Aviation Resource Management Quiz

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  • 1/108 Questions

    Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

    • High-altitude parachutists
    • Civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights
    • Personnel who are or will be placed on active flying status
    • Passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet mean sea level
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About This Quiz

Have you ever wondered how parachutes are being controlled? The individuals who do this are the aviation resource managers whose major part of their duties is to control, direct and organize aircrew. Are you interested in this? It's a job that requires significant attention to details and it certainly pays so well. Try this out.

Aviation Resource Management Quiz - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    When updating the flight physical in ARMS use the date the

    • AF IMT 1042 was received

    • AF IMT 1042 was prepared

    • Member signed the AF IMT 1042

    • Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

    Correct Answer
    A. Flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042." When updating the flight physical in ARMS, it is important to use the date when the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042. This indicates that the flight surgeon has reviewed and approved the physical examination, ensuring that the member is fit to fly. The other options, such as when the form was received, prepared, or when the member signed it, are not relevant in determining the validity of the flight physical.

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  • 3. 

    One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to check the member's 

    • Availability code

    • Physical status code

    • Aviation service gate

    • Physiological status code

    Correct Answer
    A. Availability code
    Explanation
    The availability code is a way of determining if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties. It provides information about the member's availability status, such as whether they are on duty, on leave, or unavailable for any other reason. By checking the availability code, one can easily determine if a member is able to perform their duties or not.

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  • 4. 

    When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight phycialc health assessment (pHA) to attend any physiolofical training?

    • Never

    • When the member enters phase period

    • When approved by the unit commander

    • When approved by the aerospace physiologist

    Correct Answer
    A. Never
    Explanation
    A member with an expired flight physical health assessment (PHA) cannot be scheduled to attend any physiological training. This is because the member's expired PHA indicates that they have not been cleared for flight duties, and it would be unsafe for them to participate in any physiological training.

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  • 5. 

    A flight physical is not required when a

    • Member is initially placed in aviation service

    • Member's periodic flight physical becomes due

    • Member is placed on medical waiver

    • Member applies for requalification

    Correct Answer
    A. Member is placed on medical waiver
    Explanation
    When a member is placed on a medical waiver, they are exempted from the requirement of undergoing a flight physical. This means that they do not need to go through the regular medical examination to assess their fitness for aviation service. The medical waiver is usually granted when a member has a temporary or permanent medical condition that may prevent them from meeting the standard medical requirements for aviation service. In such cases, the member is exempted from the flight physical until their medical condition improves or they are deemed fit to undergo the examination.

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  • 6. 

    A FAC is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about a member's flying

    • Incentive pay

    • Position

    • Activity

    • Status

    Correct Answer
    A. Activity
    Explanation
    A FAC, or Flying Activity Code, is a one-digit code that is used to provide detailed information about a member's flying activity. This code helps to track and categorize the type of flying that a member has been involved in. It can indicate whether the member has been engaged in training, combat missions, or other types of flying activities. By using this code, detailed information about a member's flying activity can be easily accessed and analyzed.

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  • 7. 

    Which office is responsible for establishing FRFs?

    • SARM

    • TARM

    • HARM

    • Stan Eval

    Correct Answer
    A. HARM
    Explanation
    The office responsible for establishing FRFs is HARM.

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  • 8. 

    Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

    • Fiscal year

    • Calendar year

    • Member's birth month

    • Month it was last completed

    Correct Answer
    A. Member's birth month
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "member's birth month". This means that members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of their birth month. This ensures that their records are up to date and accurate.

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  • 9. 

    Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

    • Has a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q"

    • Has completed the airframe simulator

    • Belongs to a 1AXXX specialty

    • Has a current physical profile

    Correct Answer
    A. Has a duty prefix of "X," "K," or "Q"
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "has a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q'." This means that in order to place a non-career aviator on flying status, they must have a duty prefix of 'X,' 'K,' or 'Q.' This requirement ensures that only individuals with the appropriate qualifications and training are allowed to fly. The other options listed, such as completing the airframe simulator, belonging to a 1AXXX specialty, and having a current physical profile may be important considerations but are not specifically mentioned as requirements for placing a non-career aviator on flying status.

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  • 10. 

    Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

    • AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty

    • AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

    • AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record

    • AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation

    Correct Answer
    A. AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record
    Explanation
    The completion of centrifuge training is documented using the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record. This form is specifically designed to track an individual's physiological training and includes information such as the date of training, the type of training completed, and the results of any evaluations or assessments. It serves as a comprehensive record of an individual's centrifuge training and can be used for future reference or documentation purposes.

