Disease, Diagnosis, Treatment & Insurance Quiz
Ever wondered how much you know about Diabetes 2? What is the function of the Thyroid gland? Check out our online quiz and learn trivia along the way.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
The test that measures thyroid function is:
- A.
Thoracentesis
- B.
Fine needle aspirate (FNA)
- C.
Fluorescein angiography
- D.
Radioactive iodine uptake
Correct Answer
D. Radioactive iodine uptakeExplanation
The correct answer is radioactive iodine uptake because it is a specific test used to measure the function of the thyroid gland. This test involves administering a small amount of radioactive iodine to the patient and then measuring the amount of iodine that is taken up by the thyroid gland. This helps to assess the thyroid's ability to produce and release hormones. Thoracentesis, fine needle aspirate (FNA), and fluorescein angiography are not tests used to measure thyroid function.Rate this question:
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- 2.
The class of drug that is often used as the first treatment for hypertension is?
- A.
Anticoagulants
- B.
Nitrates
- C.
Thiazide diuretics
- D.
Statins
Correct Answer
C. Thiazide diureticsExplanation
Thiazide diuretics are often used as the first treatment for hypertension because they help reduce blood pressure by promoting the excretion of salt and water from the body. They work by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production and decreased fluid volume in the blood vessels. This helps to lower blood pressure and reduce the strain on the heart. Thiazide diuretics are considered effective and well-tolerated medications for the treatment of hypertension.Rate this question:
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- 3.
The level of fructosamine in the blood represents the:
- A.
Glucose level two hours after drinking a high glucose solution
- B.
Average glucose level over a three month period
- C.
Glucose level after fasting for 12 hours
- D.
Average glucose level over a three week period
Correct Answer
D. Average glucose level over a three week periodExplanation
Fructosamine is a compound formed when glucose reacts with proteins in the blood. The level of fructosamine in the blood reflects the average glucose level over a three week period because fructosamine is stable and remains in the blood for approximately 2-3 weeks. Therefore, measuring fructosamine levels can provide an indication of long-term glycemic control.Rate this question:
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- 4.
An absolute increase in the number of cells in a tissue is:
- A.
Dysplasia
- B.
Hyperplasia
- C.
Hypertrophy
- D.
Metaplasia
Correct Answer
B. HyperplasiaExplanation
Hyperplasia refers to an increase in the number of cells in a tissue, which can occur due to an increased rate of cell division. This can lead to an enlargement of the affected tissue or organ. Dysplasia, on the other hand, refers to abnormal changes in cell size, shape, and organization, which can be a precursor to cancer. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size of cells, resulting in an enlarged tissue or organ. Metaplasia refers to the transformation of one type of tissue into another type, often in response to chronic irritation or inflammation.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The cardiac ejection fraction measures the:
- A.
Pumping ability of the heart
- B.
Degree of atherosclerosis
- C.
Carotid intimal-medial thickness
- D.
Level of radioisotope in the heart
Correct Answer
A. Pumping ability of the heartExplanation
The cardiac ejection fraction measures the pumping ability of the heart. It is a measurement that represents the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A normal ejection fraction is typically between 50% and 70%. This measurement is important in assessing the overall function and efficiency of the heart, as a reduced ejection fraction can indicate heart failure or other cardiac conditions.Rate this question:
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- 6.
The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is:
- A.
Sensitivity
- B.
Reliability
- C.
Resonability
- D.
Specificity
Correct Answer
D. SpecificityExplanation
The measure of a test's ability to exclude the possibility of a particular disease is specificity. Specificity refers to the test's ability to correctly identify individuals without the disease, ruling out false positives. It measures the test's accuracy in correctly identifying those who are truly disease-free. A high specificity indicates a low rate of false positives and a reliable exclusion of the disease.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The life insurance product characterized by flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit is:
- A.
Modified whole life
- B.
Increasing term life
- C.
Yearly renewable term
- D.
Universal life
Correct Answer
D. Universal lifeExplanation
Universal life insurance is a type of life insurance product that offers flexibility in both premium paying and death benefit. Unlike other types of life insurance, universal life allows policyholders to adjust their premium payments and death benefits as their financial situation changes. This flexibility makes universal life insurance a popular choice for individuals who want the ability to customize their coverage to meet their specific needs.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The benefit that allows additional insurance coverage to be purchased at certain times during the life of the contract is the:
- A.
