Module 1-3 Aviation Resource Management Test

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  • 1/204 Questions

    What are the sections included in Part 1 of the CFETP?

    • Provides general information such as purpose and use of plan
    • Identifies career progression, duties, and training strategies
    • qualification requirements such as knowledge and education
    • All the above
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge in Aviation Resource Management, focusing on leadership roles, office management, and training requirements. It is designed for professionals seeking to understand or improve their skills in aviation resource management.

Module 1-3 Aviation Resource Management Test - Quiz

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  • 2. 

      What do you call the individual who is in charge of the HARM office?

    • CHARM/Superintendent

    • NCOIC

    • Majcom Functional Manager

    • HAF

    Correct Answer
    A. CHARM/Superintendent
    Explanation
    The individual in charge of the HARM office is commonly referred to as the CHARM/Superintendent. This person is responsible for overseeing the operations and management of the office, ensuring that all administrative tasks are carried out efficiently and effectively. They may also serve as a liaison between the HARM office and other departments or units within the organization. The term "CHARM" stands for Career Human Resource Manager, indicating their role in managing the human resources within the organization.

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  • 3. 

      What is the purpose of the STRT?

    • Bring together expertise to have social engagement

    • Expertise needed to determine required education and training

    • Establish the most effective mix of OJT for Airman at each skill level

    • B and C only

    Correct Answer
    A. B and C only
    Explanation
    The purpose of the STRT is to bring together expertise to determine the required education and training for individuals. Additionally, it aims to establish the most effective mix of on-the-job training (OJT) for Airmen at each skill level. This means that the STRT is focused on identifying the necessary expertise and training needed for individuals and finding the most effective OJT approach for them.

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  • 4. 

      Where can you find the list duties and responsibilities of ARM personnel at each skill level?

    • Continuity Book

    • CFETP

    • ICW Sharepoint

    • MAJCOM Sharepoint

    Correct Answer
    A. CFETP
    Explanation
    The CFETP (Career Field Education and Training Plan) is a document that outlines the duties and responsibilities of personnel at each skill level in a particular career field. It provides a comprehensive list of the required training, knowledge, and skills for each level. Therefore, the CFETP is the appropriate source to find the list of duties and responsibilities of ARM (Aircraft Armament Systems) personnel at each skill level.

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  • 5. 

      Which are responsibilities of the MFM?

    • Validate manpower requirements

    • Ensure personnel operate within the guidelines of the AFSC

    • Sets policy, guidelines, and administer the annual awards program

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The MFM, or Manpower and Force Management, has multiple responsibilities. They are responsible for validating manpower requirements, ensuring that personnel operate within the guidelines of the AFSC (Air Force Specialty Code), and setting policy, guidelines, and administering the annual awards program. Therefore, all the options listed - validating manpower requirements, ensuring personnel operate within AFSC guidelines, and setting policy and administering the annual awards program - are responsibilities of the MFM.

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  • 6. 

      Which best fits training requirements for 5 skill level?

    • 5 lvl ICW, 24 months OJT, complete all duty position task

    • 5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core task

    • 5 lvl ICW, 6 months OJT, recommendation from supervisor

    • 5 lvl ICW, 6 months OJT, recommendation from supervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core task
    Explanation
    The best fit for training requirements for 5 skill level is 5 lvl ICW, 12 months OJT, complete all core task. This option provides a sufficient duration of on-the-job training (12 months) and requires the completion of all core tasks, ensuring that the trainee has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge for the 5 skill level. The recommendation from the supervisor is not mentioned in this option, but it is not necessary as the completion of all core tasks serves as a comprehensive assessment of the trainee's abilities.

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  • 7. 

    Which functional area is responsible for requesting diplomatic clearances when U.S. aircraft enters foreign airspace?

    • SARM

    • Current Ops

    • HARM

    • MAJCOM

    Correct Answer
    A. Current Ops
    Explanation
    Current Ops is responsible for requesting diplomatic clearances when U.S. aircraft enters foreign airspace. This functional area is in charge of coordinating and managing current operations, including flight planning and ensuring compliance with international regulations. They are responsible for obtaining the necessary clearances and permissions from foreign governments to ensure a smooth and legal entry into foreign airspace.

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  • 8. 

      Which functional area is the central station for all flight, jump and missileer management issues?

