Disease, Diagnosis, Treatment & Insurance Quiz

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1. Tachycardia is exhibited by:

Explanation

Tachycardia refers to a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate. This means that the heart beats at a rapid pace, which is the correct answer given. Labored breathing, frequent urination, and rapid eye movement are not associated with tachycardia.

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Disease, Diagnosis, Treatment & Insurance Quiz - Quiz

Ever wondered how much you know about Diabetes 2? What is the function of the Thyroid gland? Check out our online quiz and learn trivia along the way.... see more
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2. All of the following are functions of the circulatory system EXCEPT:

Explanation

The circulatory system is responsible for transporting oxygen and waste materials of cellular metabolism, as well as propelling blood through the body. However, it does not have a direct function in raising and lowering HDL cholesterol levels. HDL cholesterol is primarily regulated by the liver and is involved in the removal of excess cholesterol from the bloodstream.

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3. Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of:

Explanation

Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of pulmonary embolism. This is because sitting for long periods of time can lead to blood clots forming in the legs, which can then travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. The cramped seating and limited movement on airplanes can contribute to this risk, especially on flights that are several hours long. It is important to stay hydrated, move around and stretch during flights to help prevent the development of blood clots.

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4. Ketoacidosis is a complication associated with:

Explanation

Ketoacidosis is a complication commonly associated with diabetes. It occurs when the body does not have enough insulin to convert glucose into energy, so it starts breaking down fat for fuel instead. This process produces ketones, which can build up in the blood and lead to ketoacidosis. People with type 1 diabetes are more prone to this condition, but it can also occur in individuals with type 2 diabetes, especially during periods of illness or high stress. Proper management of diabetes, including regular insulin use and monitoring blood sugar levels, can help prevent ketoacidosis.

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5. Factors that increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is smoking. Smoking is not a factor that increases the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. However, gestational diabetes, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT), and obesity are all known risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.

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6. Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes:

Explanation

Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes ischemia. Ischemia refers to the inadequate supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues, including the myocardium (heart muscle). When the blood supply is compromised, the myocardium does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and potentially causing symptoms like chest pain or angina. Ischemia can be caused by various factors, such as atherosclerosis, blood clots, or coronary artery disease. It is an important condition to recognize and treat promptly to prevent further complications, such as myocardial infarction or heart attack.

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7. The condition caused by gastric secretions backing up into the esophagus is:

Explanation

Gastroesophageal reflux is the condition caused by gastric secretions backing up into the esophagus. This occurs when the lower esophageal sphincter, which normally prevents stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus, becomes weak or relaxes. As a result, stomach acid and other contents can irritate the lining of the esophagus, leading to symptoms such as heartburn, regurgitation, and chest pain.

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8. The cardiac ejection fraction measures the:

Explanation

The cardiac ejection fraction measures the pumping ability of the heart. It is a measurement that represents the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A normal ejection fraction is typically between 50% and 70%. This measurement is important in assessing the overall function and efficiency of the heart, as a reduced ejection fraction can indicate heart failure or other cardiac conditions.

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9. All of the following are layers of the heart wall EXCEPT:

Explanation

The correct answer is endometrium. The endometrium is not a layer of the heart wall. The heart wall is composed of three layers: the epicardium (outer layer), the myocardium (middle layer), and the endocardium (inner layer). The endometrium, on the other hand, is the inner lining of the uterus and is not related to the structure of the heart.

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10. Elevations of both gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with:

Explanation

Elevations of both gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) and alkaline phosphatase (AP) are associated with biliary obstruction. GGT is an enzyme found in high concentrations in the liver and bile ducts, and its levels increase when there is a blockage in the bile ducts. Similarly, alkaline phosphatase is an enzyme found in the liver, bones, and other tissues, and its levels rise when there is an obstruction in the bile ducts. Therefore, the elevation of both GGT and AP suggests biliary obstruction as the likely cause.