Guaranteed insurability option
- B.
Change of plan provision
- C.
Extended maturity option
- D.
Entire contract provision
Correct Answer
A. Guaranteed insurability optionExplanation
The correct answer is the guaranteed insurability option. This benefit allows the policyholder to purchase additional insurance coverage at specific times during the life of the contract, without having to provide evidence of insurability. It provides flexibility and ensures that the policyholder can increase their coverage as their needs change, without the risk of being denied coverage due to changes in health or other factors. The other options, such as change of plan provision, extended maturity option, and entire contract provision, do not specifically address the ability to purchase additional insurance coverage.Rate this question:
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- 9.
The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is:
- A.
Pilot error
- B.
Weather
- C.
Physical demands
- D.
Equipment malfunction
Correct Answer
A. Pilot errorExplanation
The principal cause of hang gliding accidents is pilot error. This means that the main reason for accidents in this activity is mistakes or poor decision-making by the pilot. This could include errors in judgment, lack of skill or experience, failure to follow safety procedures, or negligence. Weather conditions, physical demands, and equipment malfunction can also contribute to accidents, but pilot error is identified as the primary cause.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of:
- A.
Asthma
- B.
Pulmonary embolism
- C.
Dementia
- D.
Food poisoning
Correct Answer
B. Pulmonary embolismExplanation
Prolonged airplane travel increases the risk of pulmonary embolism. This is because sitting for long periods of time can lead to blood clots forming in the legs, which can then travel to the lungs and cause a pulmonary embolism. The cramped seating and limited movement on airplanes can contribute to this risk, especially on flights that are several hours long. It is important to stay hydrated, move around and stretch during flights to help prevent the development of blood clots.Rate this question:
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- 11.
The replacement of another company's policy with one that provides limited benefits to the applicant for the purpose of increasing the producer's commission is:
- A.
Churning
- B.
Profit sharing
- C.
Twisting
- D.
Discriminating
Correct Answer
C. TwistingExplanation
Twisting refers to the unethical practice of replacing an existing insurance policy from one company with a new policy from another company, with the intention of increasing the producer's commission. This is done by misleading the applicant about the benefits and features of the new policy, often providing limited coverage. This practice is considered fraudulent and harmful to the consumer, as it prioritizes the producer's financial gain over the applicant's best interests.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the:
- A.
Bladder
- B.
Kidneys
- C.
Uterus
- D.
Prostate
Correct Answer
D. ProstateExplanation
A transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) is commonly used to evaluate the prostate. This procedure involves inserting a small ultrasound probe into the rectum to obtain detailed images of the prostate gland. TRUS is frequently used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), and prostatitis. It allows healthcare professionals to assess the size, shape, and structure of the prostate, as well as detect any abnormalities or tumors. TRUS is considered a safe and effective imaging technique for evaluating the prostate gland.Rate this question:
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- 13.
A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is:
- A.
Sarcoma
- B.
Myeloma
- C.
Adenoma
- D.
Lymphoma
Correct Answer
A. SarcomaExplanation
A malignant tumor of connective tissue origin is called a sarcoma. Sarcomas are cancers that develop in the cells of connective tissues, such as bones, muscles, cartilage, or blood vessels. They are typically aggressive and have the potential to spread to other parts of the body. Myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells, adenoma is a benign tumor, and lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system. Therefore, sarcoma is the correct answer for a malignant tumor of connective tissue origin.Rate this question:
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- 14.
To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, an insured must be:
- A.
Terminally ill
- B.
Confined to a nursing home for at least six months
- C.
Completely disabled
- D.
Unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)
Correct Answer
D. Unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs)Explanation
To receive payment under most Long Term Care riders, the insured must be unable to perform two or more Activities of Daily Living (ADLs). This means that the insured is unable to independently perform basic tasks such as bathing, dressing, eating, toileting, transferring, or continence. This requirement ensures that the insured requires assistance with their daily activities and is in need of long-term care services. Being terminally ill, confined to a nursing home for at least six months, or completely disabled are not necessarily the criteria for receiving payment under most Long Term Care riders.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A sleep study records all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Forced vital capacity (FVC)
- B.
Oxygen saturation
- C.
Respiratory effort
- D.
