CCNA 4 V6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option B

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  • 1/55 Questions

    Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

    • When its employees become distributed across many branch locations
    • When the network will span multiple buildings
    • When the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN
    • When the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
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About This Quiz

This CCNA 4 V6.0 FINAL EXAM covers essential topics for corporate WAN implementation, WAN providers, WAN-specific devices, DWDM technology, and MPLS paths. It assesses skills crucial for network engineers in distributed enterprise environments.

CCNA 4 V6.0 Final Exam Answers 100% Option B - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

    • DNS servers

    • Satellite service

    • Web hosting service

    • Telephone company

    • Internet search engine service

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Satellite service
    A. Telephone company
    Explanation
    The correct answer is satellite service and telephone company. These two options are types of WAN providers. Satellite service refers to the use of satellites to provide internet connectivity over a wide area network. Telephone companies, on the other hand, provide WAN services through their infrastructure and telecommunications networks. Both of these options offer connectivity over large geographical areas, making them suitable for WAN services.

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  • 3. 

    Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

    • Access layer switch

    • Broadband modem

    • Core switch

    • CSU/DSU​

    • Distribution layer router

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Broadband modem
    A. CSU/DSU​
    Explanation
    A broadband modem is a device that connects a computer or router to a broadband internet service, such as cable or DSL. It is specifically used in WAN environments to establish the connection to the internet. A CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) is a device used to connect a digital data terminal equipment (DTE) device, such as a router, to a digital circuit, such as a T1 or T3 line. It is also specific to WAN environments and is used to convert the digital data from the DTE device into a format that can be transmitted over the digital circuit.

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  • 4. 

    What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

    • It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.

    • It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.

    • It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.

    • It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.

    Correct Answer
    A. It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.
    Explanation
    Dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology allows bidirectional communications over a single strand of fiber. This means that data can be transmitted and received simultaneously on the same fiber, increasing the capacity and efficiency of the network. This feature allows for more data to be transmitted over the same infrastructure, reducing the need for additional fiber optic cables.

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  • 5. 

    What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

    • Less efficient

    • Lacks SVC support

    • Does not scale well to provide high speed WAN connections

    • Requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs

    Correct Answer
    A. Less efficient
    Explanation
    ATM is less efficient compared to Frame Relay because it uses fixed-sized cells for data transmission, regardless of the size of the data being sent. This can lead to inefficient use of bandwidth, especially for small data packets. Frame Relay, on the other hand, uses variable-sized frames, allowing for more efficient use of bandwidth by adapting the frame size to the size of the data being transmitted.

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  • 6. 

    Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

    • Cable

    • DSL

    • Frame Relay

    • MPLS

    • VSAT

    Correct Answer
    A. MPLS
    Explanation
    MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a WAN (Wide Area Network) solution that uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network. These labels are added to the packets by the routers in the network, allowing for efficient and fast forwarding of data. MPLS is commonly used by service providers to deliver services such as VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) and QoS (Quality of Service) over their networks.

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  • 7. 

    An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

    • Private infrastructure

    • Public infrastructure

    • Dedicated

    • Circuit-switched

    • Cellular

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Public infrastructure
    A. Cellular
    Explanation
    Public infrastructure and cellular would meet the requirements of providing constant Internet connectivity to users traveling on the buses. Public infrastructure refers to using the existing public network infrastructure, such as the internet, to provide connectivity. Cellular networks can also be used to provide internet connectivity on the move, as they have wide coverage and can be accessed through mobile devices. Both options would allow the intercity bus company to offer continuous internet access to their passengers.

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  • 8. 

    What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?

    • CMTS

    • DSLAM

    • CSU/DSU

    • Access server

    Correct Answer
    A. DSLAM
    Explanation
    A DSLAM (Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer) is a device that is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers. It is responsible for receiving and transmitting data between the customer's DSL modem and the internet service provider's network. The DSLAM allows multiple customers to share the same physical infrastructure while maintaining their individual connections and providing high-speed internet access.

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  • 9. 

