Medical Lab Technician Exam Questions And Answers!

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    Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone

    • ACTH
    • Insulin
    • Thyroxin
    • Hydrocortisone
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About This Quiz

Ace your medical lab technician exam with our comprehensive resources! A crucial part of your preparation is a realistic lab technician mock test. They cover essential topics like hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, and immunology, giving you valuable experience and boosting your confidence.

Reinforce your knowledge and test your retention with our engaging MLT quiz questions. Regularly taking these mock See moretests will familiarize you with the exam format, time constraints, and question types, leading to improved performance on the real exam.

Medical Lab Technician Exam Questions And Answers! - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is 

    • Trichomonas hominis

    • Entamoeba coli

    • Trichomonas tenax

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    Correct Answer
    A. Trichomonas vaginalis
    Explanation
    Trichomonas vaginalis is the correct answer because it is a flagellate that is commonly found in the urine of female patients. This parasite is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that primarily affects the urogenital tract. It is most commonly found in the vagina, hence the name "vaginalis." Trichomonas hominis, Entamoeba coli, and Trichomonas tenax are all different species of flagellates, but they are not typically found in the urine of female patients.

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  • 3. 

    The RA latex test is used as a screening test for 

    • Rheumatoid arthritis

    • Thyroiditis

    • Vulvovaginitis

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Rheumatoid arthritis
    Explanation
    The RA latex test is used as a screening test for rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints, resulting in pain, stiffness, and swelling. The RA latex test detects the presence of rheumatoid factor (RF), an antibody that is often found in the blood of individuals with rheumatoid arthritis. Therefore, a positive RA latex test indicates a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis. The test helps healthcare professionals in diagnosing and monitoring the disease.

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  • 4. 

    Dilute normal urine is usually

    • Pale yellow

    • Dark yellow

    • Reddish-yellow

    • Amber

    Correct Answer
    A. Pale yellow
    Explanation
    Dilute normal urine is usually pale yellow because it contains a lower concentration of waste products and toxins. When urine is diluted, it means that there is a higher water content, leading to a lighter color. Pale yellow urine indicates that the body is well-hydrated and functioning properly. Dark yellow, reddish-yellow, and amber colors may suggest dehydration or the presence of certain substances or medical conditions.

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  • 5. 

    Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?

    • Weiner

    • Landsteiner

    • Levine

    • Bernstein

    Correct Answer
    A. Landsteiner
    Explanation
    Landsteiner is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance. This is because Landsteiner discovered the ABO blood groups and proposed the theory of inheritance based on his experiments. His work laid the foundation for our understanding of blood types and their inheritance patterns, which has been widely accepted in the field of genetics and immunology.

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  • 6. 

    A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred

    • For 6 months

    • For 1 year

    • For 5 years

    • Permanently

    Correct Answer
    A. Permanently
    Explanation
    A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred permanently because HBsAg is a marker for hepatitis B virus infection. This means that the donor is currently infected with the virus and can transmit it to the recipient through blood transfusion. Therefore, it is necessary to permanently defer the donor to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent the transmission of hepatitis B to recipients.

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  • 7. 

    A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test

    • Indicates no infection

    • Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies

    • Indicates the severity of infection

    • Is positive during the chancre stage

    Correct Answer
    A. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies
    Explanation
    The correct answer, "confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies," indicates that a reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test is used to detect the presence of antibodies produced by the body in response to a treponemal infection. This test is commonly used to diagnose syphilis, as the presence of treponemal antibodies confirms the infection. It does not indicate the severity of the infection or the specific stage of syphilis.

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  • 8. 

    Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting

    • Reticulocytes

    • Platelets

    • Malaria

    • Howell-Jolly bodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Reticulocytes
    Explanation
    Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue stains are commonly used for counting reticulocytes. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain remnants of RNA. By staining them with these dyes, they become visible under a microscope and can be counted to determine the rate of red blood cell production in the bone marrow. This is particularly useful in diagnosing and monitoring conditions such as anemia or bone marrow disorders.

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  • 9. 

    Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of 

    • Blood coagulation

    • Osmotic pressure of body fluids

    • Cardiac muscle contractions

    • Salt intake

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmotic pressure of body fluids
    Explanation
    Sodium plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of body fluids. Osmotic pressure refers to the pressure exerted by the solutes in a solution, which helps regulate the movement of water across cell membranes. Sodium ions are one of the main solutes in extracellular fluids, and their concentration affects the osmotic pressure. By controlling the osmotic pressure, sodium helps maintain the balance of water inside and outside cells, ensuring proper hydration and functioning of cells and tissues throughout the body.

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  • 10. 

    Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen

    • 1 and 2 only

    • 1 and 3 only

    • 2 and 3 only

    • 1,2, and 3

    Correct Answer
    A. 1,2, and 3
    Explanation
    Carbohydrates are organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. These atoms are bonded together in specific ratios, with the general formula for carbohydrates being (CH2O)n. Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3, as all three elements are present in carbohydrates.

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  • 11. 

    An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates

    • Bacterial infection

    • Viral infection

    • Infectious mononucleosis

    • Allergic reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial infection
    Explanation
    An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates a bacterial infection. Neutrophilic granulocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the immune response to bacterial infections. When there is an infection, the body releases more neutrophils to help fight off the bacteria. Therefore, an elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes is often seen in bacterial infections.

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  • 12. 

    Blood group A individuals have

    • Anti-A in their serum

    • Anti-B in their serum

    • Antigen A and B on their red cells

    • Anti-O in their serum

    Correct Answer
    A. Anti-B in their serum
    Explanation
    Blood group A individuals have anti-B in their serum because they do not have the B antigen on their red blood cells. The presence of anti-B antibodies allows their immune system to recognize and attack any foreign blood cells that do have the B antigen, preventing incompatible blood transfusions.

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  • 13. 

    The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as

    • Coefficient variation

    • Quality control

    • Stardard deviation

    • Percent deviation

    Correct Answer
    A. Stardard deviation
    Explanation
    The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as the standard deviation. The standard deviation measures the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is calculated by taking the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences between each value and the mean. A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation indicates less variability.

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  • 14. 

    Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their 

    • Serologic and biochemical characteristics

    • Staining properties with polychrome dyes

    • Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide

    • Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae

    Correct Answer
    A. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae
    Explanation
    Fungi are commonly identified based on their sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae. Sporulation refers to the formation of spores, which are reproductive structures in fungi. The arrangement of spores on the hyphae, which are thread-like structures in fungi, can vary and be used to distinguish different species. This method of identification is important because it allows scientists to differentiate between different types of fungi and classify them accordingly. Other characteristics mentioned in the options, such as serologic and biochemical characteristics, staining properties, and solubility in potassium hydroxide, may also be used in fungal identification but are not as commonly relied upon as sporulation and spore arrangement.

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  • 15. 

    Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?

    • Hydrometry

    • Osmolality

    • Refractive index

    • Specific gravity

    Correct Answer
    A. Osmolality
    Explanation
    Freezing point depression measurements are used to determine the osmolality of a solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, specifically in this case, in urine. By measuring the freezing point depression, the osmolality of the urine can be determined, which can provide important information about kidney function and hydration levels. Therefore, freezing point depression measurements are part of the urine test procedure for osmolality.

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  • 16. 

    Safranin in a Gran stain is used as a 

    • Mordant

    • Decolorizer

    • Secondary stain

    • Primary stain

    Correct Answer
    A. Secondary stain
    Explanation
    In the Gram staining procedure, safranin is used as a secondary stain, also known as a counterstain. After the primary stain (crystal violet) and the mordant (iodine) have been applied, and the decolorizer (usually alcohol or acetone) has been used to differentiate Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria, safranin is applied to stain the Gram-negative bacteria, which do not retain the crystal violet stain. This gives Gram-negative bacteria a red or pink color, while Gram-positive bacteria remain purple.

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  • 17. 

    An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

    • Variable in shape

    • Packed with hemoglobin

    • Markedly bluish in color

    • Markedly pale in central color

    Correct Answer
    A. Markedly pale in central color
    Explanation
    An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as markedly pale in central color. Hypochromia refers to a condition where the red blood cells have a decreased amount of hemoglobin, resulting in a paler appearance. This paleness is particularly noticeable in the central area of the cell. It is not related to the shape, hemoglobin content, or bluish color of the RBC.

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  • 18. 

    Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as 

    • Proteus vulgaris

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Spirochetes

    • Spermatozoa

    Correct Answer
    A. Spermatozoa
    Explanation
    The description of the cells having an oval "head" with a long, delicate, whip-like tail is characteristic of spermatozoa. Proteus vulgaris is a bacterium and would not have this specific morphology. Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan parasite that has flagella, but its morphology is different from the described cells. Spirochetes are a type of bacteria that have a spiral shape and would not match the given description. Therefore, the most likely identification based on the given description is spermatozoa.

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  • 19. 

    Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of 

    • Ketone bodies

    • Protein

    • Glucose

    • Uric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketone bodies
    Explanation
    Metabolic acidosis is a condition characterized by an increase in acid levels in the body. Ketone bodies are produced when the body breaks down fatty acids for energy, particularly in conditions like diabetes or starvation. Therefore, testing urine for the presence of ketone bodies can help detect metabolic acidosis. Protein, glucose, and uric acid are not directly related to the detection of metabolic acidosis, making them incorrect options.

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  • 20. 

    To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute

    • 1.0 mL of serum + 5.0 mL of diluent

    • 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent

    • 1.0 mL of serum + 6.0 mL of diluent

    • 5.0 mL of serum + 1.0 mL of diluent

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.0 mL of serum + 4.0 mL of diluent
    Explanation
    To make a 1:5 dilution of a serum sample, you need to mix 1.0 mL of serum with 4.0 mL of diluent. This means that the total volume of the diluted solution will be 5.0 mL, with 1.0 mL being the serum and 4.0 mL being the diluent. This dilution ratio indicates that for every 1 part of serum, you need to add 4 parts of diluent, resulting in a total of 5 parts. This dilution is commonly used in laboratory settings to reduce the concentration of a sample for various analyses or experiments.

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  • 21. 

    Fibrinogen determinations are performed on 

    • Serum only

    • Plasma only

    • Either serum or plasma

    • Any body fluid

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma only
    Explanation
    Fibrinogen is a blood plasma protein that is essential for blood clotting. It is not found in serum because fibrinogen is converted to fibrin during the clotting process, which is removed from the blood to create serum. Therefore, fibrinogen determinations are performed on plasma only, as plasma contains fibrinogen and other clotting factors.

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  • 22. 

    Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)

    • Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

    • Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband

    • Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus

    • Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus

    Correct Answer
    A. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus
    Explanation
    Rh immune globulin is given to a negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus. This is because Rh immune globulin helps prevent the mother's immune system from developing antibodies against the Rh(D) antigen, which can occur when the mother is Rh(D) negative and the fetus is Rh(D) positive. If the mother develops these antibodies, it can lead to complications in future pregnancies with Rh(D) positive fetuses. Therefore, giving Rh immune globulin to the negative mother after delivery of an Rh(D) positive fetus helps prevent the development of these antibodies.

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  • 23. 

    Antihuman serum globulin reagent 

    • Is produced in humans

    • Occurs naturally in most humans

    • Is produced in laboratory animals

    • Never detects complement-dependent antibodies

    Correct Answer
    A. Is produced in laboratory animals
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "is produced in laboratory animals." This is because antihuman serum globulin reagent is a reagent that is used in laboratory tests to detect antibodies in human serum. It is produced by injecting laboratory animals with human serum globulin, which stimulates the animals to produce antibodies against the human serum globulin. These antibodies are then collected and used as the antihuman serum globulin reagent in laboratory tests.

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  • 24. 

    Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the

    • Lower the concentration of the analyte

    • Higher the concentration of the analyte

    • More light transmitted

    • Longer the wavelength required

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher the concentration of the analyte
    Explanation
    According to Beer's law, the darker the color produced in a specimen, the more light is absorbed. This means that as the concentration of the analyte increases, more light is absorbed, resulting in a darker color. Therefore, the correct answer is "Higher the concentration of the analyte."

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  • 25. 

    Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of 

    • Hemoglobin

    • Amino acid

    • Serum protein

    • Serum lipoprotein

    Correct Answer
    A. Serum protein
    Explanation
    Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of serum protein. Electrophoretic fractionation is a technique used to separate different proteins based on their charge and size. In this case, the given fractions are all components of serum protein, which is a mixture of proteins found in blood plasma. Therefore, the correct answer is serum protein.

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  • 26. 

