1c0 Vol 1 CDC 5 Lvl Ec04

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1C0X2 VOLUME 1 CDC 5 LEVEL EDIT CODE 04


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which functional area is responsilbe for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).

    • B.

      Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).

    • C.

      Standardization and Evaluation (StanEval).

    • D.

      Current Operation.

    Correct Answer
    B. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM).
    Explanation
    Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). They are in charge of managing and coordinating the resources required for aviation operations, including personnel, equipment, and training. HARM ensures that the system is functioning properly and efficiently, and they are responsible for maintaining accurate records and data within ARMS. They play a crucial role in supporting aviation operations and ensuring the smooth functioning of the system.

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  • 2. 

    Which functional area is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM).

    • B.

      Current operations.

    • C.

      Aircrew training.

    • D.

      Aircrew scheduling.

    Correct Answer
    B. Current operations.
    Explanation
    The functional area responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations is Current operations. This department is responsible for coordinating and managing all operational activities, including training and mission planning, to ensure efficient and effective execution of missions.

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  • 3. 

    Evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is one of the tasks of

    • A.

      A craftsman

    • B.

      An apprentice

    • C.

      A journeyman

    • D.

      A superintendent

    Correct Answer
    D. A superintendent
    Explanation
    A superintendent is responsible for overseeing and managing the work methods and procedures in order to achieve the most economical use of resources. They are in charge of ensuring that the work is being done efficiently and effectively, making sure that resources are being utilized optimally. This includes evaluating and improving work methods and procedures to maximize productivity and minimize waste. A craftsman, apprentice, or journeyman may have specific skills and knowledge in their respective trades, but they are not typically responsible for the overall management and evaluation of work methods and procedures.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation?

    • A.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

    • B.

      Major command functional manager(MFM)

    • C.

      WIng functional manager (WFM)

    • D.

      Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM)

    Correct Answer
    C. WIng functional manager (WFM)
    Explanation
    The Wing functional manager (WFM) is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation. They oversee the personnel management within their specific wing and make decisions regarding staffing and career development. The WFM plays a crucial role in ensuring that the right personnel are in the right positions and that opportunities for growth and advancement are provided to all individuals within the wing.

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  • 5. 

    Supervisors must make sure that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record is maintained for all Airmen in the grades of

    • A.

      Airman basic (AB) through senior Airman (SrA) ONLY.

    • B.

      AB through technical sergeant (TSgt) ONLY.

    • C.

      AB through chirf master sergeant (CMSgt).

    • D.

      AB through TSgt, and senior noncomissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status.

    Correct Answer
    D. AB through TSgt, and senior noncomissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status.
    Explanation
    Supervisors are responsible for maintaining an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record for Airmen in the grades of AB through TSgt, as well as senior noncommissioned officers (SNCO) in retraining status. This means that supervisors must keep a record for Airmen from the lowest rank of AB up to the rank of TSgt, and also for SNCOs who are undergoing retraining. The other options, such as including only AB through SrA or AB through CMSgt, are incorrect as they do not cover all the necessary ranks that require a training record.

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  • 6. 

    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to

    • A.

      Conduct an occupational survey and make changes to the career field education and training plan (CFETP).

    • B.

      Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level

    • C.

      Establish training requirements for all personnel involved in course development

    • D.

      Enhance the communication link between functional managers and course developers

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level
    Explanation
    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level. This means that the team is responsible for determining the optimal combination of classroom instruction and practical experience that will best prepare individuals at different skill levels within the career field. By doing so, they ensure that the training provided is comprehensive and tailored to meet the specific needs of each skill level, ultimately enhancing the overall effectiveness of the training program.

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  • 7. 

    Which forum is used to create or revise the specialty training standard (STS) and to set responsibilities for providing the necessary training?

    • A.

      Aviation Resouce Management System advisory group (AAG)

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management (ARM) office.

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG)

    • D.

      Specialty training requirement team

    Correct Answer
    D. Specialty training requirement team
    Explanation
    The Specialty Training Requirement team is responsible for creating or revising the specialty training standard (STS) and setting responsibilities for providing the necessary training. This team is specifically dedicated to ensuring that the training requirements for a particular specialty are met and updated as necessary. The other options listed, such as the Aviation Resource Management System advisory group, Aviation Resource Management office, and Aviation Resource Management System working group, are not directly involved in the creation or revision of the STS or the setting of training responsibilities.