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  • 11. 

    To update a member's physiological information in ARMS, use the

    • Flyer Availability window

    • Career Aviation window

    • Aircrew Data window

    • Flyer window

    Correct Answer
    A. Flyer Availability window
    Explanation
    The Flyer Availability window is the correct option for updating a member's physiological information in ARMS. This window is specifically designed to manage and track the availability of flyers, including their physiological information. It allows for easy access and updating of relevant data, ensuring accurate and up-to-date information for each member.

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  • 12. 

    Operational support members are placed in flying status

    • On a monthly basis

    • For the duration of the assigned mission

    • Until the man-year allocation is exhausted

    • Until the flying requirement no longer exists

    Correct Answer
    A. On a monthly basis
    Explanation
    The operational support members are placed in flying status on a monthly basis, which means that they are required to be available for flying duties every month. This suggests that their role involves actively participating in missions or tasks that require flying. This arrangement continues until the man-year allocation is exhausted, indicating that their flying status is determined by the allocated amount of time for their role.

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  • 13. 

    When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (pHA), the flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within

    • One duty day

    • Three duty days

    • Three calendar days

    • Five calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. One duty day
    Explanation
    The flight surgeon must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special Operational Duty to the HARM office within one duty day. This means that the flight surgeon has to submit the form within 24 hours after completing the flight physical health assessment (PHA). It is important to send the recommendation promptly to ensure that the necessary documentation is available for flight operations and to maintain the safety and readiness of the member.

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  • 14. 

    A categorical flying waiver

    • Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

    • Is only available to those with low tolerance to high gravity pressure

    • Allows a member to pass his or her flight physical health assessment

    • Allows a memer to lfy all types of aircraft

    Correct Answer
    A. Restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that a categorical flying waiver restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft. This means that individuals who have certain medical conditions are not allowed to fly all types of aircraft, but instead are restricted to flying only a specific type that is deemed safe for their condition. This waiver is put in place to ensure the safety of the individual and others on board the aircraft.

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  • 15. 

    Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record?

    • Member

    • Commander

    • Flight Surgeon

    • Aerospace Physiologist

    Correct Answer
    A. Aerospace Physiologist
    Explanation
    An Aerospace Physiologist certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record.

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  • 16. 

    After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is

    • Destroyed

    • Given to the member

    • Placed in a suspense folder

    • Filed in the flight record folder

    Correct Answer
    A. Filed in the flight record folder
    Explanation
    After updating the member's physiological information in ARMS, the AF IMT 702 is filed in the flight record folder. This is because the AF IMT 702 is a form used for documenting medical information and it is important to keep a record of it for future reference. By filing it in the flight record folder, it can be easily accessed by the appropriate personnel when needed.

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  • 17. 

    Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission?

    • The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

    • Manpower Programming and Execution System

    • Unit Manpower Document

    • Manpower standard

    Correct Answer
    A. Unit Manpower Document
    Explanation
    The Unit Manpower Document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit's mission. This document outlines the specific manpower needs of the unit, including the number and types of personnel required. It serves as a planning tool for allocating resources and ensuring that the unit has the necessary personnel to carry out its mission effectively. The Unit Manpower Document is an essential component of manpower planning and execution within the Department of Defense.

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  • 18. 

    Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuious Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

    • Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974

    • Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1989

    • FY 1996 National Defense Authorization Act

    • FY 2000 National Defense Authorization Act

    Correct Answer
    A. Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974. This act was the first to establish minimum numbers of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to be eligible for continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP).

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  • 19. 

    Aviation service gates for CEAs are set at the

    • 12th and 18th year of aviation service

    • 5th, 10th, and 15th year of aviation service

    • 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service

    • 10th, 15th, 20th and 22nd year of aviation service

    Correct Answer
    A. 10th, 15th, and 20th year of aviation service
  • 20. 

    How many days in a calendar month must a member in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of OFDA credit?

    • 7

    • 10

    • 15

    • 20

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    To receive one month of OFDA credit, a member in an active flying status code (FSC) must fly for at least 15 days in a calendar month. This means that they need to be actively flying for more than half of the month to receive credit for the entire month.

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  • 21. 

