1c072: Aviation Resource Management! Airforce Trivia Quiz
Below is a 1c072: Aviation Resource Management! Airforce Trivia Quiz. A person who holds this position is given the power to oversee parachutes, parachutists, and all the related resources and equipment. Literary, no one can jump off a plane and land safely if they don’t have a qualified aviation resource manage backing them. Do take the test and see how well you remember your training!
- 1.
If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?
- A.
Position Certification item
- B.
Wartime task
- C.
Critical Task
- D.
Core Task
Correct Answer
D. Core TaskExplanation
If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, it means that the task is identified as a core task at the 3, 5, or 7 level.Rate this question:
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- 2.
A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5-lvl upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?
- A.
12
- B.
18
- C.
21
- D.
24
Correct Answer
C. 21Explanation
The correct answer is 21 because a trainee needs to pass 21 months in upgrade training in order for the supervisor to submit a training waiver for 5-lvl upgrade training.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?
- A.
Trainee's request letter
- B.
Trainer's/supervisor's letter
- C.
Copy of the individual's STS
- D.
Group 1C0X2 functional letter
Correct Answer
A. Trainee's request letterExplanation
The trainee's request letter would not be included in a case file for a training waiver because it is the document submitted by the trainee requesting the waiver, rather than a document providing information or justification for the waiver. The case file would typically include documents such as the trainer's or supervisor's letter, which may provide additional context or support for the waiver, a copy of the individual's STS (Specialty Training Standard) to assess their qualifications and eligibility, and the Group 1C0X2 functional letter, which may outline the specific requirements for the training.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?
- A.
HARM NCOIC
- B.
Group 1C0X2 (FM)
- C.
CHARM
- D.
SARM NCOIC
Correct Answer
C. CHARMExplanation
The correct answer is CHARM. CHARM stands for Combatant Commanders' Humanitarian Assistance Response Training Manager. They are responsible for providing host aviation resource management training to individuals who are not permanently assigned to the HARM.Rate this question:
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- 5.
The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-
- A.
401
- B.
402
- C.
410
- D.
421
Correct Answer
D. 421 -
- 6.
What consideration for identifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?
- A.
Special training
- B.
Recurring Training
- C.
Mission requirements
- D.
Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 requirements
Correct Answer
A. Special trainingExplanation
Looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797 would help in identifying a Master Task List because it would indicate the need for special training. The list may include tasks that require specific skills or knowledge, which would necessitate special training to ensure that individuals are properly equipped to perform those tasks. By considering this factor, the Master Task List can be developed to include all the necessary training requirements for personnel to effectively carry out their duties.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?
- A.
SARM
- B.
TARM
- C.
HARM
- D.
Current Ops/ Scheduling
Correct Answer
C. HARMExplanation
HARM (Hazardous Air Traffic Reporting and Management) is the functional area that maintains flight/jump record folders. HARM is responsible for managing and reporting any hazardous air traffic incidents, including maintaining records of flights and jumps.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?
- A.
SARM
- B.
TARM
- C.
HARM
- D.
STANEVAL
Correct Answer
D. STANEVALExplanation
The correct answer is STANEVAL because STANEVAL (Standardization and Evaluation) is responsible for maintaining an AF IMT 8 (Aircrew Qualification and Training Record) for all aircrew members. STANEVAL ensures that aircrew members meet the necessary qualifications and training requirements to perform their duties effectively and safely. By maintaining the AF IMT 8, STANEVAL can track and document the training and qualifications of aircrew members, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly
- A.
Manning, activities, equipment
- B.
Plans, activities, capabilities and limitations
- C.
Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations
- D.
Potential, capabilities, intentions and limitations
Correct Answer
C. Intentions, capabilities, activities and limitationsExplanation
The term "critical information" refers to key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly intentions, capabilities, activities, and limitations. This means that critical information includes inquiries regarding what the friendly forces intend to do, what their capabilities are, what activities they are engaged in, and what limitations they may have. By understanding this critical information, adversary elements can better assess and exploit any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the friendly forces' plans and operations.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?
- A.
Analysis of threats
- B.
Assessment of risks
- C.
Analysis of vulnerabilities
- D.
