CDC Vol. 1
5-level UREs, volume 1
- 1.
Which assignment area is responsible to prepare and process AOs?
- A.
Aircrew scheduling
- B.
Standardization and evaluation
- C.
HARM Office
- D.
SARM office
Correct Answer
C. HARM OfficeExplanation
The HARM (Human Resources Management) Office is responsible for preparing and processing AOs (Assignment Orders). This office handles the administrative tasks related to assigning and scheduling aircrew members for their duties and missions. They ensure that the necessary paperwork and documentation are completed accurately and efficiently. The HARM Office plays a crucial role in coordinating and managing the assignments of aircrew personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 2.
Which assignment area conducts a mission review and audits mission accomplishment paperwork?
- A.
SARM Office
- B.
HARM Office
- C.
Stan/Eval
- D.
Aircrew scheduling
Correct Answer
A. SARM OfficeExplanation
The SARM Office conducts a mission review and audits mission accomplishment paperwork. This office is responsible for ensuring that all missions are carried out successfully and that all necessary paperwork is completed accurately. They review the mission details and documentation to ensure that all objectives were met and all necessary procedures were followed. This helps to maintain the efficiency and effectiveness of the organization's operations.Rate this question:
-
- 3.
A 5-skill level journeyman performs which of the following duties?
- A.
Inspects completed work and evaluates individual and group performances
- B.
Determines the media for most effective presentation of data and prepares narrative summaries
- C.
Processes aviation management reports and source documents to ensure accuracy of information
- D.
Assists work-center supervisory personnel in interpreting and using aviation resource management reports and information
Correct Answer
C. Processes aviation management reports and source documents to ensure accuracy of informationExplanation
A 5-skill level journeyman performs the duty of processing aviation management reports and source documents to ensure the accuracy of information. This means that they are responsible for reviewing and verifying the information contained in these reports and documents, ensuring that they are complete and free from errors. This duty requires attention to detail and the ability to analyze and interpret data accurately.Rate this question:
-
- 4.
The duties of a 7-level craftsman include
- A.
Requisitioning and accounting for equipment, space, supplies, and other requires resources to support aviation resource management functions
- B.
Inspecting production and maintenance of flight/ jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports
- C.
Performing in-and outprocessing functions for members required to be on aeronautical orders
- D.
Interviewing aircrew members and parachutists to obtain aviation/jump-related data
Correct Answer
B. Inspecting production and maintenance of flight/ jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reportsExplanation
The duties of a 7-level craftsman include inspecting production and maintenance of flight/jump records, flight management files, and aviation resource management reports. This means that the craftsman is responsible for ensuring the accuracy and completeness of these records and reports, which are essential for maintaining the efficiency and safety of aviation operations. By inspecting these documents, the craftsman can identify any errors or discrepancies and take appropriate actions to correct them, ensuring that all necessary information is properly documented and recorded.Rate this question:
-
- 5.
The duties of a 9-skill-level superintendent include
- A.
Monitoring flight physicals, physiological training, and aircrew/parachutist qualification requirements
- B.
Extracting, compiling, and collating aircrew/parachutist training and aircrew/parachutist resource management information
- C.
Planning, organizing, scheduling, directing and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel
- D.
Preparing reports and coordinating aircraft schedules and training activities with maintenance, communications, armament, intelligence, personnel, and medical units
Correct Answer
C. Planning, organizing, scheduling, directing and evaluating workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnelExplanation
The duties of a 9-skill-level superintendent include overseeing and managing the workloads and duty assignments of aviation resource management personnel. This involves planning, organizing, scheduling, directing, and evaluating their tasks and responsibilities. The superintendent is responsible for ensuring that the aviation resource management personnel are efficiently and effectively carrying out their duties. This includes coordinating with other units such as maintenance, communications, armament, intelligence, personnel, and medical units to ensure smooth operations and successful completion of tasks.Rate this question:
-
- 6.
The CFETP was developed as a guide to
- A.
Manage the availability of unit education and training classes
- B.
Plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program
- C.
Determine which off-duty education program meets the member's career goals
- D.
Assists with determining approproate assignment area based on the member's skill level
Correct Answer
B. Plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training programExplanation
The correct answer is "plan, develop, manage, and conduct an effective career field training program." The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) serves as a guide to ensure that the training and education programs within a specific career field are well-planned, developed, managed, and conducted effectively. It helps to outline the necessary training requirements, identify the skills and knowledge needed for career progression, and ensure that the training programs align with the career goals and objectives of the members in that field.Rate this question:
-
- 7.