    The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

    • Medically restrict a member from special operational duty

    • Document completion of physiological training

    • Place a member in DNIF status

    • Document a categorical waiver

    Correct Answer
    A. Document completion of physiological training
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1042 is a form used to document completion of physiological training. It is not used to medically restrict a member from special operational duty, place a member in DNIF (Duties Not Including Flying) status, or document a categorical waiver.

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  • 22. 

    What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member's flight physical due date?

    • A

    • C

    • D

    • F

    Correct Answer
    A. F
    Explanation
    To manually change a member's flight physical due date in the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS), you must enter code F in the Physical Status Code field.

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  • 23. 

    How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

    • They have the same API code

    • They have an API of "5," "6," or "8"

    • They share the same position number

    • They have an API code of "B," or "D"

    Correct Answer
    A. They share the same position number
    Explanation
    If members share the same position number, it indicates that they are double-billeted. The position number is a unique identifier for each position within an organization, so if multiple members have the same position number, it means that they are assigned to the same position simultaneously, which is a characteristic of being double-billeted.

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  • 24. 

    You may publish a single AO that affects several members provided

    • The action is exactly the same for all members

    • The action is the same for majority of the members

    • All members have the same aviation service code only

    • All members have the same aviation service code and effective date

    Correct Answer
    A. The action is exactly the same for all members
    Explanation
    This statement explains that a single AO (Administrative Order) can affect multiple members if the action specified in the AO is identical for all members. This means that all members will be subject to the same action as outlined in the AO. The statement also clarifies that the action can be the same for the majority of the members, as long as it is exactly the same for all members. Additionally, it states that all members must have the same aviation service code and effective date for the AO to apply to them.

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  • 25. 

    Which is the correct way of citing an AFI as authority when publishing and AO?

    • AFI 11-401

    • AFI 11-401, 7 Mar 09

    • AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4

    • AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09
    Explanation
    When publishing an AO, the correct way to cite an AFI as authority is by including the AFI number, followed by the specific paragraph number being referenced, and the date of the AFI. Therefore, the correct answer is "AFI 11-401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09."

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  • 26. 

    Operation support fliers

    • Are fully qualified aircrew members

    • Are non-career aviators on standby status during emergency situations

    • Serve as an augmented crew to supplement normal operational missions

    • Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occationally

    Correct Answer
    A. Are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occationally
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally." This means that operation support fliers have expertise in non-aircrew roles and are occasionally allowed to fly. They are not career aviators on standby or augmented crew members, but rather individuals with specialized skills who can assist during emergency situations.

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  • 27. 

    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

    • The member has participated in 10 combat missions

    • The member suffered injuries as a result of an aircraft mishap

    • It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty

    • The operational suport position later becomes a flying crew chief position

    Correct Answer
    A. It is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty
    Explanation
    Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty. This means that the member must have previously served as part of an aircrew and received the aviation badge as a permanent recognition of their past duties. This requirement ensures that only individuals with relevant experience and qualifications are authorized to wear the aviation badge. The other options, such as participating in combat missions or suffering injuries, do not automatically qualify operational support fliers for the badge. Additionally, a change in position to a flying crew chief does not automatically grant authorization to wear the aviation badge.

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  • 28. 

    The first character of the ASC is the

    • Entitlement status code (ESC)

    • Aircrew position indicator (API)

    • Flying activity code (FAC)

    • Flying status code (FSC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Entitlement status code (ESC)
    Explanation
    The first character of the ASC is the entitlement status code (ESC). This code indicates the status of the individual's entitlement to certain benefits or privileges. It is used to determine the level of access or authority that the individual has within a particular system or organization.

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  • 29. 

    Which FSC is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

    • J

    • K

    • L

    • S

    Correct Answer
    A. K
    Explanation
    When a member is not flying due to lack of support capability, the FSC assigned is K.

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  • 30. 

    When conducting a FRF audit, verify the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's

    • AO

    • IDS

    • FHR

    • MPO

    Correct Answer
    A. IDS
    Explanation
    When conducting a FRF audit, it is important to verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member's IDS. The IDS, or Individual Duty Status, is a record that documents the status of a military member, including their duty assignments, training, and medical history. By ensuring that the date on the AF IMT 702 matches the date on the member's IDS, auditors can confirm that the training record is accurate and up to date. This helps to ensure that the member's training requirements are being met and that they are prepared for their duties.

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  • 31. 

    The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by what date?

    • 1 June

    • 15 June

    • 1 July

    • 15 July

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 June
    Explanation
    The MAJCOM must receive the unit's man-month request by 15 June. This indicates that the unit has a deadline of submitting their man-month request to the MAJCOM by this date. It is important for the MAJCOM to receive these requests in a timely manner in order to effectively plan and allocate resources.

