1c072: Aviation Resource Management! Airforce Trivia Quiz

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1. The source document required for changing the aircrew certification cade is an AF IMT

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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About This Quiz
1c072: Aviation Resource Management! Airforce Trivia Quiz - Quiz

Below is a 1c072: Aviation Resource Management! Airforce Trivia Quiz. A person who holds this position is given the power to oversee parachutes, parachutists, and all the related resources and equipment. Literary, no one can jump off a plane and land safely if they don’t have a qualified aviation resource... see moremanage backing them. Do take the test and see how well you remember your training! see less

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2. What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to perform full-time jump duties?

Explanation

An individual required to perform full-time jump duties would be assigned the jump status of "Active." This indicates that they are actively engaged in jump duties and are ready to perform jumps as required.

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3. Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?

Explanation

HARM (Hazardous Air Traffic Reporting and Management) is the functional area that maintains flight/jump record folders. HARM is responsible for managing and reporting any hazardous air traffic incidents, including maintaining records of flights and jumps.

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4. Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members?

Explanation

The correct answer is STANEVAL because STANEVAL (Standardization and Evaluation) is responsible for maintaining an AF IMT 8 (Aircrew Qualification and Training Record) for all aircrew members. STANEVAL ensures that aircrew members meet the necessary qualifications and training requirements to perform their duties effectively and safely. By maintaining the AF IMT 8, STANEVAL can track and document the training and qualifications of aircrew members, ensuring compliance with regulations and standards.

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5. If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO would be published to fix the incorrect information?

Explanation

An amendment would be published to fix a minor typographical error on an AO. An amendment is a document that modifies or supplements an existing document, in this case, the AO. It is used to correct or update information that was previously incorrect or outdated. Therefore, an amendment is the appropriate type of AO to be published in order to rectify the error.

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6. What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?

Explanation

The code "API" identifies a rated officer manpower position.

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7. What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?

Explanation

Aircrew availability is considered the most flexible scheduling factor because it refers to the availability of the crew members who will be operating the aircraft. Unlike mission requirements, allocated flying hours, and equipment and aircraft availability, aircrew availability can be adjusted and modified more easily to accommodate changes in schedules or unforeseen circumstances. This flexibility allows for better adaptability and ensures that the necessary crew members are available when needed for missions or flights.

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8. The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining HARM office are the IDS, ITS,

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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9. The second character of the ASC identifies the

Explanation

The second character of the ASC identifies the flying status code. This code represents the current flying status of an individual, indicating whether they are actively flying or not. It is used for tracking and managing flight operations and ensuring that only qualified and authorized individuals are assigned to fly.

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10. What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copliot who upgraded to a pilot?

Explanation

The correct answer is Aircraft Assignment. This window is used to update the aircraft for a co-pilot who upgraded to a pilot. It allows for the assignment of specific aircraft to pilots based on their qualifications and experience. By updating the aircraft assignment, the system ensures that the pilot is assigned to the appropriate aircraft for their upgraded role.

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11. An aeronautical rating board waiver

Explanation

The given correct answer states that an aeronautical rating board waiver is approved by the MAJCOM/A3. This means that the approval for the waiver is granted by the Major Command's (MAJCOM) A3 office. This office is responsible for overseeing aeronautical operations and making decisions regarding waivers for aeronautical ratings. Therefore, the approval process for a waiver involves the MAJCOM/A3 office reviewing and granting the request.

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12. The first character of the ASC identifies

Explanation

The first character of the ASC identifies the entitlement status code.

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13. What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to an F-15C?

Explanation

The correct answer is Conversion/Difference. When a pilot's aircraft assignment changes from one type to another, they would need to undergo Conversion/Difference training. This training is necessary to familiarize the pilot with the new aircraft's systems, controls, and operational procedures. It ensures that the pilot is competent and qualified to operate the new aircraft safely and effectively.

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14. For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge is the date

Explanation

The effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the basic badge is the date the member met all applicable criteria. This means that the badge will be awarded once the member has fulfilled all the necessary requirements and qualifications for receiving it. The other options, such as the first flight or the signing of the application letter, do not determine the effective date for the award.

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15. What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to noninterference flyers that provide high altitude airdrop mission support?

