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1. What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is satellite service and telephone company. These two options refer to different types of WAN providers. A satellite service provider uses satellites to transmit data over long distances, making it suitable for remote areas. On the other hand, a telephone company provides WAN connectivity through traditional telephone lines, such as DSL or T1 lines. Both options offer wide area network (WAN) services but use different technologies to do so.

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About This Quiz
CCNA 4 Final Exam - Quiz

The 'CCNA 4 Final Exam' assesses knowledge on WAN technologies, network design, and related policies. It covers topics such as WAN characteristics, privacy issues, network architectures, and multiplexing, focusing on skills essential for networking professionals.

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2. Which cellular or mobile wireless standard is considered a fourth generation technology?

Explanation

LTE, which stands for Long-Term Evolution, is considered a fourth-generation cellular or mobile wireless standard. It is a high-speed wireless communication technology that provides faster data transfer rates and improved network capacity compared to previous generations. LTE offers advanced features such as low latency, high bandwidth, and support for multimedia applications, making it suitable for the demands of modern mobile communication.

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3. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

Explanation

A T1 line has a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel in a T1 line has a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. To find the maximum number of DS0 channels, we divide the total bandwidth of the T1 line by the bandwidth of each DS0 channel: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24 channels. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.

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4. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation?

Explanation

In this situation, the data center is implementing the networking trend of virtualization. Virtualization allows the data center to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU, enabling them to provide each customer with a separate web server without the need for allocating a physical server for each customer. This technology allows for more efficient use of resources and reduces the cost and complexity of managing multiple physical servers.

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5. What two are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

Explanation

SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted over the network is secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties. Authentication ensures that the messages exchanged between the SNMP manager and agent are legitimate and not tampered with. These two additions enhance the security and integrity of SNMP communication, addressing the vulnerabilities present in earlier versions.

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6. Which network performance statistics should be measured in order to verify SLA compliance?

Explanation

To verify SLA compliance, it is important to measure network performance statistics such as latency, jitter, and packet loss. Latency refers to the delay in data transmission, jitter measures the variation in latency, and packet loss indicates the number of packets that fail to reach their destination. By monitoring these metrics, one can ensure that the network is meeting the agreed-upon service level agreements in terms of performance and reliability.

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7. Which two hypervisors are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The two hypervisors that are suitable to support virtual machines in a data center are VMware ESX/ESXi and Microsoft Hyper-V 2012. These hypervisors are specifically designed for enterprise-level virtualization and are widely used in data center environments. VMware ESX/ESXi is a leading hypervisor that provides advanced features and scalability, while Microsoft Hyper-V 2012 is a powerful hypervisor that offers integration with Windows Server and other Microsoft technologies. Both hypervisors offer robust virtualization capabilities and are well-suited for managing and running virtual machines in a data center setting.

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8. How many DS0 channels are bounded to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line?

Explanation

A DS1 line has a data rate of 1.544 Mb/s. Each DS0 channel has a data rate of 64 kb/s. To calculate the number of DS0 channels required to produce a DS1 line, we divide the data rate of the DS1 line (1.544 Mb/s) by the data rate of each DS0 channel (64 kb/s). This calculation gives us 24, which means that 24 DS0 channels are required to produce a 1.544 Mb/s DS1 line.

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9. What is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device?

Explanation

SSH (Secure Shell) is a secure configuration option for remote access to a network device. It provides encrypted communication between the client and the server, ensuring confidentiality and integrity of data transmitted over the network. Unlike Telnet, which transmits data in plain text, SSH encrypts the data, making it less vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Configuring SSH as the remote access option is considered a best practice in network security.

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10. Which WAN technology can switch any type of payload based on labels?

Explanation

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a WAN technology that can switch any type of payload based on labels. It uses labels to determine the path that data packets should take, allowing for efficient and flexible routing of traffic across a network. MPLS is commonly used by service providers to provide quality of service (QoS) guarantees and prioritize traffic based on specific requirements. It is a scalable and reliable technology that can handle various types of payloads, making it the correct answer for this question.

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11. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

Explanation

The correct answer is traffic shaping. Traffic shaping is a congestion avoidance technique that regulates the flow of traffic going out of an interface. It controls the rate at which packets are transmitted to avoid congestion and ensure that the network resources are utilized efficiently. By shaping the traffic, the network can prioritize certain types of traffic or limit the bandwidth for specific applications, preventing congestion and improving overall network performance.

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12. Match the term to the description.
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13. A vibration sensor on an automated production line detects an unusual condition. The sensor communicates with a controller that automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. What type of communication does this scenario represent?

Explanation

This scenario represents machine-to-machine communication. The vibration sensor on the production line detects an unusual condition and communicates this information to the controller, which then automatically shuts down the line and activates an alarm. There is no involvement of people in this communication process, as it is entirely between the machines.

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14. How many DS0 channels are bundled to produce a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

Explanation

A T1 line has a data rate of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel has a data rate of 64 Kbps. To calculate the number of DS0 channels bundled to produce a T1 line, we divide the T1 line data rate by the DS0 channel data rate: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.

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15. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

Explanation

RADIUS and TACACS+ are the two protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a more advanced and secure protocol that separates the authentication, authorization, and accounting functions, providing more granular control over network access. Both protocols are commonly used in network environments to enhance security and control access to network resources.

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16. What is a disadvafntage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network?

Explanation

A disadvantage of a packet-switched network compared to a circuit-switched network is higher latency. In a packet-switched network, data is divided into packets and sent separately, which can result in delays as the packets are routed through different paths and may experience congestion. In contrast, a circuit-switched network establishes a dedicated path for the duration of the communication, resulting in lower latency as there is no need for packet routing or potential congestion.

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17. What does BGP use to exchange routing updates with neighbors?

Explanation

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses TCP connections to exchange routing updates with neighbors. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) provides reliable and ordered delivery of data packets between devices over a network. BGP uses TCP to establish a connection with neighboring routers and exchange routing information, such as network reachability and path information. This ensures that the routing updates are transmitted accurately and efficiently between BGP routers, maintaining the stability and integrity of the network's routing system.

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18. What is the wildcard mask that is associated with the network 128.165.216.0/23?

Explanation

The wildcard mask is used to determine the range of IP addresses that can be included in a network. In this case, the network is 128.165.216.0/23, which means that the first 23 bits of the IP address are fixed and the remaining 9 bits can vary. The wildcard mask is calculated by subtracting the subnet mask from 255.255.255.255. In this case, the subnet mask is 255.255.254.0, so the wildcard mask is 0.0.1.255. This means that the last 9 bits of the IP address can have any value from 0 to 255, allowing for a range of IP addresses from 128.165.216.0 to 128.165.217.255.

