NCLEX Sata (Select All That Apply) Practice Questions
Welcome to the ultimate challenge for aspiring nurses – the "NCLEX SATA (Select All That Apply) Practice Questions" quiz! This quiz is specifically designed to prepare you for the Select All That Apply format, a unique feature of the NCLEX exam. As you embark on this educational journey, you'll encounter a series of thought-provoking questions mirroring the complexity and diversity of scenarios you'll face in the real NCLEX exam. All questions are shown, but the results will only be given after you’ve finished the quiz. You should ideally take 1 minute per question, a total of 15 minutes Read morein this quiz.
The Select All That Apply questions demand a nuanced understanding of nursing concepts, requiring you to identify multiple correct options among a set of choices. This quiz covers a range of nursing topics, from patient care and pharmacology to ethics and critical thinking. Each question is crafted to simulate the challenges of the NCLEX exam, providing you with a valuable opportunity to refine your analytical and decision-making skills.
Whether you're a nursing student preparing for the NCLEX or a seasoned professional seeking a refresher, this quiz is your key to mastering the art of Select All That Apply questions. Get ready to navigate through scenarios, make informed choices, and elevate your confidence for the actual exam. Gear up for a comprehensive review that goes beyond traditional quizzes, offering a dynamic experience that mirrors the rigors of the NCLEX SATA format. Your journey towards nursing excellence
NCLEX Questions and Answers
- 1.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia vera. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
- A.
Weight loss.
- B.
Increased clotting time.
- C.
Hypertension.
- D.
Headaches.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Increased clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.Explanation
The symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of polycythemia vera include:
Increased clotting time: Polycythemia vera can lead to an increased risk of blood clot formation due to elevated levels of red blood cells.
Hypertension: Elevated red blood cell counts can increase blood viscosity, leading to hypertension (high blood pressure).
Headaches: Increased blood viscosity and blood volume can lead to headaches due to increased pressure within blood vessels.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be appropriate for a client with heart failure? Select all that apply.
- A.
Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output.
- B.
Activity intolerance related to increased cardiac output.
- C.
Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes.
- D.
Impaired gas exchange related to decreased sympathetic nervous system activity.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to decreased peripheral blood flow secondary to decreased cardiac output.
C. Decreased cardiac output related to structural and functional changes.Explanation
HF is a result of structural and functional abnormalities of the heart tissue muscle. The heart muscle becomes weak and does not adequately pump the blood out of the chambers. As a result, blood pools in the left ventricle and backs up into the left atrium, and eventually into the lungs. Therefore, greater amounts of blood remain in the ventricle after contraction thereby decreasing cardiac output. In addition, this pooling leads to thrombus formation and ineffective tissue perfusion because of the decrease in blood flow to the other organs and tissues of the body. Typically, these clients have an ejection fraction of less than 50% and poorly tolerate activity. Activity intolerance is related to a decrease, not increase, in cardiac output. Gas exchange is impaired. However, the decrease in cardiac output triggers compensatory mechanisms, such as an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity.Rate this question:
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- 3.
A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select all that apply.
- A.
Partial thromboplastin time.
- B.
Prothrombin time.
- C.
Platelet count.
- D.
Hemoglobin
- E.
Complete Blood Count
- F.
White Blood Cell Count
Correct Answer(s)
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.Explanation
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
The nurse is admitting a client with hypoglycemia. Identify the signs and symptoms the nurse should expect. Select all that apply.
- A.
Thirst
- B.
Palpitations
- C.
Diaphoresis
- D.
Slurred speech
- E.
Hyperventilation
Correct Answer(s)
B. Palpitations
C. Diaphoresis
D. Slurred speechExplanation
Palpitations, an adrenergic symptom, occur as the glucose levels fall; the sympathetic nervous system is activated and epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted causing this response. Diaphoresis is a sympathetic nervous system response that occurs as epinephrine and norepinephrine are released. Slurred speech is a neuroglycopenic symptom; as the brain receives insufficient glucose, the activity of the CNS becomes depressed.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which adaptations should the nurse caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis expect the client to exhibit? Select all that apply:
- A.
Sweating
- B.
Low PCO2
- C.
Retinopathy
- D.
Acetone breath
- E.
Elevated serum bicarbonate
Correct Answer(s)
B. Low PCO2
D. Acetone breathExplanation
Metabolic acidosis initiates respiratory compensation in the form of Kussmaul respirations to counteract the effects of ketone buildup, resulting in a lowered PCO2. A fruity odor to the breath (acetone breath) occurs when the ketone level is elevated in ketoacidosis.Rate this question:
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- 6.
When planning care for a client with ulcerative colitis who is experiencing symptoms, which client care activities can the nurse appropriately delegate to a unlicensed assistant? Select all that apply.
- A.
Assessing the client’s bowel sounds
- B.
Providing skin care following bowel movements
- C.
Evaluating the client’s response to antidiarrheal medications
- D.
Maintaining intake and output records
- E.
Obtaining the client’s weight.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Providing skin care following bowel movements
D. Maintaining intake and output records
E. Obtaining the client’s weight.Explanation
The nurse can delegate the following basic care activities to the unlicensed assistant: providing skin care following bowel movements, maintaining intake and output records, and obtaining the client’s weight. Assessing the client’s bowel sounds and evaluating the client’s response to medication are registered nurse activities that cannot be delegated.Rate this question:
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- 7.