    • SARM

    • Current Ops

    • HARM

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. HARM
    Explanation
    HARM (High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile) is the correct answer because it is the central station for all flight, jump, and missileer management issues. HARM is responsible for managing and coordinating the operations related to flight, jump, and missileer activities. It is the functional area that oversees and controls these aspects, making it the central station for these management issues.

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  • 9. 

    Which office is responsible for conducting go/no-go procedures, publishing flight authorizations, and performing pre/post mission reviews?

    • SARM

    • HARM

    • Current Ops

    • Aircrew Training

    Correct Answer
    A. SARM
    Explanation
    SARM, which stands for Safety and Risk Management, is responsible for conducting go/no-go procedures, publishing flight authorizations, and performing pre/post mission reviews. This office ensures that all necessary safety protocols are followed before and after each mission, including evaluating whether it is safe to proceed with the mission (go) or not (no-go). They also handle the necessary paperwork and documentation, such as flight authorizations, to ensure that all necessary approvals and authorizations are obtained before the mission takes place.

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  • 10. 

    3/5 LVL

    • Plan/supervise arm functions; Review training; Perform RM functions

    • Make recommendations; Design ARM policies, Provide justification

    • Conduct in/out processing; Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AO

    Correct Answer
    A. Conduct in/out processing; Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AO
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Conduct in/out processing; Compile/audit data; Schedule flying; Prepare AO. This answer is correct because it accurately identifies the tasks and responsibilities associated with the given job level. Conducting in/out processing involves managing the administrative tasks related to personnel entering or leaving the organization. Compiling and auditing data involves gathering and reviewing information to ensure accuracy and compliance. Scheduling flying refers to organizing and coordinating flight schedules. Preparing AO (Administrative Orders) involves creating and documenting official instructions or guidelines. These tasks align with the job level described as 3/5 LVL.

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  • 11. 

    9 LVL

    • Schedule ground training maintain info and plan data

    • Review aircrew training mission accomplishments

    • Design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changes 

    Correct Answer
    A. Design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changes 
    Explanation
    The given answer, "design arm policies; coordinate submit and recommend changes," suggests that one of the tasks at the 9 LVL is to design policies related to armament (weapons) and coordinate the submission of these policies for approval. Additionally, this level may involve recommending changes to existing policies.

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  • 12. 

    This type of training enhances combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC?

    • UFT training

    • Centrifuge training

    • Combat training

    • Ground Chemical Ensemble

    Correct Answer
    A. Centrifuge training
    Explanation
    Centrifuge training is the correct answer because it is a type of training that enhances combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC (G-induced Loss of Consciousness). GLOC occurs when pilots experience excessive gravitational forces during high-performance maneuvers, leading to a temporary loss of consciousness. Centrifuge training involves exposing aircrew to simulated high G-forces in a controlled environment, allowing them to develop techniques to prevent GLOC and improve their ability to withstand such forces during combat situations. This training is crucial for maintaining the safety and effectiveness of aircrew during high-intensity operations.

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  • 13. 

    Two types of career aviators are:

    • Ops Support and Parachutist

    • Rated and CEAs

    • Jump in-herent and non-jump inherent

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Rated and CEAs
    Explanation
    Ops Support and Parachutist, Jump in-herent and non-jump inherent are not types of career aviators. The correct answer is Rated and CEAs. Rated aviators are those who hold a pilot rating, while CEAs (Career Enlisted Aviators) are enlisted personnel who have been trained and qualified in specific aviation roles.

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  • 14. 

    What are some duties of an operational support flier?

    • In-flight diagnostics of aircraft

    • Medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations

    • Providing security support on air to ground surveillance of missile convoys

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The duties of an operational support flier include in-flight diagnostics of aircraft, providing medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations, and providing security support on air to ground surveillance of missile convoys. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 15. 

    What date is used to establish the ASD for a Medical Officer?

    • Date of class start date

    • Date arrive duty station

    • Date of the AMP course certificate

    • Date departed last duty station

    Correct Answer
    A. Date of the AMP course certificate
    Explanation
    The ASD (Active Service Date) for a Medical Officer is established based on the date of the AMP (Advanced Medical Professional) course certificate. This means that the officer's service officially begins on the date they have completed the required course and received the certificate. The AMP course is likely a prerequisite for the officer to start their duties as a Medical Officer.

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  • 16. 

    What form is used to document flight pHAs?