Body position
Correct Answer
A. Forced vital capacity (FVC)Explanation
A sleep study is a medical test that monitors various aspects of a person's sleep patterns and respiratory functions. It typically measures oxygen saturation levels, respiratory effort, and body position to assess the quality of sleep and diagnose sleep disorders. However, forced vital capacity (FVC) is not directly related to sleep and is a measure of lung function used to assess respiratory health. Therefore, it is not recorded during a sleep study.Rate this question:
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- 16.
All of the following are potential complications of gastrointestinal surgery for obesity EXCEPT:
- A.
Dumping syndrome
- B.
Anemia
- C.
Nutritional deficiencies
- D.
Diabetes
Correct Answer
D. DiabetesExplanation
Gastrointestinal surgery for obesity can lead to various complications, including dumping syndrome, anemia, and nutritional deficiencies. However, diabetes is not a potential complication of this type of surgery. In fact, weight loss surgery is often recommended for individuals with diabetes as it can help improve glycemic control and reduce the need for medication. Therefore, diabetes is the exception among the listed potential complications.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Factors that increase the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Smoking
- B.
Gestational diabetes
- C.
Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT)
- D.
Obesity
Correct Answer
A. SmokingExplanation
The correct answer is smoking. Smoking is not a factor that increases the risk of developing Type 2 diabetes. However, gestational diabetes, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT), and obesity are all known risk factors for Type 2 diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Tumor markers include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
- B.
Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
- C.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
- D.
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct Answer
D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)Explanation
Tumor markers are substances that can be found in the blood, urine, or tissues of people with cancer. They are often used to help diagnose and monitor the progress of cancer. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), alpha fetoprotein (AFP), and prostate specific antigen (PSA) are all examples of tumor markers that are commonly used in cancer screening and monitoring. However, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not a tumor marker. BUN is a measure of the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from the waste product urea. It is used to assess kidney function and hydration status, but it is not specific to cancer.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Factors associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD) include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Good exercise capacity
- B.
Reduced ejection fraction
- C.
Mild disease
- D.
Older age onset
Correct Answer
B. Reduced ejection fractionExplanation
A reduced ejection fraction is not associated with a favorable prognosis for coronary artery disease (CAD). Ejection fraction refers to the percentage of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction. A reduced ejection fraction indicates that the heart is not pumping blood effectively, which can lead to complications and a poorer prognosis for CAD. In contrast, good exercise capacity, mild disease, and older age onset are all factors that can contribute to a more favorable prognosis for CAD.Rate this question:
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- 20.
All of the following statements regarding the insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine are correct EXCEPT:
- A.
It is very accurate.
- B.
It can be tested from salivia.
- C.
It cannot differentiate between nicotine gum and cigarette use.
- D.
It is typically positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.
Correct Answer
D. It is typically positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.Explanation
The insurance laboratory testing protocol to detect cotinine is typically not positive from exposure to secondhand smoke.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Effects of alcohol on the central nervous system can include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Drowsiness
- B.
Slowed reaction time
- C.
Increased concentration
- D.
Decreased night vision
Correct Answer
C. Increased concentrationExplanation
Alcohol is a depressant that affects the central nervous system, leading to various impairments. It can cause drowsiness and slowed reaction time, which are commonly associated with alcohol consumption. Additionally, alcohol can also decrease night vision due to its effects on the optic nerve. However, it does not increase concentration. In fact, alcohol can impair concentration and cognitive function, making it difficult to focus and pay attention.Rate this question:
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- 22.
When underwriting an individual for key person life insurance, all of the following are considerations EXCEPT the:
- A.
Business history of the company
- B.
Number of key employees in the company
- C.
Age of the proposed insured
- D.
Cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death
Correct Answer
D. Cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's deathExplanation
The cost of estate taxes at the proposed insured's death is not a consideration when underwriting an individual for key person life insurance. Underwriting for key person life insurance typically involves assessing the business history of the company, the number of key employees, and the age of the proposed insured. However, the cost of estate taxes is not directly relevant to the underwriting process for this type of insurance.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Features of term life insurance contracts typically include all of the following EXCEPT
- A.
Convertibiliy
- B.
Defined period of coverage
- C.
Cash value
- D.
