CDC Vol. 1

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

5-level UREs, volume 1


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which assignment area is responsible to prepare and process AOs?

    • A.

      Aircrew scheduling

    • B.

      Standardization and evaluation

    • C.

      HARM Office

    • D.

      SARM office

    Correct Answer
    C. HARM Office
    Explanation
    The HARM (Human Resources Management) Office is responsible for preparing and processing AOs (Assignment Orders). This office handles the administrative tasks related to assigning and scheduling aircrew members for their duties and missions. They ensure that the necessary paperwork and documentation are completed accurately and efficiently. The HARM Office plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the assignments of aircrew personnel.

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  • 2. 

    Which assignment area conducts a mission review and audits mission accomplishment paperwork?

    • A.

      SARM Office

    • B.

      HARM Office

    • C.

      Stan/Eval

    • D.

      Aircrew scheduling

    Correct Answer
    A. SARM Office
    Explanation
    The SARM Office conducts a mission review and audits mission accomplishment paperwork. This office is responsible for ensuring that all missions are carried out successfully and that all necessary paperwork is completed accurately. They review the mission details and documentation to ensure that all objectives were met and all necessary procedures were followed. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the organization's operations.

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  • 3. 

    A 5-skill level journeyman performs which of the following duties?

    • A.

      Inspects completed work and evaluates individual and group performances

    • B.

      Determines the media for most effective presentation of data and prepares narrative summaries

    • C.

      Processes aviation management reports and source documents to ensure accuracy of information

    • D.

      Assists work-center supervisory personnel in interpreting and using aviation resource management reports and information

    Correct Answer
    C. Processes aviation management reports and source documents to ensure accuracy of information
    Explanation
    A 5-skill level journeyman performs the duty of processing aviation management reports and source documents to ensure the accuracy of information. This means that they are responsible for reviewing and verifying the information contained in these reports and documents, ensuring that they are complete and free from errors. This duty requires attention to detail and the ability to analyze and interpret data accurately.

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  • 4. 

    The duties of a 7-level craftsman include

    • A.

      Requisitioning and accounting for equipment, space, supplies, and other requires resources to support aviation resource management functions

    • B.

      Inspecting production and maintenance of flight/ jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports

    • C.

      Performing in-and outprocessing functions for members required to be on aeronautical orders

    • D.

      Interviewing aircrew members and parachutists to obtain aviation/jump-related data

    Correct Answer
    B. Inspecting production and maintenance of flight/ jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports
    Explanation
    The duties of a 7-level craftsman include inspecting production and maintenance of flight/jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports. This means that the craftsman is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of these records and reports, which are essential for maintaining the efficiency and safety of aviation operations. By inspecting these documents, the craftsman can identify any errors or discrepancies and take appropriate actions to correct them, ensuring that all necessary information is properly documented and recorded.

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  • 5. 

    The duties of a 9-skill-level superintendent include

    • A.

      Monitoring flight physicals, physiological training, and aircrew/parachutist qualification requirements

    • B.

      Extracting, compiling, and collating aircrew/parachutist training and aircrew/parachutist resource management information

    • C.

      Planning, organizing, scheduling, directing and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel

    • D.

      Preparing reports and coordinating aircraft schedules and training activities with maintenance, communications, armament, intelligence, personnel, and medical units

    Correct Answer
    C. Planning, organizing, scheduling, directing and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel
    Explanation
    The duties of a 9-skill-level superintendent include overseeing and managing the workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel. This involves planning, organizing, scheduling, directing, and evaluating their tasks and responsibilities. The superintendent is responsible for ensuring that the aviation resource management personnel are efficiently and effectively carrying out their duties. This includes coordinating with other units such as maintenance, communications, armament, intelligence, personnel, and medical units to ensure smooth operations and successful completion of tasks.

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  • 6. 

    The CFETP was developed as a guide to

    • A.

      Manage the availability of unit education and training classes

    • B.

      Plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program

    • C.

      Determine which off-duty education program meets the member's career goals

    • D.