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  • 8. 

    The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into how many columns?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    C. Four
    Explanation
    The specialty training standard (STS) is divided into four columns.

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  • 9. 

    All entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 must be done in pencil to

    • A.

      Easily identify open and closed items.

    • B.

      Make it a binding contract.

    • C.

      Make it a living document.

    • D.

      Easily erase mistakes.

    Correct Answer
    C. Make it a living document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "make it a living document." This means that all entries to the specialty training standard (STS) Column 3 should be done in pencil to allow for easy updates and revisions. By using pencil, it becomes easier to make changes and adapt the document as needed, ensuring that it remains current and relevant. This approach emphasizes the importance of continuously updating and improving the STS, rather than treating it as a static and unchangeable document.

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  • 10. 

    Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all

    • A.

      Tasks to include mobility and additional duty.

    • B.

      Duty positions and core tasks.

    • C.

      Duty position tasks only.

    • D.

      Core tasks only.

    Correct Answer
    B. Duty positions and core tasks.
    Explanation
    The trainee must be fully trained on both duty positions and core tasks before being recommended for the next skill level. This means that they need to have a thorough understanding and proficiency in all the different roles and responsibilities they may have to take on, as well as the essential tasks that are required for their job. By being trained in both duty positions and core tasks, the trainee will be well-prepared and capable of performing their duties effectively and efficiently.

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  • 11. 

    The AF IMT 623a, On-theJob Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document each of the following except

    • A.

      Course and task progression.

    • B.

      Training start and completion dates.

    • C.

      Task certification and recertification.

    • D.

      Trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude.

    Correct Answer
    B. Training start and completion dates.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document course and task progression, task certification and recertification, and the trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude. However, it does not document the training start and completion dates.

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  • 12. 

    Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications?

    • A.

      30(active duty)/90(Air Reserve Component[ARC]members

    • B.

      60(active duty)/120(ARC members)

    • C.

      45(active duty)/90(ARC members)

    • D.

      90(active duty)/120(ARC members)

    Correct Answer
    B. 60(active duty)/120(ARC members)
    Explanation
    Supervisors must conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications within 60 days for active duty members and within 120 days for Air Reserve Component (ARC) members. This evaluation is important to assess the trainee's capabilities and determine their suitability for the assigned task. By conducting the evaluation within the specified time frame, supervisors can ensure that trainees are adequately prepared and qualified for their roles.

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  • 13. 

    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to

    • A.

      Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates.

    • B.

      Determine the quality of recent basic military training graduates.

    • C.

      Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level.

    • D.

      Provide information to supervisors on the quality of training provided by the career development course.

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates.
    Explanation
    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates. This survey is conducted to collect information and opinions from the graduates themselves, which can be used to evaluate the effectiveness of the training program and make any necessary improvements. By gathering feedback, the Air Force can assess the strengths and weaknesses of the training and make informed decisions to enhance the quality of their resident training program.

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  • 14. 

    One way to validate and trainee's knowledge of the task is by conducting a

    • A.

      Task evaluation.

    • B.

      Task review exercise.

    • C.

      Staff assistance visit.

    • D.

      Graduate assessment survey.

    Correct Answer
    A. Task evaluation.
    Explanation
    Task evaluation is a method used to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge and understanding of a specific task. This process involves reviewing and analyzing the trainee's performance, identifying strengths and weaknesses, and providing feedback for improvement. It helps in determining the trainee's level of competence and identifying areas where further training may be required. Conducting a task evaluation is an effective way to ensure that the trainee has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the task effectively.

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  • 15. 

    When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may

    • A.

      Establish a new maximum training date and annotate it on the AF IMT 623a.

    • B.

      Decertify the trainee on all tasks and begin remedial training.

    • C.

      Request cross training into another career field.

    • D.

      Submit a waiver request.

