Can You Pass This Hardest Medical Test?

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Can You Pass This Hardest Medical Test? - Quiz

Being a medical student, you undoubtedly know a lot about the human body and how the organs function daily. I have designed what has come to be seen as the hardest medical test that only smart people can tackle. If you consider yourself to be in the same class, then give it a shot and see how high you score.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which part of vertebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards?

    • A.

      Cervical

    • B.

      Thoracic

    • C.

      Sacral

    • D.

      Coccyx

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical
    Explanation
    Cervical and lumbar parts of vertebral canal have a backwards concavity

    Rate this question:

  • 2. 

    The extracellular matrix and the cytoskeleton communicate across the cell membrane through which of the following?

    • A.

      Proteoglycans

    • B.

      Integrins

    • C.

      Cadherins

    • D.

      Intermediate filaments

    Correct Answer
    B. Integrins
    Explanation
    Integrins are transmembrane proteins that act as membrane receptors for extracellular matrix components. Eg: Fibronectin receptor, Laminin receptor

    Rate this question:

  • 3. 

    Enteroendocrine cells differ from goblet cells in which of the following ways?

    • A.

      The direction of release of secretion

    • B.

      Use of exocytosis for release of secretory products from the cell

    • C.

      Their presence in small and large intestine

    • D.

      Their origin form a crypt stem cell

    Correct Answer
    A. The direction of release of secretion
    Explanation
    Enteroendocrine cells are specialized endocrine cells of the gastrointestinal tract. They produce hormones such as serotonin, somatostatin, motilin, cholecystokinin, gastric inhibitory peptide, neurotensin, vasoactive intestinal peptide, and enteroglucagon. They release their products from their basal surface.

    Goblet cells release mucus from their apical surface.

    Rate this question:

  • 4. 

    The nucleus involved in Papez circuit is?

    • A.

      Pulvinar

    • B.

      Infralaminar

    • C.

      VPL nucleus

    • D.

      Anterior nucleus of thalamus

    Correct Answer
    D. Anterior nucleus of thalamus
    Explanation
    Papez circuit of the brain is one of the major pathways of the limbic system and is chiefly involved in the cortical control of emotion. The Papez circuit plays a role in storing memory.

    Mnemonc for components of Papez circuit: MACEH

    Mamillary body - Anterior thalamic nucleus - Cingulated gyrus - Entorhinal cortex - Hpppocampus

    Rate this question:

  • 5. 

    Agranular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of:

    • A.

      Protein

    • B.

      Lipid

    • C.

      Carbohydrate

    • D.

      Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    B. Lipid
    Explanation
    Granular endoplasmic reticulum synthesises proteins and agranular endoplasmic reticulum synthesises lipids.

    Rate this question:

  • 6. 

    Regarding cytosolic Eukaryotic gene expression false is :

    • A.

      Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S Ribosome

    • B.

      N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t-RNA to come into action

    • C.

      EF2 shifts between GDP & GTP

    • D.

      Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain from the P site

    Correct Answer
    B. N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t-RNA to come into action
    Explanation
    Methionine tRNA will the first tRNA to come into action in cytosolic eukaryotic gene expression.

    Rate this question:

  • 7. 

    C terminal end of androgen receptor is concerned with:

    • A.

      Ligand binding

    • B.

      Increasing biological half life

    • C.

      Increasing the affinity of receptor to DNA

    • D.

      Increasing the level of transcription

    Correct Answer
    A. Ligand binding
    Explanation
    C terminal is concerned with ligand binding.

    Rate this question:

  • 8. 

    The following protein defects can cause hereditiary spherocytosis except:

    • A.

      Ankyrin

    • B.

      Palladin

    • C.

      Glycophorin C

    • D.

      Anion transport protein

    Correct Answer
    C. Glycophorin C
    Explanation
    Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by a variety of molecular defects in the genes that code for spectrin (alpha and beta), ankyrin, band 3 protein (anion transport protein), protein 4.2 (palladin) and other erythrocyte membrane proteins.

    Rate this question:

  • 9. 

    ALL L3 morphology is a malignancy arising from which cell lineage

    • A.

      Mature B cell

    • B.

      Precursor B cell

    • C.

      Immature T cell

    • D.

      Mixed B cell & T cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Mature B cell
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Mature B cell. This is because ALL L3 morphology refers to acute lymphoblastic leukemia with L3 morphology, which is a type of blood cancer. In this type of leukemia, the cancer cells resemble mature B cells, which are a type of white blood cell. Therefore, the malignancy arises from the cell lineage of mature B cells.

    Rate this question:

  • 10. 