    A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

    • Dial-up connection

    • Leased line connection

    • Site-to-site VPN over the Internet

    • Remote access VPN over the Internet

    Correct Answer
    A. Remote access VPN over the Internet
    Explanation
    A remote access VPN over the Internet is the best solution for providing teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. This solution allows teleworkers to securely connect to the corporate network from any location using the Internet. It is easy to set up and cost-effective compared to other options like dial-up or leased line connections. Additionally, a remote access VPN provides encryption and authentication to ensure the security of data transmitted between the teleworkers and headquarters.

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  • 10. 

    What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

    • 2

    • 12

    • 24

    • 28

    Correct Answer
    A. 24
    Explanation
    A T1 line has a bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel has a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. To find the maximum number of DS0 channels, we divide the T1 line bandwidth by the DS0 channel bandwidth: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24. Therefore, the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line is 24.

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  • 11. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

    • Ethernet

    • Frame Relay

    • HDLC

    • PPP

    Correct Answer
    A. HDLC
  • 12. 

    Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

    • Identifying fault conditions for the PPP link

    • Providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link

    • Bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down

    • Enhancing security by providing callback over PPP

    • Negotiating options for the IP protocol

    • Managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down
    A. Negotiating options for the IP protocol
    Explanation
    The NCP (Network Control Protocol) is responsible for bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down during a PPP connection. It is also responsible for negotiating options for the IP protocol.

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  • 13. 

    What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

    • The link LCP and NCP status

    • The queuing type on the link

    • The IP addresses of the link interfaces

    • The serial interfaces participating in the multilink

    Correct Answer
    A. The serial interfaces participating in the multilink
    Explanation
    The "show ppp multilink" command on a Cisco router will display the serial interfaces that are participating in the multilink. This command provides information about the configured multilink bundle and the individual serial interfaces that are part of it. It does not display information about the link LCP and NCP status, queuing type on the link, or the IP addresses of the link interfaces.

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  • 14. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

    • Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.

    • Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    • Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.

    • Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.

    Correct Answer
    A. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.
  • 15. 

    A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands: R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70 What is the effect of these commands?

    • The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.

    • The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

    • The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

    • The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

    Correct Answer
    A. The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.
    Explanation
    The commands "encapsulation ppp" and "ppp quality 70" configure a PPP link. The "ppp quality 70" command sets the threshold for link quality to 70 percent. If the link quality drops below this threshold, the PPP link will be closed down. Therefore, the effect of these commands is that the PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.

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  • 16. 

    How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

    • Power is always provided.

    • Less energy is consumed.

    • Server provisioning is faster.

    • Hardware does not have to be identical.

    Correct Answer
    A. Hardware does not have to be identical.
    Explanation
    Virtualization helps with disaster recovery within a data center by allowing for flexibility in hardware. In a virtualized environment, virtual machines can be easily migrated and run on different physical servers, regardless of the hardware specifications. This means that in the event of a disaster, such as a hardware failure, the virtual machines can be quickly and easily moved to another server without the need for identical hardware. This improves the overall resilience and availability of the data center, as it reduces the dependency on specific hardware configurations.

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  • 17. 

    Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

    • Cable

    • DSL

    • WiMax

    • ADSL

    Correct Answer
    A. Cable
    Explanation
    Cable broadband is the appropriate solution for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance. Cable broadband uses coaxial cables to provide internet access, which allows for high speeds and does not have distance limitations like DSL or ADSL. WiMax, on the other hand, is a wireless broadband solution and may not provide the same level of stability and speed as a wired connection.

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  • 18. 

    What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

    • PPPoE

    • CHAP

    • ADSL

    • LTE

    Correct Answer
    A. PPPoE
    Explanation
    PPPoE stands for Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet. It is a protocol that allows ISPs (Internet Service Providers) to send PPP frames over DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) networks. PPPoE is commonly used in DSL connections to establish a network connection between the customer's equipment and the ISP's equipment. It encapsulates PPP frames within Ethernet frames, allowing for the transmission of data over DSL networks.