    • AF Form 4324

    • AF Form 803

    • AF Form 2912

    • DD Form 2992

    Correct Answer
    A. DD Form 2992
    Explanation
    DD Form 2992 is the correct answer because it is the form used to document flight PHAs. The other three options, AF Form 4324, AF Form 803, and AF Form 2912, are incorrect and not used for this purpose.

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  • 17. 

    What is done with the DD Form 2992 that places a member in DNIF status?

    • Update ARMS and place in suspense file

    • Update ARMS and place in members folder

    • Shred it

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Update ARMS and place in suspense file
    Explanation
    When a member is placed in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, the DD Form 2992 is updated and placed in the suspense file. This is done to ensure that the member's status is properly documented and tracked. The suspense file serves as a centralized location for important documents that require further action or review. By updating ARMS (Aviation Resource Management System) and placing the form in the suspense file, the member's DNIF status can be effectively managed and monitored.

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  • 18. 

    What is the duty AFSC prefix for an evalutor?

    • A

    • B

    • Q

    • E

    Correct Answer
    A. Q
    Explanation
    The duty AFSC prefix for an evaluator is "Q".

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  • 19. 

    Which ARMS window is used to update the member's flight physical?

    • Flyer Availability Window

    • Aviation Service Window

    • Security Access Window

    • Resource Window

    Correct Answer
    A. Flyer Availability Window
    Explanation
    The Flyer Availability Window is used to update the member's flight physical. This window allows for the management of flight physicals and ensures that all necessary information is up to date. It is specifically designed to handle the availability of flyers and their physical fitness status, including any updates or changes that may be required.

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  • 20. 

    A navigator formerly qualified as a pilot may qualify for what type of advanced rating?

    • Advanced Pilot Rating

    • Both Advanced Pilot and Navigator Rating

    • Advanced Navigator Rating

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Advanced Navigator Rating
    Explanation
    A navigator who was previously qualified as a pilot may qualify for an Advanced Navigator Rating. This rating acknowledges their previous experience and allows them to further advance their skills and knowledge in navigation. It is a specialized rating that focuses on the navigational aspects of flying, rather than the piloting aspects.

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  • 21. 

      How many combat missions must be competed in a combat zone to permanently award basic airman aircrew member badge?

    • 5

    • 20

    • 15

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    To permanently award the basic airman aircrew member badge, a total of 10 combat missions must be completed in a combat zone. This suggests that the badge is given as a recognition of experience and skill gained through participating in a significant number of combat missions.

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  • 22. 

    Aeronautical orders can be classified into how many types?

    • Single, New, Revoke

    • New, Revoke, Active

    • Regular, Amendment, Revoke

    • Single, Multiple, Revoke

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular, Amendment, Revoke
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Regular, Amendment, Revoke." Aeronautical orders can be classified into these three types. Regular orders are the standard orders that are issued without any changes or modifications. Amendment orders are issued to make changes or additions to the regular orders. Revoke orders are issued to cancel or withdraw the regular or amendment orders.

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  • 23. 

    What are some basic reasons for publishing an AO?

    • Initiate or terminate aviation service

    • Change ASC

    • Award aeronautical ratings

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    Publishing an Aeronautical Order (AO) is necessary for various reasons. Firstly, it can be used to initiate or terminate aviation service, which means that it serves as a formal announcement for the start or end of certain aviation operations. Secondly, an AO can be used to change the Airport Service Chart (ASC), which is a crucial document that provides information about airport facilities and services. Lastly, an AO can be used to award aeronautical ratings, which is important for recognizing and certifying the qualifications and skills of aviation personnel. Therefore, all of the given options are basic reasons for publishing an AO.

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  • 24. 

    What does a numeric FSC indicate?

    • Suspended/Disqualified

    • Suspended/School

    • School/Inactive

    • Lack of Support

    Correct Answer
    A. Suspended/Disqualified
    Explanation
    A numeric FSC indicates that a person's license or certification has been suspended or disqualified. This means that the individual is temporarily unable to practice or perform certain activities due to a violation or failure to meet the required standards.

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  • 25. 

    What happens to a members entitlement to Continuous AvIP when the member fails to meet the OFDA requirement at each gate?

