Chapter 17 Quiz Number 6 The Blood

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| By Patti Carothers
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Patti Carothers
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 378
Questions: 30 | Attempts: 378

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Multiple ChoiceWhat is the average normal pH of blood?

    • A.

      8.4

    • B.

      7.8

    • C.

      7.4

    • D.

      4.7

    Correct Answer
    C. 7.4
    Explanation
    The average normal pH of blood is 7.4. This is because blood pH needs to be maintained within a narrow range for optimal functioning of the body. A pH of 7.4 is slightly alkaline, which helps in maintaining the proper balance of acids and bases in the blood. Any significant deviation from this pH can lead to health issues and disrupt various bodily processes.

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  • 2. 

    Together Leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately __ percent of total blood

    • A.

      1

    • B.

      75

    • C.

      45

    • D.

      10

    Correct Answer
    A. 1
    Explanation
    Leukocytes and platelets together make up a very small percentage of the total blood volume. Therefore, it is reasonable to assume that the correct answer would be the smallest option provided, which is 1 percent.

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  • 3. 

    Which blood type is the uiversal donor?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      B

    • C.

      AB

    • D.

      0

    Correct Answer
    D. 0
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "0". Blood type 0 is considered the universal donor because it does not have A or B antigens on the surface of red blood cells. This means that it can be transfused to individuals with any blood type without causing an immune reaction. However, individuals with blood type 0 can only receive blood from other type 0 donors.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

    • A.

      Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

    • B.

      Decreased tissue demand for oxygen

    • C.

      An increased number of RBCs

    • D.

      Moving to a lower altitude

    Correct Answer
    A. Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells
    Explanation
    Hypoxia of EPO-producing cells can trigger erythropoiesis. Erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone produced by the kidneys in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. When EPO-producing cells detect hypoxia (low oxygen levels), they release EPO, which stimulates the bone marrow to produce more RBCs. This helps increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and restore oxygen balance in the body.

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  • 5. 

    An individual who is blood type AB negative...

    • A.

      Can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

    • B.

      Can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts

    • C.

      Can receive types A, B, and AB but not type O

    • D.

      Can donate to types, A, B, and AB, but not to type O

    Correct Answer
    A. Can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen
    Explanation
    An individual who is blood type AB negative can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except for the type that has the Rh antigen. This is because individuals with AB blood type have both A and B antigens on their red blood cells, making them universal recipients for both A and B blood types. However, the Rh antigen is not present on their red blood cells, so they cannot receive blood from individuals who have the Rh antigen.

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  • 6. 

    Which of these is NOT a normal plasma protein?

    • A.

      Fibinogen

    • B.

      Gammaglobulin

    • C.

      Thromboplastin

    • D.

      Albumin

    Correct Answer
    C. Thromboplastin
    Explanation
    Thromboplastin is not a normal plasma protein. It is an enzyme involved in the clotting of blood. Fibrinogen, gammaglobulin, and albumin are all examples of normal plasma proteins. Fibrinogen is essential for blood clot formation, gammaglobulin is a type of antibody, and albumin helps maintain osmotic pressure and transport various substances in the blood.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis?

    • A.

      Vascular spasm

    • B.

      Fibrinolysis

    • C.

      Platelet plug formation

    • D.

      Coagulation

    Correct Answer
    B. Fibrinolysis
    Explanation
    Fibrinolysis is the process of breaking down fibrin, which is a protein involved in blood clot formation. It is the opposite of coagulation, which is the process of blood clotting. Therefore, fibrinolysis is not a phase of hemostasis, as it works against the formation of blood clots. The other options, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation, are all phases of hemostasis, as they are involved in stopping bleeding and forming blood clots to repair damaged blood vessels.

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  • 8. 

    Which sequence is correct for the following events?1. fibrinogen converts to fibrin2. fibrinogen   combines with thrombin3. formation of  thrombin 4. prothrombin activator combines  pp prothrombin and plasma Ca++  

    • A.

      3,4,1,2

    • B.

      1,2,3,4

    • C.

      4,3,1,2

    • D.

      3,2,1,4

    Correct Answer
    C. 4,3,1,2
    Explanation
    The correct sequence for the given events is 4, 3, 1, 2. First, prothrombin activator combines with prothrombin and plasma Ca++ (event 4). This leads to the formation of thrombin (event 3). Then, fibrinogen converts to fibrin (event 1) and finally, fibrinogen combines with thrombin (event 2).

