Aviation Resource Management Quiz

108 Questions | Total Attempts: 252

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Aviation Resource Management Quizzes & Trivia

Have you ever wondered how parachutes are being controlled? The individuals who do this are the aviation resource managers whose major part of their duties is to control, direct and organize aircrew. Are you interested in this? It's a job that requires significant attention to details and it certainly pays so well. Try this out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a
    • A. 

      Certification

    • B. 

      Diploma

    • C. 

      Licence

    • D. 

      Rating

  • 2. 
    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
    • A. 

      Completion date of undergraduate flying training

    • B. 

      Class start date or undergraduate flying training

    • C. 

      Date member arrived on first duty station

    • D. 

      Commisioning date in the USAF

  • 3. 
    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date
    • A. 

      They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

    • B. 

      They completed their post-graduate medical training

    • C. 

      They received an unrestricted license to practice

    • D. 

      Stated on their medical license

  • 4. 
    Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using the date
    • A. 

      Of the Aerospace Medicine Primary course certificate

    • B. 

      He or she graduated from medical school

    • C. 

      Of the medical license

    • D. 

      Of the first flight

  • 5. 
    What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
    • A. 

      Basic aircrew

    • B. 

      Instructor

    • C. 

      Evaluator

    • D. 

      Observer

  • 6. 
    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member
    • A. 

      Has a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q"

    • B. 

      Has completed the airframe simulator

    • C. 

      Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty

    • D. 

      Has a current physical profile

  • 7. 
    Operation support fliers
    • A. 

      Are fully qualified aircrew members

    • B. 

      Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

    • C. 

      Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions

    • D. 

      Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occationally

  • 8. 
    Operational support members are placed in flying status
    • A. 

      On a monthly basis

    • B. 

      For the duration of the assigned mission

    • C. 

      Until the man-year allocation is exhausted

    • D. 

      Until the flying requirement no longer exists

  • 9. 
    The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
    • A. 

      1 June

    • B. 

      15 June

    • C. 

      1 July

    • D. 

      15 July

  • 10. 
    What flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for CEA duties?
    • A. 

      IA

    • B. 

      IIA

    • C. 

      IIC

    • D. 

      III

  • 11. 
    A flight physical is not required when a
    • A. 

      Member is initially placed in aviation service

    • B. 

      Member's periodic flight physical becomes due

    • C. 

      Member is placed on medical waiver

    • D. 

      Member applies for requalification

  • 12. 
    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      24

  • 13. 
    The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
    • A. 

      Medically restrict a member from special operational duty

    • B. 

      Document completion of physiological training

    • C. 

      Place a member in DNIF status

    • D. 

      Document a categorical waiver

  • 14. 
    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within
    • A. 

      One duty day

    • B. 

      Three duty days

    • C. 

      Three calendar days

    • D. 

      Five calendar days

  • 15. 
    How many  days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      120

    • C. 

      180

    • D. 

      365

  • 16. 
    When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the
    • A. 

      AF IMT 1042 was received

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1042 was prepared

    • C. 

      Member signed the AF IMT 1042

    • D. 

      Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

  • 17. 
    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      D

    • D. 

      F

  • 18. 
    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's 
    • A. 

      Availability code

    • B. 

      Physical status code

    • C. 

      Aviation service gate

    • D. 

      Physiological status code

  • 19. 
    Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?
    • A. 

      11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B. 

      11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program

    • C. 

      11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew

    • D. 

      11-421, Aviation Resource Management

  • 20. 
    Following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 21. 
    In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
    • A. 

      11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B. 

      11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program

    • C. 

      11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew

    • D. 

      11-421, Aviation Resource Management

  • 22. 
    A categorical flying waiver
    • A. 

      Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

    • B. 

      Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure

    • C. 

      Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

    • D. 

      Allows a memer to lfy all types of aircraft

  • 23. 
    Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
    • A. 

      AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty

    • B. 

      AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • C. 

      AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record

    • D. 

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation

  • 24. 
    Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?
    • A. 

      Member

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Surgeon

    • D. 

      Aerospace Physiologist

  • 25. 
    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
    • A. 

      High-altitude parachutists

    • B. 

      Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights

    • C. 

      Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status

    • D. 

      Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level

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