    A young male patient presented with UTI. On urine examination pus cells were found but no organisms. Which method would be best used for culture?

    • A.

      Mc Coy culture

    • B.

      Thayer martin medium

    • C.

      LJ Medium

    • D.

      Levinthal Medium

    Correct Answer
    A. Mc Coy culture
    Explanation
    Presence of pus cells without any organisms indicates non gonoccal urethritis. So we need to test for chlamydia. Mc Coy and HeLa cell culture is used for isolation of chlamydia.

    Rate this question:

  • 11. 

    A child presents with infective skin lesions of the leg. Culture was done which showed gram positive cocci in chains and hemolytic colonies. Which of the following tests will best identify the organism?

    • A.

      Bile solubility

    • B.

      Optochin sensitivity

    • C.

      Bacitracin sensitivity

    • D.

      Catalase positive

    Correct Answer
    C. Bacitracin sensitivity
    Explanation
    Bacitracin sensitivity is used to differentiate Streptococcus pyogenes from other hemolytic streptococci.

    Rate this question:

  • 12. 

    The following drugs are used in obesity except?

    • A.

      Orlistat

    • B.

      Sibutaramine

    • C.

      Olestra

    • D.

      Neuropeptide Y Agonist

    Correct Answer
    D. Neuropeptide Y Agonist
    Explanation
    Older antiobesity drugs act by inhibiting noradrenaline or serotonin reuptake. Newer ones have various mechanisms.
    Older generation agents:
    -Noradrenergic agents (influence appetite center) - Phentermine, Mazindol
    -Serotonergic agents (influence satiety center) - Fenfluramine, Dexenfluramine
    -Noradrenergic / Serotonergic agents (combined action) - Sibutramine
    Newer agents
    -Orlistat - Inhibits gastric and pancreatic lipase - digestion and absorption of triglycerides is impaired
    -Olestra - Suprose polyester which can replace fat as a cooking medium
    -Leptin analogues
    -Neuropeptide Y antagonist
    -Beta 3 adrenergic agonists

    Rate this question:

  • 13. 

    Which of the following is a leukotriene antagonist?

    • A.

      Montelukast

    • B.

      Zileuton

    • C.

      Omalizumab

    • D.

      Nedocromil

    Correct Answer
    A. Montelukast
    Explanation
    Montelukast and Zafirlukast are leukotriene antagonists.

    Rate this question:

  • 14. 

    All of the following have receptors which are transcription factors, except?

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Estrogen

    • C.

      Glucocorticoids

    • D.

      Vitamin D

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    Insulin receptors are enzymes, not transcription factors.

    Rate this question:

  • 15. 

    All are short and rapid acting insulins except

    • A.

      Lispro

    • B.

      Aspart

    • C.

      Glargine

    • D.

      Glulisine

    Correct Answer
    C. Glargine
    Explanation
    Rapid acting insulins - Lispro, Aspart, Glulisine
    Short acting insulin - Regular insulin
    Intermediate acting insulin - NPH
    Long acting insulin - Glargine, Determir

    Rate this question:

  • 16. 

    True about Octreotide are all except :

    • A.

      Is active orally

    • B.

      Supresses growth hormone secretion

    • C.

      Useful for variceal bleeding

    • D.

      Useful in secretory diarrhea

    Correct Answer
    A. Is active orally
    Explanation
    Octreotide is given IM / IV / subcutaneously.

    Rate this question:

  • 17. 

    Acrodynia is associated with:

    • A.

      Mercury

    • B.

      Phenolic acid

    • C.

      Oxalic acid

    • D.

      Carbolic acid

    Correct Answer
    A. Mercury
    Explanation
    Acrodynia, also known as Pink's disease is caused by chronic mercury poisoning in children.

    Rate this question:

  • 18. 

    All of the following are true about cluster sampling except?

    • A.

      Samples are similar to those in simple random sampling

    • B.

      Is a rapid and simple method

    • C.

      The sample size may vary according to study design

    • D.

      It is a probability sample

    Correct Answer
    A. Samples are similar to those in simple random sampling
    Explanation
    In simple random sampling, the samples consist of randomly selected individuals. Whereas in cluster sampling, the samples consist of randomly selected groups.

    Rate this question:

  • 19. 

    All of the following are included in physical quality of life index except?

    • A.

      Infant mortality rate

    • B.

      Life expectancy at age 1

    • C.

      Literacy rate

    • D.

      Per capita income

    Correct Answer
    D. Per capita income
    Explanation
    Components of PQLI - IMR, Life expectancy at age 1, Literacy rate.

    Rate this question:

  • 20. 

    85% of lung cancer among smokers was due to their smoking. This is an example of

    • A.