      Assists with determining approproate assignment area based on the member's skill level

    Correct Answer
    B. Plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program." The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) serves as a guide to ensure that the training and education programs within a specific career field are well-planned, developed, managed, and conducted effectively. It helps to outline the necessary training requirements, identify the skills and knowledge needed for career progression, and ensure that the training programs align with the career goals and objectives of the members in that field.

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  • 7. 

    Individuals retraining into the 1C0X2 career field

    • A.

      Are exempt from the 3-skill-level resident training course

    • B.

      Must complete all training requirements within 24 months

    • C.

      Must submit a waiver of training requirements within 21 months of assignment for approval by the MAJCOM functional manager

    • D.

      Must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5-and 7- skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks

    Correct Answer
    D. Must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5-and 7- skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks
    Explanation
    Individuals retraining into the 1C0X2 career field must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5- and 7-skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks. This means that they are not exempt from the 3-skill-level resident training course and must complete it. Additionally, they need to complete the CDCs for both the 5- and 7-skill levels, and demonstrate competency in all the core tasks at the 5- and 7-levels. These requirements ensure that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively in the 1C0X2 career field.

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  • 8. 

    The STS  is used in your daily supervisory duties of

    • A.

      Planning and documenting your section's training

    • B.

      Determining manning requirements for your assignment area

    • C.

      Developing unit education requirements and career progression

    • D.

      Accomplishing the annual review of training requirements for retrainees

    Correct Answer
    A. Planning and documenting your section's training
    Explanation
    The correct answer is planning and documenting your section's training. The STS (Supervisor Training System) is a tool that is used in daily supervisory duties to plan and document the training for your section. It helps in determining the training needs of the personnel in your section and allows you to create a training plan to meet those needs. It also helps in tracking the progress and completion of the training activities.

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  • 9. 

    Which column of the STS includes the proficiency codes that indicate required training?

    • A.

      Column 1

    • B.

      Column 2

    • C.

      Column 3

    • D.

      Column 4

    Correct Answer
    D. Column 4
    Explanation
    Column 4 includes the proficiency codes that indicate required training in the STS. This means that the information regarding the level of proficiency required for different training courses can be found in this column.

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  • 10. 

    What does the (-) indicate when it appears in column 4 of the STS?

    • A.

      Training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training

    • B.

      The task is not required for upgrade to the next skill level

    • C.

      The task must be taught during wartime contingencies

    • D.

      Training is not required for that particular task

    Correct Answer
    A. Training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training
    Explanation
    The (-) in column 4 of the STS indicates that training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training. This means that the task does not require formal training and can be learned and performed within the unit through hands-on experience and guidance from more experienced personnel.

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  • 11. 

    Which type of proficiency code is used to indicate a level of actual hands-on performance?

    • A.

      Task knowledge levels

    • B.

      Task performance levels

    • C.

      Subject knowledge levels

    • D.

      Subject performance levels

    Correct Answer
    B. Task performance levels
    Explanation
    Task performance levels are used to indicate a level of actual hands-on performance. This code is specifically related to the proficiency in performing tasks and reflects the individual's ability to carry out specific actions or operations. It focuses on the practical aspect of the subject matter rather than theoretical knowledge. Therefore, task performance levels are the most appropriate choice in this context.

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  • 12. 

    Uppercase letters A through D indicate

    • A.

      Task knowledge levels

    • B.

      Task performance levels

    • C.

      Subject knowledge levels

    • D.

      Subject performance levels

    Correct Answer
    C. Subject knowledge levels
    Explanation
    The uppercase letters A through D indicate subject knowledge levels. These levels represent the depth of understanding and familiarity that an individual has in a particular subject. The letters A through D are commonly used to categorize different levels of knowledge, with A indicating a high level of knowledge and D indicating a lower level of knowledge. This classification system helps to assess and measure the proficiency and expertise of individuals in a specific subject area.

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  • 13. 

    The purpose of the U&TW is to

    • A.

      Determine utilization rates for unit aircraft

    • B.

      Determine training requirements for aircrew members

    • C.

      Develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty

    • D.