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  • 19. 

    In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

    • Control plane

    • Data plane

    • Security

    • Application policies

    Correct Answer
    A. Control plane
    Explanation
    In software defined network architecture, the function that is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller is the control plane. The control plane is responsible for making decisions about how traffic should be forwarded and for managing the overall behavior of the network. By centralizing the control plane in the SDN controller, network devices can focus solely on forwarding data packets, resulting in more efficient and flexible network management.

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  • 20. 
    What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration? - ProProfs

    What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

    • 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1​ C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer2​

    • S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1​​

    • 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer

    • S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1 ​ 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1​ C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1

    Correct Answer
    A. S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1 ​ 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnetted C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1​ C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1
    Explanation
    The routing table of stub router R1 would include the following entries: "S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1" which indicates that the default route is pointing to Dialer1 for connectivity to the ISP. Additionally, there would be two subnetted entries for the network 192.168.1.0/32, with the entries "C 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1" and "C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1". This indicates that R1 has two directly connected interfaces, Dialer1 and Dialer2, with IP addresses 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2 respectively.

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  • 21. 

    What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

    • A DMVPN will use an encrypted session and does not require IPsec.

    • A DMVPN uses a Layer 3 protocol, NHRP, to dynamically establish tunnels.

    • A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.

    • A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each support a single VPN tunnel.

    Correct Answer
    A. A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.
    Explanation
    A benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) network design is that it supports remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one. This means that remote peers can easily establish connections with each other without the need for static IP addresses or complex configurations. The mapping database simplifies the process of establishing secure and encrypted connections between remote peers, making it more efficient and scalable.

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  • 22. 

    Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

    • A mobile user who connects to a router at a central site

    • A branch office that connects securely to a central site

    • A mobile user who connects to a SOHO site

    • A central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption

    Correct Answer
    A. A central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption
    Explanation
    The correct answer is a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunneling is a protocol that encapsulates packets inside IP packets, allowing them to be transmitted over an IP network. In this scenario, the central site connects to a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) site without encryption, indicating that the connection does not require secure communication. Therefore, using GRE tunneling for remote access implementation would be suitable in this case.

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  • 23. 
    Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

    • 2

    • 3

    • 4

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, a router must use EBGP (External BGP) to establish connections with routers in other autonomous systems. Since there are multiple autonomous systems in the network, at least four routers must use EBGP to ensure routing information is shared across all autonomous systems.

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  • 24. 

    Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

    • They are configured in the interface configuration mode.

    • They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.

    • They can be created with a number but not with a name.

    • They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

    Correct Answer
    A. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
    Explanation
    Standard IPv4 ACLs are configured in the interface configuration mode and can be created with a number but not with a name. However, they only filter traffic based on source IP addresses and not based on source ports.

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  • 25. 

    Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

    • Access list number between 1 and 99

    • Access list number between 100 and 199

    • Default gateway address and wildcard mask

    • Destination address and wildcard mask

    • Source address and wildcard mask

    • Source subnet mask and wildcard mask

    • Destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Access list number between 100 and 199
    A. Destination address and wildcard mask
    A. Source address and wildcard mask
    Explanation
    The correct answer is access list number between 100 and 199 because extended access control lists are numbered from 100 to 199. The destination address and wildcard mask are also included when creating an extended access control list entry as they determine the destination of the traffic that will be filtered. Similarly, the source address and wildcard mask are included to specify the source of the traffic that will be filtered.

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  • 26. 
    Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

    • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.

    • Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.

    • Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.

    • Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

    Correct Answer
    A. Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
    Explanation
    The error message in the exhibit suggests that there is already an ACE with sequence number 5 in the ACL. To add the new deny ACE, the administrator can manually choose a different sequence number, such as 15, to avoid conflicts with the existing ACE. This will allow the administrator to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network.

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  • 27. 

    Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

    • Deny ip any any

    • Deny ipv6 any any

    • Permit ipv6 any any

    • Deny icmp any any

    • Permit icmp any any nd-ns

    • Permit icmp any any nd-na

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Deny ipv6 any any
    A. Permit icmp any any nd-ns
    A. Permit icmp any any nd-na
    Explanation
    The three implicit access control entries that are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL are "deny ipv6 any any", "permit icmp any any nd-ns", and "permit icmp any any nd-na". These entries are added by default to provide basic security and functionality for IPv6 networks. The "deny ipv6 any any" entry denies all IPv6 traffic, while the "permit icmp any any nd-ns" and "permit icmp any any nd-na" entries allow ICMP Neighbor Discovery messages, which are essential for IPv6 network operations.

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  • 28. 

    The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • Access-class 5 in

    • Access-list 5 deny any

    • Access-list standard VTY permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

    • Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31

    • Ip access-group 5 out

    • Ip access-group 5 in

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Access-class 5 in
    A. Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    Explanation
    The first command, "access-class 5 in", is used to apply an ACL to incoming traffic on the VTY lines. This will ensure that only devices that match the ACL will be allowed Telnet access to the routers.

    The second command, "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31", creates an ACL entry that permits traffic from the 10.7.0.0/27 network. The wildcard mask 0.0.0.31 allows for a range of IP addresses from 10.7.0.0 to 10.7.0.31.

    Together, these two commands will apply the ACL and allow only devices from the network administrators' subnet to have Telnet access to the routers.

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  • 29. 

    A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

    • Permit ip any any

    • Permit ip any host ip_address

    • Permit icmp any any nd-na

    • Deny ip any any

    Correct Answer
    A. Permit icmp any any nd-na
    Explanation
    In an IPv6 multirouter environment, the "permit icmp any any nd-na" ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other. This ACE allows ICMP Neighbor Discovery (ND) messages, specifically Neighbor Advertisement (NA) messages, to pass through the ACL. These messages are crucial for routers to discover and communicate with each other on the network. By permitting this traffic, the ACL ensures proper functioning and connectivity between adjacent routers.

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  • 30. 

    What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

    • So that the switch stops forwarding traffic

    • So that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

    • So that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

    • So that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

    Correct Answer
    A. So that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts
    Explanation
    An attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack in order to see frames that are destined for other hosts. By overflowing the MAC address table of a switch, the attacker can cause the switch to flood all incoming traffic to all ports, allowing them to intercept and analyze frames that are intended for other hosts on the network. This can enable the attacker to gather sensitive information or launch further attacks.

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  • 31. 

    What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

    • Fog computing

    • Wearable technologies

    • Data analytics

    • Robot guides

    • Cyber and physical security

    • Smart bandages

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Fog computing
    A. Data analytics
    A. Cyber and physical security
    Explanation
    The three core components in the Cisco IoT system are fog computing, data analytics, and cyber and physical security. Fog computing refers to the decentralized computing infrastructure that extends the cloud to the edge of the network, enabling faster data processing and reducing latency. Data analytics involves analyzing and interpreting the vast amount of data generated by IoT devices to derive meaningful insights and make informed decisions. Cyber and physical security are crucial components in ensuring the protection of IoT devices, networks, and data from unauthorized access, cyber threats, and physical tampering.

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  • 32. 

    What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

    • Port security

    • DHCP snooping

    • IP source guard

    • Dynamic ARP Inspection

    Correct Answer
    A. Port security
    Explanation
    Port security is an effective security countermeasure for preventing CAM table overflow attacks. Port security allows network administrators to control which devices are allowed to access a network by limiting the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a specific port. By setting a maximum limit on the number of MAC addresses, port security prevents an attacker from flooding the CAM table with fake MAC addresses, thus mitigating the risk of CAM table overflow attacks.

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  • 33. 

    What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

    • VTP

    • LLDP

    • HSRP

    • RADIUS

    • TACACS+

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. RADIUS
    A. TACACS+
    Explanation
    RADIUS and TACACS+ are the two protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol for network access authentication, while TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) is a more secure and feature-rich protocol for AAA services. Both protocols enable centralized authentication and authorization for network access, ensuring secure and controlled access to Cisco devices.

