Module 1-3 Aviation Resource Management Test

Proration is authorized in instances of PCS (Permanent Change of Station) and non-flying TDY (Temporary Duty) as well as in cases of being on DOWN status and emergency leave. Both options A and B include these instances, making them the correct answer.

When a member is placed in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, the DD Form 2992 is updated and placed in the suspense file. This is done to ensure that the member's status is properly documented and tracked. The suspense file serves as a centralized location for important documents that require further action or review. By updating ARMS (Aviation Resource Management System) and placing the form in the suspense file, the member's DNIF status can be effectively managed and monitored.

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The duty AFSC prefix for an evaluator is "Q".

API 6 indicates a rated officer position at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that require the officer to actively fly.

The first character of the crew position duty code indicates the qualification level.

When a member is reassigned from a dual-coded flying/jump position to a J-coded position only, the ASC (Air Staff Code) for this member would be 9E.

The correct answer is 3 duty days. When receiving a verbal order, it is important to confirm it within a reasonable timeframe. In this case, confirming the verbal order within 3 duty days ensures timely communication and avoids any potential misunderstandings or delays in processing the order. Prompt confirmation allows for efficient coordination and execution of tasks, ensuring smooth workflow and customer satisfaction.

Dual credit is the correct answer because it refers to the situation where completing one task leads to receiving credit or updating another task simultaneously. This means that the individual is able to earn credit for two tasks by completing just one.

After updating the required corrections in ARMS, you would annotate the training update audit listing by initialing and dating the report near the erroneous information. This helps to indicate that you have identified the mistakes and have taken the necessary steps to correct them. By providing your initials and the date, it also helps to track the progress and timeline of the updates made.

ASC 05 indicates that the individual has been disqualified due to a FEB (Flight Evaluation Board) action. This means that the person's ability to perform in-flight duties has been deemed inadequate or unsatisfactory, leading to their disqualification.

AO, physical qualification, physiological training, continuation training, flying time maximums, and aircraft assignments are all examples of factors that can determine whether a flight should proceed or not. These factors are part of the "go no go" procedures, which are protocols and guidelines that help pilots and flight crews make decisions about whether it is safe to proceed with a flight or if it should be canceled or delayed. These procedures ensure that the safety of the flight and the passengers is always the top priority.

The ARC member spent 15 days in inactive duty pay status for the month of June because the question states that the member performed 15 days of active duty. This implies that for the remaining days of the month, the member was in inactive duty pay status.

A static line jump refers to a type of jump where a line or strap is attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft. When the jumper exits the aircraft, the parachute is automatically deployed due to the tension in the static line. This method is commonly used in military training and ensures that the parachute is deployed without the need for the jumper to manually activate it.

When looking at a member's JHR (Jump History Record), you review the Jump Total, Jump Conditions, and Jump Types. The Jump Total gives you the overall number of jumps the member has completed. The Jump Conditions provide information about the conditions in which the jumps were performed, such as weather or equipment used. The Jump Types indicate the different types of jumps the member has done, such as static line or freefall. By reviewing these items, you can get a comprehensive understanding of the member's jump history and experience.

The Flyer Availability Window is used to update the member's flight physical. This window allows for the management of flight physicals and ensures that all necessary information is up to date. It is specifically designed to handle the availability of flyers and their physical fitness status, including any updates or changes that may be required.

AF Form 8 is used to record and certify a member's qualification for ground and flight evaluations.

When an aircrew member demonstrates the ability to perform aircrew duties safely but requires additional training in one or more areas, they are given a qualification level of Q2. This means that they have met the minimum requirements to safely perform their duties, but there are specific areas where they need further training or improvement.

The correct answer is AF IMT 196. This form is used to apply for a parachutist badge.

A navigator who was previously qualified as a pilot may qualify for an Advanced Navigator Rating. This rating acknowledges their previous experience and allows them to further advance their skills and knowledge in navigation. It is a specialized rating that focuses on the navigational aspects of flying, rather than the piloting aspects.