    Correct Answer
    D. Submit a waiver request.
    Explanation
    When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may submit a waiver request. This means that the supervisor can request an exception to the established timeline for the trainee's upgrade training. This could be due to various reasons such as extenuating circumstances or unforeseen challenges that prevented the trainee from completing the requirements on time. By submitting a waiver request, the supervisor is seeking permission to extend the deadline for the trainee to complete the training requirements.

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  • 16. 

    A request for training waiver is approved by the

    • A.

      Squdron commander.

    • B.

      Base training manger.

    • C.

      Air Force career field manager.

    • D.

      Major command functional manager.

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force career field manager.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Air Force career field manager. This individual is responsible for overseeing and managing the training and career development of personnel within a specific career field in the Air Force. They have the authority to approve requests for training waivers, as they have the knowledge and expertise to determine if a waiver is necessary and appropriate for the individual's career progression. The squadron commander, base training manager, and major command functional manager may also have a role in the training process, but the final approval for a training waiver lies with the Air Force career field manager.

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  • 17. 

    Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 include all of the following except to

    • A.

      Amend or correct individual records on request.

    • B.

      Ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant.

    • C.

      Protect individuals from unwarranted invasion oftheir personal privacy.

    • D.

      Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted." This is because the Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 aim to protect individuals' privacy and ensure that their personal information is timely, accurate, complete, and relevant. They do not guarantee unrestricted access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens.

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  • 18. 

    Within the Department of Defence (DOD) social security numbers(SSN) must be protected as

    • A.

      Privileged information.

    • B.

      For Official Use Only (FOUO).

    • C.

      For your eyes only.

    • D.

      Secret information

    Correct Answer
    B. For Official Use Only (FOUO).
    Explanation
    Within the Department of Defence (DOD), social security numbers (SSN) are considered privileged information and must be protected. This means that they should only be accessed and used by authorized personnel for official purposes. The designation "For Official Use Only (FOUO)" indicates that the information is sensitive and should not be shared with unauthorized individuals or used for personal reasons.

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  • 19. 

    Records that are protected by the Privacy Act may be destroyed by all of the following methods except

    • A.

      Tearing.

    • B.

      Burning.

    • C.

      Crumpling.

    • D.

      Shredding.

    Correct Answer
    C. Crumpling.
    Explanation
    The Privacy Act protects records from unauthorized access or disclosure. Tearing, burning, and shredding are all effective methods of destroying records to ensure that the information contained within them cannot be accessed or reconstructed. Crumpling, on the other hand, does not provide the same level of security and could potentially allow someone to still access and retrieve the information. Therefore, crumpling is not an acceptable method for destroying records protected by the Privacy Act.

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  • 20. 

    Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a

    • A.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $10,000.00.

    • B.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.

    • C.

      Felony and fined for five years.

    • D.

      Felony and confined for two years.

    Correct Answer
    B. Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00.
    Explanation
    Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00. This means that if a member of an organization or institution breaches the Privacy Act, they will be charged with a minor criminal offense (misdemeanor) and can face a financial penalty of up to $5,000.00.

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  • 21. 

    The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities are

    • A.

      Telephones, computer networks, and the phyiscal environment.

    • B.

      Telephones, radio communications, and the phyiscal environment.

    • C.

      Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence.

    • D.

      The phyiscal environment, computer networks, and human intelligence.

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephones, radio communications, and the phyiscal environment.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment. This answer accurately identifies the three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities. Telephones and radio communications can be vulnerable to interception or eavesdropping, while the physical environment can be vulnerable to unauthorized access or compromise. Computer networks and human intelligence are not mentioned in the answer, indicating that they are not part of the three broad categories of vulnerabilities.

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  • 22. 

    Before leaving the area, make sure all classified materials

    • A.

      Are in custody of another individual.

    • B.

      Are stored in proper storage container.

    • C.

      Have the proper cover sheet.

    • D.

      Are hidden from plain view.

    Correct Answer
    B. Are stored in proper storage container.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are stored in proper storage container." This answer is the most logical and practical choice because it ensures that classified materials are securely stored and protected. Storing them in a proper storage container adds an extra layer of security and reduces the risk of unauthorized access or accidental exposure. It is a standard practice to store classified materials in designated containers to maintain confidentiality and prevent any potential breaches.