    • Member undergoes a checkride

    • Member continues to get continuous AvIP

    • Member goes to conditional flight pay

    • Member gets flight pay stopped

    Correct Answer
    A. Member goes to conditional flight pay
    Explanation
    When a member fails to meet the OFDA requirement at each gate, their entitlement to Continuous AvIP is affected. Instead of receiving continuous AvIP, the member is moved to conditional flight pay. This means that their flight pay is now contingent upon meeting certain conditions or requirements.

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  • 26. 

    What is a two character code that indicates incentive pay entitlement and flying status.

    • Flying Activity Code

    • Mission Code

    • Flying Aviation Code

    • Aviation Service Code

    Correct Answer
    A. Aviation Service Code
    Explanation
    The two character code that indicates incentive pay entitlement and flying status is the Aviation Service Code. This code is used to identify and track the flying activity and service of individuals in the aviation field. It helps in determining the eligibility for incentive pay and also reflects the flying status of the personnel.

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  • 27. 

    What is the difference between APIs and FACs?

    • API codes are assigned to individuals

    • FACs are assigned to manpower positions

    • API codes are assigned to manpower positions while the FAC describes what the aircrew member is doing in that position

    • API codes are assigned by HARM and FACs are assigned by MPF

    Correct Answer
    A. API codes are assigned to manpower positions while the FAC describes what the aircrew member is doing in that position
    Explanation
    API codes are used to identify and assign individuals to specific manpower positions within an organization. On the other hand, FACs (Flying Assignment Codes) are used to describe the specific duties and responsibilities of aircrew members within their assigned positions. In other words, API codes determine where an individual is placed within the organization, while FACs provide information about the tasks they perform in that position. The assignment of API codes is typically done by the Human Resources department (HARM), while the assignment of FACs is done by the Manpower and Personnel Flight (MPF).

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  • 28. 

    What kind of AO would you publish to correct minor typographical errors?

    • Single AO

    • Amendment AO

    • New AO

    • Revoke AO

    Correct Answer
    A. Amendment AO
    Explanation
    An Amendment AO would be published to correct minor typographical errors. This type of AO is specifically used to make changes or corrections to existing documents without creating a completely new document.

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  • 29. 

    When assigned, which flying status codes (FSC) will allow a Rated and/or CEA Aircrew member receive OFDA credit?

    • FSCs: "J", "K", "L", "T", "V"

    • FSCs: "A", "B", "U", "X", "Z"

    • FSCs: "0", "1", "3", "4", "5"

    • FSC: "C", "D", "E", "H", "W"

    Correct Answer
    A. FSCs: "A", "B", "U", "X", "Z"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is FSCs: "A", "B", "U", "X", "Z". These flying status codes (FSCs) allow a Rated and/or CEA Aircrew member to receive OFDA credit.

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  • 30. 

    When publishing an AO in ARMS, what do light-blue colored fields signify?

    • Highlight Fields

    • Mandatory Fields

    • Fixed Fields

    • Optional Fields

    Correct Answer
    A. Mandatory Fields
    Explanation
    Light-blue colored fields in ARMS signify mandatory fields. This means that these fields must be filled out in order to successfully publish an AO in ARMS.

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  • 31. 

    Which API indicates a rated officer position at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that require the officer to actively fly?

    • API 8

    • API 6

    • API 4

    • API 3

    Correct Answer
    A. API 6
    Explanation
    API 6 indicates a rated officer position at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that require the officer to actively fly.

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  • 32. 

    Within how many days would you confirm a verbal order?

    • 5 duty days

    • 10 duty days

    • 3 duty days

    • 1 duty day

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 duty days
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3 duty days. When receiving a verbal order, it is important to confirm it within a reasonable timeframe. In this case, confirming the verbal order within 3 duty days ensures timely communication and avoids any potential misunderstandings or delays in processing the order. Prompt confirmation allows for efficient coordination and execution of tasks, ensuring smooth workflow and customer satisfaction.

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  • 33. 

    MAJCOM/A3T may re-qualify members for aviation service who were disqualified for non-permanent reasons. However, the Air Force is not obligated to re-qualify the member. Acceptance is based on what needs?

    • Career Field Needs

    • Air Force Needs

    • Aircrew Needs

    • MAJCOM Needs

    Correct Answer
    A. Air Force Needs
    Explanation
    The Air Force may re-qualify members for aviation service if they were previously disqualified for non-permanent reasons. However, this decision is not mandatory and is based on the needs of the Air Force. Therefore, the acceptance of re-qualification is determined by the Air Force's needs.