To permanently award the basic airman aircrew member badge, a total of 10 combat missions must be completed in a combat zone. This suggests that the badge is given as a recognition of experience and skill gained through participating in a significant number of combat missions.

The correct answer is "Regular, Amendment, Revoke." Aeronautical orders can be classified into these three types. Regular orders are the standard orders that are issued without any changes or modifications. Amendment orders are issued to make changes or additions to the regular orders. Revoke orders are issued to cancel or withdraw the regular or amendment orders.

The correct answer is "Provides security of aircraft." In flying operations, security forces (SECFO) are responsible for ensuring the safety and protection of aircraft. They are tasked with maintaining the security of the aircraft, preventing unauthorized access, and responding to any security threats or incidents that may arise. This includes conducting regular patrols, implementing security measures, and coordinating with other security agencies to ensure the safety and integrity of the aircraft.

A post mission review is important because it validates the mission and helps maintain data integrity in ARMS. After a mission, reviewing the actions and outcomes allows for an evaluation of the mission's success and any areas that may need improvement. This review ensures that the mission was carried out effectively and that the data collected during the mission is accurate and reliable. It helps identify any mistakes or issues that occurred during the mission and provides an opportunity to make necessary adjustments for future missions.

The Unit Currency Summary provides a summary of all currency tasks for the entire unit. This report would include information on the currency status of all personnel within the unit, ensuring that all members are up to date and qualified in their respective tasks. It allows for easy monitoring and tracking of currency requirements, ensuring that the unit is prepared and capable of performing their duties effectively.

In this scenario, if the termination date is unknown and the MPO action is to start pay, the termination date block of the form should be filled with "FO". This indicates that the pay should continue until further notice or until a specific termination date is provided.

The correct answer is "Provides the vehicles and well-trained drivers." In flying operations, transportation is responsible for providing the vehicles and well-trained drivers. This means that they are in charge of ensuring that there are vehicles available for transportation purposes and that the drivers are properly trained to operate these vehicles. This is an important aspect of flying operations as it ensures that personnel and equipment can be transported safely and efficiently.

The correct answer is "Issues equipment." In flying operations, the "Supply" department is responsible for providing equipment to the aircraft. This includes ensuring that all necessary equipment is available and in proper working condition for the flight operations. By issuing equipment, the Supply department ensures that the aircraft and its crew have everything they need to carry out their tasks effectively and safely.

When a family member calls to inquire about an aircraft mishap, it is important to refer them to both public affairs and the squadron commander. Public affairs can provide accurate and official information about the incident, while the squadron commander can address any specific concerns or questions related to the mishap. By referring the family member to both B (public affairs) and C (squadron commander), they can receive comprehensive and reliable information about the situation.

Personnel who are required to complete an altitude chamber include those in active flying status and HAPs (High Altitude Parachutists) who participate in parachute operations at 10,000 feet MSL. This suggests that individuals who are actively involved in flying or parachute operations at high altitudes need to undergo altitude chamber training to acclimate their bodies to the changes in pressure and oxygen levels.

The correct answer is "Under Investigation for actions not involved with flying." This is because the other options listed, such as "Failure to meet standards," "Disqualification from aviation service," and "Lack of proficiency," are all valid reasons for convening an FEB (Flying Evaluation Board). However, being under investigation for actions not involved with flying would not typically be a reason to convene an FEB.

The UMD (Unit Manning Document) reflects the authorized personnel assigned to a specific unit or organization, while the JMD (Joint Manning Document) reflects the authorized personnel assigned to a joint organization. Since parachute duty is a specialized task, the number of individuals authorized to perform it would be reflected in both the UMD and JMD. Therefore, the correct answer is UMD and JMD.

While occupying a dual-coded flying/jump position, a member may receive incentive pay for both flying and jump duties. This means that they will receive additional compensation for participating in both flying operations and parachute jumps.

AFTO 781 is a form used in the aviation industry to document and track maintenance actions on aircraft. Block 43 of the form is used to record the name and signature of the individual completing the form. The question asks which of the given options cannot extract an AFTO 781 by completing block 43. The correct answer is "Crew Chief" because a crew chief is typically responsible for overseeing the maintenance and servicing of an aircraft, but they may not have the authority to extract or complete the AFTO 781 form. This task is usually performed by commissioned officers, government civilians (when pilot in command), or CHARM/Superintendent personnel who have the necessary authorization and training.