Individuals retraining into the 1C0X2 career field
- A.
Are exempt from the 3-skill-level resident training course
- B.
Must complete all training requirements within 24 months
- C.
Must submit a waiver of training requirements within 21 months of assignment for approval by the MAJCOM functional manager
- D.
Must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5-and 7- skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks
Correct Answer
D. Must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5-and 7- skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasksExplanation
Individuals retraining into the 1C0X2 career field must attend the 3-skill-level resident training course, complete 5- and 7-skill level CDCs, and be signed off on all 5- and 7-level core tasks. This means that they are not exempt from the 3-skill-level resident training course and must complete it. Additionally, they need to complete the CDCs for both the 5- and 7-skill levels, and demonstrate competency in all the core tasks at the 5- and 7-levels. These requirements ensure that individuals have the necessary knowledge and skills to perform their duties effectively in the 1C0X2 career field.Rate this question:
-
- 8.
The STS is used in your daily supervisory duties of
- A.
Planning and documenting your section's training
- B.
Determining manning requirements for your assignment area
- C.
Developing unit education requirements and career progression
- D.
Accomplishing the annual review of training requirements for retrainees
Correct Answer
A. Planning and documenting your section's trainingExplanation
The correct answer is planning and documenting your section's training. The STS (Supervisor Training System) is a tool that is used in daily supervisory duties to plan and document the training for your section. It helps in determining the training needs of the personnel in your section and allows you to create a training plan to meet those needs. It also helps in tracking the progress and completion of the training activities.Rate this question:
-
- 9.
Which column of the STS includes the proficiency codes that indicate required training?
- A.
Column 1
- B.
Column 2
- C.
Column 3
- D.
Column 4
Correct Answer
D. Column 4Explanation
Column 4 includes the proficiency codes that indicate required training in the STS. This means that the information regarding the level of proficiency required for different training courses can be found in this column.Rate this question:
-
- 10.
What does the (-) indicate when it appears in column 4 of the STS?
- A.
Training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training
- B.
The task is not required for upgrade to the next skill level
- C.
The task must be taught during wartime contingencies
- D.
Training is not required for that particular task
Correct Answer
A. Training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job trainingExplanation
The (-) in column 4 of the STS indicates that training is provided at the unit level utilizing on-the-job training. This means that the task does not require formal training and can be learned and performed within the unit through hands-on experience and guidance from more experienced personnel.Rate this question:
-
- 11.
Which type of proficiency code is used to indicate a level of actual hands-on performance?
- A.
Task knowledge levels
- B.
Task performance levels
- C.
Subject knowledge levels
- D.
Subject performance levels
Correct Answer
B. Task performance levelsExplanation
Task performance levels are used to indicate a level of actual hands-on performance. This code is specifically related to the proficiency in performing tasks and reflects the individual's ability to carry out specific actions or operations. It focuses on the practical aspect of the subject matter rather than theoretical knowledge. Therefore, task performance levels are the most appropriate choice in this context.Rate this question:
-
- 12.
Uppercase letters A through D indicate
- A.
Task knowledge levels
- B.
Task performance levels
- C.
Subject knowledge levels
- D.
Subject performance levels
Correct Answer
C. Subject knowledge levelsExplanation
The uppercase letters A through D indicate subject knowledge levels. These levels represent the depth of understanding and familiarity that an individual has in a particular subject. The letters A through D are commonly used to categorize different levels of knowledge, with A indicating a high level of knowledge and D indicating a lower level of knowledge. This classification system helps to assess and measure the proficiency and expertise of individuals in a specific subject area.Rate this question:
-
- 13.
The purpose of the U&TW is to
- A.
Determine utilization rates for unit aircraft
- B.
Determine training requirements for aircrew members
- C.
Develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty
- D.
Provide a communication link between the MAJCOM functional managers and the technical school instructors
Correct Answer
C. Develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialtyExplanation
The purpose of the U&TW is to develop and review training programs within an Air Force specialty. This means that the U&TW is responsible for creating and evaluating the training programs that are specific to a particular area of expertise within the Air Force. They ensure that the training programs are effective and up-to-date, and make any necessary changes or improvements. This helps to ensure that Air Force personnel receive the necessary training to excel in their specialty and perform their duties effectively.Rate this question:
-
- 14.