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19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

Explanation

In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, at least one router in each autonomous system must use External BGP (EBGP) to establish a peering relationship with a router in another autonomous system. Since there are 4 autonomous systems in the exhibit, at least 4 routers must use EBGP to share routing information across the autonomous systems.

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20. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

Explanation

SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication as two features to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted over the network is secure and cannot be intercepted or tampered with by unauthorized individuals. Authentication ensures that the identity of the sender and receiver of SNMP messages is verified, preventing unauthorized access to the network devices. These two features enhance the overall security and integrity of SNMP communication, making SNMPv3 more robust and reliable compared to previous versions.

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21. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

Explanation

CBWFQ stands for Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing, which is a queuing mechanism that supports user-defined traffic classes. It allows the network administrator to define different classes of traffic based on specific criteria, such as protocol, source/destination IP address, or port number. Each traffic class can then be assigned a specific amount of bandwidth or priority, ensuring that different types of traffic are treated differently based on their importance or requirements. CBWFQ is commonly used in network environments where different types of traffic need to be prioritized and managed effectively.

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22. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Explanation

The administrator can manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5 to the existing ACL. By adding a new ACE with a lower sequence number, it will be evaluated before the existing ACE that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. This means that packets from host 172.16.0.1 will be denied while still allowing all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to pass through.

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23. Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?

Explanation

The LIMITED_ACCESS access list on R1 is applied on the S0/0/0 interface in the inbound direction. This means that it will filter incoming packets from the ISP. The correct answer states that ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1 will be dropped by the ACL on R1. This means that any ICMPv6 packets that are intended for PC1 will not be allowed through and will be dropped by R1.

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24. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Layer 2 encapsulation used for connection D requires Cisco routers?

Explanation

HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a layer 2 encapsulation protocol used for synchronous serial links, such as leased lines or WAN connections. It is a Cisco proprietary protocol that provides a simple and efficient way of encapsulating data over these types of connections. Therefore, for connection D to work with Cisco routers, HDLC encapsulation is required.

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25. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Public infrastructure and cellular networks would meet the requirement of offering constant Internet connectivity to users traveling on the buses. Public infrastructure refers to the use of the public internet to provide connectivity, which can be accessed by anyone. Cellular networks, on the other hand, use mobile communication technology to provide wireless connectivity, making it suitable for use on moving vehicles such as buses. Both options would ensure that users have continuous access to the internet while traveling.

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26. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:
  • R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  • R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70
What is the effect of these commands?

Explanation

The commands "encapsulation ppp" and "ppp quality 70" configure the PPP link to close down if the link quality drops below 70 percent. This means that if the link quality deteriorates to a level below 70 percent, the PPP link will be terminated or disconnected.

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27. Which type of QoS marking is applied to Ethernet frames?

Explanation

CoS (Class of Service) is the correct answer because it is the QoS marking applied to Ethernet frames. CoS is a 3-bit field in the VLAN tag of an Ethernet frame, used to prioritize traffic and ensure quality of service. It allows for different levels of service to be assigned to different types of network traffic, enabling efficient transmission and allocation of network resources. ToS (Type of Service), DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Point), and IP precedence are all related to QoS, but they are not specifically applied to Ethernet frames.

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28. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

Explanation

A remote access VPN over the Internet would be the best solution for the corporation's need. It allows teleworkers to securely connect to headquarters using the Internet, providing a low-cost and convenient option. Dial-up connection would be slow and outdated, while leased line connection would be expensive. Site-to-site VPN over the Internet is used for connecting multiple sites, not individual teleworkers.

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29. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

Explanation

Fog computing is the correct answer because it refers to the pillar of the Cisco IoT System that enables data analysis and management at the location where it is generated. Fog computing allows for processing and analyzing data closer to the edge devices, reducing latency and improving efficiency. This approach is especially useful in IoT systems where real-time analysis and decision-making are required.

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30. A router has been configured to use simulated network traffic in order to monitor the network performance between the router and a distant network device. Which command would display the results of this analysis?

Explanation

The command "show ip sla statistics" would display the results of the analysis for the simulated network traffic. This command is specifically used to view the statistics of IP Service Level Agreement (SLA) operations, which are used to monitor network performance. By using this command, the router will provide information about the network performance between the router and the distant network device that is being monitored.

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31. What network monitoring tool copies traffic moving through one switch port, and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis?

Explanation

SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) is a network monitoring tool that copies the traffic moving through one switch port and sends the copied traffic to another switch port for analysis. This allows network administrators to monitor and analyze network traffic without disrupting the normal flow of data. SPAN is commonly used for troubleshooting network issues, monitoring network performance, and detecting security threats.

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32. Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?

Explanation

Jitter is the term that describes the cause of the broken conversations in this scenario. Jitter refers to the variation in the delay between received voice packets. In this case, due to network congestion, the delay between each packet varies, causing the conversations to be disrupted and broken.

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33. Which type of tool would an administrator use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device?

Explanation

A protocol analyzer is a type of tool that an administrator would use to capture packets that are going to and from a particular device. It helps in analyzing and monitoring network traffic, allowing the administrator to troubleshoot network issues, identify performance bottlenecks, and detect any security threats or anomalies. By capturing and analyzing packets, the protocol analyzer provides valuable insights into the network's behavior and helps in maintaining its optimal performance.

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34. Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

Explanation

To be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1, an SNMP manager needs to have the ability to communicate with the switch. This can be achieved by having the manager configured with the correct host IP address, which in this case is 192.168.0.5. By having the correct host configured, the manager can establish a connection with the switch and send SNMP requests to set parameters on the switch.

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35. Which broadband technology would be best for a user that needs remote access when traveling in mountains and at sea?

Explanation

Satellite broadband technology would be the best option for a user needing remote access while traveling in mountains and at sea. This is because satellite broadband uses satellites orbiting the Earth to provide internet connectivity, allowing users to access the internet from anywhere, even in remote locations with limited or no terrestrial infrastructure. This makes it an ideal choice for users in areas where traditional broadband options like Wi-Fi Mesh, mobile broadband, or WiMax may not be available or reliable.

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36. Which Cloud computing service would be best for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment and must purchase network services on-demand?

Explanation

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) would be the best cloud computing service for a new organization that cannot afford physical servers and networking equipment. With IaaS, the organization can purchase network services on-demand, allowing them to access and use virtualized infrastructure resources, such as servers, storage, and networking, without the need for physical hardware. This eliminates the upfront costs of purchasing and maintaining physical servers and networking equipment, making it a cost-effective solution for the organization.

