CCNA 4 Final Exam

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  • 1/145 Questions

    What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

    • DNS servers
    • Satellite service
    • Web hosting service
    • Telephone company
    • Internet search engine service
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About This Quiz

The 'CCNA 4 Final Exam' assesses knowledge on WAN technologies, network design, and related policies. It covers topics such as WAN characteristics, privacy issues, network architectures, and multiplexing, focusing on skills essential for networking professionals.

CCNA 4 Final Exam - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

    • 2

    • 12

    • 24

    • 28

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    A T1 line has a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel in a T1 line has a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. To find the maximum number of DS0 channels, we divide the total bandwidth of the T1 line by the bandwidth of each DS0 channel: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24 channels. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.

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  • 3. 

    Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation technology?

    • LTE

    • GSM

    • CDMA

    • UMTS

    Correct Answer
    A. LTE
    Explanation
    LTE, which stands for Long-Term Evolution, is considered a fourth-generation cellular or mobile wireless standard. It is a high-speed wireless communication technology that provides faster data transfer rates and improved network capacity compared to previous generations. LTE offers advanced features such as low latency, high bandwidth, and support for multimedia applications, making it suitable for the demands of modern mobile communication.

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  • 4. 

    How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

    • 24

    • 2

    • 12

    • 28

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    A T1 line has a data rate of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel has a data rate of 64 Kbps. To calculate the number of DS0 channels bundled to produce a T1 line, we divide the T1 line data rate by the DS0 channel data rate: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.

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  • 5. 

    What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

    • Configure 802.1x.

    • Configure SSH.

    • Configure Telnet.

    • Configure an ACL and apply it to the VTY lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. Configure SSH.
    Explanation
    SSH (Secure Shell) is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device. It provides encrypted communication between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over the network. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plain text, SSH encrypts the data, making it less vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Configuring SSH as the remote access option is considered a best practice in network security.

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  • 6. 

    What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

    • VTP

    • LLDP

    • HSRP

    • RADIUS

    • TACACS+

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. RADIUS
    A. TACACS+
    Explanation
    RADIUS and TACACS+ are the two protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a more advanced and secure protocol that separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, providing more granular control over network access. Both protocols are commonly used in network environments to enhance security and control access to network resources.

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  • 7. 

    Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

    • Weighted random early detection

    • Classification and marking

    • Traffic shaping

    • Traffic policing

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic shaping
    Explanation
    The correct answer is traffic shaping. Traffic shaping is a congestion avoidance technique that regulates the flow of traffic going out of an interface. It controls the rate at which packets are transmitted to avoid congestion and ensure that the network resources are utilized efficiently. By shaping the traffic, the network can prioritize certain types of traffic or limit the bandwidth for specific applications, preventing congestion and improving overall network performance.

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  • 8. 

    A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario represent?

    • Machine-to-machine

    • Machine-to-people

    • People-to-people

    • People-to-machine

    Correct Answer
    A. Machine-to-machine
    Explanation
    This scenario represents machine-to-machine communication. The vibration sensor on the production line detects an unusual condition and communicates this information to the controller, which then automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. There is no involvement of people in this communication process, as it is entirely between the machines.

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  • 9. 

    A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

    • BYOD

    • Maintaining communication integrity

    • Online collaboration

    • Virtualization

    Correct Answer
    A. Virtualization
    Explanation
    In this situation, the data center is implementing the networking trend of virtualization. Virtualization allows the data center to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU, enabling them to provide each customer with a separate web server without the need for allocating a physical server for each customer. This technology allows for more efficient use of resources and reduces the cost and complexity of managing multiple physical servers.

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  • 10. 

    Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

    • NAT translation statistics

    • Latency, jitter, and packet loss

    • Device CPU and memory utilization

    • The number of error messages that are logged on the syslog server

    Correct Answer
    A. Latency, jitter, and packet loss
    Explanation
    To verify SLA compliance, it is important to measure network performance statistics such as latency, jitter, and packet loss. Latency refers to the delay in data transmission, jitter measures the variation in latency, and packet loss indicates the number of packets that fail to reach their destination. By monitoring these metrics, one can ensure that the network is meeting the agreed-upon service level agreements in terms of performance and reliability.

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  • 11. 

    What two are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

    • Bulk MIB objects retrieval

    • Encryption

    • Authorization with community string priority

    • Authentication

    • ACL management filtering

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Encryption
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted over the network is secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties. Authentication ensures that the messages exchanged between the SNMP manager and agent are legitimate and not tampered with. These two additions enhance the security and integrity of SNMP communication, addressing the vulnerabilities present in earlier versions.