The purpose of the GAS is to
- A.
Gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training
- B.
Determine the qulity of recent basic military training graduates
- C.
Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level
- D.
Provide information to supervisors regarding the quality of training provided by the CDC
Correct Answer
A. Gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident trainingExplanation
The purpose of the GAS is to gather feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training. This suggests that the GAS is a tool or mechanism used to collect information or opinions about the performance or effectiveness of Air Force graduates who have completed their training. It implies that the GAS is designed to assess the quality or success of the training program and its impact on the graduates. The other options, such as determining the quality of recent basic military training graduates or ensuring proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level, do not specifically mention gathering feedback on Air Force graduates of resident training.Rate this question:
-
- 15.
When a question on the GAS is rated " below satisfactory", the
- A.
Receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor
- B.
Trainee will complete the comments section on the GAS form and forward the form to his or her supervisor
- C.
Supervisor will place the trainee in remedial training and annotate the action on the AF form 623a, On-the-job Training Record Continuation Sheet
- D.
Supervisor will counsel the trainee and document the counseling on the AETC for 173, student record of academic/nonacademic counseling and comments
Correct Answer
A. Receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisorExplanation
When a question on the GAS is rated "below satisfactory", the receiving agency is required to follow up by contacting the supervisor. This is because a rating of "below satisfactory" indicates that the trainee did not meet the expected performance standards. By contacting the supervisor, the receiving agency can gather more information about the trainee's performance and determine the appropriate course of action, such as providing remedial training or counseling. This follow-up is necessary to address any deficiencies and ensure that the trainee is able to improve their performance.Rate this question:
-
- 16.
For those individuals who are unable to complete required upgrade training before the maximum allowable time, the supervisor
- A.
Initiates a case file and submits a waiver request
- B.
Decertiifies the trainee on all tasks and begins remedial training
- C.
Requests that the trainee be cross-trained into another career field
- D.
Establishes a new maximum training date and annotates the AF Form 623a, on-the-job training record continuation sheet
Correct Answer
A. Initiates a case file and submits a waiver requestExplanation
When individuals are unable to complete the required upgrade training within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor initiates a case file and submits a waiver request. This suggests that the supervisor takes action to address the situation and seeks permission to extend the deadline for the trainee. By initiating a case file and submitting a waiver request, the supervisor acknowledges the circumstances preventing the completion of the training and seeks a solution to allow the trainee to continue their progress.Rate this question:
-
- 17.
A request for a training waiver is approved by
- A.
HQ USAF/XOOTF
- B.
The squadron commander
- C.
The base training manager
- D.
The MAJCOM functional manager
Correct Answer
A. HQ USAF/XOOTFExplanation
The correct answer is HQ USAF/XOOTF. This is because HQ USAF/XOOTF is the authority responsible for approving a request for a training waiver. The squadron commander, base training manager, and MAJCOM functional manager may have some involvement in the process, but the ultimate approval comes from HQ USAF/XOOTF.Rate this question:
-
- 18.
The objective of the OPSEC program is
- A.
Security of Air Force assets
- B.
Mission effectiveness
- C.
Identification of critical indicators
- D.
To train personnel in appropriate security measures
Correct Answer
B. Mission effectivenessExplanation
The objective of the OPSEC program is to ensure mission effectiveness. This means that the program aims to protect and enhance the ability of the Air Force to successfully accomplish its missions. By implementing appropriate security measures, the OPSEC program helps to safeguard Air Force assets and personnel, identify critical indicators that may pose a threat, and ultimately ensure that the mission is carried out efficiently and successfully.Rate this question:
-
- 19.
The three broad categories of exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
- A.
Telephone, computer networks, and the physical environment
- B.
Telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment
- C.
Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence
- D.
The physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence
Correct Answer
B. TelepHones, radio communications, and the pHysical environmentExplanation
The correct answer is telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment. This answer accurately identifies the three broad categories of exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities. Telephones and radio communications can be vulnerable to interception and eavesdropping, while the physical environment can be vulnerable to surveillance and unauthorized access. These vulnerabilities can be exploited by adversaries to gather sensitive information or disrupt operations.Rate this question:
-
- 20.
A major vulnerability of radio operations is
- A.
Unofficial conversations
- B.
Electromagnetic radiation
- C.