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37. Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements:
  • deny 172.16.102.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
  • permit 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 172.16.104.252 0.0.0.0
Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements?

Explanation

The correct answer is Athena(config)# interface fa0/0
Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out. This command sequence will place the named access list called chemistry_block on the outgoing traffic of interface fa0/0 on the Athena router. This means that any traffic leaving the fa0/0 interface will be checked against the access list, and if the source IP address matches the deny statement, the traffic will be denied. This configuration ensures that users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet are denied access to the Records Server, while allowing all other users within the school to access the server.

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38. Fill in the blanks. Use dotted decimal format.
  • The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is ______________________.

Explanation

The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is 0.0.1.255.

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39. Match the cloud model with the description.
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40. Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?

Explanation

The correct answer is "permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25". This command entry allows traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64 by permitting TCP traffic from any source IP address to the destination IP address 2001:DB8:10:10::100 with a destination port of 25, which is the port used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

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41. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

Explanation

Community strings provide secure access to MIB objects when SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used. Community strings act as passwords that allow devices to authenticate and authorize access to MIB objects. They are shared between the SNMP manager and the managed devices, ensuring that only authorized users can retrieve or modify MIB data.

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42. What is an example of cloud computing?

Explanation

Cloud computing refers to the delivery of computing services over the internet. It allows users to access and utilize shared resources, such as servers, storage, and applications, on-demand. This eliminates the need for organizations to invest in and maintain their own physical infrastructure. Instead, they can rely on a service provider to handle the hardware and software resources, providing scalability, flexibility, and cost-effectiveness. Therefore, the given answer, "a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources," accurately describes an example of cloud computing.

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43. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

Explanation

If the configuration change made by the network technician did not solve the problem, the next step should be to restore the previous configuration. This is important because it will revert the router back to its original state before the change was made, allowing the technician to eliminate the possibility that the configuration change itself caused the problem. By restoring the previous configuration, the technician can then proceed to gather symptoms again and isolate the problem to determine the next possible corrective action.

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44. Which component of the ACI architecture translates application policies into network programming?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Application Policy Infrastructure Controller. The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller is responsible for translating application policies into network programming. It acts as the central management point for the ACI architecture and allows administrators to define and enforce policies for their applications. By translating these policies into network programming, the controller ensures that the network infrastructure is configured correctly to support the desired application behavior.

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45. What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

Explanation

The primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature is to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible. This feature allows network administrators to set up probes that periodically send test packets to specific destinations in the network and measure the response time. By monitoring the network performance, administrators can identify any issues or failures in the network and take immediate action to address them. This helps in maintaining optimal network performance and minimizing downtime.

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46. Refer to the exhibit. Considering how packets are processed on a router that is configured with ACLs, what is the correct order of the statements?

Explanation

The correct order of the statements is C-B-D-A. This means that the packets will first be checked against the access control lists (ACLs) in statement C, then they will be processed according to the routing table in statement B, followed by any destination-based NAT translations in statement D, and finally, the packets will be forwarded out the appropriate interface in statement A.

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47. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

Explanation

A network administrator would use a protocol analyzer to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host. A protocol analyzer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic, allowing administrators to examine the headers and contents of packets. It helps in troubleshooting network issues by providing insights into the network protocols and traffic patterns. By using a protocol analyzer, the administrator can identify any errors or abnormalities in the Layer 2 headers of frames, helping them diagnose and resolve network problems efficiently.

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48. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

Explanation

The correct answer is "permit icmp any any nd-na." In an IPv6 multirouter environment, the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is used for routers to discover each other and establish communication. The "nd-na" in the ACE stands for Neighbor Advertisement, which is an ICMPv6 message used by routers to announce their presence and network information. By permitting this ICMP message, the routers can discover each other and establish connectivity in the network.

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49. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully." This means that both the initial phase of establishing the link between the two devices and the subsequent phase of establishing the network-layer connection were completed successfully.

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50. Which Cisco feature sends copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch in order to perform traffic analysis?

Explanation

SPAN stands for Switched Port Analyzer. It is a Cisco feature that allows the switch to send copies of frames entering one port to a different port on the same switch. This feature is commonly used for traffic analysis, network monitoring, and troubleshooting purposes. By sending copies of frames to a different port, network administrators can analyze the traffic without interrupting the normal flow of data on the network.

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51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

Explanation

Based on the given information, the most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer of the OSI model. The data link layer is responsible for providing error-free transmission of data over the physical network. If the routers RTA and RTB cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as incorrect configuration or a faulty physical connection between the routers.

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52. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

Explanation

The correct answer is HDLC. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol used by default on Cisco routers. It is a synchronous serial protocol that provides a reliable and efficient way to transmit data over point-to-point links. HDLC is commonly used in WAN connections and is the default encapsulation for serial interfaces on Cisco routers.

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53. Which term describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control?

Explanation

The term "authenticator" describes the role of a Cisco switch in the 802.1X port-based access control. The authenticator is responsible for enforcing the authentication process and controlling access to the network. It verifies the credentials provided by the supplicant (the client device) and communicates with the authentication server to validate the user's identity. The authenticator acts as a gateway between the supplicant and the network, allowing or denying access based on the authentication result.

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54. Which statement best describes a WAN?

Explanation

A WAN, or Wide Area Network, is a network that connects multiple LANs (Local Area Networks) over long distances. Unlike LANs, which are typically confined to a single location, WANs allow for communication and data transfer between LANs that are geographically separated. This enables organizations with multiple branches or offices to share resources and information efficiently. Therefore, the statement "A WAN interconnects LANs over long distances" best describes what a WAN is.

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55. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three core components in the Cisco IoT system are fog computing, data analytics, and cyber and physical security. Fog computing refers to the decentralized computing infrastructure that brings computing resources closer to the edge devices in the network. Data analytics involves analyzing and interpreting large amounts of data collected from various IoT devices to derive meaningful insights. Cyber and physical security are crucial components to protect the IoT system from cyber threats and ensure the safety and integrity of the physical devices and infrastructure.

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56. Connecting offices at different locations using the Internet can be economical for a business. What are two important business policy issues that should be addressed when using the Internet for this purpose? (Choose two.)

Explanation

When connecting offices at different locations using the Internet, two important business policy issues that should be addressed are privacy and security. Privacy is crucial to protect sensitive information and ensure that only authorized individuals have access to it. Security measures are necessary to safeguard the network from cyber threats such as hacking, data breaches, and unauthorized access. By addressing these issues, businesses can ensure the confidentiality and integrity of their data while utilizing the cost-effective benefits of Internet connectivity.

