Aviation Resource Management Volume 1

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Aviation Resource Management Quizzes & Trivia

Every individual has a dream he or she wants to fulfill in life and if your dream is to be an aeronautical engineering, then you got the right quiz. The skills you need to acquire include ability to keep records and track of inventory, review aviation missions' reports and maintain accuracy. Try your best.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which functional area is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM)

    • B.

      Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM)

    • C.

      Standardization and Evaluation (Stan/Eval)

    • D.

      Current Operations

    Correct Answer
    B. Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM)
    Explanation
    Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) is responsible for the overall operation and maintenance of the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS). This functional area is specifically designated to handle the management and coordination of aviation resources within a squadron or organization. They are responsible for maintaining accurate and up-to-date records, managing personnel qualifications and training, and ensuring compliance with regulations and policies. HARM plays a crucial role in the efficient and effective functioning of the aviation resource management system.

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  • 2. 

    Which funtional area is responsible  for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations?

    • A.

      Squadron Aviation Resource Management (SARM)

    • B.

      Current Operations

    • C.

      Aircrew training

    • D.

      Aircrew scheduling

    Correct Answer
    B. Current Operations
    Explanation
    Current Operations is responsible for planning and scheduling all training sorties as well as real-world contingency missions and mobility operations. They are in charge of coordinating and organizing the various aviation activities and ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are available for the missions. This includes creating schedules, allocating aircraft and crew members, and making adjustments as needed to ensure the smooth execution of operations.

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  • 3. 

    Evaluating work methods and procedures to achieve the most economical use of resources is one of the tasks of

    • A.

      A craftsman

    • B.

      An apprentice

    • C.

      A journeyman

    • D.

      A superintendent

    Correct Answer
    D. A superintendent
    Explanation
    A superintendent is responsible for overseeing and managing various aspects of a project or organization, including evaluating work methods and procedures. They are in a position of authority and have the knowledge and experience to ensure that resources are used efficiently and economically. They may analyze current work methods, identify areas for improvement, and implement changes to optimize resource utilization. This task requires a higher level of expertise and decision-making skills, making a superintendent the most suitable choice for evaluating work methods and procedures.

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  • 4. 

    Who is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation?

    • A.

      Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)

    • B.

      Major command functional manager (MFM)

    • C.

      Wing fuctional manager (WFM)

    • D.

      Chief, Host Aviation Resource Manager (CHARM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Wing fuctional manager (WFM)
    Explanation
    The Wing functional manager (WFM) is responsible for evaluating manning requirements, vacancies, and ensuring personnel are trained and given equal opportunity to work across functional areas to prevent job stagnation. They oversee the personnel management within the wing and ensure that the right individuals are assigned to the right positions. They also play a crucial role in identifying training needs and opportunities for career development within the wing.

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  • 5. 

    Which part of the career field education and training plan (CFETP) would you find the specialty training standard lists the most common 1C0X2 tasks, knowledge, and technical references?

    • A.

      Part I Section A

    • B.

      Part I Section B

    • C.

      Part II Section A

    • D.

      Part II Section B

    Correct Answer
    C. Part II Section A
    Explanation
    In the career field education and training plan (CFETP), the specialty training standard in Part II Section A would list the most common tasks, knowledge, and technical references for the 1C0X2 specialty.

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  • 6. 

    Supervisors must make sure that an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record is maintained for all Airmen in the grades of

    • A.

      AB through SrA ONLY

    • B.

      AB through TSgt ONLY

    • C.

      AB through CMSgt

    • D.

      AB through TSgt, and SNCO in retraining status

    Correct Answer
    D. AB through TSgt, and SNCO in retraining status
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AB through TSgt, and SNCO in retraining status. This means that supervisors are responsible for maintaining an AF Form 623, On-the-Job Training Record for all Airmen in the grades of AB through TSgt, as well as SNCOs who are in retraining status. This record is necessary to track and document the training and progress of these individuals.

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  • 7. 

    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to

    • A.

      Conduct an occupational survey and make changes tot he career field education and training plan (CFETP)

    • B.

      Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level

    • C.

      Establish training requirements for all personnel involved in course development

    • D.

      Enhance the communication link between functional managers and course developers

    Correct Answer
    B. Establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level
    Explanation
    The purpose of the specialty training requirement team is to establish the most effective mix of formal and on-the-job training for each skill level. This means that the team is responsible for determining the optimal combination of classroom instruction and practical experience that will best develop the skills and knowledge needed for each level of expertise. By doing so, the team ensures that the training provided is tailored to meet the specific needs of individuals at different skill levels, ultimately enhancing the overall effectiveness of the training program.