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  • 34. 

    What is an administrative, fact-finding hearing designed to ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators?

    • ARB

    • ARM

    • FEB

    • CHARM

    Correct Answer
    A. FEB
    Explanation
    FEB stands for Flight Evaluation Board. It is an administrative, fact-finding hearing that is conducted to ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators. During an FEB, a panel of experts evaluates the performance and qualifications of aviators to determine if they meet the necessary standards for their career in aviation. This process helps to maintain the overall quality and safety of aviators in their respective roles.

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  • 35. 

    Which best describes reasons for initiating a suspension action?

    • Processes a fear of flying

    • Drug abuse

    • Subject to criminal charge under UCMJ

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    The reasons for initiating a suspension action include processes a fear of flying, drug abuse, and being subject to criminal charges under UCMJ. All of these factors can contribute to the need for a suspension action to be taken.

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  • 36. 

    What part of the AMSL report will a member appear when they have not completed a flight within 3 months after their last flight?

    • Part 4, Reassignment Pending

    • Part 7,  Aircrew Ratings and Badges

    • Part 8, Withhold OFDA Credit

    • Part 5, Inbound

    Correct Answer
    A. Part 8, Withhold OFDA Credit
    Explanation
    When a member has not completed a flight within 3 months after their last flight, they will appear in Part 8 of the AMSL report, which is titled "Withhold OFDA Credit." This suggests that the member's OFDA (Overseas Flight Duty Allowance) credit will be withheld due to their lack of recent flight activity.

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  • 37. 

    What automated system is used as central repository for all military personnel data?

    • MILPDS

    • ARMS

    • CMS

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. MILPDS
    Explanation
    MILPDS stands for Military Personnel Data System, which is an automated system used as a central repository for all military personnel data. It is used to store and manage information related to military personnel, such as their personal details, service records, training, and assignments. MILPDS helps to ensure accurate and up-to-date information is available for decision-making, resource allocation, and personnel management within the military.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following is a permanent disqualification?

    • Fear of Flying

    • Humanitarian

    • Failure to maintain medical certification

    • Non combat status

    Correct Answer
    A. Fear of Flying
    Explanation
    Fear of Flying is a permanent disqualification because it refers to a specific phobia or anxiety disorder that prevents an individual from being able to fly on an airplane. This fear is not something that can be easily overcome or resolved, and it can significantly impact a person's ability to travel by air. Therefore, it is considered a permanent disqualification for certain professions or activities that require air travel.

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  • 39. 

    When conducting a FRF audit, all AOs must be compared against what ARMS document to make sure all ASC changes are documented correctly?

    • Consolidated Host Aviation Resource Management

    • Aviation Service Suspense List

    • Aviation Management Suspense List

    • Aviation Service Audit Worksheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Aviation Service Audit Worksheet
    Explanation
    During a FRF audit, the AOs (Aviation Orders) need to be compared against the Aviation Service Audit Worksheet to ensure that all ASC (Aviation Service Changes) are documented correctly. This document serves as a reference to track and record any changes made to aviation services, allowing auditors to verify if the changes have been accurately documented. The Consolidated Host Aviation Resource Management, Aviation Service Suspense List, and Aviation Management Suspense List are not directly related to the comparison of AOs and ASC documentation during a FRF audit.

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  • 40. 

    ASC 05 indicates what

    • Disqualified, FEB action

    • Suspended

    • Disqualified, Medical disqualification

    • In-Flight Duties Terminated

    Correct Answer
    A. Disqualified, FEB action
    Explanation
    ASC 05 indicates that the individual has been disqualified due to a FEB (Flight Evaluation Board) action. This means that the person's ability to perform in-flight duties has been deemed inadequate or unsatisfactory, leading to their disqualification.

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  • 41. 

    This type of jump occurred when a line or strap is attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft so that when the jumper exits the aircraft, the parachute is automatically deployed?

    • Static Line

    • MFF

    • Night Jump

    • Both Static and MFF

    Correct Answer
    A. Static Line
    Explanation
    A static line jump refers to a type of jump where a line or strap is attached from the parachute to an anchor cable inside the aircraft. When the jumper exits the aircraft, the parachute is automatically deployed due to the tension in the static line. This method is commonly used in military training and ensures that the parachute is deployed without the need for the jumper to manually activate it.

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  • 42. 