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57. What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?

Explanation

Extended access control lists (ACLs) should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied. This is because ACLs are evaluated sequentially, and placing them closer to the source allows for earlier filtering and reduces unnecessary traffic on the network. By denying unwanted traffic at the source, network resources are conserved and potential security threats are mitigated more efficiently.

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58. A network administrator has noticed an unusual amount of traffic being received on a switch port that is connected to a college classroom computer. Which tool would the administrator use to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center?

Explanation

The network administrator would use RSPAN (Remote Switched Port Analyzer) to make the suspicious traffic available for analysis at the college data center. RSPAN allows the administrator to monitor traffic on one or more ports and send it to a monitoring port on a different switch, which can then be analyzed at the data center. This would enable the administrator to investigate the unusual amount of traffic being received on the switch port connected to the college classroom computer.

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59. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

Explanation

A trap is an SNMP message type that immediately informs the network management system (NMS) of certain specified events. When an event occurs, such as a device failure or a threshold being exceeded, the device sends a trap message to the NMS. This allows the NMS to be notified in real-time and take appropriate actions to address the event. Traps are proactive notifications that help in quickly identifying and resolving network issues.

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60. Which feature sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations?

Explanation

IP SLA (Internet Protocol Service Level Agreement) is a feature that sends simulated data across the network and measures performance between multiple network locations. It allows network administrators to monitor and analyze network performance, identify potential issues, and troubleshoot network problems. By simulating traffic and measuring response times, IP SLA provides valuable insights into network performance and helps ensure that service level agreements are met.

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61. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF network. The 10.10.0.0/16 network is not showing up in the routing table of Router1. What is the probable cause of this problem?

Explanation

The probable cause of the problem is that there is an incorrect wildcard mask statement for network 10.10.0.0/16 on Router2. This means that the wildcard mask used for the OSPF network statement on Router2 does not match the subnet mask of the 10.10.0.0/16 network. As a result, Router2 is not advertising this network to Router1, causing it to not show up in Router1's routing table.

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62. The security policy in a company specifies that the staff in the sales department must use a VPN to connect to the corporate network to access the sales data when they travel to meet customers. What component is needed by the sales staff to establish a remote VPN connection?

Explanation

The sales staff needs VPN client software to establish a remote VPN connection. VPN client software is a program that allows users to connect to a VPN server and access the corporate network securely. It encrypts the user's internet traffic and creates a secure tunnel between the user's device and the VPN server, ensuring that their data is protected from unauthorized access while traveling and accessing sales data.

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63. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

Explanation

An enterprise would decide to implement a corporate WAN when its employees become distributed across many branch locations. This is because a WAN (Wide Area Network) allows for the connection of multiple branch locations over a large geographic area, providing communication and data sharing capabilities between these locations. As employees are spread out across different branches, a WAN becomes necessary to ensure efficient and effective communication and collaboration between them.

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64. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between two peers has failed. Based on the output that is shown, what is the most likely cause?

Explanation

Based on the given output, the most likely cause of the communication failure is a PPP issue. The output shows that the "line protocol is down," which indicates a problem with the link layer protocol used for establishing and configuring the connection between the two peers. This suggests that there may be an issue with the PPP configuration or authentication, causing the communication to fail.

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65. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

Explanation

PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) is the correct answer because it is the protocol that allows Internet Service Providers (ISPs) to send PPP frames over DSL networks. PPPoE is commonly used in DSL connections to establish a point-to-point connection between the user's equipment and the ISP's network. It encapsulates PPP frames within Ethernet frames, enabling the transmission of PPP packets over Ethernet-based networks like DSL.

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66. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

Explanation

ATM is less efficient compared to Frame Relay. This is because ATM has a fixed cell size of 53 bytes, which includes both data and overhead. This fixed size means that even small amounts of data have to be padded to fill an entire cell, resulting in wasted bandwidth. In contrast, Frame Relay has a variable frame size, allowing for more efficient utilization of bandwidth by sending only the necessary amount of data. Therefore, ATM is considered less efficient in terms of bandwidth utilization compared to Frame Relay.

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67. Which statement describes a feature of site-to-site VPNs?

Explanation

A site-to-site VPN allows multiple sites or networks to connect securely over the internet. In this type of VPN, internal hosts at each site send normal, unencapsulated packets, meaning that the packets are not modified or encrypted before being transmitted. The VPN connection is established between the routers or firewalls at each site, rather than being defined on individual hosts. This allows all hosts within the network to communicate securely without requiring VPN client software to be installed on each host. Additionally, individual hosts do not have the ability to enable or disable the VPN connection as it is managed at the network level.

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68. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

Explanation

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a WAN (Wide Area Network) solution that uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network. Labels are added to packets at the ingress router and are used to determine the next hop for forwarding the packets. This allows for efficient routing and traffic engineering, as well as providing quality of service features. MPLS is commonly used by service providers to provide reliable and scalable connectivity for their customers.

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69. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

Explanation

A trust boundary is a concept used in Quality of Service (QoS) to determine which devices within a network trust the markings on packets. It helps in ensuring that the QoS policies are enforced correctly and that the markings on packets are respected by the trusted devices. By identifying the trust boundary, network administrators can control and prioritize traffic based on the markings, ensuring that the desired QoS is maintained throughout the network.

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70. What protocol should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks?

Explanation

DTP (Dynamic Trunking Protocol) should be disabled to help mitigate VLAN attacks. DTP is a Cisco proprietary protocol used to negotiate trunk links between switches. By disabling DTP, the switch ports will not automatically form trunk links, reducing the risk of unauthorized VLAN hopping attacks. This prevents an attacker from connecting to a switch port and potentially gaining access to multiple VLANs. Disabling DTP ensures that trunking is only enabled on specific ports where it is required, improving network security.

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71. What advantage does DSL have compared to cable technology?

Explanation

DSL is not a shared medium, meaning that the connection is dedicated to the user and not shared with other users in the area. This ensures that the user has consistent and reliable speeds, without being affected by the number of users on the network. In contrast, cable technology often uses a shared medium, where multiple users share the same bandwidth, leading to potential slowdowns during peak usage times. Therefore, DSL has an advantage over cable technology in terms of providing a more consistent and reliable internet connection.

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72. Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?

Explanation

The wildcard mask 0.0.1.255 means that the first three octets of the IP address (172.16.2) should match exactly, while the last octet can have any value except for 255. Therefore, the IP address range that covers all IP addresses matching this filter is from 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255.

