Aviation Resource Management Quiz

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| By Ssgtkatrina_well
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Ssgtkatrina_well
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1. Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

Explanation

Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights are not required to have altitude chamber training. Altitude chamber training is typically required for individuals who will be exposed to high altitudes, such as high-altitude parachutists and personnel on active flying status. However, civilians participating in spouse orientation flights are not expected to be exposed to high altitudes, hence they are exempt from this training.

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About This Quiz
Aviation Resource Management Quiz - Quiz

Have you ever wondered how parachutes are being controlled? The individuals who do this are the aviation resource managers whose major part of their duties is to control,... see moredirect and organize aircrew. Are you interested in this? It's a job that requires significant attention to details and it certainly pays so well. Try this out.
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2. When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the

Explanation

The correct answer is "flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042." When updating the flight physical in ARMS, it is important to use the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical examination, ensuring that the member is fit to fly. The other options, such as when the form was received, prepared, or when the member signed it, are not relevant in determining the validity of the flight physical.

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3. One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's 

Explanation

The availability code is a way of determining if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. It provides information about the member's availability status, such as whether they are on duty, on leave, or unavailable for any other reason. By checking the availability code, one can easily determine if a member is able to perform their duties or not.

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4. When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight phycialc health assessment (PHA) to attend any physiolofical training?

Explanation

A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) cannot be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's expired PHA indicates that they have not been cleared for flight duties, and it would be unsafe for them to participate in any physiological training.

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5. Which office is responsible for establishing FRFs?

Explanation

The office responsible for establishing FRFs is HARM.

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6. Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

Explanation

The correct answer is "member's birth month". This means that members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This ensures that their records are up to date and accurate.

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7. A flight physical is not required when a

Explanation

When a member is placed on a medical waiver, they are exempted from the requirement of undergoing a flight physical. This means that they do not need to go through the regular medical examination to assess their fitness for aviation service. The medical waiver is usually granted when a member has a temporary or permanent medical condition that may prevent them from meeting the standard medical requirements for aviation service. In such cases, the member is exempted from the flight physical until their medical condition improves or they are deemed fit to undergo the examination.

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8. A FAC is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying

Explanation

A FAC, or Flying Activity Code, is a one-digit code that is used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps to track and categorize the type of flying that a member has been involved in. It can indicate whether the member has been engaged in training, combat missions, or other types of flying activities. By using this code, detailed information about a member's flying activity can be easily accessed and analyzed.

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9. Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

Explanation

The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that in order to place a non-career aviator on flying status, they must have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This requirement ensures that only individuals with the appropriate qualifications and training are allowed to fly. The other options listed, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a 1AXXX specialty, and having a current physical profile may be important considerations but are not specifically mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

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10. Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

Explanation

The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is specifically designed to track an individual's physiological training and includes information such as the date of training, the type of training completed, and the results of any evaluations or assessments. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's centrifuge training and can be used for future reference or documentation purposes.

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11. To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, use the

Explanation

The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in ARMS. This window is specifically designed to manage and track the availability of flyers, including their physiological information. It allows for easy access and updating of relevant data, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information for each member.

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12. Operational support members are placed in flying status

Explanation

The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available for flying duties every month. This suggests that their role involves actively participating in missions or tasks that require flying. This arrangement continues until the man-year allocation is exhausted, indicating that their flying status is determined by the allocated amount of time for their role.

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13. When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within

Explanation

The flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within one duty day. This means that the flight surgeon has to submit the form within 24 hours after completing the flight physical health assessment (PHA). It is important to send the recommendation promptly to ensure that the necessary documentation is available for flight operations and to maintain the safety and readiness of the member.

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14. A categorical flying waiver

Explanation

The correct answer is that a categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft. This means that individuals who have certain medical conditions are not allowed to fly all types of aircraft, but instead are restricted to flying only a specific type that is deemed safe for their condition. This waiver is put in place to ensure the safety of the individual and others on board the aircraft.

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15. Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

Explanation

An Aerospace Physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

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16. After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is

Explanation

After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used for documenting medical information and it is important to keep a record of it for future reference. By filing it in the flight record folder, it can be easily accessed by the appropriate personnel when needed.

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17. Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?

Explanation

The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document outlines the specific manpower needs of the unit, including the number and types of personnel required. It serves as a planning tool for allocating resources and ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively. The Unit Manpower Document is an essential component of manpower planning and execution within the Department of Defense.