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11. In the U.S., the primary cause of death for individuals between the ages 5 to 24 is:

Explanation

Motor vehicle accidents are the primary cause of death for individuals between the ages of 5 to 24 in the U.S. This is due to various factors such as inexperienced drivers, distracted driving, speeding, and lack of seatbelt usage. The high number of motor vehicles on the road and the potential for collisions contribute to the higher mortality rate in this age group.

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12. When assessing avocation and occupation for life insurance, the primary concern is:

Explanation

When assessing avocation and occupation for life insurance, the primary concern is accidental death. This means that the insurance company is primarily concerned with the risk of the insured person dying due to an accident. Accidental death is considered a higher risk compared to other factors such as residency, morbidity (the state of being diseased), or overinsurance. Insurance companies take into account the nature of the insured person's occupation and hobbies to determine the likelihood of accidental death, as it can impact the payout they may have to make.

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13. The test that measures thyroid function is:

Explanation

The correct answer is radioactive iodine uptake because it is a specific test used to measure the function of the thyroid gland. This test involves administering a small amount of radioactive iodine to the patient and then measuring the amount of iodine that is taken up by the thyroid gland. This helps to assess the thyroid's ability to produce and release hormones. Thoracentesis, fine needle aspirate (FNA), and fluorescein angiography are not tests used to measure thyroid function.

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14. A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the: 

Explanation

A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the prostate. This procedure involves inserting a small ultrasound probe into the rectum to obtain detailed images of the prostate gland. TRUS is frequently used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostatitis. It allows healthcare professionals to assess the size, shape, and structure of the prostate, as well as detect any abnormalities or tumors. TRUS is considered a safe and effective imaging technique for evaluating the prostate gland.

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15. Tumor markers include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Tumor markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor the progress of cancer. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), alpha fetoprotein (AFP), and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are all examples of tumor markers that are commonly used in cancer screening and monitoring. However, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not a tumor marker. BUN is a measure of the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea. It is used to assess kidney function and hydration status, but it is not specific to cancer.

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16. Effects of alcohol on the central nervous system can include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Alcohol is a depressant that affects the central nervous system, leading to various impairments. It can cause drowsiness and slowed reaction time, which are commonly associated with alcohol consumption. Additionally, alcohol can also decrease night vision due to its effects on the optic nerve. However, it does not increase concentration. In fact, alcohol can impair concentration and cognitive function, making it difficult to focus and pay attention.

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17. All of the following are examples of commonly abused prescription medications EXCEPT:

Explanation

ACE inhibitors are not commonly abused prescription medications. ACE inhibitors are a class of drugs primarily used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. They work by relaxing blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. Stimulants, benzodiazepines, and opioid compounds, on the other hand, are frequently abused prescription medications. Stimulants are often misused for their stimulant effects, benzodiazepines for their sedative and anxiety-reducing effects, and opioid compounds for their pain-relieving and euphoric effects.

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18. An absolute increase in the number of cells in a tissue is:

Explanation

Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, which can occur due to an increased rate of cell division. This can lead to an enlargement of the affected tissue or organ. Dysplasia, on the other hand, refers to abnormal changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be a precursor to cancer. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, resulting in an enlarged tissue or organ. Metaplasia refers to the transformation of one type of tissue into another type, often in response to chronic irritation or inflammation.

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19. A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is:

Explanation

A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is called a sarcoma. Sarcomas are cancers that develop in the cells of connective tissues, such as bones, muscles, cartilage, or blood vessels. They are typically aggressive and have the potential to spread to other parts of the body. Myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells, adenoma is a benign tumor, and lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system. Therefore, sarcoma is the correct answer for a malignant tumor of connective tissue origin.

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20. To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, an insured must be:

Explanation

To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, the insured must be unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs). This means that the insured is unable to independently perform basic tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring, or continence. This requirement ensures that the insured requires assistance with their daily activities and is in need of long-term care services. Being terminally ill, confined to a nursing home for at least six months, or completely disabled are not necessarily the criteria for receiving payment under most Long Term Care riders.