    Enterobius vermilcularis is a 

    • Hookworm

    • Pinworm

    • Filarial worm

    • Flat worm

    Correct Answer
    A. Pinworm
    Explanation
    Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as the pinworm. It is a parasitic worm that infects the human intestines. Pinworms are transmitted through the ingestion of their eggs, which are usually found on contaminated surfaces or in food and water. Once inside the body, the eggs hatch in the small intestine and the larvae migrate to the large intestine, where they mature into adult worms. The female pinworms then migrate to the anus to lay their eggs, causing intense itching and discomfort. Pinworm infections are common, especially in children, and can be treated with medication.

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  • 27. 

    What is the distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer called?

    • 0.1 cm

    • 1.0 cm

    • 0.1 mm

    • 1.0 mm

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.1 mm
    Explanation
    The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is called 0.1 mm.

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  • 28. 

    In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is 

    • Simple filtration

    • Secretion

    • Selective re-absorption

    • Re-absorption of water

    Correct Answer
    A. Simple filtration
    Explanation
    The glomerulus is responsible for simple filtration in the formation of urine. It acts as a filter, allowing small molecules like water, electrolytes, and waste products to pass through while preventing larger molecules like proteins and blood cells from entering the filtrate. This initial filtration process helps to remove waste products from the blood and create a concentrated urine solution.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following organisms are described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that are media enriched with X and V factors?

    • Escherichia coli

    • Listeria monocytogenes

    • Haemophilus influenzae

    • Bacillus anthracis

    Correct Answer
    A. Haemophilus influenzae
    Explanation
    Haemophilus influenzae is the correct answer because it fits the description given in the question. It is described as minute, very pleomorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods. Additionally, Haemophilus influenzae requires media enriched with X and V factors for growth. Escherichia coli, Listeria monocytogenes, and Bacillus anthracis do not fit the given description.

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  • 30. 

    Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?

    • Oxyhemoglobin

    • Sulfhemoglobin

    • Methemoglobin

    • Cyanmethemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    A. Cyanmethemoglobin
    Explanation
    Cyanmethemoglobin is the recommended method for hemoglobin determination by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards. This method involves the conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin, which is stable and can be measured accurately. This method is widely used in clinical laboratories for accurate and reliable measurement of hemoglobin levels in blood samples.

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  • 31. 

    Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals 

    • Hemolysis

    • Icteric plasma

    • A high hematocrit

    • A heavy buffy coat

    Correct Answer
    A. A heavy buffy coat
    Explanation
    A heavy buffy coat may suggest the presence of leukemia. The buffy coat is the layer of white blood cells and platelets that separates from the red blood cells after centrifugation. In a healthy individual, the buffy coat is usually thin. However, in leukemia, there is an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells, leading to a heavier buffy coat. This can be an indication of leukemia and further diagnostic tests may be required to confirm the diagnosis.

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  • 32. 

    Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of 

    • Factor VII deficiency

    • Factor X deficiency

    • Hemophilia

    • Platelet function

    Correct Answer
    A. Platelet function
    Explanation
    Clot retraction refers to the process by which a blood clot becomes more compact and retracts, leading to the formation of a stable clot. This process is primarily dependent on the function of platelets, which play a crucial role in clot formation and stabilization. Therefore, clot retraction can be used as an indicator of platelet function. Factor VII deficiency and Factor X deficiency are related to the coagulation cascade, while hemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood's ability to clot. None of these conditions directly impact clot retraction, making platelet function the correct answer.

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  • 33. 

    The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is 

    • Chloride

    • Potassium

    • Sodium

    • Bicarbonate

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium
    Explanation
    Sodium is the major cation found in the extracellular fluid. Cations are positively charged ions, and sodium is the most abundant positively charged ion in the extracellular fluid. It plays a crucial role in maintaining fluid balance, regulating blood pressure, transmitting nerve impulses, and supporting muscle function. Chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are also important ions in the body, but sodium is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid.

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  • 34. 

    Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?