    This type of jump occurs when the parachute is deployed by the member during the free fall descent portion of the jump?

    • Static Line

    • MFF

    • Night Jump

    • Both Static and MFF

    Correct Answer
    A. MFF
    Explanation
    MFF stands for Military Free Fall, which is a type of jump where the parachute is deployed by the member during the free fall descent portion of the jump. This means that the jumper releases the parachute themselves while in mid-air, without relying on a static line or jumping at night. Therefore, the correct answer is MFF.

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  • 43. 

    Which form is used to apply for a parachutist badge?

    • AF IMT 4324

    • AF IMT 2992

    • AF IMT 196

    • AF IMT 2096

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 196
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AF IMT 196. This form is used to apply for a parachutist badge.

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  • 44. 

    How are AO termination dates for an enlisted parachutist determined?

    • Jump tour completion date

    • Change to inactive status

    • Date of separation or retirement

    • All the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All the above
    Explanation
    AO termination dates for an enlisted parachutist are determined by all of the above factors. The jump tour completion date is one of the criteria used to determine the AO termination date. Additionally, if there is a change to inactive status, it can also affect the AO termination date. Finally, the date of separation or retirement is another factor that determines the AO termination date. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in determining the AO termination date for an enlisted parachutist.

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  • 45. 

    What would the ASC be for a member who is reassigned from a dual-coded flying/jump position to a J-coded position only?

    • 9E

    • 9D

    • 9C

    • 06

    Correct Answer
    A. 9E
    Explanation
    When a member is reassigned from a dual-coded flying/jump position to a J-coded position only, the ASC (Air Staff Code) for this member would be 9E.

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  • 46. 

    Which items do you review when looking at a member s JHR?

    • Jump Hours, Jump Totals

    • Jump Conditions and Night Jumps

    • Jump Total, Jump Conditions, Jump Types

    • Jump Conditions and Night Jumps

    Correct Answer
    A. Jump Total, Jump Conditions, Jump Types
    Explanation
    When looking at a member's JHR (Jump History Record), you review the Jump Total, Jump Conditions, and Jump Types. The Jump Total gives you the overall number of jumps the member has completed. The Jump Conditions provide information about the conditions in which the jumps were performed, such as weather or equipment used. The Jump Types indicate the different types of jumps the member has done, such as static line or freefall. By reviewing these items, you can get a comprehensive understanding of the member's jump history and experience.

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  • 47. 

    Who is responsible for completing and certifying the AF Form 4323 and AF IMT 922?

    • SQ CC

    • Jumpmaster

    • Parachutist

    • Pilot in Command

    Correct Answer
    A. Jumpmaster
    Explanation
    The Jumpmaster is responsible for completing and certifying the AF Form 4323 and AF IMT 922. These forms are related to parachute operations and the Jumpmaster is the individual who oversees and ensures the safety and proper execution of the jump. They are responsible for verifying that all necessary procedures and documentation are in place before the jump takes place.

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  • 48. 

    AO; physical qualification; physiological training; continuation training; flying time maximums, and aircraft assignments are examples of:

    • FCIF procedures

    • Go no go procedures

    • Flight safety procedures

    • Stan eval procedures

    Correct Answer
    A. Go no go procedures
    Explanation
    AO, physical qualification, physiological training, continuation training, flying time maximums, and aircraft assignments are all examples of factors that can determine whether a flight should proceed or not. These factors are part of the "go no go" procedures, which are protocols and guidelines that help pilots and flight crews make decisions about whether it is safe to proceed with a flight or if it should be canceled or delayed. These procedures ensure that the safety of the flight and the passengers is always the top priority.

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  • 49. 

    This type of review is important because not only does it validate the mission, but it also helps maintain data integrity in ARMS:

    • Flight Mission Review

    • Post Mission Review

    • Pre Mission Review

    • Training Mission Review

    Correct Answer
    A. Post Mission Review
    Explanation
    A post mission review is important because it validates the mission and helps maintain data integrity in ARMS. After a mission, reviewing the actions and outcomes allows for an evaluation of the mission's success and any areas that may need improvement. This review ensures that the mission was carried out effectively and that the data collected during the mission is accurate and reliable. It helps identify any mistakes or issues that occurred during the mission and provides an opportunity to make necessary adjustments for future missions.

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  • Current Version
  • Jan 30, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Mar 14, 2020
    Quiz Created by
    John

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