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply.
- A.
The inhaler is held upright.
- B.
Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication
- C.
Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
- D.
Mouth is rinsed with water following administration
- E.
Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The inhaler is held upright.
D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administrationExplanation
The inhaler is held upright to ensure that the medication is properly dispersed and reaches the lungs effectively. Rinsing the mouth with water following administration helps to prevent any potential side effects such as oral thrush or hoarseness caused by the corticosteroid drug.Rate this question:
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- 8.
The nurse is teaching a client with polycythemia vera about potential complications from this disease. Which manifestations would the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan? Select all that apply.
- A.
Hearing loss
- B.
Visual disturbance
- C.
Headache
- D.
Orthopnea
- E.
Gout
- F.
Weight loss
Correct Answer(s)
B. Visual disturbance
C. Headache
D. Orthopnea
E. GoutExplanation
Polycythemia vera, a condition in which too many RBCs are produced in the blood serum, can lead to an increase in the hematocrit and hypervolemia, hyperviscosity, and hypertension. Subsequently, the client can experience dizziness, tinnitus, visual disturbances, headaches, or a feeling of fullness in the head. The client may also experience cardiovascular symptoms such as heart failure (shortness of breath and orthopnea) and increased clotting time or symptoms of an increased uric acid level such as painful swollen joints (usually the big toe). Hearing loss and weight loss are not manifestations associated with polycythemia vera.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which of the following would be priority assessment data to gather from a client who has been diagnosed with pneumonia? Select all that apply.
- A.
Auscultation of breath sounds
- B.
Auscultation of bowel sounds
- C.
Presence of chest pain.
- D.
Presence of peripheral edema
- E.
Color of nail beds
Correct Answer(s)
A. Auscultation of breath sounds
C. Presence of chest pain.
E. Color of nail bedsExplanation
A respiratory assessment, which includes auscultation of breath sounds and assessing the color of the nail beds, is a priority for clients with pneumonia. Assessing for the presence of chest pain is also an important respiratory assessment as chest pain can interfere with the client’s ability to breathe deeply. Auscultating bowel sounds and assessing for peripheral edema may be appropriate assessments, but these are not priority assessments for the patient with pneumonia.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The nurse is teaching a client who has been diagnosed with TB how to avoid spreading the disease to family members. Which statement(s) by the client indicate(s) that he has understood the nurses instructions? Select all that apply.
- A.
“I will need to dispose of my old clothing when I return home.”
- B.
“I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing.”
- C.
“It is important that I isolate myself from family when possible.”
- D.
“I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly.”
- E.
“I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat.”
Correct Answer(s)
B. “I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing.”
D. “I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly.”
E. “I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat.”Explanation
The client's statements that indicate understanding of the nurse's instructions are: "I should always cover my mouth and nose when sneezing." This demonstrates awareness of the importance of respiratory hygiene in preventing the spread of TB. "I should use paper tissues to cough in and dispose of them properly." This shows understanding of the need to contain respiratory secretions and dispose of them safely. "I can use regular plate and utensils whenever I eat." This indicates awareness that TB is not transmitted through food or utensils, and there is no need for special precautions in this regard.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which factors contribute to a patient's risk for pressure ulcers? (Select All That Apply)
- A.
Poor nutrition
- B.
Moisture and humidity
- C.
Age over 65
- D.
High body mass index (BMI)
Correct Answer(s)
A. Poor nutrition
B. Moisture and humidity
C. Age over 65Explanation
Pressure ulcer risk factors include poor nutrition, moisture, and advanced age. While high BMI might be a protective factor, it doesn't contribute to the risk.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What are potential signs of digoxin toxicity? (Select All That Apply)
- A.
Nausea and vomiting
- B.
Bradycardia
- C.
Visual disturbances
- D.
Hyperactivity
Correct Answer(s)
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Bradycardia
C. Visual disturbancesExplanation
Digoxin toxicity symptoms include gastrointestinal disturbances, bradycardia, and visual disturbances. Hyperactivity is not associated with digoxin toxicity.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which interventions promote safety for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy? (Select All That Apply)
- A.
Encourage a diet rich in green leafy vegetables
- B.
Use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care
- C.
Administer subcutaneous injections
- D.
Implement fall precautions
Correct Answer(s)
B. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care
C. Administer subcutaneous injections
D. Implement fall precautionsExplanation
To enhance safety, anticoagulant clients should avoid trauma, including using a soft toothbrush, receiving subcutaneous rather than intramuscular injections, and implementing fall precautions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which statements accurately describe the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors? (Select All That Apply)
- A.
Increase blood pressure
- B.
Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
- C.
Promote sodium and water retention
- D.
Dilate blood vessels
Correct Answer(s)
B. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
D. Dilate blood vesselsExplanation
ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking angiotensin II formation and promoting vasodilation. They don't increase blood pressure or encourage sodium and water retention.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What are common manifestations of hypoglycemia in a diabetic client? (Select All That Apply)
- A.
Bradycardia
- B.
Polyuria
- C.
Diaphoresis
- D.
Shakiness
Correct Answer(s)
C. Diaphoresis
D. ShakinessExplanation
Common signs of hypoglycemia include diaphoresis and shakiness. Bradycardia and polyuria are not typical manifestations and may suggest other issues.Rate this question:
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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
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Current Version
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Mar 29, 2024Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Jul 26, 2017Quiz Created by
Santepro
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