CCNA Practice Certification Exam #2

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| By Rodney.butler
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1.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?

Explanation

The role of the SW3 switch in the network is the root bridge. The root bridge is the central switch that controls the spanning tree protocol (STP) and determines the shortest path for data transmission in a network. It is responsible for calculating the best path and forwarding data between switches. By being the root bridge, SW3 has the highest priority in the network and plays a crucial role in maintaining network efficiency and preventing loops.

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About This Quiz
CCNA Practice Certification Exam #2 - Quiz

Welcome back to another quiz where we’ll be taking another close look at a wide range of topics within the Cisco Certified Network Associate curriculum in order to... see moregauge how far along you are in your studies to becoming a professional in any networking department you so choose. Good luck! see less

2. Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a destination network?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Router# show ip route". This command will display the routing table on the router, showing the available paths to different destination networks. It provides information about the network prefixes, next-hop IP addresses, and the routing protocol used to reach each network. By using this command, network administrators can verify if the router has a path to a specific destination network.

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3.
For reference only....  Choose A for Correct Answer...

Explanation

The correct answer is "Chose me..." because it is the only option that is grammatically correct. The other options have errors such as missing punctuation or incorrect capitalization.

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4.
For Reference only... Choose A..

Explanation

The phrase "I'm it" is the correct answer because it matches the pattern of the given statements. All the statements begin with "I'm" followed by a word or phrase, and "it" is the only option that follows this pattern. The other options do not match the pattern and are therefore incorrect.

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5. What eliminates switching loops?

Explanation

The spanning tree protocol is designed to prevent switching loops in a network. It accomplishes this by creating a loop-free logical topology and blocking redundant paths. This ensures that there is only one active path between any two network devices, eliminating the possibility of loops. By electing a root bridge and calculating the shortest path to each device, the spanning tree protocol effectively eliminates switching loops and improves network stability.

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6. Consider this router output:

Router# confug
Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)

Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255)
(255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address

What command could help with this situation?

Explanation

The command "no ip domain-lookup" could help with this situation. This command disables the router's ability to translate unrecognized commands into domain names, preventing it from attempting to translate "confug" into a domain name and resulting in an error message.

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7.
For reference Only... You know the drill... Figure it out....

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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8. After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?

Explanation

The changes made to the router's configuration will be stored in NVRAM (Non-Volatile Random Access Memory). NVRAM is a type of memory that retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it ideal for storing important configuration settings. The "copy running-configuration startup-configuration" command is used to save the current running configuration to the startup configuration file in NVRAM, ensuring that the changes made to the router's configuration are preserved even after a reboot.

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9.
Reference Only... yes guess again...  Follow the pattern...

Explanation

The pattern in the given sequence is that the word "me" is repeated three times and then followed by the phrase "Or me". This pattern is consistent throughout the sequence.

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10. What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?

Explanation

The reason to use the "ip ospf priority" command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use is to influence the DR/BDR (Designated Router/Backup Designated Router) election process. The DR and BDR are responsible for maintaining neighbor relationships and exchanging routing information within an OSPF network. By setting a higher priority value for a router, it increases its chances of becoming the DR or BDR, allowing it to have more control and influence over the routing process.

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11. Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment?

Explanation

WPA2 is the most likely encryption standard to be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment because it can utilize the more advanced AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) for encryption. AES is a widely adopted and highly secure encryption algorithm, making it a preferred choice for protecting wireless network communication.

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12.
Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?

Explanation

The correct answer is "router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0" because it correctly configures router A for OSPF. This command sequence specifies the network addresses and subnet masks that should be included in the OSPF routing process, as well as the area to which they belong. The first network command includes the address range 192.168.10.64 to 192.168.10.127 with a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.63, and the second network command includes the address range 192.168.10.192 to 192.168.10.195 with a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.3. Both networks are assigned to area 0.

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13.
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?

Explanation

The problem could be that an incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface. This could result in the routers not being able to communicate with each other, as they are not on the same network.

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14.
Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses that are required on router B?

Explanation

The most efficient bit mask to provide for the required number of host addresses on router B would be /28. This is because a /28 subnet mask allows for 16 host addresses, which is the closest number of host addresses required to the actual requirement. The other options (/26, /27, /29, /30) either provide more host addresses than required or fewer host addresses than required, making them less efficient choices.

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15.
for Reference only.. Guess which one is correct.... 

Explanation

The correct answer is "Me" because all the options given are the same, indicating that the answer is any of them.