Excessive tuning and testing
- D.
High-frequency transmissions
Correct Answer
B. Electromagnetic radiationExplanation
Electromagnetic radiation refers to the transmission of energy in the form of electromagnetic waves. In the context of radio operations, this vulnerability arises because electromagnetic radiation can be intercepted by unauthorized parties, leading to potential breaches in security and privacy. This vulnerability can be exploited to eavesdrop on conversations or gather sensitive information, making it a major concern for radio operations.Rate this question:
-
- 21.
Unit OPSEC training should be
- A.
Left to the discretion of the supervisor
- B.
Conducted by individuals with an approved SEI
- C.
Combined with COMSEC procedures to provide adequate training
- D.
Accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty
Correct Answer
D. Accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for dutyExplanation
Unit OPSEC training should be accomplished by newly assigned personnel within 90 days after they arrive for duty. This answer suggests that it is the responsibility of newly assigned personnel to complete the OPSEC training within a specific timeframe after they start their duty. This ensures that all personnel receive the necessary training to understand and implement OPSEC procedures effectively. It also implies that the training should not be left to the discretion of the supervisor or conducted by individuals with an approved SEI, and it does not need to be combined with COMSEC procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 22.
Once a person has properly called in a security incident, what must be accomplished until the security information is under the control of the proper custodian?
- A.
Nothing, unless it is hazardous material
- B.
The security manager secures the material
- C.
Guard the material until the custodian has control of the material
- D.
The unit commander appoints an individual to take charge of the material
Correct Answer
C. Guard the material until the custodian has control of the materialExplanation
Once a person has properly called in a security incident, it is necessary to guard the material until the custodian has control of it. This ensures that the security information remains secure and is not accessed or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. By guarding the material, the risk of potential breaches or mishandling of sensitive information is minimized, allowing for a smooth transition of control to the proper custodian.Rate this question:
-
- 23.
What type of records does the Air Force Privacy Act Program affect?
- A.
Any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information
- B.
Only records that contain medical, finacial, or criminal-type information on an individual
- C.
Any record on an individual who had denied the Air Force the right to disclose its contents
- D.
Only an individual's paym personnel, or medical records
Correct Answer
A. Any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification informationExplanation
The Air Force Privacy Act Program affects any record that contains an individual's name and some other type of identification information. This means that any record that includes personal identifying details, such as a name and social security number, is subject to the provisions of the program. The program aims to protect the privacy of individuals by regulating the collection, use, and disclosure of personal information. It applies to all records within the Air Force that meet the criteria of containing an individual's name and some other form of identification information, regardless of the specific content or nature of the record.Rate this question:
-
- 24.
Before any item, collection, or grouping of information about individuals can be maintained from an Air Force record system, the system must be
- A.
Published in the Federal Register
- B.
Inspected by the database administrator
- C.
Approved by the Air Force career field manager
- D.
Safeguarded against unathorized disclosure
Correct Answer
A. Published in the Federal RegisterExplanation
In order for any item, collection, or grouping of information about individuals to be maintained from an Air Force record system, it must be published in the Federal Register. This ensures that the system is officially recognized and documented by the government, providing transparency and accountability. The Federal Register serves as a public notice of government regulations, policies, and procedures, and publishing the system in it ensures that it has gone through the necessary legal and administrative processes.Rate this question:
-
- 25.
The Privacy Act Statement is used to
- A.
Authorize distribution of a member's personal information
- B.
Inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information
- C.
Determine penalties for unauthorized disclosure of a member's personal information
- D.
Advice indiciduals of their right to access any information located in Air Force data records
Correct Answer
B. Inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal informationExplanation
The Privacy Act Statement is used to inform individuals of the collection and maintenance of their personal information. This statement serves to educate individuals about how their personal information is being collected, stored, and used by an organization. It ensures transparency and provides individuals with the knowledge they need to make informed decisions about sharing their personal information. This helps to protect individuals' privacy and gives them control over their own personal data.Rate this question:
-
- 26.
Individuals who willfully disclose Privacy Act information to anyone not entitled to its receipt may be
- A.
Guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000
- B.
Held accountable in a civil court and charged under the UCMJ
- C.
Decertified on appropriate core tasks and entered into remedial training
- D.