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  • 8. 

    Which forum is used to create or revise the specialty training standard (STS)  and set the responsibilities for providing the necessary training?

    • A.

      AAG

    • B.

      ARM office

    • C.

      AWG

    • D.

      Specialty training requirement team

    Correct Answer
    D. Specialty training requirement team
    Explanation
    The Specialty training requirement team is responsible for creating or revising the specialty training standard (STS) and setting the responsibilities for providing the necessary training. They are the forum that oversees and ensures the quality and effectiveness of the training standards in a particular specialty.

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  • 9. 

    The STS is divided into how many columns?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      3

    • C.

      4

    • D.

      5

    Correct Answer
    C. 4
    Explanation
    The STS is divided into four columns.

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  • 10. 

    All entries to the STS column 3 must be dont in pencil to

    • A.

      Easily identify open and closed items

    • B.

      Make it a binding contract

    • C.

      Make it a living document

    • D.

      Easily erase mistakes

    Correct Answer
    C. Make it a living document
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "make it a living document". This means that all entries in column 3 of the STS (presumably a document or form) should be done in pencil in order to easily update and revise the information as needed. By using pencil, mistakes can be easily erased and the document can be continuously updated and adapted, reflecting any changes or developments in the given situation.

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  • 11. 

    Before a trainee is recommended for the next skill level, the trainee must be fully trained on all

    • A.

      Tasks to include mobility and additional duty

    • B.

      Duty positions and core tasks

    • C.

      Duty positions tasks only

    • D.

      Core tasks only

    Correct Answer
    B. Duty positions and core tasks
    Explanation
    The trainee must be fully trained on both duty positions and core tasks before being recommended for the next skill level. This means that they need to have a thorough understanding and proficiency in all the different roles and responsibilities they may be assigned, as well as the essential tasks that are required for their position. Simply being trained on duty positions tasks only or core tasks only would not be sufficient for them to be considered ready for the next level.

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  • 12. 

    The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document each of the following except

    • A.

      Course and task progression

    • B.

      Training start and completion dates

    • C.

      Task certification and recertification

    • D.

      Trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude

    Correct Answer
    B. Training start and completion dates
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet is used to document course and task progression, task certification and recertification, and the trainee's strengths, weaknesses, and attitude. However, it does not document the training start and completion dates.

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  • 13. 

    Within how many days of assignment must a supervisor conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications?

    • A.

      30 (active duty)/90 (ARC members)

    • B.

      60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members)

    • C.

      45 (active duty)/90 (ARC members)

    • D.

      90 (active duty)/120 (ARC members)

    Correct Answer
    B. 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 60 (active duty)/120 (ARC members). This means that for active duty members, a supervisor must conduct an initial evaluation of the trainee's qualifications within 60 days of assignment, while for ARC members, the evaluation must be conducted within 120 days of assignment. This ensures that supervisors assess the trainee's qualifications in a timely manner, allowing for appropriate training and development plans to be implemented.

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  • 14. 

    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to

    • A.

      Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates

    • B.

      Determine the quality of recent BMT graduates

    • C.

      Ensure proper training techniques are being utilized at the unit level

    • D.

      Provide information to supervisors on the quality of training provided by the career development course

    Correct Answer
    A. Gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates
    Explanation
    The purpose of the graduate assessment survey is to gather feedback on Air Force resident training graduates. This survey is designed to collect information and opinions from individuals who have completed the training program. The feedback obtained from the survey helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the training program and identifying areas for improvement. It provides valuable insights into the experiences and perceptions of the graduates, which can be used to enhance the quality of the training provided by the Air Force.

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  • 15. 

    One way to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of the task is by conducting a

    • A.

      Task evaluation

    • B.

      Task review exercise

    • C.

      Staff assistance visit

    • D.

      Graduate assessment survey

    Correct Answer
    A. Task evaluation
    Explanation
    Task evaluation is a method to validate and assess a trainee's knowledge of a task. It involves assessing the trainee's performance and understanding of the task by reviewing their execution, analyzing their results, and providing feedback. This evaluation helps identify areas of improvement and ensures that the trainee has acquired the necessary skills and knowledge to perform the task effectively. Conducting a task evaluation is a practical and reliable way to gauge the trainee's competency and progress in their training.

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  • 16. 

    A request for training waiver is approved by the

    • A.

      Squadron commander

    • B.

      Base training manager

    • C.

      Air Force career field manager

    • D.