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18. Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuious Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974. This act was the first to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to be eligible for continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP).

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19. Aviation service gates for CEAs are set at the

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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20. How many days in a calendar month must a member in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of OFDA credit?

Explanation

To receive one month of OFDA credit, a member in an active flying status code (FSC) must fly for at least 15 days in a calendar month. This means that they need to be actively flying for more than half of the month to receive credit for the entire month.

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21. You may publish a single AO that affects several members provided

Explanation

This statement explains that a single AO (Administrative Order) can affect multiple members if the action specified in the AO is identical for all members. This means that all members will be subject to the same action as outlined in the AO. The statement also clarifies that the action can be the same for the majority of the members, as long as it is exactly the same for all members. Additionally, it states that all members must have the same aviation service code and effective date for the AO to apply to them.

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22. Which is the correct way of citing an AFI as authority when publishing and AO?

Explanation

When publishing an AO, the correct way to cite an AFI as authority is by including the AFI number, followed by the specific paragraph number being referenced, and the date of the AFI. Therefore, the correct answer is "AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09."

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23. The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

Explanation

The AF IMT 1042 is a form used to document completion of physiological training. It is not used to medically restrict a member from special operational duty, place a member in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, or document a categorical waiver.

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24. What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?

Explanation

To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

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25. How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

Explanation

If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. The position number is a unique identifier for each position within an organization, so if multiple members have the same position number, it means that they are assigned to the same position simultaneously, which is a characteristic of being double-billeted.

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26. Which FSC is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

Explanation

When a member is not flying due to lack of support capability, the FSC assigned is K.

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27. When conducting a FRF audit, verify the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's

Explanation

When conducting a FRF audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's IDS. The IDS, or Individual Duty Status, is a record that documents the status of a military member, including their duty assignments, training, and medical history. By ensuring that the date on the AF IMT 702 matches the date on the member's IDS, auditors can confirm that the training record is accurate and up to date. This helps to ensure that the member's training requirements are being met and that they are prepared for their duties.

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28. Operation support fliers

Explanation

The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operation support fliers have expertise in non-aircrew roles and are occasionally allowed to fly. They are not career aviators on standby or augmented crew members, but rather individuals with specialized skills who can assist during emergency situations.

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29. Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

Explanation

Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that the member must have previously served as part of an aircrew and received the aviation badge as a permanent recognition of their past duties. This requirement ensures that only individuals with relevant experience and qualifications are authorized to wear the aviation badge. The other options, such as participating in combat missions or suffering injuries, do not automatically qualify operational support fliers for the badge. Additionally, a change in position to a flying crew chief does not automatically grant authorization to wear the aviation badge.

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30. The first character of the ASC is the

Explanation

The first character of the ASC is the entitlement status code (ESC). This code indicates the status of the individual's entitlement to certain benefits or privileges. It is used to determine the level of access or authority that the individual has within a particular system or organization.

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31. While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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32. FRFs for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

Explanation

The FRFs (Flight Record Forms) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are given to the member. This suggests that even though the member has been disqualified, they still have access to their flight records. This could be important for various reasons such as reference, review, or any other purposes related to their previous flight activities.

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33. The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?

Explanation

The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by 15 June. This indicates that the unit has a deadline of submitting their man-month request to the MAJCOM by this date. It is important for the MAJCOM to receive these requests in a timely manner in order to effectively plan and allocate resources.

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34. Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This AFI specifically relates to Aviation Resource Management and would likely contain information on avilability codes. The other AFIs listed do not pertain to avilability codes.

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35. An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

Explanation

The correct answer is "evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer." An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for assessing the qualifications and experience of officers who wish to transfer from one branch of the military to another. They evaluate the flying credentials, such as flight hours and qualifications, to determine if the officer meets the requirements for an inter-service transfer. This process ensures that the officers have the necessary skills and experience to perform their duties effectively in the new branch of service.

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36. Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

Explanation

The officer service date (OSD) is computed based on the commissioning date in the USAF. This is the date when an individual officially becomes an officer in the United States Air Force. It marks the beginning of their active duty service and is used to determine their length of service and eligibility for various benefits and promotions. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not directly relevant to the calculation of the OSD.

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37. What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?