In violation of AFI 10-1101, Operations Security, and counseled by their supervisor
Correct Answer
A. Guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than $5,000Explanation
Willfully disclosing Privacy Act information to unauthorized individuals is a violation of the law. The Privacy Act is a federal law that protects personal information held by the government. The consequences for violating this law can include being charged with a misdemeanor and facing a fine of up to $5,000. This punishment is meant to deter individuals from improperly sharing sensitive information and to ensure the privacy and security of individuals' personal data.Rate this question:
-
- 27.
In publication numbering such as AFI 11-401, which type of subject matter does the "11" indicate?
- A.
Flying operations
- B.
Operations Support
- C.
Aerospace Medicine
- D.
Financial Management
Correct Answer
A. Flying operationsExplanation
The "11" in the publication numbering AFI 11-401 indicates flying operations.Rate this question:
-
- 28.
Which Volume (if any) of AFI 11-202, Flying operations, would you access to locate information on training events and training tables?
- A.
Volume 1
- B.
Volume 2
- C.
Volume 3
- D.
The information is not found in thid AFI
Correct Answer
A. Volume 1Explanation
Volume 1 of AFI 11-202, Flying Operations, would be accessed to locate information on training events and training tables.Rate this question:
-
- 29.
Information on ASCs and FACs can be found in
- A.
AFI 10-1101, Operations Security
- B.
AFI 11-401, Flight Management
- C.
AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- D.
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer
B. AFI 11-401, Flight Management -
- 30.
The reasons for disqualification of aircrew members from flying duties are listed in
- A.
AFI 11-202, Vol 2, Aircrew Stan/Eval program
- B.
AFI 11-401, Flight Management
- C.
AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- D.
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer
C. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and BadgesExplanation
The correct answer is AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges. This is because AFI 11-402 specifically addresses the disqualification of aircrew members from flying duties. The other three references listed do not specifically mention the reasons for disqualification of aircrew members.Rate this question:
-
- 31.
The AFI that establishes responsibilities for aviation resource management specialists in the SARM and HARM offices is
- A.
AFI 11-401, Flight Management
- B.
AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist services, Aeronautical ratings and Badges
- C.
AFI 11-410, Personnel Parachute Operations
- D.
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer
D. AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource ManagementExplanation
The correct answer is AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This AFI establishes the responsibilities for aviation resource management specialists in the SARM (Squadron Aviation Resource Management) and HARM (Host Aviation Resource Management) offices. It outlines the duties and tasks that these specialists are responsible for in managing aviation resources within the squadron.Rate this question:
-
- 32.
Information on office procedures including in-outprocessing of flight records folders and jump record folders is listed in
- A.
AFI 11-401, Flight Management
- B.
AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
- C.
AFI 11-410, Personnel Parachute Operations
- D.
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
Correct Answer
D. AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource ManagementExplanation
The correct answer is AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This is because the question is asking for information on office procedures related to flight records folders and jump record folders. AFI 11-421 specifically covers Aviation Resource Management, which includes the management of flight records and jump records. Therefore, this is the most appropriate source for finding information on these office procedures.Rate this question:
-
- 33.
A table listing authorized crew compositions can be found in
- A.
AFI 11-401, Flight Management
- B.
AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Services, Aeronautical ratings and badges
- C.
AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
- D.
AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors
Correct Answer
D. AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning FactorsExplanation
The correct answer is AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors. This is because the question asks for a table listing authorized crew compositions, and AFI 65-503 specifically deals with cost and planning factors in the US Air Force. It is likely that this document would contain the information needed regarding authorized crew compositions.Rate this question:
-
- 34.
Which form is used by parachutists to log jumps performed?
- A.
AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification
- B.
AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record
- C.
AF Form 1521, ARMS individual Jump pay entitlement worksheet
- D.
AF form 3215, IT/NSS requirements document
Correct Answer
B. AF Form 922, Individual Jump RecordExplanation
Parachutists use AF Form 922, Individual Jump Record, to log jumps performed. This form is specifically designed for recording and documenting individual parachute jumps. It includes important information such as the date of the jump, location, type of jump, equipment used, and any additional remarks or notes. This form serves as a comprehensive record of a parachutist's jump history and is an essential document for tracking and maintaining jump qualifications and experience.Rate this question:
-
- 35.
Information and an explanation of how to apply requirements for HDIP can be found in
- A.
DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"
- B.
DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute Duty , flight deck duty, demolition duty, experimental stress duty and others listed"
- C.
DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-active component
- D.
DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services office
Correct Answer
A. DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"Explanation
The correct answer is DODFMR, Volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights". This source provides information and guidelines on how to apply requirements for HDIP (Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay) in relation to aerial flights. It likely includes details on the types of flights that qualify for HDIP, the eligibility criteria, and the procedures for receiving the incentive pay.Rate this question:
-
- 36.
Information on the eligibility for parachute pay due to injury or incapacitation can be found in
- A.
DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"
- B.
DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed."
- C.
DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-Active Component
- D.
DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office
Correct Answer
B. DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed."Explanation
The correct answer is DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute duty, Flight Deck Duty, Demolition Duty, Experimental Stress Duty and Others Listed." This source provides information on the eligibility for parachute pay due to injury or incapacitation.Rate this question:
-
- 37.
Guidance for flight management offices including preparation of military pay orders is located in
- A.
DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 22, "Aerial Flights"
- B.
DODFMR, volume 7A, chapter 24, "Parachute Duty, flight deck duty, demolition duty, experimental stress duty and others listed
- C.
DFAS-DEM 7073-1, Defense Joint Military Pay System-Active Component
- D.
DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office
Correct Answer
D. DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services OfficeExplanation
The correct answer is DFAS-DEM 7073-2, Unit Procedures, Excluding Financial Services Office. This source provides guidance for flight management offices, including preparation of military pay orders. The other options, such as DODFMR volumes 7A, chapter 22 and chapter 24, are not specifically related to flight management offices or military pay orders.Rate this question:
-
- 38.
A network that is limited in the geographical sense, has a high speed, is structured, and supports full connectivity between all of its members is a
- A.
LAN
- B.
WAN
- C.
DMC
- D.
MAN
Correct Answer
A. LANExplanation
A LAN (Local Area Network) is a network that is limited in the geographical sense, meaning it covers a small area such as a home, office, or building. It has a high speed, allowing for fast data transfer between connected devices. It is structured, meaning it is organized and has a specific layout or design. Additionally, a LAN supports full connectivity between all of its members, meaning all devices connected to the network can communicate with each other easily.Rate this question:
-
- 39.
Which network system is used to link LANs together that must use a long-haul communication device?
- A.
Integrated network
- B.
WAN
- C.
DMC
- D.
MAN
Correct Answer
B. WANExplanation
A Wide Area Network (WAN) is used to link LANs together that must use a long-haul communication device. WANs cover large geographical areas and connect multiple LANs over long distances, often using public or private communication lines such as leased lines, satellites, or internet connections. This allows organizations to connect their remote offices or branches to a central network, enabling communication and data sharing between different locations. Therefore, WAN is the correct answer for this question.Rate this question:
-
- 40.
Which network system is used by the ARMS to store data?
- A.
LAN
- B.
WAN
- C.
DMC
- D.
MAN
Correct Answer
C. DMC -
- 41.
To download the ARMS application, access
- A.
Misc.
- B.
Links
- C.
Release
- D.
System Overview
Correct Answer
B. LinksExplanation
The correct answer is "Links" because the question is asking for the location or method to download the ARMS application. In the given text, the word "Links" is mentioned, suggesting that accessing the links provided will allow the user to download the application.Rate this question:
-
- 42.
Information on 3- and 7-level resident training courses can be found on the link for
- A.
Misc.
- B.
Links
- C.
Release
- D.
Comments
Correct Answer
B. LinksExplanation
The correct answer is "Links" because the information on 3- and 7-level resident training courses can be found on the provided link.Rate this question:
-
- 43.
The ARMS database is used to
- A.
Track medical examinations for all Air Force personnel
- B.
Ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programs
- C.
Monitor upgrade training for aviation resource management personnel
- D.
Determine required maintenance on aircraft assigned to a particular unit
Correct Answer
B. Ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programsExplanation
The ARMS database is used to ensure accurate tracking of flying and ground training programs. This means that the database is specifically designed to keep a record of the training programs that Air Force personnel undergo, both in the air and on the ground. It helps in monitoring and managing these training programs efficiently and accurately.Rate this question:
-
- 44.
The ARMS subsystem that supports the Aviation Career Incentive act of 1974 and the aviation career improvement act of 1989 is
- A.
Flight
- B.
Training
- C.
Resource
- D.