      Provide a communication link between the MAJCOM functional managers and the technical school instructors

    Correct Answer
    C. Develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty
    Explanation
    The purpose of the U&TW is to develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty. This means that the U&TW is responsible for creating and evaluating the training programs that are specific to a particular area of expertise within the Air Force. They ensure that the training programs are effective and up-to-date, and make any necessary changes or improvements. This helps to ensure that Air Force personnel receive the necessary training to excel in their specialty and perform their duties effectively.

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  • 14. 

    The purpose of the GAS is to

    • A.

      Gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training

    • B.

      Determine the qulity of recent basic military training graduates

    • C.

      Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level

    • D.

      Provide information to supervisors regarding the quality of training provided by the CDC

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training
    Explanation
    The purpose of the GAS is to gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training. This suggests that the GAS is a tool or mechanism used to collect information or opinions about the performance or effectiveness of Air Force graduates who have completed their training. It implies that the GAS is designed to assess the quality or success of the training program and its impact on the graduates. The other options, such as determining the quality of recent basic military training graduates or ensuring proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level, do not specifically mention gathering feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training.

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  • 15. 

    When a question on the GAS is rated " below satisfactory", the

    • A.

      Receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor

    • B.

      Trainee will complete the comments section on the GAS form and forward the form to his or her supervisor

    • C.

      Supervisor will place the trainee in remedial training and annotate the action on the AF form 623a, On-the-job Training Record Continuation Sheet

    • D.

      Supervisor will counsel the trainee and document the counseling on the AETC for 173, student record of academic/nonacademic counseling and comments

    Correct Answer
    A. Receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor
    Explanation
    When a question on the GAS is rated "below satisfactory", the receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor. This is because a rating of "below satisfactory" indicates that the trainee did not meet the expected performance standards. By contacting the supervisor, the receiving agency can gather more information about the trainee's performance and determine the appropriate course of action, such as providing remedial training or counseling. This follow-up is necessary to address any deficiencies and ensure that the trainee is able to improve their performance.

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  • 16. 

    For those individuals who are unable to complete required upgrade training before the maximum allowable time, the supervisor

    • A.

      Initiates a case file and submits a waiver request

    • B.

      Decertiifies the trainee on all tasks and begins remedial training

    • C.

      Requests that the trainee be cross-trained into another career field

    • D.

      Establishes a new maximum training date and annotates the AF Form 623a, on-the-job training record continuation sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Initiates a case file and submits a waiver request
    Explanation
    When individuals are unable to complete the required upgrade training within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor initiates a case file and submits a waiver request. This suggests that the supervisor takes action to address the situation and seeks permission to extend the deadline for the trainee. By initiating a case file and submitting a waiver request, the supervisor acknowledges the circumstances preventing the completion of the training and seeks a solution to allow the trainee to continue their progress.

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  • 17. 

    A request for a training waiver is approved by

    • A.

      HQ USAF/XOOTF

    • B.

      The squadron commander

    • C.

      The base training manager

    • D.

      The MAJCOM functional manager

    Correct Answer
    A. HQ USAF/XOOTF
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HQ USAF/XOOTF. This is because HQ USAF/XOOTF is the authority responsible for approving a request for a training waiver. The squadron commander, base training manager, and MAJCOM functional manager may have some involvement in the process, but the ultimate approval comes from HQ USAF/XOOTF.

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  • 18. 

    The objective of the OPSEC program is

    • A.

      Security of Air Force assets

    • B.

      Mission effectiveness

    • C.

      Identification of critical indicators

    • D.

      To train personnel in appropriate security measures

    Correct Answer
    B. Mission effectiveness
    Explanation
    The objective of the OPSEC program is to ensure mission effectiveness. This means that the program aims to protect and enhance the ability of the Air Force to successfully accomplish its missions. By implementing appropriate security measures, the OPSEC program helps to safeguard Air Force assets and personnel, identify critical indicators that may pose a threat, and ultimately ensure that the mission is carried out efficiently and successfully.

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  • 19. 

    The three broad categories of exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are

    • A.

      Telephone, computer networks, and the physical environment

    • B.

      Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment

    • C.

      Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence

    • D.

      The physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment. This answer accurately identifies the three broad categories of exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities. Telephones and radio communications can be vulnerable to interception and eavesdropping, while the physical environment can be vulnerable to surveillance and unauthorized access. These vulnerabilities can be exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information or disrupt operations.

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  • 20. 

    A major vulnerability of radio operations is

    • A.

      Unofficial conversations

    • B.

      Electromagnetic radiation

    • C.

      Excessive tuning and testing

    • D.

      High-frequency transmissions

    Correct Answer
    B. Electromagnetic radiation
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic radiation refers to the transmission of energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. In the context of radio operations, this vulnerability arises because electromagnetic radiation can be intercepted by unauthorized parties, leading to potential breaches in security and privacy. This vulnerability can be exploited to eavesdrop on conversations or gather sensitive information, making it a major concern for radio operations.

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  • 21. 

    Unit OPSEC training should be

    • A.

      Left to the discretion of the supervisor

    • B.

      Conducted by individuals with an approved SEI

    • C.

      Combined with COMSEC procedures to provide adequate training

    • D.

      Accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty

    Correct Answer
    D. Accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty
    Explanation
    Unit OPSEC training should be accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty. This answer suggests that it is the responsibility of newly assigned personnel to complete the OPSEC training within a specific timeframe after they start their duty. This ensures that all personnel receive the necessary training to understand and implement OPSEC procedures effectively. It also implies that the training should not be left to the discretion of the supervisor or conducted by individuals with an approved SEI, and it does not need to be combined with COMSEC procedures.

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  • 22. 

    Once a person has properly called in a security incident, what must be accomplished until the security information is under the control of the proper custodian?

    • A.

      Nothing, unless it is hazardous material

    • B.

      The security manager secures the material

    • C.

      Guard the material until the custodian has control of the material

    • D.

      The unit commander appoints an individual to take charge of the material

    Correct Answer
    C. Guard the material until the custodian has control of the material
    Explanation
    Once a person has properly called in a security incident, it is necessary to guard the material until the custodian has control of it. This ensures that the security information remains secure and is not accessed or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. By guarding the material, the risk of potential breaches or mishandling of sensitive information is minimized, allowing for a smooth transition of control to the proper custodian.

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  • 23. 

    What type of records does the Air Force Privacy Act Program affect?

    • A.

      Any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information

    • B.

      Only records that contain medical, finacial, or criminal-type information on an individual

    • C.

      Any record on an individual who had denied the Air Force the right to disclose its contents

    • D.

      Only an individual's paym personnel, or medical records

    Correct Answer
    A. Any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information
    Explanation
    The Air Force Privacy Act Program affects any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information. This means that any record that includes personal identifying details, such as a name and social security number, is subject to the provisions of the program. The program aims to protect the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information. It applies to all records within the Air Force that meet the criteria of containing an individual's name and some other form of identification information, regardless of the specific content or nature of the record.

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  • 24. 

    Before any item, collection, or grouping of information about individuals can be maintained from an Air Force record system, the system must be

    • A.

      Published in the Federal Register

    • B.

      Inspected by the database administrator

    • C.

      Approved by the Air Force career field manager

    • D.

      Safeguarded against unathorized disclosure

    Correct Answer
    A. Published in the Federal Register
    Explanation
    In order for any item, collection, or grouping of information about individuals to be maintained from an Air Force record system, it must be published in the Federal Register. This ensures that the system is officially recognized and documented by the government, providing transparency and accountability. The Federal Register serves as a public notice of government regulations, policies, and procedures, and publishing the system in it ensures that it has gone through the necessary legal and administrative processes.

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  • 25. 

    The Privacy Act Statement is used to

    • A.

      Authorize distribution of a member's personal information

    • B.

      Inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information

    • C.

      Determine penalties for unauthorized disclosure of a member's personal information

    • D.

      Advice indiciduals of their right to access any information located in Air Force data records

    Correct Answer
    B. Inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information
    Explanation
    The Privacy Act Statement is used to inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information. This statement serves to educate individuals about how their personal information is being collected, stored, and used by an organization. It ensures transparency and provides individuals with the knowledge they need to make informed decisions about sharing their personal information. This helps to protect individuals' privacy and gives them control over their own personal data.