Explanation

The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix has the authority and expertise to assess and evaluate the performance of other aircrew members. They are responsible for ensuring that all aircrew members meet the required standards and are capable of performing their duties effectively.

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38. A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

Explanation

In the context of aviation, a rating refers to a professional accreditation that allows a pilot to operate a specific type of aircraft or perform certain tasks. Similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade, a pilot with a rating is certified and authorized to carry out specific aviation activities. This could include ratings for different aircraft types, instrument flying, or flight instructor ratings. Therefore, the term "rating" is the most appropriate option among the given choices to describe a professional accreditation in aviation.

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39. Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date

Explanation

The correct answer is that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This means that once physicians have successfully finished the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course, they are eligible to serve as flight surgeons in aviation service. This course likely provides the necessary knowledge and skills related to aviation medicine, which is essential for physicians working in this field.

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40. You must confirm verbal orders in writing by

Explanation

Verbal orders must be confirmed in writing by publishing the corresponding Administrative Order (AO) within 3 duty days. This means that within three working days, the AO should be officially documented and made available to all relevant parties. This ensures that the verbal orders are properly recorded and communicated, providing a written record for future reference and accountability.

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41. A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every

Explanation

A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This assessment is necessary to ensure the ongoing health and fitness of pilots and crew members. By conducting PHAs every 15 months, any potential health issues or risks can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, promoting the safety and well-being of all individuals involved in flight operations.

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42. When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

Explanation

If the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will notify the appropriate HARM office. This is the correct answer because notifying the appropriate HARM office is the appropriate course of action to address the issue and ensure that the missing file is tracked and resolved. The HARM office can then take the necessary steps to investigate the issue and ensure that the file is received and processed correctly.

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43. During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

Explanation

Before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board, it is important to ensure that all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS (Aviation Resource Management System). This is necessary to ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for the investigation board to analyze and assess the circumstances of the aircraft mishap.

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44. Advanced ratings are awarded based on

Explanation

Advanced ratings are awarded based on years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA. This means that in order to receive an advanced rating, an individual must have a certain number of years of rated service, and also meet the requirement of either having a certain number of military flying hours or having OFDA (which stands for something that is not specified in the question). This combination of factors is necessary to be eligible for an advanced rating.

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45. The years of rated service are computed from  the date the officer

Explanation

The years of rated service are calculated based on the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This rating signifies that the officer has successfully completed the necessary training and qualifications to be considered a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options mentioned (receiving a commission, performing the first operational flight, reporting for undergraduate flying training) are not relevant to the calculation of years of rated service.

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46. Which AFI can you find the list of FACs

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides the list of FACs (Forward Air Controllers).

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47. A member's ESC is not changed when he/she

Explanation

When a member fails to perform an operational flight for the month, their ESC (Eligibility Status Code) is not changed. This means that their eligibility status remains the same, regardless of their failure to complete an operational flight.

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48. Wen publishing an AO to change a rated officer's ASC, the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's

Explanation

When publishing an AO to change a rated officer's ASC, the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member's next aviation service gate. This means that the rated officer's ASC will be terminated on the date when they are eligible to progress to the next level in their aviation service. This ensures that the officer's ASC is updated in accordance with their career progression and advancement in the aviation service.

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49. In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

Explanation

In AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

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50. A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of

Explanation

A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon. This means that the individual can serve as both a pilot and a flight surgeon, combining their skills in aviation and medicine. This advanced rating allows them to fulfill dual roles and contribute to both the operational and medical aspects of their duties.

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51. A FEB may not recommend

Explanation

A FEB (Flight Evaluation Board) may not recommend disciplinary actions because its main purpose is to evaluate and assess the performance and qualifications of aviation personnel. Disciplinary actions are typically handled by other entities within the organization, such as the chain of command or the legal department. The FEB's focus is on determining if an individual meets the necessary standards for aviation service and if they should be requalified or disqualified from such service.

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52. If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by

Explanation

If a member is medically disqualified for less than one year, they can obtain medical certification for requalification by obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon's office. This means that they need to visit the flight surgeon's office and go through the necessary medical evaluations and examinations to prove that they are fit for duty again. This certification will then allow them to be requalified and continue their duties.

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53. Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the HARM office of pending assignment?