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21. The treatment that is more effective with high growth rate/metastatic cancers is:

Explanation

Chemotherapy is the more effective treatment for high growth rate/metastatic cancers compared to watchful waiting, surgery, and radiation. Chemotherapy involves the use of drugs to kill cancer cells or stop them from growing and spreading. This treatment is particularly beneficial for cancers that have a high growth rate or have already spread to other parts of the body. Chemotherapy can target cancer cells throughout the body, making it a suitable option for metastatic cancers. It is often used in combination with other treatments like surgery or radiation to increase the chances of successful treatment.

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22. The life insurance product characterized by flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit is:

Explanation

Universal life insurance is a type of life insurance product that offers flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit. Unlike other types of life insurance, universal life allows policyholders to adjust their premium payments and death benefits as their financial situation changes. This flexibility makes universal life insurance a popular choice for individuals who want the ability to customize their coverage to meet their specific needs.

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23. The maximum pressure achieved during contraction of the heart is the:

Explanation

The maximum pressure achieved during contraction of the heart is known as the systolic blood pressure. This is the highest pressure recorded in the arteries when the heart is contracting and pushing blood out into the circulatory system. It is an important measurement in assessing cardiovascular health and is typically represented by the top number in a blood pressure reading.

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24. The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) works to promote uniformity in state regulation through the development of:

Explanation

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC) promotes uniformity in state regulation through the development of model laws. Model laws are templates or standardized regulations that states can adopt or modify to regulate the insurance industry. These model laws serve as a guide for states to create consistent regulations and practices, ensuring a level playing field for insurance companies and consumers across different states. By developing model laws, the NAIC aims to harmonize insurance regulations and enhance consumer protection in the insurance industry.

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25. A sleep study records all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

A sleep study is a medical test that monitors various aspects of a person's sleep patterns and respiratory functions. It typically measures oxygen saturation levels, respiratory effort, and body position to assess the quality of sleep and diagnose sleep disorders. However, forced vital capacity (FVC) is not directly related to sleep and is a measure of lung function used to assess respiratory health. Therefore, it is not recorded during a sleep study.

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26. Complications of diabetes can include which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. A and B only are correct. Complications of diabetes can include coronary artery disease and retinopathy. Hepatitis is not typically considered a complication of diabetes.

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27. The benefit that allows additional insurance coverage to be purchased at certain times during the life of the contract is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is the guaranteed insurability option. This benefit allows the policyholder to purchase additional insurance coverage at specific times during the life of the contract, without having to provide evidence of insurability. It provides flexibility and ensures that the policyholder can increase their coverage as their needs change, without the risk of being denied coverage due to changes in health or other factors. The other options, such as change of plan provision, extended maturity option, and entire contract provision, do not specifically address the ability to purchase additional insurance coverage.

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28. Treatment for coronary artery disease (CAD) can include which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct.

Nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both commonly used in the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD). Nitrates help to relax and widen the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Calcium channel blockers also relax the blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow. Melatonin, on the other hand, is not typically used in the treatment of CAD. Therefore, options C and D are incorrect.

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29. The class of drug that is often used as the first treatment for hypertension is?

Explanation

Thiazide diuretics are often used as the first treatment for hypertension because they help reduce blood pressure by promoting the excretion of salt and water from the body. They work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and decreased fluid volume in the blood vessels. This helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the heart. Thiazide diuretics are considered effective and well-tolerated medications for the treatment of hypertension.

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30. In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to all of the following EXCEPT: 

Explanation

In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to relatives of U.S. citizens, workers with special occupations, and individuals engaged to U.S. citizens. However, university students are not given preference for obtaining an immigrant visa.

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31. In the U.S., the limit that differentiates larger, taxable estates from smaller non-taxable estates is:

Explanation

The correct answer is the exclusion amount. In the U.S., the exclusion amount refers to the threshold value of an estate below which it is considered non-taxable. Any estate value above this exclusion amount is subject to estate tax. This means that larger estates, which exceed the exclusion amount, are taxable, while smaller estates, below the exclusion amount, are not subject to estate tax. The exclusion amount is set by the government and is adjusted periodically to account for inflation and other factors.