Explanation

HDIP stands for High-Density Incentive Pay. It is the type of incentive pay that is authorized to noninterference flyers who provide high altitude airdrop mission support. This means that these flyers will receive additional pay for their contributions to these types of missions.

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16. Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM?

Explanation

The correct answer is CHARM. CHARM stands for Combatant Commanders' Humanitarian Assistance Response Training Manager. They are responsible for providing host aviation resource management training to individuals who are not permanently assigned to the HARM.

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17. Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are

Explanation

The correct answer is telephone, radio communication, and physical environment. These three categories represent the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities. Telephone communication can be intercepted or monitored, compromising sensitive information. Radio communication can also be intercepted, especially if proper encryption measures are not in place. The physical environment refers to the physical security measures in place, such as access control, surveillance, and protection of sensitive areas or equipment. Failure to adequately secure any of these areas can lead to exploitation and compromise of OPSEC.

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18. If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, the * sign identifies what at the 3,5, or 7 level?

Explanation

If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the "Core Tasks" column, it means that the task is identified as a core task at the 3, 5, or 7 level.

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19. A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar and received HDIP for a 3-calendar month period.  WHich pay rule would apply to the member?

Explanation

The correct answer is 1. The reason for this is that the parachutist performed a parachute jump and received HDIP (Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay) for a 3-calendar month period. This suggests that the member is eligible for HDIP, which is a type of pay given to individuals who perform hazardous duty. Therefore, the pay rule that would apply to the member is rule number 1.

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20. Physiological training is required for 

Explanation

Physiological training is required for all personnel who are or will be placed in flying status. This means that anyone who is authorized to fly in AF aircraft, regardless of their specific role or aircraft type, needs to undergo physiological training. This training is necessary to ensure that individuals are prepared to handle the physical demands and potential hazards associated with flying. It helps them understand how their bodies may react to the unique conditions experienced during flight and equips them with the knowledge and skills to mitigate any potential risks.

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21. An aircrew member whose birth month is October will PCS to another active flying position on 10 August.  When would the member be scheduled for an annual flight physical?

Explanation

The aircrew member would be scheduled for an annual flight physical prior to departure. This is because it is a requirement for aircrew members to undergo an annual flight physical to ensure they are fit for flying duties. By scheduling it prior to departure, the member can ensure they are cleared for flying before transitioning to their new active flying position.

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22. Which document would not be included in a case file for a training waiver?

Explanation

The trainee's request letter would not be included in a case file for a training waiver because it is the document submitted by the trainee requesting the waiver, rather than a document providing information or justification for the waiver. The case file would typically include documents such as the trainer's or supervisor's letter, which may provide additional context or support for the waiver, a copy of the individual's STS (Specialty Training Standard) to assess their qualifications and eligibility, and the Group 1C0X2 functional letter, which may outline the specific requirements for the training.

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23. The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11-

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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24. What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns?

Explanation

A crosstab is a type of display that is used to show data in a matrix of rows and columns. It is commonly used to summarize and analyze data, especially when comparing multiple variables or dimensions. A crosstab allows for easy visualization of patterns and relationships within the data, making it a useful tool for data analysis and reporting.

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25. What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft?

Explanation

A newly assigned navigator would need to undergo the mission qualification phase of training in order to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft. This phase of training focuses on specific mission-related skills and tasks, ensuring that the navigator is fully prepared and qualified to carry out their duties in the aircraft during actual missions. It includes training on mission planning, navigation procedures, communication protocols, and other mission-specific requirements.

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26. A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001.  If still grounded, what is the effective date of the medical disqualification?

Explanation

The effective date of the medical disqualification would be 16 December 2002. Since the CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001, it can be assumed that the grounding or medical disqualification would have occurred after that date. Therefore, the effective date of the medical disqualification would be the following year, on 16 December 2002.

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27. How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member?

Explanation

The losing HARM is required to maintain PCS products for an aircrew member for a period of 24 months. This means that for a total of 2 years, the losing HARM is responsible for ensuring that all necessary products and documentation are maintained and updated for the aircrew member's Permanent Change of Station (PCS). This includes any paperwork, records, or certifications that are required for the aircrew member's job or position.