Explanation

A member must notify the HARM office of a pending assignment at least five duty days prior to departure. This means that the member needs to inform the office five working days before they are scheduled to leave. This allows the office enough time to process the assignment and make any necessary arrangements. It is important for the member to adhere to this timeline to ensure a smooth transition and avoid any last-minute complications.

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54. Following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF status for how many hours?

Explanation

After undergoing following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status for 12 hours. This means that they are not allowed to perform any flying duties for a period of 12 hours after the training. This is done to ensure that the aircrew member has enough time to recover and stabilize after the intense training, which involves exposure to high G-forces during centrifuge training. During this DNIF status, the aircrew member may be assigned to non-flying duties or given time off to rest and recuperate.

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55. A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

Explanation

To be authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge, a member must complete the basic flight nurse course, have three years of aviation service, and fulfill the requirement of having 12 paid months of operational flying duty. This means that the member must have served in an operational flying role for a minimum of 12 months in order to be eligible for the badge. The other options of 350 hours logged as a flight nurse and 750 hours logged as a flight nurse are not relevant to this specific requirement.

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56. Remarks are not used on AOs to

Explanation

Remarks are not used on AOs to add extra authority. This means that remarks are not used to enhance or strengthen the credibility or reliability of the information provided. Instead, remarks are used for other purposes such as emphasizing important information, providing explanations, or clearing any ambiguity that may exist in the information.

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57. Which document is filed on the right side of the FRF?

Explanation

The document filed on the right side of the FRF is the FHR.

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58. Members who are in inactive status are

Explanation

Members who are in inactive status are not required to complete an annual records review. This means that they do not have to go through the process of reviewing their records on a yearly basis. This could be because they are not actively participating or involved in the organization, and therefore, there is no need for them to update or review their records regularly.

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59. Once the member's ARMS record has been inprocessed,

Explanation

After the member's ARMS record has been inprocessed, the next step is to complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing HARM office. This step ensures that the member's record is properly transferred to the appropriate office and allows for a smooth transition of the member's information. By completing the transfer letter and sending it to the losing HARM office, the necessary documentation is provided to initiate the transfer process and ensure that the member's record is handled correctly.

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60. What flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for CEA duties?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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61. You do not publish an AO when

Explanation

An AO (Administrative Order) is not published when awarding an advanced aeronautical rating. This means that when a member receives a higher level of proficiency or qualification in aviation, such as a pilot receiving a new rating or certification, an AO is not required to be published. However, AOs are typically published for other actions mentioned in the question, such as changing a member's ASC (Aviation Specialty Code), initiating a member's aviation service, or suspending a member from aviation service.

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62. When auditing a FRF, ensure all AOs are filed in chronological order by

Explanation

When auditing a FRF, it is important to ensure that all AOs (Administrative Orders) are filed in chronological order by their effective date. This means that the AOs should be organized based on the date they come into effect, rather than the date they were requested, published, or terminated. This helps in understanding the sequence of actions and their impact on the financial statements or other relevant documents being audited.

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63. A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

Explanation

If a member is disqualified due to fear of flying, it would be reasonable for a commander to recommend prohibiting the wear of the aviation badge. The aviation badge is typically awarded to individuals who have demonstrated proficiency and competence in aviation-related duties. If someone is disqualified from flying due to fear, it suggests that they may not possess the necessary skills or mental readiness to fulfill their aviation responsibilities, and therefore wearing the badge would be inappropriate.

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64. The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

Explanation

The manpower standard is a document used by the Air Force to determine the number of personnel required for a specific task or operation. It helps in quantifying the manpower requirements by providing guidelines and criteria for determining the appropriate crew ratio for aircraft operations. This ensures that the necessary personnel are allocated to different positions and tasks, allowing for efficient and effective operations.

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65. How many  days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

Explanation

A non-rated officer can remain in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status for up to 180 days without being medically disqualified from aviation service. This means that they are temporarily unable to perform flying duties due to a medical condition or injury, but they can still continue their service in other non-flying roles. After 180 days, if the officer is still unable to fly, they may be medically disqualified from aviation service.

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66. Which rated officer may accumulate OFDA credit towards entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Explanation

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service may accumulate OFDA credit towards entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP). This means that the CSO can earn credit towards receiving additional pay for their continuous aviation service. The other options, such as the pilot with 18 years of aviation service, the flight surgeon with less than 12 years of aviation service, and the ABM with more than 18 years of aviation service, do not meet the criteria for accumulating OFDA credit towards ACIP entitlement.