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  • 9. 

    Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive.  What does this mean?

    • A.

      Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells

    • B.

      His blood lacks Rh factor

    • C.

      He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive

    • D.

      There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma of Fred's blood

    Correct Answer
    D. There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma of Fred's blood
    Explanation
    The correct answer means that Fred's blood does not have antibodies to the A, B, or Rh antigens in the plasma. This is significant because it indicates that Fred can receive blood from donors with different blood types without the risk of an immune reaction.

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  • 10. 

    When can erythroblastosis fetalis NOT posibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

    • A.

      If the child is type O positive

    • B.

      If the child is Rh+

    • C.

      If the father is Rh+

    • D.

      If the father is Rh-

    Correct Answer
    D. If the father is Rh-
    Explanation
    Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when an Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive blood during pregnancy, leading to the production of antibodies that can attack the red blood cells of an Rh-positive fetus. If the father is Rh-negative, there is no possibility of the fetus being Rh-positive, and therefore erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur.

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  • 11. 

    What organ of the body regulates erythrocyte production?

    • A.

      Brain

    • B.

      Kidney

    • C.

      Liver

    • D.

      Pancreas

    • E.

      Bone

    Correct Answer
    B. Kidney
    Explanation
    The kidney is responsible for regulating erythrocyte (red blood cell) production. It does this by releasing a hormone called erythropoietin (EPO) in response to low oxygen levels in the blood. EPO stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, which helps to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. Therefore, the kidney plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of red blood cells in the body.

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  • 12. 

    The following formed element _________ can kill parasitic worms that enter the blood

    Correct Answer
    eosinophil
    eosinophils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are involved in the immune response against parasites. They release toxic substances that can kill parasitic worms that enter the bloodstream. These cells are particularly effective against helminths, which are a type of parasitic worm. Eosinophils are attracted to sites of infection or inflammation and play a crucial role in the body's defense against parasitic infections.

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  • 13. 

    The rarest leukocyte in the blood is the __

    Correct Answer
    basophil
    basophils
    Explanation
    Basophils are the rarest type of leukocytes, also known as white blood cells, found in the blood. They make up only a small percentage of the total leukocyte count. Basophils play a crucial role in the immune system by releasing histamine and other chemicals during allergic reactions and inflammation. Their low abundance in the blood is due to their tendency to migrate to tissues, where they can fulfill their immune functions. Therefore, the correct answer is basophil/basophils.

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  • 14. 

    When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces and connective tissue they are called __

    Correct Answer
    macrophages
    macrophage
    Explanation
    When monocytes migrate into the interstitial spaces and connective tissue, they undergo a process of differentiation and become macrophages. Macrophages are specialized immune cells that play a crucial role in engulfing and digesting pathogens, cellular debris, and foreign substances. They are also involved in presenting antigens to other immune cells and initiating immune responses. Therefore, the correct answer is macrophages.

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  • 15. 

    Hemoglobin is composed of ____ an oxygen binding molecule that combines in a 4 : 1 ratio

    Correct Answer
    heme
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells, responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. It is composed of heme, which is an oxygen-binding molecule. Heme combines with oxygen in a 4:1 ratio, allowing hemoglobin to efficiently transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

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  • 16. 

    The granulocyte that is best known as "Bacteria slayers"  Induce respiratory burst on bacteria to kill them are ___

    Correct Answer
    neutrophils
    neutrophil
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are granulocytes that are known as "Bacteria slayers" because they play a crucial role in the immune response against bacterial infections. They are the most abundant type of white blood cells and are highly efficient at killing bacteria. Neutrophils induce a process called respiratory burst when they encounter bacteria, which involves the production of reactive oxygen species that can kill the bacteria. Therefore, neutrophils are the best-known granulocytes that induce respiratory burst on bacteria to kill them.

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  • 17. 

    Anemia is a condition that may be the result of reduced red cell count, reduced hemoglobin content in the red cells, but the bottom line is it results in the blood being deficient in ___ carrying capacity.

    Correct Answer
    oxygen
    Explanation
    Anemia is a condition that leads to a deficiency in the blood's ability to carry oxygen. It can be caused by a reduced red cell count or a reduced hemoglobin content in the red cells. In both cases, the result is a decreased capacity of the blood to carry oxygen.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is/are found in blood plasma but NOT in serum?1. water2.  fibrinogen3. Albumin4. Globulin

    • A.