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  • 34. 

    Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

    • SNMP set messages

    • SNMP trap messages

    • SNMP get messages

    • SNMP community strings

    Correct Answer
    A. SNMP trap messages
    Explanation
    SNMP trap messages provide a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling. SNMP polling involves the management system continuously querying the network devices for information, which can be resource-intensive and inefficient. SNMP trap messages, on the other hand, allow network devices to proactively send notifications to the management system when certain events or conditions occur. This reduces the need for continuous polling and improves the efficiency of network management.

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  • 35. 

    When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

    • Packet encryption

    • Message integrity

    • Community strings

    • Source validation

    Correct Answer
    A. Community strings
    Explanation
    When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, the feature that provides secure access to MIB objects is community strings. Community strings are essentially passwords that are shared between the SNMP manager and the SNMP agent. They are used to authenticate and authorize SNMP requests and ensure secure access to MIB objects.

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  • 36. 

    What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

    • Bulk MIB objects retrieval

    • Encryption

    • Authorization with community string priority

    • Authentication

    • ACL management filtering

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Encryption
    A. Authentication
    Explanation
    SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication as two features to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted between the SNMP manager and agent is secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Authentication provides a means to verify the identity of the SNMP manager and agent, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the integrity of the data exchanged. These two features enhance the security and reliability of SNMP communication, addressing the vulnerabilities present in previous versions.

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  • 37. 
    Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

    • A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut

    • A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB

    • A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5

    • A manager who is using authPriv

    Correct Answer
    A. A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
    Explanation
    An SNMP manager needs to have the host IP address (192.168.0.5) in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1. The IP address is used to establish a connection between the manager and the switch, enabling the manager to send SNMP commands and modify the switch's configuration. The other options (SNMP string, Inform Request MIB, and authPriv) are not directly related to setting parameters on the switch.

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  • 38. 

    Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

    • FIFO

    • CBWFQ

    • WFQ

    • FCFS

    Correct Answer
    A. CBWFQ
    Explanation
    CBWFQ (Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing) is a queuing mechanism that supports user-defined traffic classes. It allows network administrators to classify and prioritize traffic based on specific criteria such as IP addresses, protocols, or port numbers. CBWFQ ensures that each traffic class receives its fair share of bandwidth while also allowing for customization and flexibility in managing network traffic.

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  • 39. 

    Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

    • CBWFQ

    • FIFO

    • LLQ

    • FCFS

    Correct Answer
    A. LLQ
    Explanation
    LLQ stands for Low Latency Queuing, which is a QoS mechanism that allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent. It prioritizes real-time traffic by assigning it to a separate queue with a strict priority scheduling algorithm, ensuring that it is transmitted with minimal delay. This is especially important for applications like voice and video, where any delay can result in poor quality or disruption.

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  • 40. 
    Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used? - ProProfs

    Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

    • Traffic shaping

    • Weighted random early detection

    • Classification and marking

    • Traffic policing

    Correct Answer
    A. Traffic shaping
    Explanation
    The question is asking which congestion avoidance technique is used when traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment. Among the given options, traffic shaping is the correct answer because it is a technique used to control the rate of outgoing traffic to prevent congestion. It regulates the flow of traffic by delaying or buffering packets to ensure that they are sent at a controlled rate. This helps to prevent network congestion and maintain a consistent level of service.

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  • 41. 

    Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

    • Type of Service field

    • Traffic Class field

    • Priority field

    • Version field

    Correct Answer
    A. Priority field
    Explanation
    The Priority field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment. This field allows for the prioritization of different types of traffic, ensuring that high-priority traffic receives preferential treatment in terms of bandwidth allocation and network resources. By assigning a priority value to Ethernet frames, network administrators can control the flow and delivery of data, optimizing the overall performance and quality of service on the network.

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  • 42. 

    What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

    • A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.

    • A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.

    • A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.