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  • 12. 

    Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload based on labels?

    • MPLS

    • PSTN

    • DSL

    • T1/E1

    Correct Answer
    A. MPLS
    Explanation
    MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a WAN technology that can switch any type of payload based on labels. It uses labels to determine the path that data packets should take, allowing for efficient and flexible routing of traffic across a network. MPLS is commonly used by service providers to provide quality of service (QoS) guarantees and prioritize traffic based on specific requirements. It is a scalable and reliable technology that can handle various types of payloads, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 13. 

    How many DS0 channels are bounded to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line?

    • 2

    • 12

    • 24

    • 28

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    A DS1 line has a data rate of 1.544 Mb/s. Each DS0 channel has a data rate of 64 kb/s. To calculate the number of DS0 channels required to produce a DS1 line, we divide the data rate of the DS1 line (1.544 Mb/s) by the data rate of each DS0 channel (64 kb/s). This calculation gives us 24, which means that 24 DS0 channels are required to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line.

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  • 14. 

    Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

    • Virtual PC

    • VMware Fusion

    • VMware ESX/ESXi

    • Oracle VM VirtualBox

    • Microsoft Hyper-V 2012

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. VMware ESX/ESXi
    A. Microsoft Hyper-V 2012
    Explanation
    The two hypervisors that are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center are VMware ESX/ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V 2012. These hypervisors are specifically designed for enterprise-level virtualization and are widely used in data center environments. VMware ESX/ESXi is a leading hypervisor that provides advanced features and scalability, while Microsoft Hyper-V 2012 is a powerful hypervisor that offers integration with Windows Server and other Microsoft technologies. Both hypervisors offer robust virtualization capabilities and are well-suited for managing and running virtual machines in a data center setting.

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  • 15. 

    What is a disadvafntage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

    • Fixed capacity

    • Higher latency

    • Less flexibility

    • Higher cost

    Correct Answer
    A. Higher latency
    Explanation
    A disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network is higher latency. In a packet-switched network, data is divided into packets and sent separately, which can result in delays as the packets are routed through different paths and may experience congestion. In contrast, a circuit-switched network establishes a dedicated path for the duration of the communication, resulting in lower latency as there is no need for packet routing or potential congestion.

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  • 16. 

    Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?

    • Satellite

    • Wi-Fi Mesh

    • Mobile broadband

    • WiMax

    Correct Answer
    A. Satellite
    Explanation
    Satellite broadband technology would be the best option for a user needing remote access while traveling in mountains and at sea. This is because satellite broadband uses satellites orbiting the Earth to provide internet connectivity, allowing users to access the internet from anywhere, even in remote locations with limited or no terrestrial infrastructure. This makes it an ideal choice for users in areas where traditional broadband options like Wi-Fi Mesh, mobile broadband, or WiMax may not be available or reliable.

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  • 17. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:
    • deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
    • permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
    Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

    • Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • Hera(config)# interface fa0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    • Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out

    • Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in

    Correct Answer
    A. Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
    Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out. This command sequence will place the named access list called chemistry_block on the outgoing traffic of interface fa0/0 on the Athena router. This means that any traffic leaving the fa0/0 interface will be checked against the access list, and if the source IP address matches the deny statement, the traffic will be denied. This configuration ensures that users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet are denied access to the Records Server, while allowing all other users within the school to access the server.

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  • 18. 

    Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

    • ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1

    • HTTPS packets to PC1

    • Packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80

    • Neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

    Correct Answer
    A. ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
    Explanation
    The LIMITED_ACCESS access list on R1 is applied on the S0/0/0 interface in the inbound direction. This means that it will filter incoming packets from the ISP. The correct answer states that ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1 will be dropped by the ACL on R1. This means that any ICMPv6 packets that are intended for PC1 will not be allowed through and will be dropped by R1.

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  • 19. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

    • A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5

    • A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

    • A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

    • A manager who is using authPriv

    Correct Answer
    A. A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
    Explanation
    To be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1, an SNMP manager needs to have the ability to communicate with the switch. This can be achieved by having the manager configured with the correct host IP address, which in this case is 192.168.0.5. By having the correct host configured, the manager can establish a connection with the switch and send SNMP requests to set parameters on the switch.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

    • ToS

    • DSCP

    • IP precedence

    • CoS

    Correct Answer
    A. CoS
    Explanation
    CoS (Class of Service) is the correct answer because it is the QoS marking applied to Ethernet frames. CoS is a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag of an Ethernet frame, used to prioritize traffic and ensure quality of service. It allows for different levels of service to be assigned to different types of network traffic, enabling efficient transmission and allocation of network resources. ToS (Type of Service), DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point), and IP precedence are all related to QoS, but they are not specifically applied to Ethernet frames.