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67. After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office?

Explanation

After completing physiological training, the member must return the AF IMT 702 to the HARM office within 5 duty days of arrival on station.

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68. What is the effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09?

Explanation

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09 is 01 Jul 09. This is because the member did not fly between 15 Mar 09 and 12 Sep 09, so the effective date for assigning the flying status code would be the first day after this period, which is 01 Jul 09.

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69. What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in in ASC 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?

Explanation

The maximum number of days a member can stay in ASC 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval is 180. This means that if a member is in ASC 04, they can stay in that status for up to 180 days without needing approval from the MAJCOM.

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70. What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a FRF to a member?

Explanation

To mail a FRF (presumably a document or package) to a member, the most suitable mail option would be First Class. First Class mail is typically used for sending personal correspondence and lightweight packages, making it an appropriate choice for mailing a FRF to a member. Registered mail is a more secure option, often used for valuable or sensitive items, but it may not be necessary for this particular situation. Certified mail provides proof of mailing and delivery, but it is not specifically required for a FRF. Priority mail is typically used for faster delivery, but it may not be necessary depending on the urgency of mailing the FRF.

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71. Altitued chamber refresher training is not reuired when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?

Explanation

Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active flying status will occur within 4 months of the training due date. This suggests that if a member is scheduled to be removed from active flying status within 4 months of their training due date, they do not need to undergo altitude chamber refresher training.

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72. Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

Explanation

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program is the source of funding for manpower resources. This program is responsible for planning and budgeting the resources needed by the Department of Defense over a period of five years. It includes funding for personnel, equipment, and other resources necessary to support the defense needs of the country. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that funding for manpower resources would be derived from this program.

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73. You cannot publish an amendment AO to correct the

Explanation

The given correct answer states that you cannot publish an amendment AO to correct the effective date. This means that once the effective date has been set for a certain event or action, it cannot be changed or corrected through an amendment AO. This implies that the effective date holds significant importance and cannot be altered once it has been established.

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74. Which position does not ahave an aeronautical rating?

Explanation

The position of Master flight surgeon does not have an aeronautical rating. This means that unlike the other positions listed (Command pilot, Senior observer, and Master navigator), the role of a Master flight surgeon does not require specific qualifications or expertise related to aviation. Instead, their focus is on providing medical support and expertise to pilots and other aviation personnel.

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75. For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive OFDA crdit if the member flew 14 May, but did not fly again until 18 Nov?

Explanation

The member who is actively flying is authorized to receive OFDA credit for the months in which they flew. In this case, the member flew on 14 May, so they are eligible to receive OFDA credit for May. They did not fly again until 18 Nov, so they are not eligible for OFDA credit for the months of Nov and beyond. Therefore, the member is authorized to receive OFDA credit for the months of May, Jun, Jul, and Aug.

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76. Supporting documents used in publishing AOs are annotated in ink

Explanation

The correct answer is "in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains." This is because the supporting documents used in publishing AOs are annotated in ink with the AO number in the lower right-hand corner. This annotation helps to identify and associate the document with the specific AO number it pertains to.

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77. ASD adjustment is mandatory for members

Explanation

ASD adjustment is mandatory for members returning to aviation service after 1 Aug 02. This means that individuals who were suspended from aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02 must undergo ASD adjustment before they can return to aviation service.

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78. Which ARMS report must be audited after each ARMS-MilPDS interface?

Explanation

The Permanent duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report must be audited after each ARMS-MilPDS interface. This report provides a summary of the interface between the ARMS and MilPDS systems specifically related to the permanent duty station information. By auditing this report, any discrepancies or errors in the interface can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information in both systems.

Submit
79. For how many months should you maintain a copy of the members outprocessing products?

Explanation

You should maintain a copy of the members outprocessing products for 24 months. This ensures that you have a record of the member's outprocessing activities and any necessary documentation for a sufficient period of time. It allows for easy access to the information if needed in the future, such as for audits or reference purposes. Keeping the records for 24 months also aligns with standard record-keeping practices and regulations.

Submit
80. Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using the date

Explanation

The correct answer is "of the medical license" because the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student is established based on the date of their medical license. This is because obtaining a medical license is a requirement for practicing medicine and providing medical services in the aviation field. Therefore, the ASD is determined by the date of the medical license, indicating when the medical student is officially qualified to provide medical services in aviation.