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73. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

Explanation

In software defined network architecture, the function that is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller is the control plane. The control plane is responsible for making decisions about how data is routed and managed within the network. By centralizing this function in the SDN controller, network devices can focus solely on the data plane, which is responsible for forwarding data packets. This separation of control plane and data plane allows for greater flexibility, scalability, and programmability in network management.

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74. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

Explanation

CHAP is preferred over PAP as the authentication protocol because it uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities. This adds an extra layer of security by continuously verifying the identities of both the client and the server. Additionally, CHAP transmits login information in encrypted format, ensuring that it cannot be easily intercepted and read by unauthorized individuals. Lastly, CHAP uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks, making it more resilient against such attacks compared to PAP.

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75. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

Explanation

Virtualization helps with disaster recovery within a data center by allowing for greater flexibility in hardware requirements. In a virtualized environment, virtual machines can be created and run on different physical servers, which means that hardware does not have to be identical. This is beneficial for disaster recovery because it allows for easier and faster restoration of services in the event of a hardware failure. Instead of needing an exact replacement for a failed server, virtual machines can be migrated to other available hardware, reducing downtime and improving overall resilience.

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76. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

Explanation

Standard IPv4 ACLs are configured in the interface configuration mode. They can be created with a number but not with a name. These ACLs are used to filter traffic based on source IP addresses only, not considering source ports.

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77. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

Explanation

When creating an extended access control list entry, three values or sets of values that are included are: access list number between 100 and 199, destination address and wildcard mask, and source address and wildcard mask. These values are necessary to specify the specific access list number range, the destination address and its corresponding wildcard mask, and the source address and its corresponding wildcard mask. This allows for granular control and filtering of network traffic based on the specified source and destination addresses within the defined access list number range.

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78. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

Explanation

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a WAN technology that can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL. MPLS uses labels to efficiently route traffic through the network, making it a versatile option for carrying different types of traffic. It provides a scalable and flexible solution for organizations that need to support various network protocols and technologies over a wide area network.

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79. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?

Explanation

The given output indicates that the router has not received any Telnet packets from the IP address 10.35.80.22 that are intended for the IP address 10.23.77.101. This can be inferred from the fact that there are no matches for line 10 in the ACL, suggesting that the ACL is not monitoring or blocking any traffic from this specific source and destination. Therefore, the correct answer is that the router has not received any Telnet packets from 10.35.80.22 destined for 10.23.77.101.

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80. Refer to the exhibit. Which SNMP authentication password must be used by the member of the ADMIN group that is configured on router R1?

Explanation

The SNMP authentication password that must be used by the member of the ADMIN group configured on router R1 is "cisco123456". This is because it is the only password listed in the options provided.

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81. What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?

Explanation

A DSLAM (Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer) is a device that is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers. It collects and combines the DSL signals from multiple customers and routes them to the appropriate network. DSLAMs play a crucial role in providing high-speed internet access over DSL technology by efficiently managing and distributing the data traffic.

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82. Which troubleshooting approach is more appropriate for a seasoned network administrator rather than a less-experienced network administrator?

Explanation

A seasoned network administrator is likely to have more experience and knowledge in troubleshooting network issues. They may have encountered similar problems before and developed an intuition or educated guess about the possible causes. Therefore, a less-structured approach based on an educated guess would be more appropriate for them as they can quickly identify and resolve the problem without following a strict step-by-step process. This approach allows them to leverage their expertise and make informed decisions based on their past experiences.

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83. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

Explanation

The primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack is to be able to see frames that are destined for other hosts. By overflowing the MAC address table of a switch, the attacker can cause the switch to flood all incoming frames to all ports, allowing them to capture and analyze network traffic that is intended for other hosts. This can potentially provide the attacker with sensitive information or allow them to eavesdrop on communications between other network devices.

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84. In configuring SNMPv3, what is the purpose of creating an ACL?

Explanation

Creating an ACL in SNMPv3 is done to specify the source addresses that are allowed to access the SNMP agent. This is important for security purposes as it restricts access to the SNMP agent only to authorized devices or networks. By defining the specific source addresses, the ACL ensures that only trusted sources can communicate with the SNMP agent, preventing unauthorized access and potential security breaches.

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85. What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets?

Explanation

The correct answer is the ARP table. The ARP table is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF (Cisco Express Forwarding) to process packets. The adjacency table contains information about the next-hop devices and their MAC addresses, which is necessary for forwarding packets efficiently. The ARP table is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses, allowing the adjacency table to be populated with this information before packet forwarding occurs.

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86. Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

Explanation

Cable broadband is the appropriate solution for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance. Cable broadband uses coaxial cables to provide high-speed internet access, which is not limited by the distance from the service provider's location. This makes it a suitable choice for home users who require a reliable and fast wired connection without worrying about distance limitations. DSL, WiMax, and ADSL are not ideal for this scenario as they have distance limitations or rely on wireless technology.

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87. What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?

Explanation

The only type of ACL available for IPv6 is named extended. This type of ACL allows for more granular control over network traffic by specifying source and destination addresses, as well as additional parameters such as protocols and ports. Named extended ACLs are commonly used in IPv6 networks to enforce security policies and restrict access to specific resources.

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88. How can DHCP spoofing attacks be mitigated?

Explanation

DHCP spoofing attacks can be mitigated by implementing DHCP snooping on trusted ports. DHCP snooping is a security feature that can be enabled on network switches to prevent unauthorized DHCP servers from providing IP addresses to clients. By enabling DHCP snooping on trusted ports, the switch will only allow DHCP responses from trusted DHCP servers, thus preventing spoofed DHCP responses from malicious sources. This helps to ensure that clients receive valid IP addresses from legitimate DHCP servers and reduces the risk of falling victim to DHCP spoofing attacks.

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89. Match the cloud model with the description.
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90. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection?

Explanation

DSL, or Digital Subscriber Line, is a public WAN access technology that utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers. It works by using different frequencies to transmit data over the existing phone lines, allowing for simultaneous voice and data transmission. In this case, the subscribers' connections are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection, which is a high-speed digital transmission line. Therefore, DSL is the correct answer.

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91. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

Explanation

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) requires the use of PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) to provide PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol) connections to customers. DSL is a technology that uses existing copper telephone lines to provide high-speed internet access. PPPoE is a network protocol that allows the transmission of PPP frames over Ethernet networks. By using PPPoE, DSL providers can establish PPP connections with their customers, allowing them to authenticate and establish secure connections for internet access.