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  • 21. 

    Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

    • Data analytics

    • Fog computing

    • Network connectivity

    • Application enhancement platform

    Correct Answer
    A. Fog computing
    Explanation
    Fog computing is the correct answer because it refers to the pillar of the Cisco IoT System that enables data analysis and management at the location where it is generated. Fog computing allows for processing and analyzing data closer to the edge devices, reducing latency and improving efficiency. This approach is especially useful in IoT systems where real-time analysis and decision-making are required.

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  • 22. 

    Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

    • PaaS

    • SaaS

    • IaaS

    • ITaaS

    Correct Answer
    A. IaaS
    Explanation
    IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) would be the best cloud computing service for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment. With IaaS, the organization can purchase network services on-demand, allowing them to access and use virtualized infrastructure resources, such as servers, storage, and networking, without the need for physical hardware. This eliminates the upfront costs of purchasing and maintaining physical servers and networking equipment, making it a cost-effective solution for the organization.

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  • 23. 

    What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network 128.165.216.0/23?

    • 0.0.1.255

    • 0.0.0.255

    • 0.0.1.254

    • 0.0.0.254

    Correct Answer
    A. 0.0.1.255
    Explanation
    The wildcard mask is used to determine the range of IP addresses that can be included in a network. In this case, the network is 128.165.216.0/23, which means that the first 23 bits of the IP address are fixed and the remaining 9 bits can vary. The wildcard mask is calculated by subtracting the subnet mask from 255.255.255.255. In this case, the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0, so the wildcard mask is 0.0.1.255. This means that the last 9 bits of the IP address can have any value from 0 to 255, allowing for a range of IP addresses from 128.165.216.0 to 128.165.217.255.

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  • 24. 

    What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

    • Encryption

    • Authentication

    • Authorization with community string priority

    • ACL management filtering

    • Bulk MIB objects retrieval

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Encryption
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication as two features to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted over the network is secure and cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. Authentication ensures that the identity of the sender and receiver of SNMP messages is verified, preventing unauthorized access to the network devices. These two features enhance the overall security and integrity of SNMP communication, making SNMPv3 more robust and reliable compared to previous versions.

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  • 25. 

    An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

    • Private infrastructure

    • Public infrastructure

    • Dedicated

    • Circuit-switched

    • Cellular

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Public infrastructure
    A. Cellular
    Explanation
    Public infrastructure and cellular networks would meet the requirement of offering constant Internet connectivity to users traveling on the buses. Public infrastructure refers to the use of the public internet to provide connectivity, which can be accessed by anyone. Cellular networks, on the other hand, use mobile communication technology to provide wireless connectivity, making it suitable for use on moving vehicles such as buses. Both options would ensure that users have continuous access to the internet while traveling.

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  • 26. 

    A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

    • Dial-up connection

    • Remote access VPN over the Internet

    • Leased line connection

    • Site-to-site VPN over the Internet

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote access VPN over the Internet
    Explanation
    A remote access VPN over the Internet would be the best solution for the corporation's need. It allows teleworkers to securely connect to headquarters using the Internet, providing a low-cost and convenient option. Dial-up connection would be slow and outdated, while leased line connection would be expensive. Site-to-site VPN over the Internet is used for connecting multiple sites, not individual teleworkers.

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  • 27. 

    A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
    • R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
    • R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
    What is the effect of these commands?

    • The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

    • The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

    • The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.

    • The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.
    Explanation
    The commands "encapsulation ppp" and "ppp quality 70" configure the PPP link to close down if the link quality drops below 70 percent. This means that if the link quality deteriorates to a level below 70 percent, the PPP link will be terminated or disconnected.

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  • 28. 

    Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

    • 2

    • 4

    • 3

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, at least one router in each autonomous system must use External BGP (EBGP) to establish a peering relationship with a router in another autonomous system. Since there are 4 autonomous systems in the exhibit, at least 4 routers must use EBGP to share routing information across the autonomous systems.

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  • 29. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

    • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.

    • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

    • Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

    • Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
    Explanation
    The administrator can manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5 to the existing ACL. By adding a new ACE with a lower sequence number, it will be evaluated before the existing ACE that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. This means that packets from host 172.16.0.1 will be denied while still allowing all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to pass through.