The "Command Post" in flying operations is responsible for serving as the base central command and control. This means that it acts as the central hub for coordinating and overseeing all flight operations. It is responsible for managing and directing the activities of the flying units, ensuring effective communication and coordination between various personnel and units involved in the operations. The Command Post plays a crucial role in maintaining situational awareness, monitoring aircraft movements, and responding to any emergencies or contingencies that may arise during flight operations.

The Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is the correct answer because it is the functioning body established to examine flying training, experience, and qualifications to determine if an aircrew member has rated potential comparable to a USAF rated officer. The ARB evaluates the skills, knowledge, and abilities of aircrew members and determines their eligibility for aeronautical ratings. This board plays a crucial role in assessing the capabilities of aircrew members and ensuring that they meet the required standards for flying in the USAF.

The given answer, "Multiple date window," is the correct choice because it accurately describes a window that is used for updating tasks accomplished by multiple members on multiple dates. This window allows for the input and tracking of tasks completed by different individuals over a span of time, making it suitable for managing and monitoring progress on various projects or assignments.

The correct answer is Type 1, Type 2. This is because the question asks for the two types of HDIP that pertain to parachute duty. Out of the given options, Type 1 and Type 2 are the only ones that include parachute duty. Type 3 does not pertain to parachute duty, so it is not included in the correct answer.

The final decision authority for a FEB (Force Evaluation Board) action is the MAJCOM/A3T (Major Command/A3T). This means that the MAJCOM/A3T has the ultimate power and responsibility to make the final decision regarding a FEB action.

When assigned to the SARM office and notified of an aircraft mishap, the correct action is to process all documents related to the mishap, except for the mishap leg. This means that all necessary paperwork and records should be reviewed, organized, and filed appropriately, excluding any documentation specifically related to the mishap itself. The mishap leg documents would likely be handled separately by investigators or other relevant personnel.

Combat Support Time refers to any aerial activity, engagements, or attacks conducted by aircraft against an enemy of the United States or an opposing foreign force that operate outside the designated hostile airspace, where there is no risk of exposure to hostile fire. This term specifically highlights the support role of the aircraft in combat situations, where they provide assistance and engage in offensive actions without being directly exposed to enemy fire.

To schedule an ARMS-MilPDS interface, the "Process Incoming PDS files" checkbox must be enabled. This checkbox allows ARMS to process and handle incoming PDS files effectively. By enabling this checkbox, ARMS can automatically receive and process the necessary data from the MilPDS system, ensuring a smooth and efficient interface between the two systems.

The Flying Time Update Summary report is used to audit flying time entries. This report provides a summary of the updates made to flying time records, allowing for a comprehensive review of the accuracy and completeness of the entries. This report is crucial for auditing purposes as it helps ensure that all flying time is properly recorded and accounted for.

The correct answer is "review aircrew training for accuracy; perform technical management functions; plan schedule arm functions." This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the tasks that the individual at the 7 LVL should perform. These tasks include reviewing aircrew training for accuracy, performing technical management functions, and planning schedule arm functions.

The suspension period for a member going through an FEB starts on the date of the CC letter. This means that once the member receives the CC letter, the suspension period begins. It is important for the member to be aware of this date as it determines when they will be suspended from their duties and responsibilities. The other dates mentioned, such as the date the FEB board is appointed, the date of findings, and the date MAJCOM approves, are not relevant to the start of the suspension period.

Missileers belong to the AFI series number 13.

AFI 11-410 is the correct answer because it specifically directs the administration, responsibilities, minimum standards, and procedures for all USAF agencies and personnel conducting premeditated parachuting operations. This AFI provides guidance and regulations to ensure the safe and effective execution of parachuting operations within the Air Force.