      1 only

    • B.

      2 only

    • C.

      3 only

    • D.

      4 only

    • E.

      3 and 4

    Correct Answer
    B. 2 only
    Explanation
    Fibrinogen is found in blood plasma but not in serum. Serum is the liquid portion of blood that remains after the blood has clotted and fibrinogen has been converted to fibrin. Fibrinogen is an important protein involved in blood clotting, and it is present in plasma but not in serum.

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  • 19. 

    White blood cells

    • A.

      Have a nucleus which is visible with proper staining

    • B.

      Are destroyed at infection sites

    • C.

      Originate in bone marrow, lymph nodes and the spleen

    • D.

      Are generally larger and less numerous than red blood cells

    • E.

      Are described by all of the above

    Correct Answer
    E. Are described by all of the above
    Explanation
    White blood cells are described by all of the above statements. They have a nucleus that can be seen with proper staining, they are destroyed at infection sites, and they originate in bone marrow, lymph nodes, and the spleen. Additionally, white blood cells are generally larger and less numerous than red blood cells.

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  • 20. 

    The shape of erythrocytes...

    • A.

      Facilitates its passage through the walls of the capillaries

    • B.

      Can change as a result of amoeboid movement

    • C.

      Provides a greater surface area for diffusion of gasses

    • D.

      Is due to the presence of a rigid membrane composed of lipids and proteins

    Correct Answer
    C. Provides a greater surface area for diffusion of gasses
    Explanation
    The shape of erythrocytes provides a greater surface area for diffusion of gases. The erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, have a biconcave shape which allows for increased surface area. This increased surface area is important for the efficient exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the capillaries. The biconcave shape also allows the erythrocytes to be flexible and easily deformable, enabling them to squeeze through narrow capillaries and reach all parts of the body. Therefore, the shape of erythrocytes plays a crucial role in facilitating the diffusion of gases and ensuring effective oxygenation and removal of waste gases in the body.

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  • 21. 

    Fetal hemoglobin differs from adult hemoglobin in that it ---

    • A.

      Is composed of hemoglobin S

    • B.

      May cause erythroblastosis fetalis

    • C.

      Can be saturated with oxygen at a lower oxygen tension

    • D.

      May be incompatible with the mother's hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    C. Can be saturated with oxygen at a lower oxygen tension
    Explanation
    Fetal hemoglobin differs from adult hemoglobin in that it can be saturated with oxygen at a lower oxygen tension. This means that fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen compared to adult hemoglobin. This is important for the transfer of oxygen from the mother to the fetus across the placenta. Fetal hemoglobin's ability to bind oxygen more tightly allows it to extract oxygen from the mother's blood even when the oxygen tension is lower in the placenta. This helps ensure that the fetus receives an adequate oxygen supply for its development.

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  • 22. 

    The substance that triggers clotting and is normally not found in circulating plasma is...

    • A.

      Prothrombin

    • B.

      Thromboplastin

    • C.

      Calcium ions

    • D.

      Fibrinogen

    Correct Answer
    B. Thromboplastin
    Explanation
    Thromboplastin is a substance that triggers the clotting process in the body. It is not normally found in circulating plasma, but is released when there is an injury to a blood vessel. Thromboplastin initiates a series of reactions that ultimately lead to the formation of a blood clot. Prothrombin, calcium ions, and fibrinogen are all components involved in the clotting process, but thromboplastin is the substance that is specifically not found in circulating plasma.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following result in increased erythropoiesis except...

    • A.

      A bacterial infection

    • B.

      Chronic blood loss; hemorrhage

    • C.

      Climbing a mountain

    • D.

      Muscular exercise

    Correct Answer
    A. A bacterial infection
    Explanation
    Bacterial infection does not result in increased erythropoiesis because erythropoiesis is the process of producing red blood cells, and bacterial infections do not directly stimulate the production of red blood cells. On the other hand, chronic blood loss, hemorrhage, climbing a mountain, and muscular exercise can all lead to increased erythropoiesis. Chronic blood loss and hemorrhage can cause a decrease in red blood cell count, triggering the body to produce more red blood cells. Climbing a mountain and muscular exercise can lead to increased oxygen demand, which stimulates the production of red blood cells to carry more oxygen to the tissues.