      Major command functional manager (MAJCOM)

    Correct Answer
    C. Air Force career field manager
    Explanation
    The Air Force career field manager is the correct authority to approve a request for training waiver. They have the responsibility to oversee and manage the career field, ensuring that the training requirements are met and that waivers are granted when appropriate. The squadron commander, base training manager, and MAJCOM may have some level of involvement in the process, but the final decision lies with the career field manager.

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  • 17. 

    When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may

    • A.

      Establish a new maximum training date and annotate it on the AF IMT 623a

    • B.

      Decertify the trainee on all tasks and begin remedial training

    • C.

      Request cross training into another career field

    • D.

      Submit a waiver request

    Correct Answer
    D. Submit a waiver request
    Explanation
    When a trainee is unable to complete the required upgrade training requirements within the maximum allowable time, the supervisor may submit a waiver request. This means that the supervisor can request an exemption or exception to the established rules or requirements for the trainee. By submitting a waiver request, the supervisor is seeking permission or approval to extend the trainee's training deadline or to make other accommodations to allow the trainee to complete the training requirements.

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  • 18. 

    Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 include all of the following except to

    • A.

      Amend or correct individual records request

    • B.

      Ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant

    • C.

      Protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of privacy

    • D.

      Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to ensure access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens is always granted. The Air Force policies regarding the Privacy Act of 1974 aim to protect individuals from unwarranted invasion of privacy, ensure individual records are timely, accurate, complete, and relevant, and amend or correct individual records upon request. However, the policies do not guarantee that access to personal information on citizens and resident aliens will always be granted, as there may be legal restrictions or privacy concerns that prevent such access.

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  • 19. 

    Within the DOD social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as

    • A.

      Privileged information

    • B.

      For Official Use Only (FOUO)

    • C.

      For your eyes only

    • D.

      Secret information

    Correct Answer
    B. For Official Use Only (FOUO)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "For Official Use Only (FOUO)". Within the DOD, social security numbers (SSN) must be protected as FOUO. This means that the information should only be accessed and used by authorized personnel for official purposes. FOUO designation is used to safeguard sensitive but unclassified information that, if disclosed, could potentially harm national security or individual privacy. Protecting SSNs as FOUO helps prevent identity theft and unauthorized access to personal information.

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  • 20. 

    Records that are protected by the Privacy Act may be destroyed by all of the following methods except

    • A.

      Tearing

    • B.

      Burning

    • C.

      Crumpling

    • D.

      Shredding

    Correct Answer
    C. Crumpling
    Explanation
    The correct answer is crumpling. The Privacy Act protects records from unauthorized access and disclosure. Tearing, burning, and shredding are all effective methods of destroying records that ensure they cannot be reconstructed or accessed. However, crumpling may not fully destroy the information and could potentially be undone, allowing for the possibility of unauthorized access.

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  • 21. 

    Any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a

    • A.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $10,000.00

    • B.

      Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00

    • C.

      Felony and confined for five years

    • D.

      Felony and confined for two years

    Correct Answer
    B. Misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "misdemeanor and fined up to $5,000.00". This is because the sentence states that any member who violates the Privacy Act is guilty of a misdemeanor, which is a less serious offense than a felony. Additionally, the fine for the violation is stated to be up to $5,000.00.

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  • 22. 

    The three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilites are

    • A.

      Telephones, computer networks, and the physical environment

    • B.

      Telephones, radio conmmunications, and the physical environment

    • C.

      Radio communications, computer networks, and human intelligence

    • D.

      The physical environment, computer networks, and human intelligence

    Correct Answer
    B. Telephones, radio conmmunications, and the physical environment
    Explanation
    The correct answer is telephones, radio communications, and the physical environment. This answer identifies three broad categories of exploitable operations security vulnerabilities. Telephones and radio communications are vulnerable to interception and unauthorized access, while the physical environment includes vulnerabilities such as unauthorized access to facilities or equipment. This combination of vulnerabilities highlights the importance of securing communication channels and physical assets to protect against potential threats.

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  • 23. 

    Before leaving the area, make sure all classified materials

    • A.

      Are in custody of another individual

    • B.

      Are stored in proper storage container

    • C.

      Have the proper cover sheet

    • D.

      Are hidden from plain view

    Correct Answer
    B. Are stored in proper storage container
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "are stored in proper storage container" because it is important to ensure that classified materials are securely stored before leaving the area. This helps to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access or accidental disclosure. Storing them in a proper storage container adds an extra layer of security and helps maintain the confidentiality of the materials.

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  • 24. 

    What AFI series number pertains to flying operations?

    • A.

      10

    • B.