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32. In the U.S., which of the following is required for all pilot certifications:

Explanation

The ability to understand the English language is required for all pilot certifications in the U.S. This is because English is the international language of aviation and is used for communication between pilots, air traffic controllers, and other aviation personnel. Pilots need to be able to understand and communicate in English to ensure safe and efficient operations in the airspace system.

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33. The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is:

Explanation

The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is pilot error. This means that the main reason for accidents in this activity is mistakes or poor decision-making by the pilot. This could include errors in judgment, lack of skill or experience, failure to follow safety procedures, or negligence. Weather conditions, physical demands, and equipment malfunction can also contribute to accidents, but pilot error is identified as the primary cause.

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34. All of the following are potential complications of gastrointestinal surgery for obesity EXCEPT:

Explanation

Gastrointestinal surgery for obesity can lead to various complications, including dumping syndrome, anemia, and nutritional deficiencies. However, diabetes is not a potential complication of this type of surgery. In fact, weight loss surgery is often recommended for individuals with diabetes as it can help improve glycemic control and reduce the need for medication. Therefore, diabetes is the exception among the listed potential complications.

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35. Procedures used to identify coronary artery disease include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given question asks for the procedure that is not used to identify coronary artery disease. The correct answer is "positron emission tomography (PET)". PET is a diagnostic imaging technique that is mainly used to detect cancer, assess brain function, and evaluate heart conditions such as myocardial viability. However, in the context of identifying coronary artery disease, other procedures like electron beam computed tomography (EBCT), myocardial perfusion scan, and magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) are commonly used.

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36. Without a properly signed application, a life insurance contract can be considered to be which of the following?

Explanation

Without a properly signed application, a life insurance contract can be considered invalid because a signature is necessary to validate the contract. Additionally, it can be considered inadmissible as evidence because the lack of a signature may raise doubts about the authenticity and enforceability of the contract. Therefore, options A and B are correct. Option C, material representation, is not applicable in this context as it does not directly relate to the absence of a signature on the application.

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37. Factors associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD) include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

A reduced ejection fraction is not associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD). Ejection fraction refers to the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A reduced ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not pumping blood effectively, which can lead to complications and a poorer prognosis for CAD. In contrast, good exercise capacity, mild disease, and older age onset are all factors that can contribute to a more favorable prognosis for CAD.

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38. Features of term life insurance contracts typically include all of the following EXCEPT

Explanation

Term life insurance contracts typically do not include a cash value component. Unlike permanent life insurance policies, term life insurance is designed to provide coverage for a specified period of time and does not accumulate cash value over time. This means that if the insured individual does not pass away during the term of the policy, there is no cash value or investment component that can be accessed or returned. The other features mentioned, such as convertibility, defined period of coverage, and renewability, are commonly found in term life insurance contracts.

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39. Common health disorders that can be exacerbated by underwater diving include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Underwater diving can put stress on the body, particularly the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Asthma, allergies, and heart disease can all be worsened by the physical demands and changes in pressure associated with diving. However, kidney disease is not directly affected by diving. While individuals with kidney disease may need to take precautions and consult with their healthcare provider before diving, it is not considered a disorder that is exacerbated by diving.

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40. Abnormal growth hormone levels may cause all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Abnormal growth hormone levels can cause dwarfism, acromegaly, and giantism, but not myxedema. Myxedema is a condition that occurs due to low levels of thyroid hormone, not growth hormone. It is characterized by swelling, thickening, and dryness of the skin, as well as other symptoms like fatigue and weight gain. Therefore, myxedema is the exception among the given options, as it is not caused by abnormal growth hormone levels.

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41. The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is:

Explanation

The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is specificity. Specificity refers to the test's ability to correctly identify individuals without the disease, ruling out false positives. It measures the test's accuracy in correctly identifying those who are truly disease-free. A high specificity indicates a low rate of false positives and a reliable exclusion of the disease.

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42. All of the following statements regarding the insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine are correct EXCEPT: 

Explanation

The insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine is typically not positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.