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  • 23. 

    What Air Force instruction (AFI) series number pertains to flying operations?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      11

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      36

    Correct Answer
    B. 11
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11 because the question asks for the Air Force instruction (AFI) series number that pertains to flying operations. In the Air Force, AFI 11 series specifically deals with flying operations, including topics such as flight rules, aircraft operations, and aviation safety. Therefore, option 11 is the correct answer.

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  • 24. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) sets policy on crew rest and flight duty limitations?

    • A.

      AFI 11-401, Aviation Management.

    • B.

      AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules.

    • C.

      AFI 48-123, Medical Examinations and Standards.

    • D.

      AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules.
  • 25. 

    Which Air Force instruction (AFI) contains guidance on disqualification and requalification, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?

    • A.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Serve, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.

    • B.

      AFI 11-202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program.

    • C.

      AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors.

    • D.

      AFI 11-401, Aviation Management.

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Serve, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges.
  • 26. 

    What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation?

    • A.

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Evaluation.

    • B.

      AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record.

    • C.

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.

    • D.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation.
    Explanation
    AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation, is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation. This form is specifically designed to record and summarize the evaluation of an aircrew member's performance during a flight. It serves as a concise and organized document that outlines the key details and results of the evaluation, making it an appropriate choice for a cover sheet in this context.

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  • 27. 

    What form is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay?

    • A.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order.

    • B.

      AF IMT 1373, MPO Document Control Log Transmittal.

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew Mission/Flight Data Document.

    • D.

      AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.

    Correct Answer
    D. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay.

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  • 28. 

    The goal of establishing work center procedures is to

    • A.

      Improve work processes.

    • B.

      Create shortcuts and save cost.

    • C.

      Ensure coninuity in the work place.

    • D.

      Standardize processes across all bases.

    Correct Answer
    C. Ensure coninuity in the work place.
    Explanation
    The goal of establishing work center procedures is to ensure continuity in the workplace. By having standardized procedures in place, employees can easily understand and follow the processes, leading to consistent and efficient work. This helps to minimize disruptions, maintain productivity, and ensure that work is carried out smoothly even in the absence of certain individuals. Standardized procedures also promote accountability and enable effective training and knowledge transfer among employees.

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  • 29. 

    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called

    • A.

      An application suite.

    • B.

      A program bundle.

    • C.

      A software family.

    • D.

      A data bank.

    Correct Answer
    A. An application suite.
    Explanation
    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are referred to as an application suite. This term is commonly used in the software industry to describe a collection of related software programs that are designed to work together and provide a comprehensive set of functionalities. An application suite typically includes multiple applications, such as word processing, spreadsheet, presentation, and database software, that are integrated and share common features, interfaces, and data formats. This allows users to easily switch between different applications within the suite and enhances productivity and efficiency.

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  • 30. 

    A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a

    • A.

      Computer web.

    • B.

      Computer network.

    • C.

      System architecture.

    • D.

      Client-server model.

    Correct Answer
    B. Computer network.
    Explanation
    A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a computer network. A computer network refers to a collection of interconnected devices, such as computers, servers, routers, and switches, that are linked together to facilitate communication and data sharing. In a computer network, these systems can exchange information, resources, and services, enabling users to access and share data across the network. Therefore, a computer network is the most appropriate term to describe the configuration of interconnected computer systems.

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  • 31. 

    What do you call a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN).

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN).

    • C.

      Wide area network (WAN).

    • D.

      Defense mega network.

    Correct Answer
    B. Metropolitan area network (MAN).
    Explanation
    A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers a larger geographical area than a local area network (LAN), but smaller than a wide area network (WAN). It typically spans multiple blocks of buildings or an entire city. Therefore, a MAN is the appropriate term to describe a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city. "Defense mega network" is not a recognized term for describing such a network.

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  • 32. 

    Which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      Jump Management.

    • B.

      Deferred Management.

    • C.

      Aircrew Management.

    • D.

      Personnel Management.