      11

    • C.

      16

    • D.

      36

    Correct Answer
    B. 11
    Explanation
    AFI stands for Air Force Instruction, which is a series of documents that provide guidance and regulations for various aspects of the United States Air Force. The question is asking for the AFI series number that pertains to flying operations. The correct answer is 11, as AFI 11 covers all aspects of flying operations, including flight planning, training, safety, and procedures.

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  • 25. 

    Which AFI sets policy on crew rest and flight duty limitations?

    • A.

      AFI 11-401, Aviation Management

    • B.

      AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules

    • C.

      AFI 48-123, Medical Examinations and Standards

    • D.

      AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors

    Correct Answer
    B. AFI 11-202, Vol 3, General Flight Rules
  • 26. 

    Which AFI contains guidance on disqualifications and requalifications, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation?

    • A.

      AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parahutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges

    • B.

      AFI 11-202, Vol 2, Aircrew Standardization/Evaluation Program

    • C.

      AFI 65-503, US Air Force Cost and Planning Factors

    • D.

      AFI 11-401, Aviation Management

    Correct Answer
    A. AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parahutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges
    Explanation
    AFI 11-402, Aviation and Parahutist Service, Aeronautical Ratings and Badges contains guidance on disqualifications and requalifications, flying evaluation board procedures, and manpower request and validation. This AFI specifically focuses on the aviation and parahutist service, aeronautical ratings, and badges, providing detailed instructions and procedures for these areas.

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  • 27. 

    What form is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a members flight evaluation?

    • A.

      AF Form 8, Certification of Aircrew Evaluation

    • B.

      AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record

    • C.

      AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation

    • D.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order

    Correct Answer
    C. AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation
    Explanation
    AF Form 942, Record of Evaluation, is used as a cover sheet to provide a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation. This form is specifically designed to document and summarize the results of the evaluation process for aircrew members. It serves as a concise record that highlights the key aspects of the evaluation, allowing for easy reference and review. The other options, AF Form 8, Certification of Aircrew Evaluation, AF IMT 922, Individual Jump Record, and DD Form 114, Military Pay Order, are not relevant to the purpose of providing a synopsis of a member's flight evaluation.

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  • 28. 

    What form is used to track number of hours flown for condional flying incentive pay?

    • A.

      DD Form 114, Military Pay Order

    • B.

      AF IMT 1373, MPO Document Control Log Transmittal

    • C.

      AFTO Form 781, ARMS Aircrew Mission/Flight Data Document

    • D.

      AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet

    Correct Answer
    D. AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet
    Explanation
    The AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet is the correct answer because it is used to track the number of hours flown for conditional flying incentive pay. This form is specifically designed for recording flight data and calculating flight pay entitlements for individual aircrew members.

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  • 29. 

    The goal of establishing work center procedures is to

    • A.

      Improve work process

    • B.

      Create shortcuts and save cost

    • C.

      Ensure continuity in the work place

    • D.

      Standardize processes across all bases

    Correct Answer
    D. Standardize processes across all bases
    Explanation
    Establishing work center procedures is important to standardize processes across all bases. This ensures consistency and uniformity in the way tasks are performed, regardless of the location. By standardizing processes, organizations can streamline operations, improve efficiency, and reduce errors or variations in work. This also helps in promoting effective communication and collaboration among different bases, leading to better coordination and overall productivity.

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  • 30. 

    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are called

    • A.

      An application suite

    • B.

      A program bundle

    • C.

      A software family

    • D.

      A data bank

    Correct Answer
    A. An application suite
    Explanation
    When several applications are bundled together as a package, they are referred to as an application suite. This term is commonly used to describe a collection of software applications that are designed to work together and complement each other. An application suite typically includes multiple programs that serve different purposes but are integrated and share common functionalities, interfaces, and data. This allows users to access and utilize a variety of applications conveniently within a single package.

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  • 31. 

    A computer system can be configured to interact with other computer systems, forming a

    • A.

      Computer web

    • B.

      Computer network

    • C.

      System architecture

    • D.

      Client-server model

    Correct Answer
    B. Computer network
    Explanation
    A computer network is a system where multiple computer systems are connected and can communicate with each other. This allows for the sharing of resources and information between the connected computers. It enables users to access and share data, files, and applications across the network. By configuring a computer system to interact with other computer systems, it becomes a part of a computer network, facilitating communication and collaboration between the connected devices.

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  • 32. 

    What do you call a network that can range from several blocks of buildings to an entire city?

    • A.

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B.

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • C.

      Wide area network(WAN)

    • D.