Identification of critical information
Correct Answer
B. Assessment of risksExplanation
Assessment of risks involves evaluating the potential threats and vulnerabilities to determine the level of risk associated with a particular situation. In this context, it involves estimating an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability. By assessing the risks, one can identify the likelihood and potential impact of an adversary exploiting a vulnerability, helping to prioritize and implement appropriate countermeasures to protect critical information.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are
- A.
Telephone, physical environment and STU-III
- B.
Physical environment, equipment listing and telephone
- C.
Radio communication, telephone and spatial environment
- D.
Telephone, radio communication and physical environment
Correct Answer
D. Telephone, radio communication and physical environmentExplanation
The correct answer is telephone, radio communication, and physical environment. These three categories represent the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities. Telephone communication can be intercepted or monitored, compromising sensitive information. Radio communication can also be intercepted, especially if proper encryption measures are not in place. The physical environment refers to the physical security measures in place, such as access control, surveillance, and protection of sensitive areas or equipment. Failure to adequately secure any of these areas can lead to exploitation and compromise of OPSEC.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?
- A.
10-201
- B.
10-701
- C.
11-401
- D.
11-402
Correct Answer
B. 10-701Explanation
AFI 10-701 provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities. This Air Force Instruction outlines the procedures and practices to identify, assess, and mitigate vulnerabilities in operational security (OPSEC). It provides comprehensive guidance on identifying potential threats, analyzing vulnerabilities, and implementing countermeasures to protect sensitive information and operations. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 10-701, organizations can enhance their OPSEC posture and minimize the risk of unauthorized disclosure or compromise of critical information.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?
- A.
LAN
- B.
EPL
- C.
CAR
- D.
AFEPL
Correct Answer
C. CARExplanation
CAR can order publications that are not yet available electronically.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutists?
- A.
21
- B.
22
- C.
23
- D.
24
Correct Answer
D. 24Explanation
Chapter 24 in DoD 7000.14-R contains information on incentive pay for parachutists.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to an F-15C?
- A.
Continuation
- B.
Requalification
- C.
Mission qualification
- D.
Conversion/Difference
Correct Answer
D. Conversion/DifferenceExplanation
The correct answer is Conversion/Difference. When a pilot's aircraft assignment changes from one type to another, they would need to undergo Conversion/Difference training. This training is necessary to familiarize the pilot with the new aircraft's systems, controls, and operational procedures. It ensures that the pilot is competent and qualified to operate the new aircraft safely and effectively.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?
- A.
Refresher
- B.
Continuation
- C.
Initial qualification
- D.
Mission qualification
Correct Answer
D. Mission qualificationExplanation
A newly assigned navigator would need to undergo the mission qualification phase of training in order to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft. This phase of training focuses on specific mission-related skills and tasks, ensuring that the navigator is fully prepared and qualified to carry out their duties in the aircraft during actual missions. It includes training on mission planning, navigation procedures, communication protocols, and other mission-specific requirements.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?
- A.
Aircrew availability
- B.
Mission Requirements
- C.
Allocated flying hours
- D.
Equipment and aircraft availability
Correct Answer
A. Aircrew availabilityExplanation
Aircrew availability is considered the most flexible scheduling factor because it refers to the availability of the crew members who will be operating the aircraft. Unlike mission requirements, allocated flying hours, and equipment and aircraft availability, aircrew availability can be adjusted and modified more easily to accommodate changes in schedules or unforeseen circumstances. This flexibility allows for better adaptability and ensures that the necessary crew members are available when needed for missions or flights.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?
- A.
User administration
- B.
Organization
- C.
Password
- D.
Security
Correct Answer
D. SecurityExplanation
The correct answer is "Security." In an aviation resource management system, the Security window is used to limit update capability to specific features or windows, such as the Incentive Pay window. This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to make changes or updates in that particular area of the system. By setting up appropriate security measures, organizations can maintain control over their aviation resource management system and prevent unauthorized access or modifications.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What ARM concentrates on issue affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?
- A.
AAG
- B.
AWG
- C.
FAB
- D.
ASG
Correct Answer
B. AWGExplanation
The correct answer is AWG. AWG stands for the ARM Working Group, which focuses on addressing issues related to the implementation, technical operations, maintenance, and modification of ARMS (Advanced RISC Machines) technology. The AWG plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning and development of ARMS technology.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What aviaion resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215s will be implemented to enhance the ARMS database?
- A.
AAG
- B.
AWG
- C.
FAB
- D.