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92. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

Explanation

SNMP trap messages provide a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling. SNMP polling involves the management system continuously sending requests to the managed devices to gather information. This can result in a high volume of network traffic and increased processing load on the managed devices. SNMP trap messages, on the other hand, allow the managed devices to send unsolicited notifications to the management system when specific events occur. This reduces the need for continuous polling and helps in reducing network traffic and device load.

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93. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

Explanation

DWDM is a technology that allows multiple wavelengths of light to be transmitted simultaneously over a single optical fiber. This enables high-capacity and long-range communications, making it suitable for connections between ISPs. It does not support the SONET or SDH standards, which are related to synchronous digital transmission over fiber optic networks. Additionally, DWDM does not involve copper cables or assign incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

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94. A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

Explanation

A named ACL can be used in this situation because it allows for more specific control over the traffic. With a named ACL, the network administrator can specify the IP address of the test computer as the only allowed source address, effectively blocking any other host from connecting to the web server. Standard and extended ACLs do not provide the level of specificity needed for this scenario.

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95. Which two technologies are private WAN technologies? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Frame Relay and ATM are both private WAN technologies. Frame Relay is a packet-switching technology that allows for the efficient transmission of data over a wide area network. ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) is a cell-switching technology that provides high-speed transmission of voice, video, and data. Both technologies are commonly used by organizations to establish private networks for secure and reliable communication between remote locations.

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96. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A broadband modem is specific to a WAN environment as it is used to connect to the internet via a broadband connection. It is not typically found on a LAN as LANs usually use Ethernet connections.

A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is also specific to a WAN environment. It is used to connect a router to a digital circuit, such as a T1 or T3 line, and is responsible for converting the digital data from the router into a format that can be transmitted over the circuit. CSU/DSUs are not typically found on a LAN as LANs usually use Ethernet connections.

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97. Which technology can ISPs use to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with PPPoE?

Explanation

ISPs can use CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol) to periodically challenge broadband customers over DSL networks with PPPoE. CHAP is a secure authentication protocol that verifies the identity of the customer by exchanging a series of challenge-response messages. This helps to ensure that only authorized users can access the network and protects against unauthorized access or attacks. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is a less secure authentication protocol compared to CHAP and is not commonly used. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) and Frame Relay are data link layer protocols that are not specifically designed for authentication purposes in this context.

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98. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

Explanation

LLQ stands for Low Latency Queueing, which is a QoS mechanism that allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent. LLQ assigns a strict priority queue for delay-sensitive traffic, ensuring that it is given preferential treatment and minimal delay. This mechanism is commonly used in networks where real-time applications like voice and video need to be prioritized to maintain quality and minimize latency.

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99.  A network administrator has moved the company intranet web server from a switch port to a dedicated router interface. How can the administrator determine how this change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet?

Explanation

The best way for the network administrator to determine how the change has affected performance and availability on the company intranet is to conduct a performance test and compare it with the baseline that was established previously. This will allow the administrator to measure any changes in performance metrics such as response time, throughput, and error rates. By comparing the test results with the baseline, the administrator can identify any improvements or degradation in performance and make necessary adjustments if needed.

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100. What is a primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services that it uses?

Explanation

The primary difference between a company LAN and the WAN services it uses is that the company must subscribe to an external WAN service provider. This means that the company does not have direct control over its WAN links, unlike its LAN. The LAN may use different network access layer standards, while the WAN will use only one standard. However, the key distinction is that the company relies on an external provider for its WAN services.

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101. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the PPP link between the routers R1 and R2. However, the link cannot be established. Based on the partial output of the show running-config command, what is the cause of the problem?

Explanation

The partial output of the show running-config command shows that the hostnames of the routers are "R1" and "R2", but the usernames configured on the routers are "r1" and "r2". The usernames should match the hostnames in order for the link to be established.

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102. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

Explanation

The correct answer is a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunneling is a protocol that encapsulates packets in order to create a virtual point-to-point link between two remote sites. It is commonly used to create a secure tunnel over an untrusted network. In this scenario, since the connection is without encryption, it suggests that the data being transmitted does not require security. Therefore, using GRE tunneling without encryption would be appropriate in this case.

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103. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The given answer states that R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server. This is supported by the command "logging trap 4" which sets the logging level to 4, indicating that messages of levels 0 to 4 will be sent to the server. The answer also mentions that the syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10, which is mentioned in the exhibit.

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104. Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?

Explanation

Congestion avoidance tools are designed to manage network traffic by controlling the flow of data and preventing congestion. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not provide any congestion control mechanisms. Unlike TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), which uses congestion avoidance techniques like windowing and congestion control algorithms, UDP does not have built-in mechanisms to manage congestion. Therefore, UDP traffic cannot be effectively managed using congestion avoidance tools.

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105. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

Explanation

One possible cause of the problem could be that host A is not able to access the internet because it does not have Network Address Translation (NAT) configured. NAT is required to translate the private IP addresses used within the host A network to a public IP address that can be used on the internet. Without NAT, host A would not be able to establish a connection to the internet.

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106. What action can a network administrator take to help mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks?

Explanation

Disabling automatic trunking negotiation can help mitigate the threat of VLAN attacks. Trunking allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single link, but it can also be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to VLANs. By disabling automatic trunking negotiation, the network administrator can manually configure trunk links, ensuring that only authorized VLANs are allowed. This reduces the risk of unauthorized access and potential VLAN attacks.

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107. What technology can be used to create a private WAN via satellite communications?

Explanation

VSAT (Very Small Aperture Terminal) technology can be used to create a private WAN (Wide Area Network) via satellite communications. VSAT utilizes small satellite dishes and modems to establish a two-way communication link with satellites in orbit. This allows for the transmission of data over long distances, making it suitable for creating private WAN connections. VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology used to create secure connections over public networks, but it is not specifically related to satellite communications. 3G/4G cellular and WiMAX are wireless technologies used for mobile and fixed broadband connections, respectively, but they do not involve satellite communications.

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108. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

Explanation

Level 0 indicates the highest severity level in IOS log messages. The severity levels range from 0 to 7, with level 0 being the most critical. This level is used for emergency system messages that require immediate attention, such as system crashes or major failures.

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109. Which two WAN technologies are more likely to be used by a business than by teleworkers or home users? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Frame Relay and MetroE are more likely to be used by businesses than by teleworkers or home users. These technologies are typically used for larger-scale networks and provide high-speed and reliable connections. Cable and DSL are more commonly used by teleworkers or home users as they are more cost-effective and readily available for residential use. VPN, on the other hand, can be used by both businesses and teleworkers/home users as it allows for secure remote access to a network.