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28. What ARM concentrates on issue affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS?

Explanation

The correct answer is AWG. AWG stands for the ARM Working Group, which focuses on addressing issues related to the implementation, technical operations, maintenance, and modification of ARMS (Advanced RISC Machines) technology. The AWG plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth functioning and development of ARMS technology.

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29. What API codes must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office monitor for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions?

Explanation

The host aviation resource management (HARM) office must monitor API codes 5, 6, 8, B, and D for double billeting of flight surgeon and staff positions.

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30. What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron?

Explanation

The training profile assignment list is used to review every profile assigned to aircrew members in a flying squadron. This list provides information about the specific training profiles that have been assigned to each individual, allowing for a comprehensive review of their training progress and requirements. It helps ensure that all aircrew members are up to date with their training and have completed the necessary qualifications for their assigned roles.

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31. If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the

Explanation

If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, it means that there is no data present in that particular field. In this case, when the data is entered, it will not overwrite the data that already exists in ARMS (Automated Records Management System). This suggests that the two systems, MILPDS and ARMS, do not have a direct connection or synchronization, and entering data in one system will not affect the data in the other system.

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32. Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file?

Explanation

To check the accuracy of the AF IMT 1042 suspense file, you would review part 2 of the Aviation Management Suspense List.

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33. To group various task IDs in a local manner for easy management. the ARMS database uses a training

Explanation

The ARMS database uses a profile to group various task IDs in a local manner for easy management. A profile is a set of parameters or settings that can be customized to meet specific requirements. In this case, the profile allows for the organization and categorization of task IDs, making it easier to manage and track them efficiently.

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34. What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been placed  on flying status?

Explanation

A non-rated officer who has been placed on flying status would be assigned an ASC of 9D.

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35. FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for

Explanation

FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the member's major command for final action. This means that after the recommendations are reviewed, evaluated, and recommended by the major command, the final decision or action is taken. The major command has the authority to make the final decision and implement any necessary actions based on the recommendations received.

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36. What consideration for identifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797?

Explanation

Looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797 would help in identifying a Master Task List because it would indicate the need for special training. The list may include tasks that require specific skills or knowledge, which would necessitate special training to ensure that individuals are properly equipped to perform those tasks. By considering this factor, the Master Task List can be developed to include all the necessary training requirements for personnel to effectively carry out their duties.

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37. What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?

Explanation

AFI 10-701 provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities. This Air Force Instruction outlines the procedures and practices to identify, assess, and mitigate vulnerabilities in operational security (OPSEC). It provides comprehensive guidance on identifying potential threats, analyzing vulnerabilities, and implementing countermeasures to protect sensitive information and operations. By following the guidelines outlined in AFI 10-701, organizations can enhance their OPSEC posture and minimize the risk of unauthorized disclosure or compromise of critical information.

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38. What ASC would be assigned to an operational support member who has been placed on flying status?

Explanation

An operational support member who has been placed on flying status would be assigned ASC 9C. This ASC code is specifically designated for operational support members who are involved in flying operations.

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39. When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending initial HALO school?

Explanation

An AO (Administrative Order) is published prior to attending initial HALO (High Altitude Low Opening) school. This suggests that the parachutist needs to be aware of certain administrative instructions or guidelines before they can begin their training at the HALO school. The AO likely contains important information about the requirements, procedures, and expectations for attending the school, ensuring that the parachutist is well-prepared and informed before starting their training.

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40. What congressional act increased the OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates?

Explanation

The ACIA of 1989 is the correct answer because it refers to the Agricultural Credit Improvement Act of 1989. This act increased the OFDA (Outstanding Farmers Debt Adjustment) requirements at the 12 and 18-year gates. The ACIA of 1974, FY 96 NDAA, and FY 99 NDAA are not relevant to this specific requirement.

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41. An Aeronautical rating board

Explanation

The Aeronautical rating board is responsible for evaluating the qualifications and performance of individuals and making a recommendation on whether they should be awarded a USAF rating. This recommendation is then considered by the relevant authorities who ultimately make the final decision on whether to award the rating. The board plays a crucial role in assessing if the applicant meets the necessary criteria and if they do, they notify the HARM office to publish the appropriate aeronautical order.