ASG
Correct Answer
D. ASGExplanation
The correct answer is ASG. ASG stands for Aviation Resource Management Group, which is responsible for prioritizing the implementation of AF IMT 3215s to enhance the ARMS database.Rate this question:
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- 21.
When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?
- A.
Aircraft and person
- B.
Aircraft and flight
- C.
Flight and resource
- D.
Personnel and resource
Correct Answer
D. Personnel and resourceExplanation
The information listed when the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS is categorized under personnel and resource. This means that the system captures and manages information related to both personnel and resources, such as personnel records, qualifications, and availability, as well as resource inventories, allocations, and utilization.Rate this question:
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- 22.
If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the
- A.
Information must be reentered
- B.
Interface must be done manually
- C.
Data will not overwrite the data in ARMS
- D.
MILPDS will overwrite ARMS and cause errors in the data
Correct Answer
C. Data will not overwrite the data in ARMSExplanation
If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, it means that there is no data present in that particular field. In this case, when the data is entered, it will not overwrite the data that already exists in ARMS (Automated Records Management System). This suggests that the two systems, MILPDS and ARMS, do not have a direct connection or synchronization, and entering data in one system will not affect the data in the other system.Rate this question:
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- 23.
To group various task IDs in a local manner for easy management. the ARMS database uses a training
- A.
Management
- B.
Assignment
- C.
Program
- D.
Profile
Correct Answer
D. ProfileExplanation
The ARMS database uses a profile to group various task IDs in a local manner for easy management. A profile is a set of parameters or settings that can be customized to meet specific requirements. In this case, the profile allows for the organization and categorization of task IDs, making it easier to manage and track them efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?
- A.
Profile assignment
- B.
Training Program
- C.
Training profile
- D.
Training task
Correct Answer
A. Profile assignmentExplanation
The correct answer is "Profile assignment." In ARMS, the profile assignment window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile. This window allows for the management and customization of training profiles for each individual, ensuring that their training needs and requirements are met effectively.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The source document required for changing the aircrew certification cade is an AF IMT
- A.
4324
- B.
4323
- C.
4322
- D.
4321
Correct Answer
A. 4324 -
- 26.
What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copliot who upgraded to a pilot?
- A.
Flyer
- B.
Training Program
- C.
Profile Assignment
- D.
Aicraft Assignment
Correct Answer
D. Aicraft AssignmentExplanation
The correct answer is Aircraft Assignment. This window is used to update the aircraft for a co-pilot who upgraded to a pilot. It allows for the assignment of specific aircraft to pilots based on their qualifications and experience. By updating the aircraft assignment, the system ensures that the pilot is assigned to the appropriate aircraft for their upgraded role.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron?
- A.
Training profile master list
- B.
Individual training summary
- C.
Training profile assignment list
- D.
Unit training currency summary
Correct Answer
C. Training profile assignment listExplanation
The training profile assignment list is used to review every profile assigned to aircrew members in a flying squadron. This list provides information about the specific training profiles that have been assigned to each individual, allowing for a comprehensive review of their training progress and requirements. It helps ensure that all aircrew members are up to date with their training and have completed the necessary qualifications for their assigned roles.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Guidance on how to complete an AFTO form 781 is in AFI 11-
- A.
401
- B.
402
- C.
410
- D.
421
Correct Answer
A. 401Explanation
The correct answer is 401 because AFI 11-401 provides guidance on how to complete an AFTO form 781. This AFI (Air Force Instruction) is the specific document that outlines the procedures and requirements for completing the form. Therefore, if someone needs assistance in filling out an AFTO form 781, they would refer to AFI 11-401 for guidance.Rate this question:
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- 29.
If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review, guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11-
- A.
401
- B.
402
- C.
410
- D.
421
Correct Answer
A. 401Explanation
The correct answer is 401 because AFI 11-401 provides guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS.Rate this question:
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- 30.
If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?
- A.
Database information
- B.
Training information
- C.
Resource information
- D.
Flying hour information
Correct Answer
C. Resource informationExplanation
To retrieve data on aircrew ratings, the business area that would be searched is "Resource information". This is because resource information typically includes details about the available personnel, their skills, qualifications, and ratings. In the context of aircrew, resource information would provide data on the ratings of the crew members, allowing for efficient retrieval of the required information for designing an Oracle Discoverer browser.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?
- A.
Table
- B.
Crosstab
- C.