Renewability
Correct Answer
C. Cash valueExplanation
Term life insurance contracts typically do not include a cash value component. Unlike permanent life insurance policies, term life insurance is designed to provide coverage for a specified period of time and does not accumulate cash value over time. This means that if the insured individual does not pass away during the term of the policy, there is no cash value or investment component that can be accessed or returned. The other features mentioned, such as convertibility, defined period of coverage, and renewability, are commonly found in term life insurance contracts.Rate this question:
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- 24.
A policy can be rescinded after the contestability period has expired in all of the following situations EXCEPT:
- A.
There was fraudulent impersonation.
- B.
The policy was obtained with intent to murder the insured.
- C.
There was a lack of insurable interest.
- D.
Disclosed medical history was not investigated.
Correct Answer
D. Disclosed medical history was not investigated.Explanation
The contestability period is a specific time frame during which an insurance company can investigate and potentially rescind a policy if any material misrepresentations or omissions are discovered. In all of the given situations, except for "Disclosed medical history was not investigated," there are clear cases of fraudulent activity or lack of insurable interest, which are valid grounds for rescinding a policy even after the contestability period has expired. The fact that the disclosed medical history was not investigated does not automatically invalidate the policy, as it does not involve any fraudulent activity or lack of insurable interest.Rate this question:
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- 25.
All of the following statements regarding the instrument flight rating are correct EXCEPT
- A.
It is held by approximately half of the pilot population
- B.
It indicates mastery of instruments for aircraft navigation.
- C.
It is a required rating for commercial pilots.
- D.
It limits pilots to flying in daylight hours.
Correct Answer
D. It limits pilots to flying in daylight hours.Explanation
The instrument flight rating is a certification that indicates a pilot's mastery of instruments for aircraft navigation. It is a required rating for commercial pilots, and it is held by approximately half of the pilot population. However, it does not limit pilots to flying in daylight hours. This rating allows pilots to fly in low visibility conditions, such as at night or in adverse weather, relying solely on the aircraft's instruments for navigation.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Common health disorders that can be exacerbated by underwater diving include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Allergies
- B.
Heart disease
- C.
Asthma
- D.
Kidney disease
Correct Answer
D. Kidney diseaseExplanation
Underwater diving can put stress on the body, particularly the cardiovascular and respiratory systems. Asthma, allergies, and heart disease can all be worsened by the physical demands and changes in pressure associated with diving. However, kidney disease is not directly affected by diving. While individuals with kidney disease may need to take precautions and consult with their healthcare provider before diving, it is not considered a disorder that is exacerbated by diving.Rate this question:
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- 27.
In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Relative of a U.S. citizen
- B.
Worker with a special occupation
- C.
Individual engaged to a U.S. citizen
- D.
University student
Correct Answer
D. University studentExplanation
In the U.S., preference for obtaining an immigrant visa is given to relatives of U.S. citizens, workers with special occupations, and individuals engaged to U.S. citizens. However, university students are not given preference for obtaining an immigrant visa.Rate this question:
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- 28.
All of the following statements regarding the USA Patriot Act are correct EXCEPT:
- A.
It requires establishment of anti-money laundering programs.
- B.
It prohibits transactions with Specially Designated nationals (SDNs).
- C.
It requires filing of Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs).
- D.
It maintains the Don Not Call registry.
Correct Answer
D. It maintains the Don Not Call registry.Explanation
The given correct answer is "It maintains the Do Not Call registry." This statement is incorrect because the USA Patriot Act does not have any provisions related to the Do Not Call registry. The Act primarily focuses on national security and counterterrorism measures, such as anti-money laundering programs, prohibiting transactions with SDNs, and filing SARs to detect and prevent financial crimes.Rate this question:
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- 29.
All of the following are layers of the heart wall EXCEPT:
- A.
Endocardium
- B.
Pericardium
- C.
Endometrium
- D.
Myocardium
Correct Answer
C. EndometriumExplanation
The correct answer is endometrium. The endometrium is not a layer of the heart wall. The heart wall is composed of three layers: the epicardium (outer layer), the myocardium (middle layer), and the endocardium (inner layer). The endometrium, on the other hand, is the inner lining of the uterus and is not related to the structure of the heart.Rate this question:
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- 30.
The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is based on all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
Serum creatinine
- B.
Serum albumin
- C.
Age
- D.