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110. What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

Explanation

The show ppp multilink command on a Cisco router will display the serial interfaces that are participating in the multilink. It will not display the link LCP and NCP status, the queuing type on the link, or the IP addresses of the link interfaces.

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111. In the creation of an IPv6 ACL, what is the purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns?

Explanation

The purpose of the implicit final command entries, permit icmp any any nd-na and permit icmp any any nd-ns, in the creation of an IPv6 ACL is to allow IPv6 to MAC address resolution. These entries permit the forwarding of ICMPv6 Neighbor Discovery (ND) packets, specifically the Neighbor Advertisement (ND-NA) and Neighbor Solicitation (ND-NS) packets. These packets are essential for IPv6 devices to resolve IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses, enabling communication on the local network. By allowing these packets, the ACL ensures that the necessary address resolution process can take place.

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112. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?

Explanation

Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers is an example of a network issue at the network layer. This suggests that there may be a problem with the routing protocols or configurations, causing some routers to form adjacency while others do not. This can lead to inconsistent routing and communication issues within the network.

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113. Refer to the exhibit. A SNMP manager is using the community string of snmpenable and is configured with the IP address 172.16.10.1. The SNMP manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent. What could be the problem?

Explanation

The SNMP manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent because the ACL (Access Control List) is not permitting access by the SNMP manager. This means that the SNMP manager's IP address (172.16.10.1) is not allowed to access the SNMP agent.

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114. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

Explanation

Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured. A default gateway is the IP address of the router interface that connects the local network to other networks. It is used by the host to send packets to destinations outside of its own network. Without a default gateway, H1 cannot send packets to networks other than its own, which means it cannot reach H4 and H5 that are on different networks.

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115. In which stage of the troubleshooting process would ownership be researched and documented?

Explanation

In the troubleshooting process, ownership research and documentation would typically occur during the stage of gathering symptoms. This stage involves collecting information about the problem, including its nature, frequency, and any relevant details. Researching and documenting ownership is important to determine who is responsible for resolving the issue and to keep a record of the problem for future reference.

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116. What function is provided by Multilink PPP?

Explanation

Multilink PPP provides the function of spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links. This means that instead of relying on a single link, Multilink PPP allows for the aggregation of multiple links to increase bandwidth and improve overall network performance. By distributing traffic across these links, Multilink PPP helps to balance the load and prevent congestion on any one link. This can be particularly useful in scenarios where a single link may not provide sufficient bandwidth or redundancy.

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117. A company is considering updating the campus WAN connection. Which two WAN options are examples of the private WAN architecture? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A leased line is a private dedicated connection between two locations, typically provided by a telecommunications provider. It offers high-speed and reliable connectivity, making it suitable for a private WAN architecture. Ethernet WAN is another example of a private WAN architecture, where Ethernet technology is used to connect multiple locations within a company's network. Both leased line and Ethernet WAN provide secure and dedicated connections, making them suitable options for a private WAN architecture.

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118. Which technology creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN configuration?

Explanation

NHRP (Next Hop Resolution Protocol) is the technology that creates a mapping of public IP addresses for remote tunnel spokes in a DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN) configuration. It is responsible for resolving the next hop address, allowing the spokes to communicate with each other directly without going through a central hub. NHRP enables efficient and scalable communication in DMVPN networks by dynamically mapping the public IP addresses of the spokes.

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119. To which two layers of the OSI model do WAN technologies provide services? (Choose two.)

Explanation

WAN technologies provide services at the physical layer and data link layer of the OSI model. The physical layer is responsible for transmitting raw bits over a physical medium, such as cables or wireless signals. WAN technologies, like DSL or T1 lines, operate at this layer to establish the physical connection between network devices. The data link layer is responsible for framing the raw bits into packets and providing error detection and correction. WAN technologies, like Frame Relay or Ethernet, operate at this layer to ensure reliable data transmission over the physical connection.

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120. Refer to the exhibit. A user turns on a PC after it is serviced and calls the help desk to report that the PC seems unable to reach the Internet. The technician asks the user to issue the arp –a and ipconfig commands. Based on the output, what are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the output of the arp -a command, the technician can see that the default gateway device's MAC address is not listed. This suggests that the PC is unable to reach the default gateway, which could be due to a misconfiguration in the IP settings or an issue with the default gateway device itself. Additionally, the ipconfig command shows that the IP configuration is incorrect as the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway do not match the expected values. Therefore, the two possible causes of the problem are that the IP configuration is incorrect and the default gateway device cannot be contacted.

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121. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent because it can vary in terms of quality, bandwidth requirements, and network resources consumed. Additionally, video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms to ensure smooth playback and real-time communication. This means that video traffic needs to be delivered with minimal delay to maintain a good user experience.

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122. What mechanism compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream?

Explanation

The playout delay buffer compensates for jitter in an audio stream by buffering packets and then replaying them outbound in a steady stream. This buffer helps to smooth out any variations in packet arrival times, ensuring a consistent and uninterrupted audio playback experience.

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123. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

Explanation

Port security is an effective security countermeasure for preventing CAM table overflow attacks. By enabling port security, only a specific number of MAC addresses are allowed to communicate through a switch port. This prevents an attacker from flooding the switch with fake MAC addresses, which could lead to a CAM table overflow attack.

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124. What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

Explanation

If connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration, the routing table of stub router R1 would include the following entries:
- A static route with a next hop of Dialer1 for the default route (0.0.0.0/0).
- Two directly connected routes for the subnets 192.168.1.1/32 and 192.168.1.2/32, both with a next hop of Dialer1.

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125. Refer to the exhibit. What is the network administrator verifying when issuing the show ip interface brief command on R1 in respect to the PPPoE connection to R2?

Explanation

The network administrator is verifying that the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router. This is because the "show ip interface brief" command displays the IP address information for all interfaces on the router, and by checking the output of this command, the administrator can confirm if the Dialer1 interface has been assigned an IP address by the ISP router.

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126. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The output in the exhibit shows that the device is able to successfully ping the device at 192.168.100.1, indicating that there is connectivity between the two devices. Additionally, the output shows that there are 4 hops between the device and the device at 192.168.100.1, indicating that there are 4 intermediate devices between them in the network path.

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127. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

Explanation

A management console is required for a Type 1 hypervisor because it allows administrators to configure and manage the virtual machines and the hypervisor itself. It provides a centralized interface to monitor and control the virtualization environment, allowing tasks such as creating and deploying virtual machines, managing storage and networking, and monitoring performance. Without a management console, it would be difficult to efficiently manage and administer the virtualization infrastructure.