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43. All of the following statements regarding the instrument flight rating are correct EXCEPT

Explanation

The instrument flight rating is a certification that indicates a pilot's mastery of instruments for aircraft navigation. It is a required rating for commercial pilots, and it is held by approximately half of the pilot population. However, it does not limit pilots to flying in daylight hours. This rating allows pilots to fly in low visibility conditions, such as at night or in adverse weather, relying solely on the aircraft's instruments for navigation.

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44. Which of the following laboratory tests are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes?

Explanation

Fructosamine and hemoglobin A1c are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes. Fructosamine is a measure of average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 weeks, while hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. Elevated levels of these laboratory tests indicate poor blood sugar control in diabetes. Bilirubin, on the other hand, is not directly related to diabetes and is typically elevated in conditions affecting the liver or red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. A and C only are correct.

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45. Causes of obesity include which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is 4. A, B, and C are correct. This means that all of the options A, B, and C are causes of obesity. Food selection plays a significant role in obesity as consuming high-calorie and unhealthy foods can lead to weight gain. Genetics also contribute to obesity as certain genes can predispose individuals to have a higher risk of becoming obese. Additionally, medical impairments such as hormonal imbalances or certain medications can also contribute to weight gain and obesity.

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46. Functions of the liver include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The liver performs various functions, including the formation of bilirubin, synthesis of albumin, and detoxification of alcohol. However, the liver does not directly participate in the absorption of nutrients. Absorption of nutrients primarily occurs in the small intestine, where they are broken down and transported into the bloodstream. The liver plays a role in processing and storing nutrients after absorption, but it is not directly involved in the absorption process itself.

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47. Administrative considerations to be addressed during life insurance product development include all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Administrative considerations to be addressed during life insurance product development include the creation of policy forms, the implementation of policyholder services procedures, and the modification of system software. These considerations are all related to the administrative aspects of developing and managing life insurance products. However, the determination of the mortality risk is not an administrative consideration but rather an actuarial consideration. Actuaries are responsible for assessing the mortality risk associated with a life insurance product, which involves analyzing statistical data and making projections about the likelihood of policyholders dying during the policy term.

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48. When underwriting an individual for key person life insurance, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT the:

Explanation

The cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death is not a consideration when underwriting an individual for key person life insurance. Underwriting for key person life insurance typically involves assessing the business history of the company, the number of key employees, and the age of the proposed insured. However, the cost of estate taxes is not directly relevant to the underwriting process for this type of insurance.

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49. All of the following statements regarding the USA Patriot Act are correct EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given correct answer is "It maintains the Do Not Call registry." This statement is incorrect because the USA Patriot Act does not have any provisions related to the Do Not Call registry. The Act primarily focuses on national security and counterterrorism measures, such as anti-money laundering programs, prohibiting transactions with SDNs, and filing SARs to detect and prevent financial crimes.

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50. The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is based on all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is a measure of kidney function. It is determined using various factors, including serum creatinine, age, and gender. However, serum albumin is not used in the calculation of eGFR. Serum albumin is a protein found in the blood and is used to assess nutritional status and liver function, but it is not directly related to kidney function. Therefore, it is not included in the calculation of eGFR.

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51. Information that can be reported to MIB includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Explanation

Underwriting decisions refer to the process of evaluating an individual's risk profile and determining whether to approve or deny an insurance application. This information is not typically reported to the Medical Information Bureau (MIB). The MIB is a database that collects and shares medical information about individuals, including medical conditions, treatments, and medications. EKG results, criminal history, and aviation activity are all examples of information that may be reported to the MIB as they can impact an individual's insurability and risk assessment.

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52. The replacement of another company's policy with one that provides limited benefits to the applicant for the purpose of increasing the producer's commission is:

Explanation

Twisting refers to the unethical practice of replacing an existing insurance policy from one company with a new policy from another company, with the intention of increasing the producer's commission. This is done by misleading the applicant about the benefits and features of the new policy, often providing limited coverage. This practice is considered fraudulent and harmful to the consumer, as it prioritizes the producer's financial gain over the applicant's best interests.