Gender
Correct Answer
B. Serum albuminExplanation
The estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is a measure of kidney function. It is determined using various factors, including serum creatinine, age, and gender. However, serum albumin is not used in the calculation of eGFR. Serum albumin is a protein found in the blood and is used to assess nutritional status and liver function, but it is not directly related to kidney function. Therefore, it is not included in the calculation of eGFR.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Information that can be reported to MIB includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
EKG results
- B.
Criminal history
- C.
Aviation activity
- D.
Underwriting decisions
Correct Answer
D. Underwriting decisionsExplanation
Underwriting decisions refer to the process of evaluating an individual's risk profile and determining whether to approve or deny an insurance application. This information is not typically reported to the Medical Information Bureau (MIB). The MIB is a database that collects and shares medical information about individuals, including medical conditions, treatments, and medications. EKG results, criminal history, and aviation activity are all examples of information that may be reported to the MIB as they can impact an individual's insurability and risk assessment.Rate this question:
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- 32.
An increased probability of malignancy is associated with which of the following types of thyroid nodules?
- A.
A. cold
- B.
B. functional
- C.
C. hot
- D.
1. A only is correct
- E.
2. C only is correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
D. 1. A only is correctExplanation
Cold thyroid nodules have an increased probability of malignancy. Cold nodules refer to nodules that do not take up radioactive iodine, indicating decreased thyroid function. Since these nodules are not functioning properly, they are more likely to be cancerous. Functional nodules (option B) and hot nodules (option C) are associated with increased thyroid function and are less likely to be malignant. Therefore, the correct answer is option 1, A only.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which of the following statements regarding secondary hypertension is correct?
- A.
A. It accounts for the majority of hypertension.
- B.
B. It is due to an underlying disease.
- C.
C. It is hereditary.
- D.
1. B only is correct.
- E.
2. C only is correct
- F.
3. A and B only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
D. 1. B only is correct.Explanation
Secondary hypertension refers to high blood pressure that is caused by an underlying medical condition or medication. It is not the most common form of hypertension, as primary hypertension (also known as essential hypertension) accounts for the majority of cases. Therefore, statement A is incorrect. However, statement B is correct as secondary hypertension is indeed due to an underlying disease. Statement C is not mentioned in the question and is therefore not applicable.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Complications of diabetes can include which of the following?
- A.
A. coronary artery disease
- B.
B. retinopathy
- C.
C. hepatitis
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A and C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
D. 1. A and B only are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 1. A and B only are correct. Complications of diabetes can include coronary artery disease and retinopathy. Hepatitis is not typically considered a complication of diabetes.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which of the following statements regarding cancer are correct?
- A.
A. The primary treatment for metastatic cancer is radition.
- B.
B. A common site for carcinoma in-situ is the cervix.
- C.
C The mitotic rate measures cell-dividing activity.
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A ad C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct.
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
F. 3. B and C only are correct.Explanation
The statement "A common site for carcinoma in-situ is the cervix" is correct because carcinoma in-situ refers to cancer that is confined to the original site and has not spread. The cervix is a common site for carcinoma in-situ. The statement "The mitotic rate measures cell-dividing activity" is also correct because the mitotic rate is a measure of how quickly cells are dividing, which is an important factor in determining the aggressiveness of cancer. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. B and C only are correct.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Treatment for coronary artery disease (CAD) can include which of the following?
- A.
A. nitrates
- B.
B. calcium channel blockers
- C.
C. melantonin
- D.
1. A only is correct.
- E.
2. A and B only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct.
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct.
Correct Answer
E. 2. A and B only are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct.
Nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both commonly used in the treatment of coronary artery disease (CAD). Nitrates help to relax and widen the blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Calcium channel blockers also relax the blood vessels, reducing the workload on the heart and improving blood flow. Melatonin, on the other hand, is not typically used in the treatment of CAD. Therefore, options C and D are incorrect.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which of the following laboratory tests are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes?
- A.
A. fructosamine
- B.
B. billirubin
- C.
C. hemoglobin A1c
- D.
1. A only is correct
- E.
2. A and B only are correct.
- F.
3. A and C only are correct.
- G.
