. 

      Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin

    • D. 

      Pre-transfusion bilirubin

  • 56. 
    To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with 
    • A. 

      Anti-A serum

    • B. 

      Anti-AB serum

    • C. 

      Anti-A2 serum

    • D. 

      Dolichos biflorus serum

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      D(u)

    • B. 

      Elution

    • C. 

      Direct anti-human globulin test

    • D. 

      Indirect anti-human globulin test

  • 58. 
    Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
    • A. 

      Weiner

    • B. 

      Landsteiner

    • C. 

      Levine

    • D. 

      Bernstein

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused

    • B. 

      Crossmatch is incompatible

    • C. 

      Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test.

    • D. 

      Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch procedures.

  • 60. 
    The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is 
    • A. 

      Chloride

    • B. 

      Potassium

    • C. 

      Sodium

    • D. 

      Bicarbonate

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Is produced in humans

    • B. 

      Occurs naturally in most humans

    • C. 

      Is produced in laboratory animals

    • D. 

      Never detects complement-dependent antibodies

  • 62. 
    Blood group A individuals have
    • A. 

      Anti-A in their serum

    • B. 

      Anti-B in their serum

    • C. 

      Antigen A and B on their red cells

    • D. 

      Anti-O in their serum

  • 63. 
    • A. 

      For 6 months

    • B. 

      For 1 year

    • C. 

      For 5 years

    • D. 

      Permanently

  • 64. 
    Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
    • A. 

      Reverse typing

    • B. 

      Immunoglobulin testing

    • C. 

      D(u) testing

    • D. 

      Autoagglutination tests

  • 65. 
    A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
    • A. 

      Erythroblastotic

    • B. 

      Homozygous Rh(D) positive

    • C. 

      Heterozygous Rh(D) positive

    • D. 

      50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative

  • 66. 
    According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
    • A. 

      Is present in the serum

    • B. 

      Is absent from the serum

    • C. 

      Is present in the blood cells

    • D. 

      May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present

  • 67. 
    Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for 
    • A. 

      15-30 seconds @ 1000

    • B. 

      2 min @ 2000

    • C. 

      3 min @ 3000

    • D. 

      5 min @ 5000

  • 68. 
    Water-soluble pigments are produced by
    • A. 

      Yeasts

    • B. 

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa

    • C. 

      Staphylococcus epidermidis

    • D. 

      Group A streptococcus

  • 69. 
    A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
    • A. 

      Indicates no infection

    • B. 

      Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies

    • C. 

      Indicates the severity of infection

    • D. 

      Is positive during the chancre stage

  • 70. 
    Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
    • A. 

      Bacillus anthracis

    • B. 

      Listeria monocytogenes

    • C. 

      Clostridium botulinum

    • D. 

      Nocardia asteroides

  • 71. 
    Optochin is used to help identify
    • A. 

      Streptococcus pneumoniae

    • B. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • C. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes (group A)

    • D. 

      Strepococci producing alpha hemolysis

  • 72. 
    A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
    • A. 

      Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm

    • B. 

      Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus

    • C. 

      A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod

    • D. 

      Red blood cells int he cytoplasm

  • 73. 
    Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces?
    • A. 

      Mannitol salt agar

    • B. 

      An enrichment broth

    • C. 

      MacConkey agar

    • D. 

      Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB)

  • 74. 
    A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is 
    • A. 

      Trichomonas hominis

    • B. 

      Entamoeba coli

    • C. 

      Trichomonas tenax

    • D. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

  • 75. 
    Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that must have media enriched with X and V factors?
    • A. 

      Escherichia coli

    • B. 

      Listeria monocytogenes

    • C. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • D. 

      Bacillus anthracis

  • 76. 
    Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of 
    • A. 

      Haemophilus

    • B. 

      Bordetella

    • C. 

      Pasteurello

    • D. 

      Yersinia

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures

    • B. 

      Grows best at slightly acid pH

    • C. 

      Is motile

    • D. 

      Capsules are produced by virulent strians

  • 79. 
    Which one fo the following test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphlococci?
    • A. 