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128. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

Explanation

The troubleshooting method being used by the technician is divide-and-conquer. This method involves breaking down a problem into smaller, more manageable parts and then systematically testing each part to identify the cause of the issue. In this case, the technician is asking the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed, which helps narrow down the possible causes of the error message. By dividing the problem into smaller steps and testing each step, the technician can efficiently troubleshoot and identify the root cause of the issue.

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129. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three implicit access control entries that are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL are: deny ipv6 any any, permit icmp any any nd-ns, and permit icmp any any nd-na. These entries deny any IPv6 traffic, permit ICMP traffic for Neighbor Discovery Neighbor Solicitation (nd-ns), and permit ICMP traffic for Neighbor Discovery Neighbor Advertisement (nd-na).

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130. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

Explanation

Dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology allows for bidirectional communications over a single strand of fiber. This means that both upstream and downstream data can be transmitted simultaneously on the same fiber, increasing the capacity and efficiency of the network. This feature is achieved by using different wavelengths of light to carry multiple signals over the same fiber, each signal occupying a specific wavelength. This enables higher data transmission rates and allows for more efficient use of the available fiber infrastructure.

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131. Which two pieces of information should be included in a logical topology diagram of a network? (Choose two.)

Explanation

A logical topology diagram of a network should include the connection type and interface identifier. The connection type shows how devices are connected to each other, such as through Ethernet or wireless connections. The interface identifier specifies which specific interface on a device is being used for the connection. Including these two pieces of information helps to provide a clear understanding of how devices are interconnected in the network.

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132. Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.)

Explanation

PPP can use both synchronous and asynchronous circuits, allowing it to be used in a variety of network environments. It is not limited to only Cisco devices, as it is a widely used protocol that can be implemented on different types of equipment. PPP carries packets from multiple network layer protocols in LCPs, allowing for interoperability between different network protocols. It uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data-link connection, ensuring a reliable and efficient connection. Additionally, PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection, providing flexibility and customization options for the connection.

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133. A company is looking for the least expensive broadband solution that provides at least 10 Mb/s download speed. The company is located 5 miles from the nearest provider. Which broadband solution would be appropriate?

Explanation

Cable would be an appropriate broadband solution for the company. Cable internet is typically faster and more reliable than DSL or satellite, making it suitable for the company's requirement of at least 10 Mb/s download speed. Additionally, cable internet is widely available and can be easily accessed even if the company is located 5 miles away from the nearest provider.

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134. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol.
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135. What is the purpose of the generic routing encapsulation tunneling protocol?

Explanation

The purpose of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) tunneling protocol is to manage the transportation of IP multicast and multiprotocol traffic between remote sites. GRE allows the encapsulation of multiple protocols within IP packets, enabling the routing of different types of traffic over a single IP network. It provides a flexible solution for connecting remote sites and supports multicast traffic, which is essential for transmitting data to multiple recipients simultaneously. By encapsulating and tunneling different protocols, GRE facilitates efficient and reliable communication between remote sites.

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136. What are three features of a GRE tunnel? (Choose three.)

Explanation

A GRE tunnel creates nonsecure tunnels between remote sites, meaning that the data transmitted through the tunnel is not encrypted or secured. It also creates additional packet overhead, which means that it adds extra information to the packets being transmitted, increasing the size of the packets. Additionally, a GRE tunnel supports the transportation of multiple Layer 3 protocols, allowing different network protocols to be transmitted through the tunnel.

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137. Refer to the exhibit. What is used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS?

Explanation

IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) routing protocols are used to exchange routing information between routers within each AS (Autonomous System). These protocols are designed to work within a single autonomous system and are used to determine the best path for routing traffic between routers. Examples of IGP routing protocols include OSPF (Open Shortest Path First), RIP (Routing Information Protocol), and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol). These protocols enable routers within an AS to share information about network topology, reachability, and metrics, allowing for efficient and effective routing within the autonomous system.

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138. What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

Explanation

A benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) network design is that it will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one. This means that remote peers can easily establish connections with each other using their public IP addresses, without the need for manual configuration. The mapping database allows for dynamic establishment of tunnels, making the network more flexible and scalable.

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139. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

Explanation

The Priority field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for Quality of Service (QoS) treatment. This field allows the network to prioritize certain types of traffic over others, ensuring that critical or time-sensitive data is given higher priority and receives better QoS treatment. By assigning different priority levels to different frames, network administrators can control the flow and delivery of data, optimizing network performance and ensuring that important data is given the necessary resources and bandwidth.

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140. What are the three core components of the Cisco ACI architecture? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three core components of the Cisco ACI architecture are the Application Network Profile, Application Policy Infrastructure Controller, and Cisco Nexus Switches. The Application Network Profile defines the requirements and policies for an application. The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller is the centralized management and policy engine for the ACI fabric. Cisco Nexus Switches provide the physical infrastructure for the ACI fabric, enabling connectivity and communication between the various components.

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141. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are needed to complete the GRE tunnel configuration on router R1? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is R1(config-if)# tunnel source 209.165.202.129 and R1(config-if)# tunnel destination 206.165.202.130. These two commands are needed to configure the GRE tunnel on router R1. The "tunnel source" command specifies the source IP address for the tunnel, which in this case is 209.165.202.129. The "tunnel destination" command specifies the destination IP address for the tunnel, which in this case is 206.165.202.130. These commands define the endpoints of the tunnel and are necessary for the tunnel to function properly.

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142. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The NCP (Network Control Protocol) is responsible for bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down during a PPP connection. It is also responsible for negotiating options for the IP protocol.

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143. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first command "access-class 5 in" is needed to apply an ACL to the incoming traffic on the VTY lines of the routers. This command specifies that only devices matching the ACL with the number 5 are allowed Telnet access to the routers.

The second command "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31" is needed to create an ACL with the number 5 that permits access to the network range 10.7.0.0/27. The wildcard mask 0.0.0.31 allows for a range of 32 IP addresses, which covers the entire subnet.

Together, these two commands ensure that only devices within the specified network range can access the routers via Telnet.

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144. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct ACL to filter the traffic would be:
- access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
- access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
- access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
- access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
- access-list 105 permit ip any any

This ACL allows TCP traffic from the host 10.0.70.23 to the FTP server on ports 20 and 21, and also allows TCP traffic from any internal network (10.0.0.0/8) to the FTP server on port 80 (www). It then denies any other IP traffic from any source to the FTP server, and finally allows any other IP traffic from any source to any destination. This ACL should be applied on the outbound interface of R1's gi0/0.

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145. Match the operation to the appropriate QoS model.
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