Submit
81. When an AO is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore

Explanation

When an AO (Administrative Order) is revoked, it means that it is no longer valid or in effect. Therefore, it should be removed from the FRF (File Room Facility) and AO master record set. This ensures that the revoked AO is not included in any official documentation or records, as it is no longer considered an official document. Removing it from both the FRF and AO master record set helps maintain accuracy and prevents any confusion or misuse of the revoked AO.

Submit
82. Suspension action is at the discretion of the comander when a member

Explanation

The suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member is offered Article 15 punishment. This means that the commander has the authority to decide whether or not to suspend the member in question. The decision to suspend would depend on various factors such as the severity of the offense, the member's past disciplinary record, and the commander's judgment on the appropriate course of action.

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83. The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing

Explanation

The outprocessing log book is the correct answer because it is a documented record that keeps track of the member's departure from the organization or unit. By signing the outprocessing log book, the member acknowledges receipt of the flight record package, indicating that they have received and reviewed the necessary information and documentation related to their flight records. This ensures accountability and serves as a confirmation of the member's acknowledgement of the flight record package.

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84. Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of the aviation badges?

Explanation

The MAJCOM commander is responsible for making the final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges. This individual holds a high-ranking position within the Major Command (MAJCOM) and has the authority to make decisions regarding policies and regulations within their command. They have the power to determine whether or not individuals are allowed to wear aviation badges, based on various factors such as safety concerns or adherence to guidelines set by the Aeronautical Rating Board.

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85. The AO number of the last AO published in the previous year must be annotated

Explanation

The AO number of the last AO published in the previous year should be annotated above the heading of the first AO of the current year. This placement allows for easy reference and identification of the previous year's AO, ensuring that it is clearly linked to the current year's AOs. Placing it above the heading also helps to maintain a chronological order and organization of the AOs.

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86. Part 9 of the AMSL is used to

Explanation

Part 9 of the AMSL is used to determine if aircrew members in FSC "S" recently performed an OFDA-creditable flight. This means that Part 9 of the AMSL is specifically designed to assess whether aircrew members in FSC "S" have completed a flight that meets the criteria for being considered OFDA-creditable. It is likely that this determination is important for tracking and evaluating the performance and qualifications of aircrew members in FSC "S" in relation to their flight activities.

Submit
87. The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO) awarding the basic rating to an officer approved for inter-service transfer is the date the

Explanation

When an officer is approved for inter-service transfer and awarded a basic rating by the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO), the effective date of the award is the date when the officer is assigned to rated duties. This means that the officer officially starts performing duties related to their rating, indicating the beginning of their career in the new service. It is at this point that the officer's responsibilities and tasks align with their newly awarded rating.

Submit
88. What is the effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member who was initially asigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not flyg until 12 Sep 09?

Explanation

The effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to a member is the date when they were initially assigned to flying duty, which in this case is 15 Mar 09. Even though the member did not actually fly until 12 Sep 09, the effective date remains the same as the date of initial assignment. Therefore, the effective date for assigning flying status code "S" to this member is 16 Mar 09.

Submit
89. When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member's AO must no exceed

Explanation

When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the member's AO must not exceed 3 years. This means that if the officer's DOS is not known, their assignment or appointment order (AO) can only be effective for a maximum period of 3 years. This allows for flexibility in the officer's assignment, as their DOS can be determined within this timeframe.

Submit
90. After a member has been suspended for failur to accomplish a flight PHA, the member has how many days to accomplish a flight PHA before facing disqualification

Explanation

After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight PHA, they have 60 days from the date the flight PHA expires to accomplish it before facing disqualification. This means that the member has a grace period of 60 days after the expiration of the flight PHA to complete it and avoid disqualification.

Submit
91. A member was initally assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09.  What action, if any must the HARM office take on 20 Mar 09

Explanation

The correct answer is to change the member's FSC from "A" to "S". This is because the member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 but did not fly until 17 Apr 09. According to the given information, the member has not flown within the last 90 days, which means their FSC (Flying Status Code) should be changed from "A" (available for flying duty) to "S" (not available for flying duty).