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  • 32. 

    Which AFI can you find the list of avilability codes?

    • 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program

    • 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew

    • 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    A. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11-421, Aviation Resource Management. This AFI specifically relates to Aviation Resource Management and would likely contain information on avilability codes. The other AFIs listed do not pertain to avilability codes.

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  • 33. 

    An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

    • Examine a member's eligibility for an OFDA waiver

    • Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer

    • Ensure the quality control of career and non-career aviators

    • Determine the root cause of an aircraft mishap

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer." An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is responsible for assessing the qualifications and experience of officers who wish to transfer from one branch of the military to another. They evaluate the flying credentials, such as flight hours and qualifications, to determine if the officer meets the requirements for an inter-service transfer. This process ensures that the officers have the necessary skills and experience to perform their duties effectively in the new branch of service.

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  • 34. 

    While under suspension, the member's flying incentive pay

    • Continues until the member is disqualified

    • Continues until the member appears before a FEB

    • Is terminated until the member's status is resolved

    • Is terminated and paide back one the member is disqualified

    Correct Answer
    A. Is terminated until the member's status is resolved
  • 35. 

    FRFs for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

    • Given to the member

    • Maintained in an inactive flight cabinet

    • Sent to the staging facility for disposition

    • Destroyed to protect the privacay of the individual

    Correct Answer
    A. Given to the member
    Explanation
    The FRFs (Flight Record Forms) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are given to the member. This suggests that even though the member has been disqualified, they still have access to their flight records. This could be important for various reasons such as reference, review, or any other purposes related to their previous flight activities.

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  • 36. 

    Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

    • Completion date of undergraduate flying training

    • Class start date or undergraduate flying training

    • Date member arrived on first duty station

    • Commisioning date in the USAF

    Correct Answer
    A. Commisioning date in the USAF
    Explanation
    The officer service date (OSD) is computed based on the commissioning date in the USAF. This is the date when an individual officially becomes an officer in the United States Air Force. It marks the beginning of their active duty service and is used to determine their length of service and eligibility for various benefits and promotions. The completion date of undergraduate flying training, class start date, and the date of arrival on the first duty station are not directly relevant to the calculation of the OSD.

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  • 37. 

    What qualification does the aircrew prefix "Q" signify?

    • Basic aircrew

    • Instructor

    • Evaluator

    • Observer

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluator
    Explanation
    The aircrew prefix "Q" signifies the qualification of an evaluator. This means that the individual with this prefix has the authority and expertise to assess and evaluate the performance of other aircrew members. They are responsible for ensuring that all aircrew members meet the required standards and are capable of performing their duties effectively.

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  • 38. 

    A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade is a

    • Certification

    • Diploma

    • Licence

    • Rating

    Correct Answer
    A. Rating
    Explanation
    In the context of aviation, a rating refers to a professional accreditation that allows a pilot to operate a specific type of aircraft or perform certain tasks. Similar to a physician who is accredited to practice a trade, a pilot with a rating is certified and authorized to carry out specific aviation activities. This could include ratings for different aircraft types, instrument flying, or flight instructor ratings. Therefore, the term "rating" is the most appropriate option among the given choices to describe a professional accreditation in aviation.

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  • 39. 

    Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date

    • They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course

    • They completed their post-graduate medical training

    • They received an unrestricted license to practice

    • Stated on their medical license

    Correct Answer
    A. They completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course
    Explanation
    The correct answer is that licensed physicians are placed in aviation service flight surgeons effective the date they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course. This means that once physicians have successfully finished the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course, they are eligible to serve as flight surgeons in aviation service. This course likely provides the necessary knowledge and skills related to aviation medicine, which is essential for physicians working in this field.

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  • 40. 

    A periodic flight preventative health assessments (pHA) is required every

    • 6

    • 12

    • 15

    • 24

    Correct Answer
    A. 15
    Explanation
    A periodic flight preventative health assessment (PHA) is required every 15 months. This assessment is necessary to ensure the ongoing health and fitness of pilots and crew members. By conducting PHAs every 15 months, any potential health issues or risks can be identified and addressed in a timely manner, promoting the safety and well-being of all individuals involved in flight operations.

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  • 41. 

