CDC Vol. 1

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

5-level UREs, volume 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which assignment area is responsible to prepare and process AOs?
    • A. 

      Aircrew scheduling

    • B. 

      Standardization and evaluation

    • C. 

      HARM Office

    • D. 

      SARM office

  • 2. 
    Which assignment area conducts a mission review and audits mission accomplishment paperwork?
    • A. 

      SARM Office

    • B. 

      HARM Office

    • C. 

      Stan/Eval

    • D. 

      Aircrew scheduling

  • 3. 
    A 5-skill level journeyman performs which of the following duties?
    • A. 

      Inspects completed work and evaluates individual and group performances

    • B. 

      Determines the media for most effective presentation of data and prepares narrative summaries

    • C. 

      Processes aviation management reports and source documents to ensure accuracy of information

    • D. 

      Assists work-center supervisory personnel in interpreting and using aviation resource management reports and information

  • 4. 
    The duties of a 7-level craftsman include
    • A. 

      Requisitioning and accounting for equipment, space, supplies, and other requires resources to support aviation resource management functions

    • B. 

      Inspecting production and maintenance of flight/ jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports

    • C. 

      Performing in-and outprocessing functions for members required to be on aeronautical orders

    • D. 

      Interviewing aircrew members and parachutists to obtain aviation/jump-related data

  • 5. 
    The duties of a 9-skill-level superintendent include
    • A. 

      Monitoring flight physicals, physiological training, and aircrew/parachutist qualification requirements

    • B. 

      Extracting, compiling, and collating aircrew/parachutist training and aircrew/parachutist resource management information

    • C. 

      Planning, organizing, scheduling, directing and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel

    • D. 

      Preparing reports and coordinating aircraft schedules and training activities with maintenance, communications, armament, intelligence, personnel, and medical units

  • 6. 
    The CFETP was developed as a guide to
    • A. 

      Manage the availability of unit education and training classes

    • B. 

      Plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program

    • C. 

      Determine which off-duty education program meets the member's career goals

    • D. 

      Assists with determining approproate assignment area based on the member's skill level

  • 7. 
    Individuals retraining into the 1C0X2 career field
    • A. 

      Are exempt from the 3-skill-level resident training course

    • B. 

      Must complete all training requirements within 24 months

    • C. 

      Must submit a waiver of training requirements within 21 months of assignment for approval by the MAJCOM functional manager

    • D. 

      Must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5-and 7- skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks

  • 8. 
    The STS  is used in your daily supervisory duties of
    • A. 

      Planning and documenting your section's training

    • B. 

      Determining manning requirements for your assignment area

    • C. 

      Developing unit education requirements and career progression

    • D. 

      Accomplishing the annual review of training requirements for retrainees

  • 9. 
    Which column of the STS includes the proficiency codes that indicate required training?
    • A. 

      Column 1

    • B. 

      Column 2

    • C. 

      Column 3

    • D. 

      Column 4

  • 10. 
    What does the (-) indicate when it appears in column 4 of the STS?
    • A. 

      Training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training

    • B. 

      The task is not required for upgrade to the next skill level

    • C. 

      The task must be taught during wartime contingencies

    • D. 

      Training is not required for that particular task

  • 11. 
    Which type of proficiency code is used to indicate a level of actual hands-on performance?
    • A. 

      Task knowledge levels

    • B. 

      Task performance levels

    • C. 

      Subject knowledge levels

    • D. 

      Subject performance levels

  • 12. 
    Uppercase letters A through D indicate
    • A. 

      Task knowledge levels

    • B. 

      Task performance levels

    • C. 

      Subject knowledge levels

    • D. 

      Subject performance levels

  • 13. 
    The purpose of the U&TW is to
    • A. 

      Determine utilization rates for unit aircraft

    • B. 

      Determine training requirements for aircrew members

    • C. 

      Develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty

    • D. 

      Provide a communication link between the MAJCOM functional managers and the technical school instructors

  • 14. 
    The purpose of the GAS is to
    • A. 

      Gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training

    • B. 

      Determine the qulity of recent basic military training graduates

    • C. 

      Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level

    • D. 

      Provide information to supervisors regarding the quality of training provided by the CDC

  • 15. 
    When a question on the GAS is rated " below satisfactory", the
    • A. 

      Receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor

    • B. 

      Trainee will complete the comments section on the GAS form and forward the form to his or her supervisor

    • C. 

      Supervisor will place the trainee in remedial training and annotate the action on the AF form 623a, On-the-job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    • D. 

      Supervisor will counsel the trainee and document the counseling on the AETC for 173, student record of academic/nonacademic counseling and comments

  • 16. 
    For those individuals who are unable to complete required upgrade training before the maximum allowable time, the supervisor
    • A. 

      Initiates a case file and submits a waiver request

    • B. 

      Decertiifies the trainee on all tasks and begins remedial training

    • C. 

      Requests that the trainee be cross-trained into another career field

    • D. 

      Establishes a new maximum training date and annotates the AF Form 623a, on-the-job training record continuation sheet

  • 17. 
    A request for a training waiver is approved by
    • A. 

      HQ USAF/XOOTF

    • B. 

      The squadron commander

    • C. 

      The base training manager

    • D. 

      The MAJCOM functional manager

  • 18. 
    The objective of the OPSEC program is
    • A. 

      Security of Air Force assets

    • B. 

      Mission effectiveness

    • C. 

      Identification of critical indicators

    • D. 

      To train personnel in appropriate security measures

  • 19. 
    The three broad categories of exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
    • A. 

      Telephone, computer networks, and the physical environment

    • B. 

      Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment

    • C. 

      Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence

    • D. 

      The physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence

  • 20. 
    A major vulnerability of radio operations is
    • A. 

      Unofficial conversations

    • B. 

      Electromagnetic radiation

    • C. 

      Excessive tuning and testing

    • D. 

      High-frequency transmissions

  • 21. 
    Unit OPSEC training should be
    • A. 

      Left to the discretion of the supervisor

    • B. 

      Conducted by individuals with an approved SEI

    • C. 

      Combined with COMSEC procedures to provide adequate training

    • D. 

      Accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty

  • 22. 
    Once a person has properly called in a security incident, what must be accomplished until the security information is under the control of the proper custodian?
    • A. 

      Nothing, unless it is hazardous material

    • B. 

      The security manager secures the material

    • C. 

      Guard the material until the custodian has control of the material

    • D. 

      The unit commander appoints an individual to take charge of the material

  • 23. 
    What type of records does the Air Force Privacy Act Program affect?
    • A. 

      Any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information

    • B. 

      Only records that contain medical, finacial, or criminal-type information on an individual

    • C. 

      Any record on an individual who had denied the Air Force the right to disclose its contents

    • D. 

      Only an individual's paym personnel, or medical records

  • 24. 
    Before any item, collection, or grouping of information about individuals can be maintained from an Air Force record system, the system must be
    • A. 

      Published in the Federal Register

    • B. 

      Inspected by the database administrator

    • C. 

      Approved by the Air Force career field manager

    • D. 

      Safeguarded against unathorized disclosure

  • 25. 
    The Privacy Act Statement is used to
    • A. 

      Authorize distribution of a member's personal information

    • B. 

      Inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information

    • C. 

      Determine penalties for unauthorized disclosure of a member's personal information

    • D. 

      Advice indiciduals of their right to access any information located in Air Force data records

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