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Altitude chamber training is a type of training that simulates high altitude conditions to prepare individuals for situations where they may be exposed to low oxygen levels. The original altitude chamber training is valid for 5 years, and it expires on the last day of the month. This means that after 5 years, the training needs to be renewed in order to ensure that individuals are up to date with the necessary skills and knowledge to handle high altitude situations.

HDIP stands for Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay. It is a special pay given to non-career aviators, operational support members, and parachutists as an incentive for performing certain hazardous duties. This pay is meant to compensate individuals for the increased risk and hardships associated with their duties.

The two types of jump status are active and temporary. The term "active" refers to a jump that is currently in progress or ongoing, while "temporary" indicates a jump that is only active for a limited period of time. This suggests that there are jumps that can be continuously active and jumps that have a temporary duration before becoming inactive.

A 120-Day Notification Letter is used to inform employees about the involuntary termination of their incentive pay due to a base closure. This means that the company or organization is shutting down the base where the employees work, and as a result, they will no longer receive the additional pay or bonuses that they were previously entitled to. This letter is sent to provide the employees with a 120-day notice period, allowing them time to prepare for the termination of their incentive pay and make any necessary adjustments to their financial situation.

During a JRF review, in addition to the standard procedures followed in a FRF review, the additional documents that must be reviewed are JHR (Job Hazard Analysis Report) and IJR (Incident Job Report). These documents provide important information about the hazards associated with the job and any incidents that may have occurred during its execution. Reviewing these documents helps in identifying potential risks and improving safety measures for the job.

The correct answer is CSD, which stands for Combat Support Date. This is the date that would be used to initially place a member on jump status. It is the date when the member completes all the required training and qualifications necessary to be eligible for jump status.

When a parachutist is assigned to a non-career aviator DAFSC prefix of X, K, or Q on the UMD, it means that they are dual coded in a flight/jump position. This means that they are qualified to perform both flying duties and parachute jumping duties. They have the necessary skills and training to carry out these tasks effectively and safely.

AFI 48-123 is the correct answer because it is the Air Force Instruction that outlines the different classes of medical examinations required for individuals to qualify for flying duty. This publication provides the guidelines and requirements for medical examinations for aircrew members and ensures that they are physically fit to perform their duties safely. AFI 48-123 covers the different classes of medical examinations, such as initial, periodic, and special examinations, and provides detailed information on the specific medical standards and criteria that must be met for each class.

The correct answer is Aviation Service Suspense List. This report provides a list of career aviators who are nearing an aviation service gate and also includes their projected Aviation Service Code (ASC). It helps in tracking and managing the career progression of aviators in the aviation service.

The codes ESC, API, FSC, and FAc are used to identify the type of flying incentive pay a member is currently receiving. The correct answer is ESC, although the specific meaning of this code is not provided in the question.

A JRF audit is required only upon arrival. This means that when a JRF (Joint Receipts Form) arrives, it must undergo an audit to ensure accuracy and compliance with regulations. The audit is not required annually or during the PCS (Permanent Change of Station) process. This suggests that the focus is primarily on verifying the JRF upon its initial arrival rather than conducting regular or relocation-specific audits.

The L type jump in ARMs indicates a Halo Jump. A Halo Jump refers to a High Altitude Low Opening jump, where the parachutist jumps from a high altitude and delays opening the parachute until a low altitude. This type of jump is often used in military operations to allow parachutists to enter a target area undetected and with minimal exposure to enemy defenses.

Instructor upgrade training is not a distinct phase of the AFATP because it focuses on upgrading existing instructors rather than training new aircrew members. The other options - continuation training, qualification training, and aircrew upgrade training - are all different phases of the AFATP that involve training and development of aircrew members at various stages of their careers.

A Training Source Document is an official record that proves the training took place and the member accomplished the task. It serves as evidence of completion and can be used for documentation and verification purposes. This document may contain details such as the date, duration, and content of the training, as well as the name of the member who underwent the training. It is an important record in maintaining a comprehensive training history and ensuring compliance with training requirements.

The Jump History Report provides a summary of career jump totals, jump type, and conditions. This report gives an overview of all the jumps made by an individual, including the total number of jumps, the types of jumps performed, and the conditions under which they were conducted. It is a comprehensive record that allows for tracking and analyzing jump performance and progress over time.