      Defense mega network

    Correct Answer
    B. Metropolitan area network (MAN)
    Explanation
    A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a type of network that covers a larger geographical area than a local area network (LAN), but smaller than a wide area network (WAN). It typically spans several blocks of buildings or an entire city. This type of network is designed to provide connectivity and communication between various locations within a metropolitan area.

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  • 33. 

    Which menu is not included in the Resource module of ARMS

    • A.

      Jump Management

    • B.

      Deferred Management

    • C.

      Aircrew Management

    • D.

      Personnel Management

    Correct Answer
    B. Deferred Management
    Explanation
    The menu that is not included in the Resource module of ARMS is Deferred Management. This means that within the Resource module, there are menus for Jump Management, Aircrew Management, and Personnel Management, but there is no menu specifically for managing deferred tasks or actions.

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  • 34. 

    Which ARMS module is used to establish system management parameters?

    • A.

      Flight

    • B.

      System

    • C.

      Training

    • D.

      Resource

    Correct Answer
    B. System
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "System". The system module is used to establish system management parameters. This module allows for the configuration and customization of various system settings and parameters, such as user access controls, system security settings, and system behavior. It is responsible for managing and controlling the overall operation of the ARMS system, ensuring that it functions efficiently and effectively.

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  • 35. 

    Who is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of ARMS database?

    • A.

      Database administrator

    • B.

      Unit security manager

    • C.

      Knowledge owner

    • D.

      System analyst

    Correct Answer
    A. Database administrator
    Explanation
    The database administrator is responsible for the management, security, and accuracy of the ARMS database. They are in charge of ensuring that the database is properly maintained, including tasks such as creating and managing user accounts, implementing security measures to protect the data, and regularly updating and optimizing the database to ensure its accuracy and efficiency. The database administrator also handles any issues or problems that may arise with the database, such as troubleshooting errors or resolving conflicts.

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  • 36. 

    The CHARM approves access to Aviation Resource Management System and assigns security levels based on

    • A.

      User's rank

    • B.

      User's duties

    • C.

      User's request

    • D.

      Commander's request

    Correct Answer
    B. User's duties
    Explanation
    The correct answer is user's duties because the CHARM system approves access to the Aviation Resource Management System based on the specific responsibilities and tasks that the user has within the organization. The system assigns security levels to users based on their duties to ensure that they have appropriate access to the necessary resources and information required for their job roles.

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  • 37. 

    Which Aviation Resource Managment System governing body's purpose is to  concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification?

    • A.

      AAG

    • B.

      AWG

    • C.

      ASG

    • D.

      Database administrative group

    Correct Answer
    B. AWG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is AWG. AWG stands for Aviation Resource Management System Working Group. The purpose of AWG is to concentrate and solve issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operation, maintenance, and modification. AWG serves as the governing body for ARMS, ensuring that it functions effectively and addresses any challenges or concerns that may arise during its implementation and operation.

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  • 38. 

    What Air Force form is used to request changes to ARMS

    • A.

      3125, IT/NSS Requirements Document

    • B.

      847, Reccomendation for Change publication

    • C.

      4332, Accountable communications receipt authorization

    • D.

      3525, CCB Modification Requirements and Approval Document

    Correct Answer
    A. 3125, IT/NSS Requirements Document
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3125, IT/NSS Requirements Document. This form is used to request changes to ARMS (Automated Records Management System). It specifically deals with IT (Information Technology) and NSS (Network and Systems Support) requirements.

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  • 39. 

    Which individuals may submit an AF Form 3215?

    • A.

      ASG members ONLY

    • B.

      AAG members ONLY

    • C.

      AWG members ONLY

    • D.

      All primary system users

    Correct Answer
    D. All primary system users
    Explanation
    All primary system users may submit an AF Form 3215. This means that any individual who is designated as a primary user of the system can fill out and submit this form. It is not limited to specific groups such as ASG members, AAG members, or AWG members.

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  • 40. 

    A community of practice is a group of people who are connected to each other

    • A.

      According to the same values and religious beliefs

    • B.

      By a need to solve common problems

    • C.

      By a need to belong to a social club

    • D.

      According to social status

    Correct Answer
    B. By a need to solve common problems
    Explanation
    A community of practice is formed by individuals who are connected to each other because they share a common need to solve common problems. This means that the members of the community come together to collaborate, share knowledge, and learn from each other in order to find solutions to the challenges they face. The shared goal of problem-solving is what brings the community together and drives their interactions and engagement with one another.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 19, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Oct 13, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Ssgtkatrina_well
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