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16. Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The keywords "host" and "any" can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. The keyword "host" is used to specify a single host address, while the keyword "any" is used to represent all possible addresses.

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17.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The given correct answer states that PDU #1 is a frame, PDU #3 is a segment, and the order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2. This means that PDU #1 is created after PDU #3 and PDU #4, and PDU #2 is created last. This is consistent with the encapsulation process in the OSI model, where data is first segmented at the transport layer (PDU #3), then encapsulated into a packet at the network layer (PDU #4), followed by encapsulation into a frame at the data link layer (PDU #1). Finally, at the application layer, the data is encapsulated into a message (PDU #2).

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18. What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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19. A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

Explanation

The answer "S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1" will appear in the routing table for the network 192.168.168.0. This is because the "S" represents a static route, which takes precedence over dynamic routing protocols such as OSPF (O), RIP (R), and EIGRP (D). The static route has the lowest administrative distance of 1, indicating that it is the most reliable and preferred route to reach the network.

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20.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

Explanation

The exhibit is not provided, so an explanation cannot be generated.

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21.
Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?

Explanation

To send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B, the protocol that should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 is IEEE 802.1Q. This protocol is used for VLAN tagging and allows for the transmission of multiple VLAN traffic over a single physical link. By configuring IEEE 802.1Q on Port 0/1, SW-A can tag the traffic from different VLANs and send it to SW-B, which can then separate and forward the traffic to the appropriate VLANs.

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22. What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. These ranges are designated by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) for use in private networks and are not routable on the public internet. They are commonly used in home and office networks for local communication and are not accessible from outside the network.

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23.
Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. This is because the output in the exhibit shows the routing table of the router, which is typically displayed using the "show ip route" command.

The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. This is because the exhibit shows a route with a metric of 120, which is a measure of the distance or cost to reach a network.

The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. This is because the exhibit shows a directly connected network, indicated by the letter C in the routing table.

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24. Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.)

Explanation



The collision domain defines the network segment where collisions can occur when two devices transmit data simultaneously. Each switch port represents a separate collision domain, totaling 9 across both switches. In contrast, the broadcast domain encompasses devices that receive broadcast traffic, with 2 domains in this scenario, corresponding to the VLANs on each switch.
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25. Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate?

Explanation

VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows for the synchronization of VLAN information across switches. In order for VTP to operate, the 802.1Q protocol needs to be functioning on the link. 802.1Q is the standard for VLAN tagging and allows for the encapsulation of VLAN information within Ethernet frames. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is used for network discovery and device identification, RIP (Routing Information Protocol) is a routing protocol, and RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is a spanning tree protocol. None of these protocols are specifically required for VTP to operate.

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26. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?

Explanation

The given IP address 172.16.134.56 with subnet mask 255.255.255.224 represents a /27 subnet. The network address for this subnet is 172.16.134.32 and the broadcast address is 172.16.134.63. Since the given IP address falls within this range, it resides on the subnetwork with the network address 172.16.134.32.

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27. A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two commands required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch are "Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk" and "Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q". The "switchport mode trunk" command configures the interface to operate in trunk mode, allowing it to carry traffic from multiple VLANs. The "switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q" command specifies that the trunk should use the IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation method.

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28.
Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch.

00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1.
00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.

Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?

Explanation

The error message indicates that there is an inconsistency in the port type between the two switches. This suggests that one switch is configured as a trunk port (SwA) while the other switch is configured as an access port (SwB). This mismatch in port configuration can cause the Spanning Tree Protocol to block the port (FastEthernet0/1) on VLAN1, resulting in the error message.

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29. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?

Explanation

The correct answer is Router1(config)# interface loopback 1. This command is used to enter interface configuration mode for the loopback interface with the number 1. The next command, Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255, is used to assign the IP address 192.168.1.1 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.255 to the loopback interface.

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30.
Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet 192.168.1.10 is typed. The response that is given is this:

Trying 192.168.1.10….Open
Password required, but none set

What is the most likely problem?

Explanation

The most likely problem is that the password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA. This is indicated by the response "Password required, but none set" when trying to establish a telnet connection to the IP address. Without a password set, the telnet connection cannot be authenticated and established.

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31. Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration appropriate?

RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.18.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.44.1 255.255.255.0
RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22
RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22
RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.22.1 255.255.255.0
a:


B:

c:

D:

Explanation

The given configuration is appropriate for a router that is connected to a network using a VLAN-based topology. The "encapsulation dot1q" commands indicate that the router is configured to support VLAN tagging, allowing it to communicate with devices on different VLANs. The IP addresses assigned to each subinterface correspond to different VLANs, indicating that the router is able to route traffic between these VLANs. Therefore, the configuration is suitable for a network topology that utilizes VLANs for segmentation and routing.

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32. What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

Explanation

Link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System), are associated with shortest-path first calculations. These protocols use a link-state database to store information about the network topology, including the state of each link. By exchanging link-state information with neighboring routers, the protocols build a complete view of the network and calculate the shortest path to each destination. This allows for efficient routing decisions and optimal utilization of network resources.

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33. Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)

Explanation

SMTP, FTP, and HTTP are the three application layer protocols that use TCP. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending and receiving email messages. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and a server. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for communication between web browsers and web servers, allowing the retrieval and display of web pages. These protocols rely on TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) to establish a reliable and connection-oriented communication channel between the client and the server.

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34.
Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would correct the problem?

Explanation

The computers are unable to ping or telnet to RT_1 because the switchport mode on interface fa0/24 of SW_1 is not configured correctly. By setting the switchport mode to trunk, it allows the interface to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, which is necessary for communication between RT_1 and the computers.

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35. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is "show running-config" and "show access-lists". The "show running-config" command displays the current configuration of the device, including any access control lists that have been configured. This command can be used to verify the content of the access control lists. The "show access-lists" command specifically displays the configured access control lists on the device, allowing for a more focused verification of their content and placement.

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36. Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)

Explanation

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) and TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) are the two application layer protocols that use the UDP (User Datagram Protocol) protocol. SNMP is used for managing and monitoring network devices, while TFTP is used for simple file transfers. Unlike TCP, UDP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide guaranteed delivery or error checking, making it suitable for applications that prioritize speed over reliability. Telnet, SMTP, and SQL, on the other hand, use TCP for their transport layer protocol.

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37.
Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?

Explanation

The most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM allows for the conservation of IP addresses by assigning smaller subnets to networks that require fewer addresses. In this case, the /30 subnet mask allows for only two usable host addresses, which is sufficient for a point-to-point serial interface. Therefore, the address 192.168.16.193/30 can be configured on one of the serial interfaces.

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38.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this command:

Sw1# telnet 192.168.1.10

Explanation

Based on the exhibited configuration and output, the result of the command "telnet 192.168.1.10" would be that all packets will be dropped. This can be inferred from the fact that the Telnet session is not successful and there is no error message indicating any specific issue with the session or password requirement. Therefore, it can be concluded that the packets are being dropped without any further explanation provided.

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39.
Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?

Explanation

The sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows is as follows: first, the switch will use the fast forward mode, then it will switch to the fragment free mode, and finally, it will switch to the store-and-forward mode.

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40. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement? (Choose three.)

Explanation

When creating an extended access control list statement, three values or sets of values that are included are: access list number between 100 and 199, destination address and wildcard mask, and source address and wildcard mask. These values are important in specifying the access control rules for filtering network traffic. The access list number between 100 and 199 identifies the specific access control list being created. The destination address and wildcard mask determine the destination IP address range that the access control list will apply to. Similarly, the source address and wildcard mask determine the source IP address range that the access control list will apply to.

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41. A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands and error message appear as follows:

Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode.

What is the problem?

Explanation

The error message indicates that the switch port's trunk encapsulation is set to "Auto," which is incompatible with the "trunk" mode. To resolve this issue, the encapsulation type needs to be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be configured as a trunk port.

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42. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three factors that might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol are:
1) CHAP uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities, providing an additional layer of security compared to PAP which only authenticates once at the beginning of the session.
2) CHAP transmits login information in encrypted format, ensuring that the information is protected from unauthorized access.
3) CHAP uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks, making it more secure against replay attacks compared to PAP.

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43.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server because there are two possible causes for the problem. Firstly, the default gateway configured on the TFTP server is incorrect. This means that the server is unable to send and receive traffic properly. Secondly, the IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet. This means that they are on different networks and cannot communicate with each other. Both of these issues can result in the network administrator being unable to access the TFTP server.

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44. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Link-state routing protocols have two main features:

1. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change: When a change occurs in the network, such as a link going down or a new link being added, routers using a link-state routing protocol will immediately send updates to inform neighboring routers about the change. This allows the network to quickly adapt to any modifications and maintain an up-to-date view of the network topology.

2. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers: Link-state routing protocols exchange information with other routers to build a complete and accurate map of the network's topology. Each router collects information from its neighboring routers and uses this information to construct a database that represents the entire network. This database is then used to determine the best paths for forwarding packets.

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45. What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 is used to match the first 28 bits of a supplied IP address. It allows for a range of IP addresses where the last four bits can vary. The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored when using this wildcard mask.

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46.

Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

Explanation

The correct configuration for router B to be configured for EIGRP AS 100 is to enter the following commands: B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3, B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3, and B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63. These commands specify the network addresses and wildcard masks for the networks that should be advertised by EIGRP in AS 100.

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47. What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The Internet layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for determining the best paths through the network and implementing packet switching. Determining the best paths involves selecting the most efficient routes for data transmission, considering factors such as network congestion and latency. Packet switching involves breaking data into smaller packets and sending them individually across the network, allowing for more efficient and reliable transmission. These functions are crucial for ensuring that data is delivered effectively and efficiently across the internet.

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48. Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The Frame Relay LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism, allowing the router to monitor the status of the virtual circuits. The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch in order for them to communicate properly. The LMI uses reserved DLCIs (Data Link Connection Identifiers) to exchange messages between the DTE (Data Terminal Equipment) and DCE (Data Circuit-terminating Equipment).

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49. The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year. Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses?

Explanation

NAT-PT (Network Address Translation - Protocol Translation) is the correct answer. NAT-PT allows the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses while still communicating with IPv6 networks. It translates IPv4 packets to IPv6 packets and vice versa, enabling compatibility between the two protocols. This allows the company to transition to IPv6 without immediately upgrading all their systems to support IPv6.

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50.
Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses 209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?

Explanation

The correct answer is a static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask 255.255.255.252. This is because the NAT pool of addresses configured on router R1 falls within the range of 209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. In order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet, the ISP needs to have a static route that includes this network range.

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51. The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state are:
1. The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect. This means that the protocol used for communication on the interface is not properly configured, causing the line protocol to be down.
2. Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device. Keepalives are messages sent by networking devices to ensure that the connection is still active. If the remote device is not sending keepalives, it can cause the line protocol to be down.

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52. Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three STP states that were replaced with the RSTP discarding state are listening, blocking, and disabled. RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) is an enhanced version of STP that reduces convergence time in a network. In RSTP, the discarding state replaces the blocking state of STP. The discarding state is used to prevent loops in the network by discarding frames received on a port. Listening and disabled states also exist in RSTP but serve different functions than in STP.

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53.
Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first command "SW_1(config)# username david password class" is needed to create a username and password for authentication purposes. The second set of commands "SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15, SW_1(config-line)# login local, SW_1(config-line)# transport input ssh" is needed to configure the virtual terminal lines for SSH access, specifying that local authentication should be used and that SSH should be allowed as the input transport protocol.

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54. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

Explanation

PPP can use both synchronous and asynchronous circuits, allowing it to be used in a variety of network environments. It is not limited to only Cisco devices, as it is an industry-standard protocol that can be used between different vendors' devices. PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs, allowing for interoperability between different protocols. It uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection, ensuring a reliable connection. Additionally, it uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection, allowing for customization and optimization of the connection.

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55.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is "ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192" and "serial interface on router A". This command is used to summarize the attached routes in EIGRP. By specifying the network address and subnet mask, it creates a summary route for a range of IP addresses. In this case, it summarizes the routes with a network address of 192.168.10.64 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The command is applied to the serial interface on router A, indicating that the summarized route will be advertised out of that interface.

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Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a ...
For reference only....  Choose A for Correct Answer...
For Reference only... Choose A..
What eliminates switching loops?
Consider this router output: ...
For reference Only... You know the drill... Figure it out....
After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy ...
Reference Only... yes guess again...  Follow the pattern...
What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the ...
Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 ...
Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to ...
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. ...
Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most...
For Reference only.. Guess which one is correct.... 
Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a...
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units...
What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN?...
A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and ...
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP...
Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port...
What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for...
Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important...
Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and...
Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on...
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224,...
A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be...
Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA ...
Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on...
Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command...
Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which...
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses ...
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of...
Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose ...
Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme...
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output,...
Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different ...
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an ...
A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message...
A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a...
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access...
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15?...
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS...
What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP...
Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose...
The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue...
Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and...
The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that ...
Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? ...
Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch...
Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and ...
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