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42. An officer arrived for undergraduate flying training on 19 Sep 2005 and started training on 22 Sep 05 (class start date).  If the individual graduated on 12 Jul 06 and PCS'd on 13 Jul 06, when would the years of rated service start counting for advanced ratings and badges?

Explanation

The years of rated service would start counting for advanced ratings and badges on 12 Jul 06 because that is the date when the individual graduated from undergraduate flying training and PCS'd (Permanent Change of Station). This is the date when the individual officially completed their training and began their career as an officer.

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43. For information regarding non-interference flyers, refer to AFI 11-

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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44. If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data?

Explanation

To retrieve data on aircrew ratings, the business area that would be searched is "Resource information". This is because resource information typically includes details about the available personnel, their skills, qualifications, and ratings. In the context of aircrew, resource information would provide data on the ratings of the crew members, allowing for efficient retrieval of the required information for designing an Oracle Discoverer browser.

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45. If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review, guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11-

Explanation

The correct answer is 401 because AFI 11-401 provides guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS.

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46. HAP initial is provided to

Explanation

The correct answer is "qualified jump personnel who participate in parachutist operations above 10,000 feet mean sea level". This is because the HAP initial is provided to individuals who are already qualified jump personnel and are participating in parachutist operations at high altitudes. The other options mentioned in the question, such as aircrew members with a "J" duty prefix and personnel applying for active jump status, do not specifically mention the altitude requirement of above 10,000 feet mean sea level.

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47. Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?

Explanation

CAR can order publications that are not yet available electronically.

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48. What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for parachutists?

Explanation

Chapter 24 in DoD 7000.14-R contains information on incentive pay for parachutists.

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49. What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the Incentive Pay window in ARMS?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Security." In an aviation resource management system, the Security window is used to limit update capability to specific features or windows, such as the Incentive Pay window. This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to make changes or updates in that particular area of the system. By setting up appropriate security measures, organizations can maintain control over their aviation resource management system and prevent unauthorized access or modifications.

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50. What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability?

Explanation

Assessment of risks involves evaluating the potential threats and vulnerabilities to determine the level of risk associated with a particular situation. In this context, it involves estimating an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability. By assessing the risks, one can identify the likelihood and potential impact of an adversary exploiting a vulnerability, helping to prioritize and implement appropriate countermeasures to protect critical information.

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51. Guidance on how to complete an AFTO form 781 is in AFI 11-

Explanation

The correct answer is 401 because AFI 11-401 provides guidance on how to complete an AFTO form 781. This AFI (Air Force Instruction) is the specific document that outlines the procedures and requirements for completing the form. Therefore, if someone needs assistance in filling out an AFTO form 781, they would refer to AFI 11-401 for guidance.

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52. What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Profile assignment." In ARMS, the profile assignment window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile. This window allows for the management and customization of training profiles for each individual, ensuring that their training needs and requirements are met effectively.

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53. If an ARC aircrew member flies a 2.0 inactive duty (IAD) for the month of JAN and is on AD status from 1-9 JAN (1.2 AD hour requirement), how would the flight hours be applied?

Explanation

The correct answer is that 2.0 must be applied to the IAD hour requirement. This means that the 2.0 hours flown during the inactive duty period in the month of JAN will be counted towards fulfilling the hour requirement for inactive duty.

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54. When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed?

Explanation

The information listed when the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS is categorized under personnel and resource. This means that the system captures and manages information related to both personnel and resources, such as personnel records, qualifications, and availability, as well as resource inventories, allocations, and utilization.

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55. A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5-lvl upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training?

Explanation

The correct answer is 21 because a trainee needs to pass 21 months in upgrade training in order for the supervisor to submit a training waiver for 5-lvl upgrade training.

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56. What aviaion resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215s will be implemented to enhance the ARMS database?

Explanation

The correct answer is ASG. ASG stands for Aviation Resource Management Group, which is responsible for prioritizing the implementation of AF IMT 3215s to enhance the ARMS database.

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57. Guidance on required host aviation resource management (HARM) actions on disqualification of a rated officer for medical fitness is in AFI 11-

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

Submit
58. What mandates the HARM office audit the entitlement verification report (EVR) on a quarterly basis?