    • Isoenzyme electrophoresis

    • Immunoelectrophoresis

    • Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum

    • Blood viscosity studies

    Correct Answer
    A. Immunoelectrophoresis
    Explanation
    Immunoelectrophoresis is a method that combines electrophoresis and immunodiffusion techniques to study protein abnormalities. It involves separating proteins based on their charge using electrophoresis and then detecting specific proteins using antibodies. This technique is particularly useful for identifying and quantifying abnormal proteins, such as those associated with autoimmune diseases or cancer. By comparing the protein profiles of healthy individuals with those of patients, researchers can gain insights into the presence and nature of protein abnormalities, aiding in diagnosis and treatment.

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  • 35. 

    Reticulocytes contain 

    • DNA remnants

    • RNA remnants

    • Basophilic granules

    • Howell-Jolly bodies

    Correct Answer
    A. RNA remnants
    Explanation
    Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells that still contain some RNA remnants. These remnants are leftover from the process of synthesizing hemoglobin, which occurs in the reticulocytes. As the reticulocytes mature into erythrocytes (mature red blood cells), the RNA remnants are removed, resulting in cells that do not contain any DNA remnants. Therefore, the correct answer is RNA remnants.

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  • 36. 

    The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the 

    • Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell

    • Size of the particle being counted

    • Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell

    • Value of the cell indices

    Correct Answer
    A. Size of the particle being counted
    Explanation
    Automated blood cell counters use the principle of counting the size of the particles. These counters measure the size of the red blood cells to determine the number of cells present. By analyzing the size of the particles, the counter can differentiate between different types of blood cells and provide accurate cell counts. This principle is effective because different blood cell types have different sizes, allowing the counter to distinguish between them and provide valuable information about the blood sample.

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  • 37. 

    As a general rule, when a blood cell matures

    • The cell increases in size

    • The cell decreases in size

    • There is no change in the cell's size

    • The nucleus increases in size

    Correct Answer
    A. The cell decreases in size
    Explanation
    As a general rule, when a blood cell matures, it typically decreases in size. This is particularly evident in the development of red blood cells (erythrocytes) and white blood cells (leukocytes). For example, during erythropoiesis (the production of red blood cells), the cell starts as a large progenitor cell and gradually decreases in size as it matures into a fully functional erythrocyte. Similarly, many types of white blood cells also decrease in size as they mature.

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  • 38. 

    Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci?

    • Oxidase

    • Coagulase

    • Catalase

    • Fibrinolysin

    Correct Answer
    A. Coagulase
    Explanation
    Coagulase is an enzyme produced by Staphylococcus aureus that causes the plasma to clot. This test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphylococci because it is specific to this bacteria. The presence of coagulase activity indicates the presence of Staphylococcus aureus, while the absence of coagulase activity suggests the presence of other types of staphylococci.

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  • 39. 

    Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring

    • Freezing point depression

    • Refractive index

    • Specific gravity

    • Ionic strength

    Correct Answer
    A. Freezing point depression
    Explanation
    Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring freezing point depression. This is because the freezing point of a solution is lower than that of the pure solvent, and the extent of this depression is directly related to the number of solute particles present in the solution. Osmolality is a measure of the concentration of solute particles in a solution, and by measuring the freezing point depression, one can determine the osmolality accurately. Refractive index, specific gravity, and ionic strength are not directly related to osmolality measurement.

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  • 40. 

    Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as

    • Conjugated bilirubin

    • Prehepatic bilirubin

    • Total bilirubin

    • Biliverdin

    Correct Answer
    A. Prehepatic bilirubin
    Explanation
    Unconjugated bilirubin refers to bilirubin that has not yet been processed by the liver. It is produced when red blood cells break down and is transported to the liver for further processing. Prehepatic bilirubin is another term for unconjugated bilirubin, as it indicates that the bilirubin has not yet reached the liver. Conjugated bilirubin, on the other hand, refers to bilirubin that has been processed by the liver and is ready to be excreted. Total bilirubin is the sum of both unconjugated and conjugated bilirubin. Biliverdin, on the other hand, is a green pigment that is converted to bilirubin in the body.

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  • 41. 

    The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 

    • Lactic acid

    • 3-hydroxy butyric acid

    • Oxaloacetic acid

    • Acetic acid

    Correct Answer
    A. 3-hydroxy butyric acid
    Explanation
    The ketone bodies are acetoacetic acid, acetone, and 3-hydroxy butyric acid. Lactic acid, oxaloacetic acid, and acetic acid are not considered ketone bodies.

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  • 42. 