      Attributable risk

    • B.

      Relative risk

    • C.

      Odds ratio

    • D.

      Population attributable risk

    Correct Answer
    A. Attributable risk
    Explanation
    85% of lung cancer among smokers is attributed to smoking.

    Rate this question:

  • 21. 

    All of the following statements are true for Herd immunity except:

    • A.

      Herd structure is constant

    • B.

      It is mostly due to subclinical infection

    • C.

      Can be acquired by immunisation

    • D.

      Spread of epidemic is influenced by it

    Correct Answer
    A. Herd structure is constant
    Explanation
    Herd structure is not constant.

    Rate this question:

  • 22. 

    Which of the following vaccine is not included in EPI schedule

    • A.

      DPT

    • B.

      MMR

    • C.

      BCG

    • D.

      OPV

    Correct Answer
    B. MMR
    Explanation
    Measles vaccine is a part of EPI schedule, not MMR.

    Rate this question:

  • 23. 

    A patient on aspirin, will show the following finding?

    • A.

      Prolonged BT

    • B.

      Prolonged PT

    • C.

      Prolonged APTT

    • D.

      Prolonged CT

    Correct Answer
    A. Prolonged BT
    Explanation
    Aspirin is an antiplatelet agent, hence the bleeding time is prolonged.

    Rate this question:

  • 24. 

    The following set of finding is seen in DIC:

    • A.

      Increased fibrinogen, increased antithrombin III, increased thrombin – antithrombin III complexes

    • B.

      Increased FDP, decreased PT, increased antithrombin III

    • C.

      Increased FDP, prolonged PT, increased thrombin-antithrombin complexes

    • D.

      Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

    Correct Answer
    D. Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets
    Explanation
    Features of DIC - Increased FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets

    Rate this question:

  • 25. 

    Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?

    • A.

      Ristocetin aggregation is normal

    • B.

      Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal

    • C.

      Large platelets

    • D.

      Thrombocytopenia

    Correct Answer
    A. Ristocetin aggregation is normal
    Explanation
    Bernard Soulier platelets react normally to all stimuli except Ristocetin.

    Rate this question:

  • 26. 

    The following is the least useful investigation in multiple myeloma:

    • A.

      ESR

    • B.

      X-Ray

    • C.

      Bone scan

    • D.

      Bone marrow biopsy

    Correct Answer
    C. Bone scan
    Explanation
    Osteoblastic activity is suppressed by myeloma cells. (through secretion of cytokines). Hence these site show no increased uptake during bone scan.

    Rate this question:

  • 27. 

    The following ECG findings are seen in Hypokalemia:

    • A.

      Increased PR interval with ST depression

    • B.

      Increased PR interval with peaked T wave

    • C.

      Prolonged QT interval with T wave inversion

    • D.

      Decreased QT interval with ST depression

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased PR interval with ST depression
    Explanation
    ECG changes in hypokalemia - ST depression, prolonged PR interval, T inversion / flattening, Prominent U waves, Sinoatrial block (rare)

    Rate this question:

  • 28. 

    CCF is associated with Increase in all of the following except:

    • A.

      Right atrial mean pressure

    • B.

      Serum sodium

    • C.

      Serum urea

    • D.

      Serum norepinephrine

    Correct Answer
    B. Serum sodium
    Explanation
    Hyponatremia is seen in CCF

    Rate this question:

  • 29. 

    A person with mitral regurgitation and atrial fibrillation presents with syncope. On examination the person has a heart rate of 55. What is the most probable cause?

    • A.

      Digitalis toxicity

    • B.

      Incomplete heart block

    • C.

      Stroke

    • D.

      Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

    Correct Answer
    A. Digitalis toxicity
    Explanation
    It is probably a case of digitalis toxicity resulting in complete heart block.

    Rate this question:

  • 30. 

    60 yr old male undergoes TURP. After 3 days patient develops altered senstiveness and drowsiness. Most probable diagnosis is :

    • A.

      Hypernatremia

    • B.

      Hyponatremia

    • C.

      Stroke

    • D.

      Meningitis due to spinal anaesthesia

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyponatremia
    Explanation
    It is a case of TURP syndrome due to entry of irrigation fluid (with low sodium content) into the bloodstream.

    Rate this question:

  • 31. 

    Ideal age for orchidopexy in cryptorchidism is

    • A.

      At 6-10 yrs

    • B.

      At 1-2 yrs

    • C.

      At puberty

    • D.

      < 1 yr of age

    Correct Answer
    D. < 1 yr of age
    Explanation
    Orchidopexy in a case of cryptorchidism should be done before the age of 1 year.

    Rate this question:

  • 32. 