4. B and C only are correct.
Correct Answer
F. 3. A and C only are correct.Explanation
Fructosamine and hemoglobin A1c are typically elevated in uncontrolled diabetes. Fructosamine is a measure of average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 weeks, while hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. Elevated levels of these laboratory tests indicate poor blood sugar control in diabetes. Bilirubin, on the other hand, is not directly related to diabetes and is typically elevated in conditions affecting the liver or red blood cells. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. A and C only are correct.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which of the following sources can be used to evaluate a proposed insured's motor vehicle risk?
- A.
A. application
- B.
B. phone history interview
- C.
C. credit report
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A ad C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
D. 1. A and B only are correctExplanation
The application and phone history interview are both sources that can be used to evaluate a proposed insured's motor vehicle risk. The application provides information about the applicant's driving history, previous accidents, and any traffic violations. The phone history interview allows the insurer to ask specific questions about the applicant's driving habits, such as how often they drive, where they typically drive, and if they have any specific driving concerns. Both of these sources provide valuable information that can help assess the risk associated with insuring the applicant's motor vehicle.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which of the following statements regarding the underwriting of creditor insurance is correct?
- A.
A. The full amount of a loan is rarely covered.
- B.
B. The legitimacy of the lender should be verified.
- C.
C. Venture capitalists are an excellent risk.
- D.
1. A only is correct
- E.
2. A and B only are correct
- F.
3. B and only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
E. 2. A and B only are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct. This means that statement A, which states that the full amount of a loan is rarely covered, is correct. It implies that creditor insurance does not typically cover the entire loan amount. Statement B, which states that the legitimacy of the lender should be verified, is also correct. This suggests that it is important to verify the credibility and trustworthiness of the lender before obtaining creditor insurance. However, statement C, which states that venture capitalists are an excellent risk, is not mentioned in the question and therefore cannot be determined as correct.Rate this question:
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- 40.
The components of pricing life insurance products include which of the following?
- A.
A. mortality
- B.
B. expenses
- C.
C. investments
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A and C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
G. 4. A, B, and C are correctExplanation
The components of pricing life insurance products include mortality, expenses, and investments. Mortality refers to the risk of death for the insured individuals, which affects the premiums charged. Expenses include administrative costs, commissions, and other overhead expenses that are factored into the pricing. Investments play a role as insurance companies invest the premiums they collect to generate returns and cover claims. Therefore, all three components (mortality, expenses, and investments) are considered when pricing life insurance products.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following statements regarding the accidental death benefit (ADB) provision is correct?
- A.
A. Death resulting from a self-inflicted injury typically is covered.
- B.
B. It provides an additional amount of insurance if death occurs by accident.
- C.
C. There is usually a maximum age at which the benefit will terminate.
- D.
1. C only is correct
- E.
2. A and B only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
F. 3. B and C only are correctExplanation
The accidental death benefit (ADB) provision provides an additional amount of insurance if death occurs by accident. This means that if the insured person dies as a result of an accident, the ADB provision will pay out an additional sum of money on top of the regular death benefit. Additionally, there is usually a maximum age at which the ADB provision will terminate, meaning that the coverage will no longer be in effect after a certain age. Therefore, statement B and C are correct.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Factors to consider when evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes include which of the following?
- A.
A. pilot experience
- B.
B. materials used to build the plane
- C.
C. type of fying
- D.
1. A only is correct.
- E.
2. B only is correct
- F.
3. A and B only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
G. 4. A, B, and C are correctExplanation
When evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes, it is important to consider multiple factors. Pilot experience (option A) is crucial as it determines the level of skill and proficiency in flying. The materials used to build the plane (option B) are also significant as they impact the structural integrity and safety of the aircraft. Additionally, the type of flying (option C) is important as different types of flying, such as aerobatics or cross-country, have varying levels of risk. Therefore, all three options, A, B, and C, are correct factors to consider when evaluating the life insurance risk of pilots who fly amateur-built planes.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Mountain climbing categories that have an increased mortality risk include which of the following?
- A.
A. free soloing
- B.
B. ice climbing
- C.
C. trail hiking
- D.
1. B only is correct
- E.
2. A and B only are correct
- F.
3. A and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
E. 2. A and B only are correctExplanation
Mountain climbing categories that have an increased mortality risk include free soloing and ice climbing. Trail hiking does not have the same level of risk as these two categories. Therefore, the correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which of the following reasons may a foreign national be deemed inadmissible to Canada?
- A.
A. health
- B.