    You must confirm verbal orders in writing by

    • Publishing the corresponding AO within 3 duty days

    • Publishing the corresponding AO within 5 duty days

    • Preparing a MFR within 3 calendar days

    • Preparing a MFR within 5 calendar days

    Correct Answer
    A. Publishing the corresponding AO within 3 duty days
    Explanation
    Verbal orders must be confirmed in writing by publishing the corresponding Administrative Order (AO) within 3 duty days. This means that within three working days, the AO should be officially documented and made available to all relevant parties. This ensures that the verbal orders are properly recorded and communicated, providing a written record for future reference and accountability.

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  • 42. 

    Advanced ratings are awarded based on

    • Years of rated service and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation

    • Military flying time and OFDA

    • Years of rated service, military flying time, and Aeronautical Rating Board confirmation

    • Years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA

    Correct Answer
    A. Years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA
    Explanation
    Advanced ratings are awarded based on years of rated service and either military flying hours or OFDA. This means that in order to receive an advanced rating, an individual must have a certain number of years of rated service, and also meet the requirement of either having a certain number of military flying hours or having OFDA (which stands for something that is not specified in the question). This combination of factors is necessary to be eligible for an advanced rating.

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  • 43. 

    The years of rated service are computed from  the date the officer

    • Received a commission

    • Performed the first operational flight

    • Reported for undergraduate flying training

    • Received the basic United States Air Force rating

    Correct Answer
    A. Received the basic United States Air Force rating
    Explanation
    The years of rated service are calculated based on the date the officer received the basic United States Air Force rating. This rating signifies that the officer has successfully completed the necessary training and qualifications to be considered a rated officer in the Air Force. The other options mentioned (receiving a commission, performing the first operational flight, reporting for undergraduate flying training) are not relevant to the calculation of years of rated service.

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  • 44. 

    Which AFI can you find the list of FACs

    • 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program

    • 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    • 11-401, Aviation Management

    Correct Answer
    A. 11-401, Aviation Management
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 11-401, Aviation Management. This AFI provides the list of FACs (Forward Air Controllers).

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  • 45. 

    When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

    • Backup the current data available

    • Send an emergency action message

    • Wait until the next end-of-month transfer takes place

    • Notify the appropriate HARM office

    Correct Answer
    A. Notify the appropriate HARM office
    Explanation
    If the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will notify the appropriate HARM office. This is the correct answer because notifying the appropriate HARM office is the appropriate course of action to address the issue and ensure that the missing file is tracked and resolved. The HARM office can then take the necessary steps to investigate the issue and ensure that the file is received and processed correctly.

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  • 46. 

    During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

    • Complete and AF Form 64, Charge Out Record

    • Identify all members of the Aircraft Investigation Board

    • Ensure all family members and friends have been notified

    • Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS

    Correct Answer
    A. Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS
    Explanation
    Before the HARM office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board, it is important to ensure that all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the ARMS (Aviation Resource Management System). This is necessary to ensure that accurate and up-to-date information is available for the investigation board to analyze and assess the circumstances of the aircraft mishap.

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  • 47. 

    In which AFI can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

    • 11-402, Aviation and Parachutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • 11-403, Aerospace Physiological Training Program

    • 11-404, Training for High-G Aircrew

    • 11-421, Aviation Resource Management

    Correct Answer
    A. 11-421, Aviation Resource Management
    Explanation
    In AFI 11-421, Aviation Resource Management, you can find the list of categorical flying waiver codes.

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  • 48. 

    A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of

    • Pilot only

    • Pilot and flight surgeon

    • Pilot and combat systems officer

    • Pilot, combat systems officer, and flight surgeon

    Correct Answer
    A. Pilot and flight surgeon
    Explanation
    A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a command systems officer (CSO) is eligible for the advanced rating of pilot and flight surgeon. This means that the individual can serve as both a pilot and a flight surgeon, combining their skills in aviation and medicine. This advanced rating allows them to fulfill dual roles and contribute to both the operational and medical aspects of their duties.

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  • 49. 

    A member's ESC is not changed when he/she

    • Fails to meet OFDA gate requirements

    • Fails to perform an operational flight for the month

    • Is disqualified

    • Is suspended

    Correct Answer
    A. Fails to perform an operational flight for the month
    Explanation
    When a member fails to perform an operational flight for the month, their ESC (Eligibility Status Code) is not changed. This means that their eligibility status remains the same, regardless of their failure to complete an operational flight.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Sep 18, 2024 +

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  • Current Version
  • Sep 18, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 14, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Ssgtkatrina_well
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