    Metabolic abnomiality seen in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is

    • A.

      Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

    • B.

      Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

    • C.

      Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis

    • D.

      Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
    Explanation
    CHPS results in loss of acidic gastric fluid. Hence the metabolic abnormality is Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis

    Rate this question:

  • 33. 

    Most common complication after ERCP is :

    • A.

      Acute pancreatitis

    • B.

      Acute cholangitis

    • C.

      Acute cholecystitis

    • D.

      Duodenal perforation

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute pancreatitis
    Explanation
    Acute pancreatitis is the most common complication after ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography). During an ERCP procedure, the pancreas can become inflamed due to the insertion of instruments and contrast dye, leading to acute pancreatitis. This can cause symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Prompt medical intervention is required to manage this complication.

    Rate this question:

  • 34. 

    Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child

    • A.

      Nevirapine

    • B.

      Lamivudine

    • C.

      Stavudine

    • D.

      Abacavir

    Correct Answer
    A. Nevirapine
    Explanation
    Previously zidovudine was given. Presently nevirapine is used as it is cheaper and more effective.

    Rate this question:

  • 35. 

    After coming head of breech will have difficulty in delivery in all of the following conditions except

    • A.

      Hydrocephalus

    • B.

      Placenta previa

    • C.

      Incomplete dilatation of cervix

    • D.

      Extension of head

    Correct Answer
    B. Placenta previa
    Explanation
    Difficulty in delivery of aftercoming head in case of breech delivery can be due to :
    -Contracted pelvis
    -Extension of head
    -Hydrocephalus
    -Rigid perineum

    Rate this question:

  • 36. 

    The most common congenital anomaly in baby born to Insulin Dependant Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM) mother is :

    • A.

      Neural tube defect

    • B.

      Cardiovascular anomalies

    • C.

      G.l.T anomalies

    • D.

      Pulmonary anomalies

    Correct Answer
    B. Cardiovascular anomalies
    Explanation
    Most common congenital anomaly - Cardiovascular
    Most specific - Caudal regression syndrome

    Rate this question:

  • 37. 

    Amniotic fluid contains acetyl cholinesterase enzyme. What is the diagnosis ?

    • A.

      Open spina bifida

    • B.

      Gastrochisis

    • C.

      Omphalocele

    • D.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta

    Correct Answer
    A. Open spina bifida
    Explanation
    The presence of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme in the amniotic fluid suggests a diagnosis of open spina bifida. Open spina bifida is a neural tube defect where the spinal column does not close completely during fetal development. The enzyme acetyl cholinesterase is found in high levels in the spinal cord, and its presence in the amniotic fluid indicates a leakage of spinal fluid, which is characteristic of open spina bifida.

    Rate this question:

  • 38. 

      All of the following are good prognostic factors in childhood ALL except?

    • A.

      Hyperdiploidy

    • B.

      Female sex

    • C.

      Pre B cell ALL

    • D.

      T(12:21) translocation

    Correct Answer
    C. Pre B cell ALL
    Explanation
    Pre B cell ALL often has a bad prognosis.

    Rate this question:

  • 39. 

      A baby has recently developed mouthing, but has not developed stranger anxiety, likes and dislikes for food. What is the most appropriate age for this baby?

    • A.

      3 months

    • B.

      5 months

    • C.

      7 months

    • D.

      9 months

    Correct Answer
    B. 5 months
    Explanation
    Mouthing appears at 4 months. Stranger anxiety appears at 7 months. Hence the developmental age is between 4 and 7 months. Among the options given, 5 months fits into this period.

    Rate this question:

  • 40. 

      Myopathy is seen in all except

    • A.

      X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets

    • B.

      Oncogenic osteomalacia

    • C.

      Nutritional osteomalacia

    • D.

      Cushing syndrome

    Correct Answer
    A. X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets
    Explanation
    Myopathy refers to muscle weakness or dysfunction. X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets is a genetic disorder that affects the bones and teeth, causing softening and weakness. However, it does not typically cause myopathy. On the other hand, oncogenic osteomalacia and nutritional osteomalacia are both conditions that result in bone softening and can cause myopathy. Cushing syndrome, which is caused by excessive cortisol production, can also lead to muscle weakness and myopathy. Therefore, the correct answer is X-linked hypophosphatemic rickets.

    Rate this question:

  • 41. 

      Reflex which is not present in child at birth is

    • A.

      Moro’s reflex

    • B.

      Symmetric tonic neck reflex

    • C.

      Crossed extensor reflex

    • D.

      Asymmetric tonic neck reflex

    Correct Answer
    B. Symmetric tonic neck reflex
    Explanation
    Symmetric tonic neck reflex is present in an infant between 2 and 12 months of age. It is not present at birth.