Page detail table
- D.
Page detail crosstab
Correct Answer
B. CrosstabExplanation
A crosstab is a type of display that is used to show data in a matrix of rows and columns. It is commonly used to summarize and analyze data, especially when comparing multiple variables or dimensions. A crosstab allows for easy visualization of patterns and relationships within the data, making it a useful tool for data analysis and reporting.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What congressional act increased the OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates?
- A.
ACIA OF 1974
- B.
ACIA OF 1989
- C.
FY 96 NDAA
- D.
FY 99 NDAA
Correct Answer
B. ACIA OF 1989Explanation
The ACIA of 1989 is the correct answer because it refers to the Agricultural Credit Improvement Act of 1989. This act increased the OFDA (Outstanding Farmers Debt Adjustment) requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates. The ACIA of 1974, FY 96 NDAA, and FY 99 NDAA are not relevant to this specific requirement.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?
- A.
API
- B.
TSC
- C.
ASC
- D.
FAC
Correct Answer
A. APIExplanation
The code "API" identifies a rated officer manpower position.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been placed on flying status?
- A.
9C
- B.
9D
- C.
9E
- D.
9J
Correct Answer
B. 9DExplanation
A non-rated officer who has been placed on flying status would be assigned an ASC of 9D.Rate this question:
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- 35.
FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for
- A.
Review, evaluation, recommendation
- B.
Aeronautical order publishing
- C.
Recommendation
- D.
Final action
Correct Answer
D. Final actionExplanation
FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for final action. This means that after the recommendations are reviewed, evaluated, and recommended by the major command, the final decision or action is taken. The major command has the authority to make the final decision and implement any necessary actions based on the recommendations received.Rate this question:
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- 36.
An Aeronautical rating board
- A.
Makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF rating
- B.
Makes the final decision whether to award an AF aeronautical rating
- C.
Is required for medical officers who held a comparable flight surgeon rating
- D.
Determines if the applicant meets the required criteria and notifies the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order.
Correct Answer
A. Makes a recommendation whether to award a USAF ratingExplanation
The Aeronautical rating board is responsible for evaluating the qualifications and performance of individuals and making a recommendation on whether they should be awarded a USAF rating. This recommendation is then considered by the relevant authorities who ultimately make the final decision on whether to award the rating. The board plays a crucial role in assessing if the applicant meets the necessary criteria and if they do, they notify the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order.Rate this question:
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- 37.
An aeronautical rating board waiver
- A.
Is approved by the MAJCOM/A3
- B.
Is forwarded to HQ USAF/XOOT for final approval
- C.
Must be forwarded for final approval 60 days prior to publishing an aeronautical order
- D.
Is only approved for officers who have been on active flying status within 6 years of the request
Correct Answer
A. Is approved by the MAJCOM/A3Explanation
The given correct answer states that an aeronautical rating board waiver is approved by the MAJCOM/A3. This means that the approval for the waiver is granted by the Major Command's (MAJCOM) A3 office. This office is responsible for overseeing aeronautical operations and making decisions regarding waivers for aeronautical ratings. Therefore, the approval process for a waiver involves the MAJCOM/A3 office reviewing and granting the request.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What ASC would be assigned to an operational support member who has been placed on flying status?
- A.
9C
- B.
9D
- C.
9E
- D.
9J
Correct Answer
A. 9CExplanation
An operational support member who has been placed on flying status would be assigned ASC 9C. This ASC code is specifically designated for operational support members who are involved in flying operations.Rate this question:
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- 39.
What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to noninterference flyers that provide high altitude airdrop mission support?
- A.
CEFIP
- B.
ACIP
- C.
HDIP
- D.
NONE AUTHORIZED
Correct Answer
C. HDIPExplanation
HDIP stands for High-Density Incentive Pay. It is the type of incentive pay that is authorized to noninterference flyers who provide high altitude airdrop mission support. This means that these flyers will receive additional pay for their contributions to these types of missions.Rate this question:
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- 40.
For information regarding non-interference flyers, refer to AFI 11-
- A.
202
- B.
401
- C.
402
- D.
412
Correct Answer
B. 401 -
- 41.
What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?
- A.
Temporary
- B.
Permissive
- C.
Active
- D.
Initial
Correct Answer
C. ActiveExplanation
An individual required to perform full-time jump duties would be assigned the jump status of "Active." This indicates that they are actively engaged in jump duties and are ready to perform jumps as required.Rate this question:
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- 42.