System Management
Correct Answer
C. ResourceExplanation
The correct answer is Resource System Management. The ARMS subsystem mentioned in the question is responsible for supporting the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974 and the Aviation Career Improvement Act of 1989. The term "Resource System Management" refers to a system that manages and allocates resources efficiently, which is crucial for the implementation of these acts in the aviation industry.Rate this question:
-
- 45.
The flight subsystem interface with which other subsystem to track flying hour totals?
- A.
System Management
- B.
Resource
- C.
Training
- D.
Reports
Correct Answer
B. ResourceExplanation
The flight subsystem interfaces with the Resource subsystem to track flying hour totals. This suggests that the Resource subsystem is responsible for monitoring and keeping a record of the flying hours accumulated by the flight subsystem.Rate this question:
-
- 46.
Which ARMS subsystem would you access to change your password?
- A.
Training
- B.
Resource
- C.
Interfaces
- D.
System Management
Correct Answer
D. System ManagementExplanation
To change your password, you would need to access the System Management subsystem. This subsystem is responsible for managing and controlling various aspects of the ARMS system, including user accounts and security settings. By accessing the System Management subsystem, you can navigate to the appropriate settings and change your password as needed.Rate this question:
-
- 47.
When experiencing difficulties with the ARMS, the unit's first point of contact is the
- A.
HARM chief
- B.
MAJCOM functional manager
- C.
AWG
- D.
SSG
Correct Answer
C. AWGExplanation
The correct answer is AWG. When experiencing difficulties with the ARMS (Automated Records Management System), the unit's first point of contact is the AWG (Automated Work Group). The AWG is responsible for providing technical support and assistance to users of the ARMS system. They are trained and knowledgeable in troubleshooting and resolving issues related to the system. Therefore, they would be the appropriate contact for the unit to reach out to when facing difficulties with the ARMS.Rate this question:
-
- 48.
To make suggested changes or enhancements to ARMS, you would complete an
- A.
AF form 847, Recommendation for change of publication
- B.
AF Form 942, Record of evaluation
- C.
AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documents
- D.
AF Form 3520, Aircrew.mission flight data extracts
Correct Answer
C. AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documentsExplanation
AF Form 3215, IT/NSS requirements documents, would be the correct form to complete in order to make suggested changes or enhancements to ARMS. This form is specifically used for documenting and submitting information technology (IT) and network systems support (NSS) requirements. Therefore, it would be the most appropriate form to use when recommending changes or enhancements to ARMS, which is likely an IT or network systems-related publication.Rate this question:
-
- 49.
A DIREP is
- A.
Used to inform customers about general topics
- B.
A message used to alert customers about problems with their system
- C.
A report that documents a problem with ARMS
- D.
Submitted by the MAJCOM functional manager to the HARM chief, identifying problems with ARMS
Correct Answer
C. A report that documents a problem with ARMSExplanation
A DIREP is a report that documents a problem with ARMS. It is submitted by the MAJCOM functional manager to the HARM chief, identifying problems with ARMS. This report serves as a formal documentation of the issue and helps in addressing and resolving the problem with the ARMS system.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
A priority 2 DIREP indicates the problem
- A.
Jeopardizes safety and is considered "critical"
- B.
Affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is known
- C.
Affects the capability of the system and a workaround solution is known
- D.
Results in operator inconvenience and does not affect the capability of the system
Correct Answer
B. Affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is knownExplanation
The correct answer is "affects the capability of the system and no workaround solution is known." This is because a priority 2 DIREP indicates a problem that jeopardizes safety and is considered "critical," and also affects the capability of the system. Additionally, the fact that no workaround solution is known suggests that the problem is significant and requires immediate attention.Rate this question:
-
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 16, 2010Quiz Created by
C.juarez
- ACA Quizzes
- ACCA Quizzes
- ACE Quizzes
- BCBA Quizzes
- CCP Quizzes
- CDCs Quizzes
- CEH Quizzes
- CISA Quizzes
- CISCO Quizzes
- CISSP Quizzes
- CompTIA Quizzes
- CPA Quizzes
- CPAT Quizzes
- CPFA Quizzes
- CPP Quizzes
- CPT Quizzes
- CSA Quizzes
- CSET Quizzes
- CST Quizzes
- CSWIP Quizzes
- FTCE Quizzes
- HIPAA Quizzes
- IAHCSMM Quizzes
- ISTQB Quizzes
- LEED Ga Quizzes
- MBLEx Quizzes
- TEAS Quizzes
Back to top