      Oxidase

    • B. 

      Coagulase

    • C. 

      Catalase

    • D. 

      Fibrinolysin

  • 80. 
    The etiologic agent of chancroid is 
    • A. 

      Haemophilus aegyptius

    • B. 

      Haemophilus ducreyi

    • C. 

      Haemophilus influenzae

    • D. 

      Bordetella pertussis

  • 81. 
    Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a 
    • A. 

      Mordant

    • B. 

      Decolorizer

    • C. 

      Secondary stain

    • D. 

      Primary stain

  • 82. 
    The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is 
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • C. 

      Streptococcus viridans

    • D. 

      Staphylococcus haemolyticus

  • 83. 
    A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to 
    • A. 

      Maintain them at room temperature

    • B. 

      Retain their moisture

    • C. 

      Avoid exposing them to light

    • D. 

      Maintain them in an incubator

  • 84. 
    In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) divided the Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their classification scheme?
    • A. 

      Escherichieae Escherichia-Shigella

    • B. 

      Citrobactereae Citobacter

    • C. 

      Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae Salmonella-Shigella

    • D. 

      Edwardsielleae Edwardsiella

  • 85. 
    In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in 
    • A. 

      Cattle

    • B. 

      Swine

    • C. 

      Fish

    • D. 

      Man

  • 86. 
    A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
    • A. 

      Ammonium sulfate

    • B. 

      Zinc chloride

    • C. 

      Zinc sulfate

    • D. 

      Concentrated formalin

  • 87. 
    The infective stage of the hookworm is the 
    • A. 

      Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity

    • B. 

      Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity

    • C. 

      Filariform larva with a pointed tail

    • D. 

      Filariform larva with a notched tail

  • 88. 
    Enterobius vermilcularis is a 
    • A. 

      Hookworm

    • B. 

      Pinworm

    • C. 

      Filarial worm

    • D. 

      Flat worm

  • 89. 
    The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which of the following organisms?
    • A. 

      Balantidium coli

    • B. 

      Endolimax nana

    • C. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • D. 

      Iodamoeba butschlii

  • 90. 
    The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is 
    • A. 

      Schistosoma mansoni

    • B. 

      Schistosoma haematobium

    • C. 

      Schistosoma japonicum

    • D. 

      Schistosoma hepatica

  • 91. 
    Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their 
    • A. 

      Serologic and biochemical characteristics

    • B. 

      Staining properties with polychrome dyes

    • C. 

      Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae

  • 92. 
    The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of 
    • A. 

      Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)

    • B. 

      Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)

    • C. 

      Bilirubin in the urine

    • D. 

      Phenylalanine in the urine

  • 93. 
    In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 
    • A. 

      Simple filtration

    • B. 

      Secretion

    • C. 

      Selective re-absorption

    • D. 

      Re-absorption of water

  • 94. 
    In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than calibration temperature is 
    • A. 

      +/- 1.001

    • B. 

      +/- 0.100

    • C. 

      +/- 0.010

    • D. 

      +/- 0.001

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Benedict's

    • B. 

      Clinitest

    • C. 

      Pandy

    • D. 

      Dip stick

  • 96. 
    Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as 
    • A. 

      Proteus vulgaris

    • B. 

      Trichomonas vaginalis

    • C. 

      Spirochetes

    • D. 

      Spermatozoa

  • 97. 
    Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of 
    • A. 

      Ketone bodies

    • B. 

      Protein

    • C. 

      Glucose

    • D. 

      Uric acid

  • 98. 
    Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
    • A. 

      Hydrometry

    • B. 

      Osmolality

    • C. 

      Refractive index

    • D. 

      Specific gravity

  • 99. 
    Dilute normal urine is usually
    • A. 

      Pale yellow

    • B. 

      Dark yellow

    • C. 

      Reddish-yellow

    • D. 

      Amber

  • 100. 
    The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with 
    • A. 

      Alkaline copper

    • B. 

      Nitroprusside

    • C. 

      Ferric chloride

    • D. 

      2,4 dichloraniline