    Rate this question:

  • 42. 

    Tube cast is applied in fracture of?  

    • A.

      Shoulder

    • B.

      Hip

    • C.

      Pelvis

    • D.

      Knee

    Correct Answer
    D. Knee
    Explanation
    Tube cast (cylinder cast) is applied for knee fractures.

    Rate this question:

  • 43. 

      Which is not a deep heat therapy?

    • A.

      Short wave diathermy

    • B.

      Infrared therapy

    • C.

      Ultrasound therapy

    • D.

      Interferential therapy

    Correct Answer
    B. Infrared therapy
    Explanation
    Infrared therapy is a surface heat therapy.

    Rate this question:

  • 44. 

      7 year old child presents with a lesion in upper tibia. X-ray shows radiolucent area with Codman’s triangle and Sunray appearance. Diagnosis is :

    • A.

      Ewing’s sarcoma

    • B.

      Osteosarcoma

    • C.

      Osteoid osteoma

    • D.

      Chondrosarcoma

    Correct Answer
    B. Osteosarcoma
    Explanation
    Codman’s triangle and Sunray appearance are seen in osteosarcoma.

    Rate this question:

  • 45. 

      Which of the following is the most important factor in the prevention of the endophthalmitis in cataract surgery?

    • A.

      Preoperative prepartion with povidone iodine

    • B.

      One week antibiotic therapy prior to sugery

    • C.

      Trimming of eyelashes

    • D.

      Use of intravitreal antibiotics

    Correct Answer
    A. Preoperative prepartion with povidone iodine
    Explanation
    Most important source of infection is the patient’s own lid and conjunctival flora. Topical povidone iodine helps prevent this.

    Rate this question:

  • 46. 

      Rhinolalia clausa is associated with all of the following except?

    • A.

      Allergic rhinitis

    • B.

      Palatal paralysis

    • C.

      Adenoids

    • D.

      Nasal polyps

    Correct Answer
    B. Palatal paralysis
    Explanation
    Palatal paralysis causes rhinolalia aperta

    Rate this question:

  • 47. 

    Xray based question (As per new MCI Norms) - What is the implant that is visualised in the chest X-ray?

    • A.

      Prosthetic Mitral valve

    • B.

      Prosthetic Aortic Valve

    • C.

      Device closure of ASD

    • D.

      Device closure of PDA

    Correct Answer
    D. Device closure of PDA
    Explanation
    Intracardiac implants can be identified in an xray based on the position and the morphology of the implant.
    Prosthetic Mitral valve - Ball and cage (with 4 struts) is visualised, directed towards apex. Located at the region of mitral valve
    Prosthetic aortic valve - Ball and cage (with 3 struts) is visualised, directed upwards, located at region of aortic valve.
    Device closure of ASD - Dumb bell shaped, located at site of interatrial septum
    Device closure of PDA - Ring shaped, located between aorta and pulmonary artery

    Rate this question:

  • 48. 

      Xray based question (As per new MCI Norms) - An x-ray was taken to assess the reduction obtained after internal fixation of both bone fracture of leg. What is the type of internal fixation used?

    • A.

      K nail

    • B.

      K wire

    • C.

      Interlocking nail

    • D.

      DCP

    Correct Answer
    C. Interlocking nail
    Explanation
    K nail is a clover shaped ( in cross section ) intramedullary rod used for internal fixation of long bone fractures. K wire is a thin wire used in fixing bone fragments and for skeletal traction. Interlocking nails (shown here) are also used in long bone fractures as intramedullary fixation. But they have screws at the ends to hold them in position (unlike k nail, which does not have any screws). DCP (Dynamic compression plates) are a type of plate fixation. They are seen outside the medullary cavity.

    Rate this question:

  • 49. 

    Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery?

    • A.

      Sodium nitroprusside

    • B.

      Hydralazine

    • C.

      Mephentermine

    • D.

      Esmolol

    Correct Answer
    C. Mephentermine
    Explanation
    Mephentermine is acts as an agonist on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. This causes increased in cardiac output and blood pressure. Hence it cannot be used to induce hypotension.

    Rate this question:

  • 50. 

    Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering?

    • A.

      Thiopentone

    • B.

      Suxamethonium

    • C.

      Atropine

    • D.

      Pethidine

    Correct Answer
    D. Pethidine
    Explanation
    Management of postoperative shivering:
    Drug of choice – Tramadol
    Alternate drugs – pethidine, pentazocine
    Supportive treatment – oxygen inhalation (there is increased oxygen consumption during shivering)

    Rate this question:

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