Submit
92. Non-permanent disqualification reasons include

Explanation

The correct answer is "Conscientious objector." This refers to a person who refuses to perform military service or bear arms on the grounds of moral or religious beliefs. In this context, it means that being a conscientious objector is a non-permanent disqualification reason, indicating that individuals who hold such beliefs may be temporarily disqualified from certain activities or responsibilities related to military service.

Submit
93. You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as

Explanation

The term "privileged information" refers to sensitive and confidential data that is restricted to a select group of individuals. In the context of an aircraft mishap, this means that all information related to the incident should only be accessed and shared by authorized personnel who have a need-to-know. By treating the information as privileged, it ensures that it is protected from unauthorized access and maintains the integrity of the investigation process.

Submit
94. If you must normalize and make changes to amember's record after it has been outprocessed to the hgaining HARM office, you must advise the HARM office to

Explanation

If you need to normalize and make changes to a member's record after it has been outprocessed to the gaining HARM office, the correct course of action is to delete the record before resending the updated record. This ensures that the outdated record is removed from the system and avoids any confusion or duplication of records. By deleting the record, you can then send the updated and normalized record without any issues.

Submit
95. Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member badge

Explanation

Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) are eligible to start wearing the officer aircrew member badge after they have completed an aircrew qualification as documented on the AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification. This means that they must have successfully completed the necessary training and met the required qualifications to be considered qualified aircrew members. Once this qualification has been obtained and documented, they are authorized to wear the badge.

Submit
96. When amending an AO, you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left hand margin

Explanation

When amending an AO, it is necessary to locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left hand margin the order number and request date of the amendment AO. This ensures that the amendment is properly identified and linked to the original AO. The order number and request date provide important information regarding the amendment and help in maintaining a clear and accurate record of the changes made.

Submit
97. What must be included in the Authority section of the AO, when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter?

Explanation

In the Authority section of the AO, when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter, the organization, office symbol, and date of the letter must be included. This information is important as it provides the necessary details about the source of authority for publishing the AO. The commander's name is not required in this case, as the focus is on the organization and the official letter itself.

Submit
98. The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation applies to

Explanation

The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation applies to non-career enlisted aviator enlisted members. This means that these individuals must be given a notice period of 120 days before their aviation service can be terminated against their will. This policy does not apply to all aircrew, rated officers, or CEAs.

Submit
99. Which part of the AMSL lists all members who are in DNIF status?

Explanation

The part of the AMSL that lists all members who are in DNIF status is 2.

Submit
100. What date is not used when terminating an AO for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)?

Explanation

When terminating an AO (Aviation Officer) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA), the date that is not considered is the aviation service milestone. This means that the termination is not based on the number of years or milestones achieved in aviation service. Instead, the termination may be based on other factors such as separation, completion of a flying tour, or a change to inactive status. The aviation service milestone is not taken into account in this specific termination process.

Submit
101. Which part of the AMSL displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an OFDA-creditable flight?

Explanation

The AMSL (Aircrew Management System List) displays aircrew members who have gone three months without performing an OFDA-creditable flight. The correct answer is 8 because it is the only option that represents the three-month time period mentioned in the question.

Submit
102. A rated officer who has been disqualified for al least one year but less than five years due to failur to maintain medical fitness may be requlified for aviation service when

Explanation

The correct answer is "certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF." This means that a rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness can be requalified for aviation service when they are certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF. This certification ensures that the officer has met the necessary medical requirements and is fit to resume aviation service.

Submit
103. In which AFI can you find the list of all mandatory remarks used for publishing AOs?

Explanation

The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. In this AFI, you can find the list of all mandatory remarks used for publishing AOs.

Submit
104. What is not a reason to convene a FEB?

Explanation

The reason "Lack of aircrew proficiency at UFT" is not a valid reason to convene a FEB (Flying Evaluation Board) is because the lack of proficiency in a specific training program, such as UFT (Undergraduate Flight Training), would not typically warrant the need for convening a FEB. FEBs are usually convened to address more serious issues such as lack of judgement, failure to meet standards, or failure to complete a flight PHA (Pre-flight Hazard Assessment).

Submit
105. What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's FSC from "U" to "X" if the member graduates UPT or UFT on 25 May, departs for intial qualification traing (IQT) on 26 May, completes IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?

Explanation

The effective date for changing a pilot's FSC from "U" to "X" would be 25 May because that is the date when the member graduates UPT or UFT. This is the point at which the pilot's FSC status changes, so the effective date would be the same as the graduation date.