The SARM office should perform a Triangle Audit on a quarterly basis. This means that the audit should be conducted every three months. This frequency allows for regular monitoring and evaluation of the office's performance and ensures that any potential issues or discrepancies are identified and addressed in a timely manner. Performing the audit on a quarterly basis also provides enough time to gather sufficient data and information for a comprehensive review of the office's activities and processes.

The correct answer is CFM, WFM, MFM. These are the three SNCO (Senior Non-Commissioned Officer) leadership positions discussed in the lesson.

The correct answer includes three types of MPOs: AF IMT 1887, AO, and DD 114.

AFMAN 11-421 is the correct answer because it provides general instructions on how to publish Aeronautical Orders (AO). The other options, AFMAN 11-402, AFI 11-401, and AFI 11-421, are not relevant to the topic of publishing Aeronautical Orders.

The Flyer Availability Window is used to update a member's flight record review date.

The answer is "Incorrect effective date" because an AO (Amendment Order) can be made for all of the listed options except for the effective date. The effective date refers to the date on which a particular action or event takes effect. It cannot be amended as it represents a specific point in time. However, a misspelled name, incorrect SSN (Social Security Number), or other errors can be corrected through an AO.

The correct answer is "Modified mission symbol". This symbol is used when the aircraft's basic design has been modified. It signifies that the aircraft has undergone significant changes or alterations to its original design, which may include modifications to its structure, systems, or capabilities. The modified mission symbol is used to differentiate these modified aircraft from the standard or basic mission symbol aircraft.

When requesting the Flying Time Update Summary, you must enter the date in the Process Date field that corresponds to when the information was entered in ARMS. This is because the Flying Time Update Summary provides an update on the flying time, which is recorded and entered into ARMS. Therefore, the Process Date should reflect the date when this information was entered into the system.

A Flight Authorization is an official Air Force document that grants permission for an aircrew member to be on board a USAF aircraft and carry out their duties during a flight. It serves as a form of authorization and ensures that the aircrew member is qualified and authorized to perform their responsibilities during the flight. This document is important for maintaining safety and ensuring that only authorized personnel are allowed on board the aircraft.

A parachutist would receive a Rule 4 waiver for the months of March, April, May, June, and July. This is because the member was deployed to a hostile fire area from March 31 through July 5 and had not met jump requirements for any of those months. Therefore, the member would be eligible for a waiver for all the months of their deployment.

Both A and C can be designated as FA authenticating officials. Commissioned officers and officer equivalent government civilians in active flying positions have the authority to authenticate FA (Flight Authorization) documents. This means that individuals who hold a rank as a commissioned officer or civilian equivalent and are actively involved in flying positions can be designated as FA authenticating officials.

The Charm Report Audit List is used to reconcile errors found in the database before deferred processing takes place. This report helps identify any discrepancies or inconsistencies in the data, allowing for corrections to be made before further processing occurs. It serves as a tool for ensuring the accuracy and integrity of the database, preventing any potential issues or errors from being carried forward into subsequent processes.

The OG CC (Operations Group Commander) appoints FA (Financial Administrator) authenticating officials. This means that the responsibility of appointing officials who have the authority to authenticate financial documents lies with the Operations Group Commander.

Both A and B are needed by the Aircraft Investigation Board. The IDS, FHR, and IFR reports provide valuable information about the aircraft's performance, flight history, and any incidents or accidents that may have occurred. The Aircraft Mishap Report, on the other hand, specifically focuses on the details of any mishaps or accidents involving the aircraft. Therefore, both sets of reports are necessary for a comprehensive investigation by the Aircraft Investigation Board.

Flight safety is responsible for conducting flight mishap investigations. This means that they are in charge of investigating any accidents or incidents that occur during flying operations. They will analyze the causes and factors that led to the mishap in order to prevent similar incidents in the future. This is an important role as it helps to improve flight safety and prevent accidents from happening again.