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  • 26. 

    Individuals who willfully disclose Privacy Act information to anyone not entitled to its receipt may be

    • A.

      Guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000

    • B.

      Held accountable in a civil court and charged under the UCMJ

    • C.

      Decertified on appropriate core tasks and entered into remedial training

    • D.

      In violation of AFI 10-1101, Operations Security, and counseled by their supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. Guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000
    Explanation
    Willfully disclosing Privacy Act information to unauthorized individuals is a violation of the law. The Privacy Act is a federal law that protects personal information held by the government. The consequences for violating this law can include being charged with a misdemeanor and facing a fine of up to $5,000. This punishment is meant to deter individuals from improperly sharing sensitive information and to ensure the privacy and security of individuals' personal data.

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  • 27. 

    In publication numbering such as AFI 11-401, which type of subject matter does the "11" indicate?

    • A.

      Flying operations

    • B.

      Operations Support

    • C.

      Aerospace Medicine

    • D.

      Financial Management

    Correct Answer
    A. Flying operations
    Explanation
    The "11" in the publication numbering AFI 11-401 indicates flying operations.

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  • 28. 

    Which Volume (if any) of AFI 11-202, Flying operations, would you access to locate information on training events and training tables?

    • A.

      Volume 1

    • B.

      Volume 2

    • C.

      Volume 3

    • D.

      The information is not found in thid AFI

    Correct Answer
    A. Volume 1
    Explanation
    Volume 1 of AFI 11-202, Flying Operations, would be accessed to locate information on training events and training tables.

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  • 29. 

    Information on ASCs and FACs can be found in

    • A.

      AFI 10-1101, Operations Security

    • B.

      AFI 11-401, Flight Management

    • C.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • D.

      AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 11-401, Flight Management
  • 30. 

    The reasons for disqualification of aircrew members from flying duties are listed in

    • A.

      AFI 11-202, Vol 2, Aircrew Stan/Eval program

    • B.

      AFI 11-401, Flight Management

    • C.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • D.

      AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    C. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges. This is because AFI 11-402 specifically addresses the disqualification of aircrew members from flying duties. The other three references listed do not specifically mention the reasons for disqualification of aircrew members.

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  • 31. 

    The AFI that establishes responsibilities for aviation resource management specialists in the SARM and HARM offices is

    • A.

      AFI 11-401, Flight Management

    • B.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist services, Aeronautical ratings and Badges

    • C.

      AFI 11-410, Personnel Parachute Operations

    • D.

      AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This AFI establishes the responsibilities for aviation resource management specialists in the SARM (Squadron Aviation Resource Management) and HARM (Host Aviation Resource Management) offices. It outlines the duties and tasks that these specialists are responsible for in managing aviation resources within the squadron.

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  • 32. 

    Information on office procedures including in-outprocessing of flight records folders and jump record folders is listed in

    • A.

      AFI 11-401, Flight Management

    • B.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • C.

      AFI 11-410, Personnel Parachute Operations

    • D.

      AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This is because the question is asking for information on office procedures related to flight records folders and jump record folders. AFI 11-421 specifically covers Aviation Resource Management, which includes the management of flight records and jump records. Therefore, this is the most appropriate source for finding information on these office procedures.

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  • 33. 

    A table listing authorized crew compositions can be found in

    • A.

      AFI 11-401, Flight Management

    • B.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical ratings and badges

    • C.

      AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    • D.

      AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors

    Correct Answer
    D. AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors. This is because the question asks for a table listing authorized crew compositions, and AFI 65-503 specifically deals with cost and planning factors in the US Air Force. It is likely that this document would contain the information needed regarding authorized crew compositions.

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  • 34. 

    Which form is used by parachutists to log jumps performed?

    • A.

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • B.

      AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record

    • C.

      AF Form 1521, ARMS individual Jump pay entitlement worksheet

    • D.