    The end-product of purine metabolism is

    • Urea

    • Creatine

    • Creatinine

    • Uric acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Uric acid
    Explanation
    Uric acid is the correct answer because it is the end-product of purine metabolism. Purine metabolism involves the breakdown of purine nucleotides, which are components of DNA and RNA. The breakdown of these nucleotides leads to the production of uric acid. Uric acid is then excreted from the body through urine. Urea, creatine, and creatinine are not the end-products of purine metabolism, making them incorrect choices. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism, creatine is involved in energy metabolism, and creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism.

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  • 43. 

    When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted

    • 1:200

    • 1:50

    • 1:20

    • 1:10

    Correct Answer
    A. 1:20
    Explanation
    In order to perform a white cell count using white blood cell pipets, blood needs to be diluted. The dilution ratio determines the amount of blood that is mixed with a diluent solution. A dilution ratio of 1:20 means that for every 1 part of blood, 20 parts of diluent solution are added. This dilution allows for an accurate and manageable count of white blood cells, as it helps to reduce the concentration of cells in the sample and makes it easier to count them under a microscope.

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  • 44. 

    During Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in 

    • Cattle

    • Swine

    • Fish

    • Man

    Correct Answer
    A. Cattle
    Explanation
    The correct answer is cattle because Taenia saginata is a tapeworm that primarily infects cattle. The larval stage of the tapeworm develops in the muscles of cattle, and when humans consume undercooked or raw beef contaminated with these larvae, they can become infected. Swine and fish can also be hosts for other types of tapeworms, but in the case of Taenia saginata, the larval stage specifically develops in cattle.

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  • 45. 

    The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which organisms?

    • Balantidium coli

    • Endolimax nana

    • Trichomonas vaginalis

    • Iodamoeba butschlii

    Correct Answer
    A. Trichomonas vaginalis
    Explanation
    Trichomonas vaginalis is a parasitic protozoan that causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. Unlike the other organisms mentioned, Trichomonas vaginalis does not have a cystic stage of development. Cystic stages are a common feature in many protozoa, including Balantidium coli, Endolimax nana, and Iodamoeba butschlii. These cysts allow the organisms to survive outside of a host and are an important part of their life cycle. However, Trichomonas vaginalis does not form cysts and instead exists in a motile form throughout its life cycle.

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  • 46. 

    WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?

    • Transports glucose

    • Regulates body temperature

    • Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation

    • Provides humoral immunity

    Correct Answer
    A. Provides humoral immunity
    Explanation
    Gamma globulin is a type of protein found in the blood that plays a crucial role in providing humoral immunity. It is a component of the immune system and contains antibodies that help in fighting off infections and diseases. These antibodies are produced by B cells and are responsible for recognizing and neutralizing foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses. Therefore, gamma globulin is essential for the body's immune response and helps protect against various pathogens.

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  • 47. 

    On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be

    • WBC and Hgb

    • RBC and Hgb

    • RBC and WBC

    • Hct and WBC

    Correct Answer
    A. RBC and WBC
    Explanation
    A high background count on an automated blood cell counter indicates an increased number of non-cellular particles in the sample, which can interfere with the accurate counting of red blood cells (RBC) and white blood cells (WBC). These non-cellular particles can be debris, platelets, or other substances that may be mistaken as cells by the counter. Therefore, a high background count would affect the accurate measurement of both RBC and WBC parameters.

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  • 48. 

    Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and 

    • Sulfuric acid

    • Alkaline picrate

    • Acetic anhydride

    • Ammonium hydroxide

    Correct Answer
    A. Alkaline picrate
    Explanation
    The correct answer is alkaline picrate. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine with alkaline picrate. This reaction forms a colored complex, which can be measured spectrophotometrically. By measuring the absorbance of the complex, the concentration of creatinine in the blood sample can be determined.

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  • 49. 

    When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward

    • The positive pole

    • The negative pole

    • Either pole

    • Both poles

    Correct Answer
    A. The positive pole
    Explanation
    When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, the serum proteins have a net negative charge. In an electrical field, negatively charged particles migrate towards the positive pole. Therefore, the serum proteins will migrate towards the positive pole in this scenario.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Clinical Pharmacist
Amanda Nwachukwu, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information.

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  • Jul 24, 2012
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