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  • 30. 

    Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

    • FIFO

    • WFQ

    • FCFS

    • CBWFQ

    Correct Answer
    A. CBWFQ
    Explanation
    CBWFQ stands for Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing, which is a queuing mechanism that supports user-defined traffic classes. It allows the network administrator to define different classes of traffic based on specific criteria, such as protocol, source/destination IP address, or port number. Each traffic class can then be assigned a specific amount of bandwidth or priority, ensuring that different types of traffic are treated differently based on their importance or requirements. CBWFQ is commonly used in network environments where different types of traffic need to be prioritized and managed effectively.

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  • 31. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?

    • HDLC

    • Ethernet

    • PPPoE

    • PPP

    Correct Answer
    A. HDLC
    Explanation
    HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a layer 2 encapsulation protocol used for synchronous serial links, such as leased lines or WAN connections. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides a simple and efficient way of encapsulating data over these types of connections. Therefore, for connection D to work with Cisco routers, HDLC encapsulation is required.

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  • 32. 

    What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

    • TCP connections

    • Area numbers

    • Group identification numbers

    • Hellos

    Correct Answer
    A. TCP connections
    Explanation
    BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses TCP connections to exchange routing updates with neighbors. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) provides reliable and ordered delivery of data packets between devices over a network. BGP uses TCP to establish a connection with neighboring routers and exchange routing information, such as network reachability and path information. This ensures that the routing updates are transmitted accurately and efficiently between BGP routers, maintaining the stability and integrity of the network's routing system.

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  • 33. 

    What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?

    • 802.1

    • XSNMP

    • SPAN

    • Syslog

    Correct Answer
    A. SPAN
    Explanation
    SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) is a network monitoring tool that copies the traffic moving through one switch port and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis. This allows network administrators to monitor and analyze network traffic without disrupting the normal flow of data. SPAN is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues, monitoring network performance, and detecting security threats.

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  • 34. 

    Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?

    • Buffering

    • Latency

    • Queuing

    • Jitter

    Correct Answer
    A. Jitter
    Explanation
    Jitter is the term that describes the cause of the broken conversations in this scenario. Jitter refers to the variation in the delay between received voice packets. In this case, due to network congestion, the delay between each packet varies, causing the conversations to be disrupted and broken.

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  • 35. 

    A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this analysis?

    • Show ip route

    • Show ip protocols

    • Show ip sla statistics

    • Show monitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Show ip sla statistics
    Explanation
    The command "show ip sla statistics" would display the results of the analysis for the simulated network traffic. This command is specifically used to view the statistics of IP Service Level Agreement (SLA) operations, which are used to monitor network performance. By using this command, the router will provide information about the network performance between the router and the distant network device that is being monitored.

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  • 36. 

    Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device?

    • NMS tool

    • Knowledge base

    • Protocol analyzer

    • Baselining tool

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A protocol analyzer is a type of tool that an administrator would use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device. It helps in analyzing and monitoring network traffic, allowing the administrator to troubleshoot network issues, identify performance bottlenecks, and detect any security threats or anomalies. By capturing and analyzing packets, the protocol analyzer provides valuable insights into the network's behavior and helps in maintaining its optimal performance.

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  • 37. 

    Fill in the blanks. Use dotted decimal format.
    • The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is ______________________.

    Correct Answer
    0.0.1.255
    Explanation
    The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is 0.0.1.255.

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  • 38. 

    Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

    • Permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25

    • Permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23

    • Permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25

    • Permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

    Correct Answer
    A. Permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25". This command entry allows traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64 by permitting TCP traffic from any source IP address to the destination IP address 2001:DB8:10:10::100 with a destination port of 25, which is the port used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

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  • 39. 

    Which statement best describes a WAN?

    • A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.

    • A WAN is a public utility that enables access to the Internet.

    • WAN is another name for the Internet.

    • A WAN is a LAN that is extended to provide secure remote network access.

    Correct Answer
    A. A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances.
    Explanation
    A WAN, or Wide Area Network, is a network that connects multiple LANs (Local Area Networks) over long distances. Unlike LANs, which are typically confined to a single location, WANs allow for communication and data transfer between LANs that are geographically separated. This enables organizations with multiple branches or offices to share resources and information efficiently. Therefore, the statement "A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances" best describes what a WAN is.

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  • 40. 

    Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)

    • Addressing

    • Bandwidth

    • Privacy

    • Security

    • WAN technology

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Privacy
    A. Security
    Explanation
    When connecting offices at different locations using the Internet, two important business policy issues that should be addressed are privacy and security. Privacy is crucial to protect sensitive information and ensure that only authorized individuals have access to it. Security measures are necessary to safeguard the network from cyber threats such as hacking, data breaches, and unauthorized access. By addressing these issues, businesses can ensure the confidentiality and integrity of their data while utilizing the cost-effective benefits of Internet connectivity.

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  • 41. 

    Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

    • Application

    • Transport

    • Data link

    • Network

    • Physical

    Correct Answer
    A. Data link
    Explanation
    Based on the given information, the most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical network. If the routers RTA and RTB cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as incorrect configuration or a faulty physical connection between the routers.

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  • 42. 

    Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?

    • Agent

    • Supplicant

    • Authenticator

    • Authentication server

    Correct Answer
    A. Authenticator
    Explanation
    The term "authenticator" describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control. The authenticator is responsible for enforcing the authentication process and controlling access to the network. It verifies the credentials provided by the supplicant (the client device) and communicates with the authentication server to validate the user's identity. The authenticator acts as a gateway between the supplicant and the network, allowing or denying access based on the authentication result.

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  • 43. 

    Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to perform traffic analysis?

    • CSA

    • SPAN

    • HIPS

    • VLAN

    Correct Answer
    A. SPAN
    Explanation
    SPAN stands for Switched Port Analyzer. It is a Cisco feature that allows the switch to send copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch. This feature is commonly used for traffic analysis, network monitoring, and troubleshooting purposes. By sending copies of frames to a different port, network administrators can analyze the traffic without interrupting the normal flow of data on the network.

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  • 44. 

    Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

    • The Nexus 9000 switch

    • The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

    • The Application Network Profile endpoints

    • The hypervisor

    Correct Answer
    A. The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller. The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller is responsible for translating application policies into network programming. It acts as the central management point for the ACI architecture and allows administrators to define and enforce policies for their applications. By translating these policies into network programming, the controller ensures that the network infrastructure is configured correctly to support the desired application behavior.

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  • 45. 

    Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

    • Baselining tool

    • Knowledge base

    • CiscoView

    • Protocol analyzer

    Correct Answer
    A. Protocol analyzer
    Explanation
    A network administrator would use a protocol analyzer to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host. A protocol analyzer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic, allowing administrators to examine the headers and contents of packets. It helps in troubleshooting network issues by providing insights into the network protocols and traffic patterns. By using a protocol analyzer, the administrator can identify any errors or abnormalities in the Layer 2 headers of frames, helping them diagnose and resolve network problems efficiently.

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  • 46. 

    Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

    • HDLC

    • Ethernet

    • Frame Relay

    • PPP

    Correct Answer
    A. HDLC
    Explanation
    The correct answer is HDLC. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol used by default on Cisco routers. It is a synchronous serial protocol that provides a reliable and efficient way to transmit data over point-to-point links. HDLC is commonly used in WAN connections and is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.

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  • 47. 

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

    • Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

    • Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    • Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

    • Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully." This means that both the initial phase of establishing the link between the two devices and the subsequent phase of establishing the network-layer connection were completed successfully.

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  • 48. 

    A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

    • Permit ip any any

    • Permit icmp any any nd-na

    • Permit ip any host ip_address

    • Deny ip any any

    Correct Answer
    A. Permit icmp any any nd-na
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "permit icmp any any nd-na." In an IPv6 multirouter environment, the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is used for routers to discover each other and establish communication. The "nd-na" in the ACE stands for Neighbor Advertisement, which is an ICMPv6 message used by routers to announce their presence and network information. By permitting this ICMP message, the routers can discover each other and establish connectivity in the network.

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  • 49. 

    What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

    • Fog computing

    • Wearable technologies

    • Data analytics

    • Robot guides

    • Cyber and physical security

    • Smart bandages

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fog computing
    A. Data analytics
    A. Cyber and physical security
    Explanation
    The three core components in the Cisco IoT system are fog computing, data analytics, and cyber and physical security. Fog computing refers to the decentralized computing infrastructure that brings computing resources closer to the edge devices in the network. Data analytics involves analyzing and interpreting large amounts of data collected from various IoT devices to derive meaningful insights. Cyber and physical security are crucial components to protect the IoT system from cyber threats and ensure the safety and integrity of the physical devices and infrastructure.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 18, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 18, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 25, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    John321e
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