When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending initial HALO school?
- A.
Prior to attending initial HALO school
- B.
Upon return from initial HALO school
- C.
Class start date of initial HALO school
- D.
Upon graduation of initial HALO school
Correct Answer
A. Prior to attending initial HALO schoolExplanation
An AO (Administrative Order) is published prior to attending initial HALO (High Altitude Low Opening) school. This suggests that the parachutist needs to be aware of certain administrative instructions or guidelines before they can begin their training at the HALO school. The AO likely contains important information about the requirements, procedures, and expectations for attending the school, ensuring that the parachutist is well-prepared and informed before starting their training.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What API codes must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions?
- A.
5,3,4,B and D
- B.
5,3,4,C and E
- C.
5,6,8,B and D
- D.
5,6,8,C and E
Correct Answer
C. 5,6,8,B and DExplanation
The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must monitor API codes 5, 6, 8, B, and D for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?
- A.
0
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
8
Correct Answer
B. 2Explanation
To check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file, you would review part 2 of the Aviation Management Suspense List.Rate this question:
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- 45.
If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?
- A.
New
- B.
Revised
- C.
Amendment
- D.
Revocation
Correct Answer
C. AmendmentExplanation
An amendment would be published to fix a minor typographical error on an AO. An amendment is a document that modifies or supplements an existing document, in this case, the AO. It is used to correct or update information that was previously incorrect or outdated. Therefore, an amendment is the appropriate type of AO to be published in order to rectify the error.Rate this question:
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- 46.
An aircrew member whose birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August. When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?
- A.
Prior to departure
- B.
Within 10 workdays after PCS date
- C.
Within three months after arriving at the new base
- D.
They do not need to be scheduled because they will receive an initial clearance exam upon arrival at their new base
Correct Answer
A. Prior to departureExplanation
The aircrew member would be scheduled for an annual flight physical prior to departure. This is because it is a requirement for aircrew members to undergo an annual flight physical to ensure they are fit for flying duties. By scheduling it prior to departure, the member can ensure they are cleared for flying before transitioning to their new active flying position.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001. If still grounded, what is the effective date of the medical disqualification?
- A.
15 April 2002
- B.
16 April 2002
- C.
15 December 2002
- D.
16 December 2002
Correct Answer
D. 16 December 2002Explanation
The effective date of the medical disqualification would be 16 December 2002. Since the CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001, it can be assumed that the grounding or medical disqualification would have occurred after that date. Therefore, the effective date of the medical disqualification would be the following year, on 16 December 2002.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Physiological training is required for
- A.
Only rated members assigned active aircraft
- B.
Only pilots who fly high-G onset rate aircraft
- C.
Any personnel authorized to fly in AF aircraft
- D.
All personnel who are or will be placed in flying status
Correct Answer
D. All personnel who are or will be placed in flying statusExplanation
Physiological training is required for all personnel who are or will be placed in flying status. This means that anyone who is authorized to fly in AF aircraft, regardless of their specific role or aircraft type, needs to undergo physiological training. This training is necessary to ensure that individuals are prepared to handle the physical demands and potential hazards associated with flying. It helps them understand how their bodies may react to the unique conditions experienced during flight and equips them with the knowledge and skills to mitigate any potential risks.Rate this question:
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- 49.
HAP initial is provided to
- A.
Any aircrew member who has a "J" duty prefix
- B.
Personnel applying to be placed on active jump status
- C.
Qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level
- D.
Aircrew members in an authorized "J" duty prefix position who are applying to be placed on active jump status.
Correct Answer
C. Qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea levelExplanation
The correct answer is "qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level". This is because the HAP initial is provided to individuals who are already qualified jump personnel and are participating in parachutist operations at high altitudes. The other options mentioned in the question, such as aircrew members with a "J" duty prefix and personnel applying for active jump status, do not specifically mention the altitude requirement of above 10,000 feet mean sea level.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI 11-
- A.
401
- B.
402
- C.
403
- D.
404
Correct Answer
D. 404Explanation
The correct answer is 404 because AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a type of document that provides guidance and regulations for specific topics within the Air Force. The numbers following AFI represent the specific instruction number. In this case, AFI 11-404 would be the correct instruction for guidance on centrifuge training.Rate this question:
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