      AF form 3215, IT/NSS requirements document

    Correct Answer
    B. AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record
    Explanation
    Parachutists use AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record, to log jumps performed. This form is specifically designed for recording and documenting individual parachute jumps. It includes important information such as the date of the jump, location, type of jump, equipment used, and any additional remarks or notes. This form serves as a comprehensive record of a parachutist's jump history and is an essential document for tracking and maintaining jump qualifications and experience.

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  • 35. 

    Information and an explanation of how to apply requirements for HDIP can be found in

    • A.

      DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"

    • B.

      DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute Duty , flight deck duty, demolition duty, experimental stress duty and others listed"

    • C.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-active component

    • D.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services office

    Correct Answer
    A. DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights". This source provides information and guidelines on how to apply requirements for HDIP (Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay) in relation to aerial flights. It likely includes details on the types of flights that qualify for HDIP, the eligibility criteria, and the procedures for receiving the incentive pay.

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  • 36. 

    Information on the eligibility for parachute pay due to injury or incapacitation can be found in

    • A.

      DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"

    • B.

      DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed."

    • C.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-Active Component

    • D.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office

    Correct Answer
    B. DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed."
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed." This source provides information on the eligibility for parachute pay due to injury or incapacitation.

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  • 37. 

    Guidance for flight management offices including preparation of military pay orders is located in

    • A.

      DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"

    • B.

      DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute Duty, flight deck duty, demolition duty, experimental stress duty and others listed

    • C.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-Active Component

    • D.

      DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office

    Correct Answer
    D. DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office. This source provides guidance for flight management offices, including preparation of military pay orders. The other options, such as DODFMR volumes 7A, chapter 22 and chapter 24, are not specifically related to flight management offices or military pay orders.

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  • 38. 

    A network that is limited in the geographical sense, has a high speed, is structured, and supports full connectivity between all of its members is a

    • A.

      LAN

    • B.

      WAN

    • C.

      DMC

    • D.

      MAN

    Correct Answer
    A. LAN
    Explanation
    A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network that is limited in the geographical sense, meaning it covers a small area such as a home, office, or building. It has a high speed, allowing for fast data transfer between connected devices. It is structured, meaning it is organized and has a specific layout or design. Additionally, a LAN supports full connectivity between all of its members, meaning all devices connected to the network can communicate with each other easily.

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  • 39. 

    Which network system is used to link LANs together that must use a long-haul communication device?

    • A.

      Integrated network

    • B.

      WAN

    • C.

      DMC

    • D.

      MAN

    Correct Answer
    B. WAN
    Explanation
    A Wide Area Network (WAN) is used to link LANs together that must use a long-haul communication device. WANs cover large geographical areas and connect multiple LANs over long distances, often using public or private communication lines such as leased lines, satellites, or internet connections. This allows organizations to connect their remote offices or branches to a central network, enabling communication and data sharing between different locations. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer for this question.

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  • 40. 

    Which network system is used by the ARMS to store data?

    • A.

      LAN

    • B.

      WAN

    • C.

      DMC

    • D.

      MAN

    Correct Answer
    C. DMC
  • 41. 

    To download the ARMS application, access

    • A.

      Misc.

    • B.

      Links

    • C.

      Release

    • D.

      System Overview

    Correct Answer
    B. Links
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Links" because the question is asking for the location or method to download the ARMS application. In the given text, the word "Links" is mentioned, suggesting that accessing the links provided will allow the user to download the application.

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  • 42. 

    Information on 3- and 7-level resident training courses can be found on the link for

    • A.

      Misc.

    • B.

      Links

    • C.

      Release

    • D.

      Comments

    Correct Answer
    B. Links
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Links" because the information on 3- and 7-level resident training courses can be found on the provided link.

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  • 43. 

    The ARMS database is used to

    • A.

      Track medical examinations for all Air Force personnel

    • B.

      Ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programs

    • C.

      Monitor upgrade training for aviation resource management personnel

    • D.

      Determine required maintenance on aircraft assigned to a particular unit

    Correct Answer
    B. Ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programs
    Explanation
    The ARMS database is used to ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programs. This means that the database is specifically designed to keep a record of the training programs that Air Force personnel undergo, both in the air and on the ground. It helps in monitoring and managing these training programs efficiently and accurately.