    Correct Answer
    B. Deferred Management.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Deferred Management. The question asks which menu is not included in the Resource module of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). The Resource module of ARMS is likely designed to manage various resources related to aviation, such as jump management, aircrew management, and personnel management. However, deferred management is not mentioned as one of the menus included in this module.

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  • 33. 

    Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) module is used to establish system management parameters?

    • A.

      Flight.

    • B.

      System.

    • C.

      Training.

    • D.

      Resource.

    Correct Answer
    B. System.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "System." In an Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), the module used to establish system management parameters is the System module. This module allows for the configuration and customization of the ARMS system to meet the specific needs and requirements of the organization. It includes features such as user management, data management, system settings, and system security.

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  • 34. 

    Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database?

    • A.

      Database administrator.

    • B.

      Unit security manager.

    • C.

      Knowledge owner.

    • D.

      System analyst.

    Correct Answer
    A. Database administrator.
    Explanation
    The database administrator is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) database. They are in charge of ensuring that the database is properly maintained, protected from unauthorized access, and that the data within it is accurate and up-to-date. The database administrator is also responsible for implementing security measures, performing regular backups, and resolving any issues or errors that may arise within the database.

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  • 35. 

    The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on

    • A.

      User's rank.

    • B.

      User's duties.

    • C.

      User's request.

    • D.

      Commander's request.

    Correct Answer
    B. User's duties.
    Explanation
    The Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM) approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) and assigns security levels based on the user's duties. This means that the level of access and security clearance granted to a user in ARMS is determined by their specific responsibilities and job functions within the aviation resource management system.

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  • 36. 

    Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) governing body's purpose os to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification?

    • A.

      Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG).

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System steering group(ASG).

    • D.

      Database administrative group.

    Correct Answer
    B. Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG).
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG). This group's purpose is to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification. They work collaboratively to address any challenges that may arise in the use and management of the ARMS system, ensuring its effective and efficient functioning. The AWG plays a crucial role in ensuring the smooth operation of ARMS and resolving any technical or operational issues that may arise.

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  • 37. 

    What Air Force form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System ARMS?

    • A.

      3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.

    • B.

      847, Recommendation for Change of Publication.

    • C.

      4332, Accountable Communications Receipt Authorization.

    • D.

      3525, CCB Modification Requirements and Approval Document

    Correct Answer
    A. 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document. This form is used to request system changes to the Aviation Resource Management System ARMS.

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  • 38. 

    Which individuals may submit an AF Form 3215?

    • A.

      Aviation Resource Management System steering group (ASG) members ONLY.

    • B.

      Aviation Resource Management System advisory group (AAG) members ONLY.

    • C.

      Aviation Resource Management System working group (AWG) members ONLY.

    • D.

      All primary system users.

    Correct Answer
    D. All primary system users.
    Explanation
    All primary system users may submit an AF Form 3215. This means that anyone who is a primary user of the Aviation Resource Management System can submit this form. The other options (ASG members, AAG members, AWG members) are more specific and do not include all primary system users.

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  • 39. 

    A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other

    • A.

      According to the same values and religious beliefs.

    • B.

      By a need to solve common problems.

    • C.

      By a need to belong to a social club.

    • D.

      According to social status.

    Correct Answer
    B. By a need to solve common problems.
    Explanation
    A community of practice is formed by individuals who come together because they share a common objective of solving similar problems. They join forces to collaborate, share knowledge, and learn from each other's experiences in order to find solutions to these common challenges. This collective effort allows them to leverage their expertise and skills to address the issues they face, leading to the development of shared practices and a sense of belonging within the community.

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  • 40. 

    Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1COX2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?

    • A.

      Part I Section A.

    • B.

      Part I Section B.

    • C.

      Part II Section A.

    • D.

      Part II Section B.

    Correct Answer
    C. Part II Section A.
    Explanation
    In the career field education and training plan (CFETP), Part II Section A would contain the specialty training standard that lists the most common 1COX2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references. This section is specifically dedicated to providing detailed information about the specialty training requirements and standards for a particular career field. It outlines the specific tasks, knowledge, and references that individuals in the 1COX2 specialty should be familiar with, serving as a guide for their training and development in that field.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Jul 11, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Sarmgirl
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