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  • 24. 

    A transfusion reaction occurs as a result of interactions between...

    • A.

      The antigens of both the donor and the recipient

    • B.

      The antibodies of both the donor and the recipient

    • C.

      The recipient's antigens and the donor's antibodies

    • D.

      The recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens

    Correct Answer
    D. The recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens
    Explanation
    A transfusion reaction occurs when the recipient's antibodies recognize and react with the donor's antigens. The recipient's immune system produces antibodies against specific antigens that it does not possess. If these antibodies come into contact with matching antigens from the donor's blood, they can cause an immune response, leading to a transfusion reaction. This reaction can result in symptoms such as fever, chills, shortness of breath, and in severe cases, organ damage or even death. Therefore, the correct answer is "the recipient's antibodies and the donor's antigens."

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  • 25. 

    Which is NOT a T lymphocytes function in the immune response?

    • A.

      Acting directly against virus-infected cells and tumor cells

    • B.

      Become plasma cells and produce antibodies

    • C.

      Recognize self (MHC) molecules

    • D.

      Recognize non-self molecules

    Correct Answer
    B. Become plasma cells and produce antibodies
    Explanation
    T lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the immune response. They have various functions, including acting directly against virus-infected cells and tumor cells, recognizing self (MHC) molecules, and recognizing non-self molecules. However, T lymphocytes do not become plasma cells and produce antibodies. This function is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes, another type of white blood cell. B lymphocytes are responsible for the production and secretion of antibodies, which help in neutralizing pathogens and promoting their elimination from the body.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following are true of RBCs EXCEPT...

    • A.

      Lifespan of approximately 120 days

    • B.

      Contain nuclei

    • C.

      Biconcave disc shape

    • D.

      Contain hemoglobin

    Correct Answer
    B. Contain nuclei
    Explanation
    RBCs, or red blood cells, are unique in that they do not contain nuclei. This is because during their maturation process, they expel their nuclei to make more room for hemoglobin, the protein responsible for carrying oxygen. The absence of nuclei allows RBCs to be more flexible and efficient in their oxygen-carrying capacity. Therefore, all the other statements in the question are true about RBCs, except for the fact that they do not contain nuclei.

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  • 27. 

    Red blood cells function to...  

    • A.

      Protection against blood loss and infection

    • B.

      Delivery of oxygen, nutrients, removal of metabolic wastes, distribution of hormones, minerals, ions...

    • C.

      help regulate body temperature, pH and volume of fluid compartments

    • D.

      All of these

    Correct Answer
    D. All of these
    Explanation
    Red blood cells function to perform all of the mentioned tasks. They protect against blood loss and infection, deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues, remove metabolic wastes, distribute hormones, minerals, and ions, and help regulate body temperature, pH, and volume of fluid compartments.

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  • 28. 

    Basophils release __ to increase the inflammatory response

    Correct Answer
    histamine
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the inflammatory response. When basophils are activated, they release histamine, a chemical mediator that causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable. This increased blood flow and permeability allows for the recruitment of other immune cells to the site of inflammation, enhancing the inflammatory response. Histamine also contributes to the symptoms of inflammation, such as redness, swelling, and itching. Therefore, the release of histamine by basophils helps to amplify and sustain the inflammatory response.

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  • 29. 

    Monocytes and _____ are phagocytic white blood cells

    Correct Answer
    neutrophils
    neutrophil
    Explanation
    Monocytes and neutrophils are both types of phagocytic white blood cells. Phagocytic cells are responsible for engulfing and destroying foreign substances, such as bacteria and other pathogens, in the body. Monocytes and neutrophils play a crucial role in the immune response by eliminating harmful invaders and promoting tissue repair.

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  • 30. 

    When a red blood cell has come to the end of it's life span they become rigid, inflexible and fragile.  They are removed from circulation by the ___ (commonly referred to as the "red blood cell graveyard") and macrophages also engulf them. 

    Correct Answer
    spleen
    Explanation
    When red blood cells reach the end of their lifespan, they become rigid, inflexible, and fragile. The spleen, commonly referred to as the "red blood cell graveyard," is responsible for removing these old red blood cells from circulation. Macrophages, which are immune cells, also play a role in engulfing and breaking down these old red blood cells.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 07, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    Patti Carothers
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