Explanation

AFI 11-421 mandates the HARM office to audit the entitlement verification report (EVR) on a quarterly basis.

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59. Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly

Explanation

The term "critical information" refers to key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly intentions, capabilities, activities, and limitations. This means that critical information includes inquiries regarding what the friendly forces intend to do, what their capabilities are, what activities they are engaged in, and what limitations they may have. By understanding this critical information, adversary elements can better assess and exploit any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the friendly forces' plans and operations.

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60. If a pilot is missing 72.4 hours of student time in the T-37B, what ARMS window would be used to update the missing time?

Explanation

To update the missing time of 72.4 hours for the pilot in the T-37B, the ARMS window that would be used is "Career Total Hours." This window represents the cumulative total of the pilot's flying hours throughout their entire career. By updating the missing time in this window, it ensures that the pilot's overall flight record accurately reflects their total hours of experience.

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61. If a DD 149 was approved to update 200.5 hours of missing instructor pilot flight time, what ARMS window would be used to make the update?

Explanation

To update the missing instructor pilot flight time, the ARMS window that would be used is "Aircraft hours". This is because the missing flight time is specific to the aircraft and not the pilot's overall career or any other category. The "Aircraft hours" category allows for the accurate recording and tracking of flight time for individual aircraft, making it the appropriate choice for this update.

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62. Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI 11-

Explanation

The correct answer is 404 because AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a type of document that provides guidance and regulations for specific topics within the Air Force. The numbers following AFI represent the specific instruction number. In this case, AFI 11-404 would be the correct instruction for guidance on centrifuge training.

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The source document required for changing the aircrew certification...
What jump status would be assigned to an individual required to...
Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders?
Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew...
If there was a minor typographical error on an AO, what type of AO...
What code identifies a rated officer manpower position?
What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible?
The ARMS reports you would find in a JRF that has arrived at a gaining...
The second character of the ASC identifies the
What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copliot who...
An aeronautical rating board waiver
The first character of the ASC identifies
What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft...
For a CEA, the effective date for the aeronautical order awarding the...
What type of incentive pay, if any, is authorized to noninterference...
Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to...
Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities...
If an STS element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in...
A parachutist eligible for HDIP performed a parachute jump on 15 Mar...
Physiological training is required for 
An aircrew member whose birth month is October will PCS to another...
Which document would not be included in a case file for a training...
The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program...
What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows...
What phase of training would be required for a newly assigned...
A CEA was placed on DNIF status effective 15 December 2001.  If...
How many months is the losing HARM required to maintain PCS products...
What ARM concentrates on issue affecting ARMS implementation,...
What API codes must the host aviation resource management (HARM)...
What ARMS report do you use to review every profile assigned to the...
If the information in the MILPDS element is blank, the
Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review...
To group various task IDs in a local manner for easy management. the...
What ASC would be assigned to a non-rated officer who has been placed...
FEB recommendations are sent through command channels to the...
What consideration for identifying a Master Task List would include...
What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities?
What ASC would be assigned to an operational support member who has...
When do you publish an AO for a parachutist attending initial HALO...
What congressional act increased the OFDA requirements at the 12 and...
An Aeronautical rating board
An officer arrived for undergraduate flying training on 19 Sep 2005...
For information regarding non-interference flyers, refer to AFI 11-
If an Oracle Discoverer browser needed to be designed to retrieve data...
If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report...
HAP initial is provided to
Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically?
What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information on incentive pay for...
What aviation resource management system window is used to limit...
What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's...
Guidance on how to complete an AFTO form 781 is in AFI 11-
What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an...
If an ARC aircrew member flies a 2.0 inactive duty (IAD) for the month...
When the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories...
A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5-lvl upgrade...
What aviaion resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215s...
Guidance on required host aviation resource management (HARM) actions...
What mandates the HARM office audit the entitlement verification...
Critical information is defined as key questions asked by adversary...
If a pilot is missing 72.4 hours of student time in the T-37B, what...
If a DD 149 was approved to update 200.5 hours of missing instructor...
Guidance on centrifuge training is in AFI 11-
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