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53. All of the following statements regarding nephritis are correct EXCEPT:

Explanation

The given answer is correct because nephritis is not an inflammation of the urinary bladder. Nephritis refers to the inflammation of the kidneys, specifically the glomeruli, tubules, or interstitial tissue. It is not directly related to the bladder. The other statements are all correct: nephritis can be a complication of untreated cystitis, it can progress to renal failure, and it can produce symptoms such as fever and flank pain.

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54. A policy can be rescinded after the contestability period has expired in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

Explanation

The contestability period is a specific time frame during which an insurance company can investigate and potentially rescind a policy if any material misrepresentations or omissions are discovered. In all of the given situations, except for "Disclosed medical history was not investigated," there are clear cases of fraudulent activity or lack of insurable interest, which are valid grounds for rescinding a policy even after the contestability period has expired. The fact that the disclosed medical history was not investigated does not automatically invalidate the policy, as it does not involve any fraudulent activity or lack of insurable interest.

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55. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) regulates which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) regulates both public retirement plans and employee benefits. ERISA sets minimum standards for retirement and health plans in the private sector to protect employees' interests and ensure that they receive the benefits they are entitled to. It does not regulate variable securities, which are governed by other laws and regulations.

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56. Which of the following statements regarding the abdominal cavity are correct?

Explanation

The abdominal cavity is lined by the peritoneum, which is a membrane that covers the organs in the abdominal cavity. The liver is indeed one of the organs located in the abdominal cavity. The diaphragm, a muscle located below the lungs, separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity. Therefore, all statements A, B, and C are correct.

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57. All of the following statements regarding ketoacidosis are correct EXCEPT:

Explanation

Ketoacidosis is a serious condition that can occur in individuals with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. It is characterized by symptoms such as dehydration and nausea. The condition is caused by excessive breakdown of fat molecules, which leads to the production of ketones. However, it does not lead to a hypoglycemic state, as ketoacidosis is typically associated with high blood glucose levels.

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58. Which of the following reasons may a foreign national be deemed inadmissible to Canada?

Explanation

Foreign nationals may be deemed inadmissible to Canada for several reasons, including health, finances, and documentation. This means that if a foreign national has a serious health condition that could pose a risk to public health or safety, they may be deemed inadmissible. Similarly, if a foreign national does not have sufficient financial resources to support themselves during their stay in Canada, they may also be deemed inadmissible. Lastly, if a foreign national fails to provide the necessary documentation or provides fraudulent or misleading information, they may be deemed inadmissible. Therefore, all three reasons (health, finances, and documentation) can lead to a foreign national being deemed inadmissible to Canada.

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59. Mountain climbing categories that have an increased mortality risk include which of the following?

Explanation

Mountain climbing categories that have an increased mortality risk include free soloing and ice climbing. Trail hiking does not have the same level of risk as these two categories. Therefore, the correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct.

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60. In the U.s>, which of the following statements regarding life insurance regulations is correct?

Explanation

In the U.S., each state has its own insurance commissioner, which means that statement A is correct. Additionally, there is variation by state when it comes to life insurance regulations, which means that statement C is also correct. Therefore, the correct answer is 2. A and C only are correct.

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61. The level of fructosamine in the blood represents the:

Explanation

Fructosamine is a compound formed when glucose reacts with proteins in the blood. The level of fructosamine in the blood reflects the average glucose level over a three week period because fructosamine is stable and remains in the blood for approximately 2-3 weeks. Therefore, measuring fructosamine levels can provide an indication of long-term glycemic control.

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62. Which of the following statements regarding secondary hypertension is correct?

Explanation

Secondary hypertension refers to high blood pressure that is caused by an underlying medical condition or medication. It is not the most common form of hypertension, as primary hypertension (also known as essential hypertension) accounts for the majority of cases. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. However, statement B is correct as secondary hypertension is indeed due to an underlying disease. Statement C is not mentioned in the question and is therefore not applicable.

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63. Which of the following statements regarding the underwriting of creditor insurance is correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct. This means that statement A, which states that the full amount of a loan is rarely covered, is correct. It implies that creditor insurance does not typically cover the entire loan amount. Statement B, which states that the legitimacy of the lender should be verified, is also correct. This suggests that it is important to verify the credibility and trustworthiness of the lender before obtaining creditor insurance. However, statement C, which states that venture capitalists are an excellent risk, is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as correct.