    • A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.

    Correct Answer
    A. A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.
    Explanation
    A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network. This means that when packets cross the trust boundary, the devices within the network will rely on the markings to prioritize and handle the traffic accordingly. The trust boundary serves as a demarcation point that determines which devices within the network will honor the markings and apply the corresponding quality of service (QoS) policies.

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  • 43. 

    Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

    • Data analytics

    • Fog computing

    • Network connectivity

    • Application enhancement platform

    Correct Answer
    A. Fog computing
    Explanation
    Fog computing is the pillar of the Cisco IoT System that allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated. Fog computing refers to the practice of processing and analyzing data at the edge of the network, closer to where it is generated, rather than sending it to a centralized cloud server. This allows for faster data processing and reduces the need for constant internet connectivity. Fog computing is especially useful in IoT systems where large amounts of data are generated in real-time and quick analysis is required for immediate decision-making.

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  • 44. 

    What is an example of cloud computing?

    • A continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things

    • A service that offers on-demand access to shared resources

    • A network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area

    • An architectural style of the World Wide Web

    Correct Answer
    A. A service that offers on-demand access to shared resources
    Explanation
    Cloud computing refers to the delivery of computing services over the internet, allowing users to access and utilize shared resources on demand. This can include storage, processing power, software applications, and more. By providing these resources as a service, users can easily scale up or down based on their needs, without the need for physical infrastructure or hardware. Therefore, the answer "a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources" accurately represents an example of cloud computing.

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  • 45. 

    Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

    • A host operating system

    • A server running VMware Fusion

    • A management console

    • A dedicated VLAN

    Correct Answer
    A. A management console
    Explanation
    A Type 1 hypervisor is a bare-metal hypervisor that runs directly on the host hardware, without the need for a host operating system. It is responsible for managing and allocating resources to virtual machines. However, a management console is required to control and monitor the hypervisor, providing features such as virtual machine provisioning, performance monitoring, and resource allocation. Therefore, a management console is a necessary resource for a Type 1 hypervisor.

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  • 46. 

    A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

    • Gather symptoms.

    • Isolate the problem.

    • Restore the previous configuration.

    • Implement the next possible corrective action.

    Correct Answer
    A. Restore the previous configuration.
    Explanation
    The technician should restore the previous configuration because the problem was not solved after making the configuration change. Restoring the previous configuration will revert the router back to its previous state and undo any changes that may have caused the problem. This will allow the technician to start troubleshooting from a known working configuration and potentially identify other solutions or steps to take in order to solve the problem.

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  • 47. 

    A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

    • Top-down

    • Bottom-up

    • Substitution

    • Divide-and-conquer

    Correct Answer
    A. Divide-and-conquer
    Explanation
    The help-desk technician is using the divide-and-conquer troubleshooting method. This method involves breaking down a problem into smaller parts and testing each part individually to identify the cause of the issue. By asking the user to enter the IP address of the web server, the technician is attempting to isolate the problem and determine if it is specific to the web page URL or if it is a broader issue with the web server.

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  • 48. 

    What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

    • To detect potential network attacks

    • To provide network connectivity for customers

    • To adjust network device configurations to avoid congestion

    • To measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible

    Correct Answer
    A. To measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible
    Explanation
    The primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature is to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible. This feature allows network administrators to monitor and analyze the performance of their network by sending periodic test packets and collecting data on round-trip time, packet loss, and other performance metrics. By detecting any degradation in network performance or potential network failures, administrators can take proactive measures to address the issues and ensure optimal network performance and availability.

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  • 49. 

    Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

    • Level 0

    • Level 1

    • Level 4

    • Level 7

    Correct Answer
    A. Level 0
    Explanation
    Level 0 indicates the highest severity level in IOS log messages. The severity levels range from 0 to 7, with level 0 being the most critical. This level is used to indicate emergencies that require immediate attention, such as system crashes or major failures.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 21, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Apr 13, 2019
    Quiz Created by
    Catherine Halcomb

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