Sympathetic Abort is the term used when an aircraft fails to execute a scheduled sortie due to the abort of another aircraft assigned to the same flight. This term indicates that the abort of one aircraft has a direct impact on the ability of another aircraft to carry out its mission. It suggests a close relationship between the two aircraft and emphasizes the interdependence of their operations.

The question asks for a rating that is not considered basic. The options include Combat Systems Officer, Airman Aircrew Member, Air Battle Manager, and Pilot. The correct answer is Airman Aircrew Member because it is not considered a basic rating.

The officer designated on the daily flight schedule who is in charge of all the scheduled flight and ground activities for the day is the SDO.

Excess Time occurs when a member exceeds the minimum flight time requirement for the month. This means that the member has flown more than the required number of hours, possibly due to additional flights or longer durations. Excess Time can be beneficial for the member as it may result in additional pay or benefits.

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The correct answer is Night, Instrument, Sim Instrument, NVG. These four types of flight conditions are commonly used in aviation. Night flight refers to flying during the nighttime hours when visibility is reduced. Instrument flight involves flying solely by reference to the aircraft's instruments, without visual reference to the outside environment. Simulated instrument flight is a training exercise where pilots practice instrument flying using flight simulators. NVG (Night Vision Goggles) flight is conducted with the use of specialized goggles that enhance visibility in low-light conditions.

A member would receive flight incentive pay in the months of October and November because they flew 2.6 hours in October and 3.4 hours in November. Flight incentive pay is given to members based on the number of hours they fly, and since they flew during these two months, they would be eligible for the incentive pay in those months.

The Training Update Audit List is used to audit training accomplishments entered into ARMS. This report allows for a review and verification of the training updates made in the system, ensuring accuracy and completeness of the training records. It helps in identifying any discrepancies or errors in the training data entered into ARMS, allowing for corrective actions to be taken if necessary.

A parachutist would be eligible for jump pay in the months of October, November, and December because the member was placed on status effective 1 October and performed a parachute jump in November. Jump pay is typically given to individuals who perform parachute jumps, and in this case, the member's status was effective from October, so they would be eligible for jump pay in that month as well as in November and December.

Tailoring is the correct answer because it means to modify or adapt something to suit a specific individual or situation. In the context of the question, tailoring refers to modifying the training task to suit a specific aircrew member. This could involve adjusting the content, format, or delivery of the training to better meet the needs and abilities of the individual aircrew member.

The officer designated to supervise the daily flying activities is the SOF.

A journal serves as a log book to record your current training status and any training-related information. It allows you to document your progress, track your achievements, and note any important details or observations related to your training. By maintaining a journal, you can keep a record of your training history, track your goals, and reflect on your experiences to improve your future training sessions.

Aircrew members must be current and certified in the applicable aircraft to log evaluator flight time because evaluator flight time refers to the time spent by aircrew members who are qualified to evaluate and assess the performance of other crew members. In order to effectively evaluate and assess, the evaluator must be current and certified in the specific aircraft being flown. This ensures that they have the necessary knowledge, skills, and experience to accurately assess the performance of other crew members in that particular aircraft.

A voluntary termination of parachutist service refers to the individual's decision to permanently end their involvement in parachute jumping. This means they no longer wish to continue their service as a parachutist. As a result, they will be permanently disqualified from participating in any further parachute activities.

An AUR audit must be conducted daily and monthly to ensure regular monitoring and evaluation of financial transactions. Daily audits allow for immediate identification and resolution of any discrepancies or issues that may arise on a day-to-day basis. Monthly audits provide a broader overview of financial activities and help in identifying patterns or trends over a longer period. Conducting both daily and monthly audits ensures a comprehensive and timely examination of financial records, reducing the risk of errors or fraudulent activities going unnoticed for an extended period.

AF Form 4324 is the correct answer because it is used as the primary source document for assigning, adding, deleting, or changing a member's training profile. This form is specifically designed for this purpose and provides a standardized format for recording and managing training information for members of the Air Force. The other options, AF Form 4323, AF Form 8, and AF Form 2992, do not serve this specific function and are therefore not the correct answer.