B. finances
- C.
C. documentation
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A and C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
G. 4. A, B, and C are correctExplanation
Foreign nationals may be deemed inadmissible to Canada for several reasons, including health, finances, and documentation. This means that if a foreign national has a serious health condition that could pose a risk to public health or safety, they may be deemed inadmissible. Similarly, if a foreign national does not have sufficient financial resources to support themselves during their stay in Canada, they may also be deemed inadmissible. Lastly, if a foreign national fails to provide the necessary documentation or provides fraudulent or misleading information, they may be deemed inadmissible. Therefore, all three reasons (health, finances, and documentation) can lead to a foreign national being deemed inadmissible to Canada.Rate this question:
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- 45.
The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) regulates which of the following?
- A.
A. public retirement plans
- B.
B. employee benefits
- C.
C. variable securities
- D.
1. A only is correct
- E.
2. A and B only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
E. 2. A and B only are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 2. A and B only are correct. The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (ERISA) regulates both public retirement plans and employee benefits. ERISA sets minimum standards for retirement and health plans in the private sector to protect employees' interests and ensure that they receive the benefits they are entitled to. It does not regulate variable securities, which are governed by other laws and regulations.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Causes of obesity include which of the following?
- A.
A. food selection
- B.
B. genetics
- C.
C. medical impairments
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A and C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
G. 4. A, B, and C are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 4. A, B, and C are correct. This means that all of the options A, B, and C are causes of obesity. Food selection plays a significant role in obesity as consuming high-calorie and unhealthy foods can lead to weight gain. Genetics also contribute to obesity as certain genes can predispose individuals to have a higher risk of becoming obese. Additionally, medical impairments such as hormonal imbalances or certain medications can also contribute to weight gain and obesity.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Types of by/sell agreements include which of the following?
- A.
A. stock redemption
- B.
B. deferred compensation
- C.
C. cross-purchase
- D.
1. A and B only are correct
- E.
2. A and C only are correct
- F.
3. B and C only are correct
- G.
4. A, B, and C are correct
Correct Answer
E. 2. A and C only are correctExplanation
The correct answer is 2. A and C only are correct. This means that the types of buy/sell agreements include stock redemption and cross-purchase. Stock redemption refers to an agreement where the company buys back the shares of a departing shareholder, while cross-purchase refers to an agreement where the remaining shareholders buy the shares of a departing shareholder. Deferred compensation, mentioned in option B, is not a type of buy/sell agreement.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes:
- A.
Systole
- B.
Bruit
- C.
Distole
- D.
Ischemia
Correct Answer
D. IschemiaExplanation
Deprivation of blood supply to the myocardium causes ischemia. Ischemia refers to the inadequate supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues, including the myocardium (heart muscle). When the blood supply is compromised, the myocardium does not receive enough oxygen and nutrients, leading to cell damage and potentially causing symptoms like chest pain or angina. Ischemia can be caused by various factors, such as atherosclerosis, blood clots, or coronary artery disease. It is an important condition to recognize and treat promptly to prevent further complications, such as myocardial infarction or heart attack.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Ketoacidosis is a complication associated with:
- A.
Coronary artery disease
- B.
Hepatitis
- C.
Diabetes
- D.
Peptic ulcer
Correct Answer
C. DiabetesExplanation
Ketoacidosis is a complication commonly associated with diabetes. It occurs when the body does not have enough insulin to convert glucose into energy, so it starts breaking down fat for fuel instead. This process produces ketones, which can build up in the blood and lead to ketoacidosis. People with type 1 diabetes are more prone to this condition, but it can also occur in individuals with type 2 diabetes, especially during periods of illness or high stress. Proper management of diabetes, including regular insulin use and monitoring blood sugar levels, can help prevent ketoacidosis.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Tachycardia is exhibited by:
- A.
A rapid heartbeat
- B.
Labored breathig
- C.
Frequent urination
- D.
Rapid eye movement
Correct Answer
A. A rapid heartbeatExplanation
Tachycardia refers to a condition characterized by an abnormally fast heart rate. This means that the heart beats at a rapid pace, which is the correct answer given. Labored breathing, frequent urination, and rapid eye movement are not associated with tachycardia.Rate this question:
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Current Version
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Sep 15, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Mar 26, 2021Quiz Created by
Alfredhook3
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