Submit
106. On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member's eligibilty for non-career aviators flying duties.  The member was assigned to an aircew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on 13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training 15 Jan 09.  What is the effective date of the AO assigning ASC "9D?"

Explanation

The effective date of the AO assigning ASC "9D" is 5 Nov 08 because that is when the member started formal flying training. This is indicated in the information provided, where it states that the member started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08.

Submit
107. A pilot complete PT on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a TDY located to complete IQT.  The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed into the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09.  What is the effective date of the AO changing the member's ASC from "1X" to "1A?"

Explanation

The effective date of the AO changing the member's ASC from "1X" to "1A" is 17 Jan 09. This is because the member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09 and left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09. Therefore, the change in ASC would take effect on the following day, which is 17 Jan 09.

Submit
108. No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record mus the HARM office inprocess the FRF into the ARMS?

Explanation

The HARM office must inprocess the FRF into the ARMS within 10 calendar days after receipt of a member's record.

Submit
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Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?
When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the
One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform...
When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight...
Which office is responsible for establishing FRFs?
Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review...
A flight physical is not required when a
A FAC is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a...
Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the...
Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the
To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, use the
Operational support members are placed in flying status
When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the...
A categorical flying waiver
Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702,...
After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the...
Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the...
Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of...
Aviation service gates for CEAs are set at the
How many days in a calendar month must a member in an active flying...
You may publish a single AO that affects several members provided
Which is the correct way of citing an AFI as authority when publishing...
The AF IMT 1042 is not used to
What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the...
How can you determine if members are double-billeted?
Which FSC is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of...
When conducting a FRF audit, verify the date of the AF IMT 702,...
Operation support fliers
Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation...
The first character of the ASC is the
While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay
FRFs for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more...
The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?
Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?
An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who...
Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?
What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?
A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a...
Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons...
You must confirm verbal orders in writing by
A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required...
When the consolidated host aviation resource management system...
During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the HARM...
Advanced ratings are awarded based on
The years of rated service are computed from  the date the...
Which AFI can you find the list of FACs
A member's ESC is not changed when he/she
Wen publishing an AO to change a rated officer's ASC, the...
In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?
A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems...
A FEB may not recommend
If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may...
Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the HARM...
Following and centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in...
A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after...
Remarks are not used on AOs to
Which document is filed on the right side of the FRF?
Members who are in inactive status are
Once the member's ARMS record has been inprocessed,
What flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a...
You do not publish an AO when
When auditing a FRF, ensure all AOs are filed in chronological order...
A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge...
The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to
How many  days can a non-rated officer remain in DNIF status...
Which rated officer may accumulate OFDA credit towards entitlement to...
After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of...
What is the effective date for assigning flying status code...
What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in in ASC 04...
What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a FRF to a...
Altitued chamber refresher training is not reuired when removal of a...
Funding for manpower resources are derived from the
You cannot publish an amendment AO to correct the
Which position does not ahave an aeronautical rating?
For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to...
Supporting documents used in publishing AOs are annotated in ink
ASD adjustment is mandatory for members
Which ARMS report must be audited after each ARMS-MilPDS interface?
For how many months should you maintain a copy of the members...
Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for medical student using...
When an AO is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore
Suspension action is at the discretion of the comander when a member
The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by...
Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of the aviation...
The AO number of the last AO published in the previous year must be...
Part 9 of the AMSL is used to
The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF)...
What is the effective date for assigning flying status code...
When a non-rated officer's date of separation (DOS) is unknown,...
After a member has been suspended for failur to accomplish a flight...
A member was initally assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first...
Non-permanent disqualification reasons include
You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as
If you must normalize and make changes to amember's record after...
Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the...
When amending an AO, you must locate the original AO in the master...
What must be included in the Authority section of the AO, when the...
The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the...
Which part of the AMSL lists all members who are in DNIF status?
What date is not used when terminating an AO for non-career enlisted...
Which part of the AMSL displays aircrew members who have gone three...
A rated officer who has been disqualified for al least one year but...
In which AFI can you find the list of all mandatory remarks used for...
What is not a reason to convene a FEB?
What effective date would you use when changing a pilot's FSC from...
On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member's eligibilty for...
A pilot complete PT on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a TDY...
No later than how many days after receipt of a member's record mus...
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