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  • 44. 

    The ARMS subsystem that supports the Aviation Career Incentive act of 1974 and the aviation career improvement act of 1989 is

    • A.

      Flight

    • B.

      Training

    • C.

      Resource

    • D.

      System Management

    Correct Answer
    C. Resource
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Resource System Management. The ARMS subsystem mentioned in the question is responsible for supporting the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 and the Aviation Career Improvement Act of 1989. The term "Resource System Management" refers to a system that manages and allocates resources efficiently, which is crucial for the implementation of these acts in the aviation industry.

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  • 45. 

    The flight subsystem interface with which other subsystem to track flying hour totals?

    • A.

      System Management

    • B.

      Resource

    • C.

      Training

    • D.

      Reports

    Correct Answer
    B. Resource
    Explanation
    The flight subsystem interfaces with the Resource subsystem to track flying hour totals. This suggests that the Resource subsystem is responsible for monitoring and keeping a record of the flying hours accumulated by the flight subsystem.

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  • 46. 

    Which ARMS subsystem would you access to change your password?

    • A.

      Training

    • B.

      Resource

    • C.

      Interfaces

    • D.

      System Management

    Correct Answer
    D. System Management
    Explanation
    To change your password, you would need to access the System Management subsystem. This subsystem is responsible for managing and controlling various aspects of the ARMS system, including user accounts and security settings. By accessing the System Management subsystem, you can navigate to the appropriate settings and change your password as needed.

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  • 47. 

    When experiencing difficulties with the ARMS, the unit's first point of contact is the

    • A.

      HARM chief

    • B.

      MAJCOM functional manager

    • C.

      AWG

    • D.

      SSG

    Correct Answer
    C. AWG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AWG. When experiencing difficulties with the ARMS (Automated Records Management System), the unit's first point of contact is the AWG (Automated Work Group). The AWG is responsible for providing technical support and assistance to users of the ARMS system. They are trained and knowledgeable in troubleshooting and resolving issues related to the system. Therefore, they would be the appropriate contact for the unit to reach out to when facing difficulties with the ARMS.

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  • 48. 

    To make suggested changes or enhancements to ARMS, you would complete an

    • A.

      AF form 847, Recommendation for change of publication

    • B.

      AF Form 942, Record of evaluation

    • C.

      AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documents

    • D.

      AF Form 3520, Aircrew.mission flight data extracts

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documents
    Explanation
    AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documents, would be the correct form to complete in order to make suggested changes or enhancements to ARMS. This form is specifically used for documenting and submitting information technology (IT) and network systems support (NSS) requirements. Therefore, it would be the most appropriate form to use when recommending changes or enhancements to ARMS, which is likely an IT or network systems-related publication.

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  • 49. 

    A DIREP is

    • A.

      Used to inform customers about general topics

    • B.

      A message used to alert customers about problems with their system

    • C.

      A report that documents a problem with ARMS

    • D.

      Submitted by the MAJCOM functional manager to the HARM chief, identifying problems with ARMS

    Correct Answer
    C. A report that documents a problem with ARMS
    Explanation
    A DIREP is a report that documents a problem with ARMS. It is submitted by the MAJCOM functional manager to the HARM chief, identifying problems with ARMS. This report serves as a formal documentation of the issue and helps in addressing and resolving the problem with the ARMS system.

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  • 50. 

    A priority 2 DIREP indicates the problem

    • A.

      Jeopardizes safety and is considered "critical"

    • B.

      Affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is known

    • C.

      Affects the capability of the system and a workaround solution is known

    • D.

      Results in operator inconvenience and does not affect the capability of the system

    Correct Answer
    B. Affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is known
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is known." This is because a priority 2 DIREP indicates a problem that jeopardizes safety and is considered "critical," and also affects the capability of the system. Additionally, the fact that no workaround solution is known suggests that the problem is significant and requires immediate attention.

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Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 16, 2010
    Quiz Created by
    C.juarez
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