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64. Factors to consider when evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes include which of the following?

Explanation

When evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes, it is important to consider multiple factors. Pilot experience (option A) is crucial as it determines the level of skill and proficiency in flying. The materials used to build the plane (option B) are also significant as they impact the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft. Additionally, the type of flying (option C) is important as different types of flying, such as aerobatics or cross-country, have varying levels of risk. Therefore, all three options, A, B, and C, are correct factors to consider when evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes.

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65. Which of the following sources can be used to evaluate a proposed insured's motor vehicle risk?

Explanation

The application and phone history interview are both sources that can be used to evaluate a proposed insured's motor vehicle risk. The application provides information about the applicant's driving history, previous accidents, and any traffic violations. The phone history interview allows the insurer to ask specific questions about the applicant's driving habits, such as how often they drive, where they typically drive, and if they have any specific driving concerns. Both of these sources provide valuable information that can help assess the risk associated with insuring the applicant's motor vehicle.

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66. Types of by/sell agreements include which of the following?

Explanation

The correct answer is 2. A and C only are correct. This means that the types of buy/sell agreements include stock redemption and cross-purchase. Stock redemption refers to an agreement where the company buys back the shares of a departing shareholder, while cross-purchase refers to an agreement where the remaining shareholders buy the shares of a departing shareholder. Deferred compensation, mentioned in option B, is not a type of buy/sell agreement.

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67. An increased probability of malignancy is associated with which of the following types of thyroid nodules?

Explanation

Cold thyroid nodules have an increased probability of malignancy. Cold nodules refer to nodules that do not take up radioactive iodine, indicating decreased thyroid function. Since these nodules are not functioning properly, they are more likely to be cancerous. Functional nodules (option B) and hot nodules (option C) are associated with increased thyroid function and are less likely to be malignant. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1, A only.

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68. Which of the following statements regarding connective tissue membranes are correct?

Explanation

The perichondrium is a connective tissue membrane that covers cartilage, not bone. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. On the other hand, the deep fascia is a connective tissue membrane that covers skeletal muscles, so statement B is correct. Additionally, the meninges are connective tissue membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, making statement C correct. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3, which states that statements B and C only are correct.

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69. Which of the following statements regarding cancer are correct?

Explanation

The statement "A common site for carcinoma in-situ is the cervix" is correct because carcinoma in-situ refers to cancer that is confined to the original site and has not spread. The cervix is a common site for carcinoma in-situ. The statement "The mitotic rate measures cell-dividing activity" is also correct because the mitotic rate is a measure of how quickly cells are dividing, which is an important factor in determining the aggressiveness of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. B and C only are correct.

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70. The components of pricing life insurance products include which of the following?

Explanation

The components of pricing life insurance products include mortality, expenses, and investments. Mortality refers to the risk of death for the insured individuals, which affects the premiums charged. Expenses include administrative costs, commissions, and other overhead expenses that are factored into the pricing. Investments play a role as insurance companies invest the premiums they collect to generate returns and cover claims. Therefore, all three components (mortality, expenses, and investments) are considered when pricing life insurance products.

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71. Which of the following statements regarding body chemistry are correct?

Explanation

Water is indeed an inorganic chemical as it does not contain carbon. Organic chemicals, on the other hand, always contain hydrogen. Carbon is typically not an element in inorganic chemicals. Therefore, all three statements (A, B, and C) are correct.

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72. Which of the following statements regarding the accidental death benefit (ADB) provision is correct?

Explanation

The accidental death benefit (ADB) provision provides an additional amount of insurance if death occurs by accident. This means that if the insured person dies as a result of an accident, the ADB provision will pay out an additional sum of money on top of the regular death benefit. Additionally, there is usually a maximum age at which the ADB provision will terminate, meaning that the coverage will no longer be in effect after a certain age. Therefore, statement B and C are correct.

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