CCNA Routing & Switching 200-125: New Questions - Part 3

49 Questions | Total Attempts: 211

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
CCNA Routing & Switching 200-125: New Questions - Part 3

CCNA Routing & Switching 200-125: New Questions - Part 3 of 3.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface

    • B. 

      The length of time that a route has been known

    • C. 

      The EIGRP or BGP autonomous system

    • D. 

      Which neighbor adjacencies are established

    • E. 

      Whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured

  • 2. 
    Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The routers have mismatched K values.

    • B. 

      An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5.

    • C. 

      Both routers have the same router ID.

    • D. 

      The routers are on different subnets.

    • E. 

      The two routers have the same autonomous system number.

  • 3. 
    Which QoS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
    • A. 

      Policing

    • B. 

      FIFO

    • C. 

      Shaping

    • D. 

      Weighted fair queuing

  • 4. 
    Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It sends periodic updates via broadcast

    • B. 

      It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1

    • C. 

      It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm

    • D. 

      It supports CIDR and VLSM

    • E. 

      It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table

  • 5. 
    Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table.

    • B. 

      The successor is stored in the routing table.

    • C. 

      The successor is the primary route.

    • D. 

      The successor is the secondary route.

    • E. 

      The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor.

  • 6. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.

    • B. 

      The interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address.

    • C. 

      Learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity.

    • D. 

      The security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address.

    • E. 

      It has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses.

  • 7. 
    Which value is used to build the CAM table?
    • A. 

      Source MAC address

    • B. 

      Source IP address

    • C. 

      Destination MAC address

    • D. 

      Destination IP address

  • 8. 
    Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It combines authentication and authorization to simplify configuration.

    • B. 

      It uses TCP port 49.

    • C. 

      It encrypts the password only.

    • D. 

      It uses UDP port 49.

    • E. 

      It supports full command logging.

  • 9. 
    Which two commands can you enter to configure an interface to actively negotiate an EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Channel-group 10 mode desirable

    • B. 

      Channel-group 10 mode on

    • C. 

      Channel-group 10 mode passive

    • D. 

      Channel-group 10 mode active

    • E. 

      Channel-group 10 mode auto

  • 10. 
    Which two statements about PDU encapsulation are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and trailer to the PDU from the layer below.

    • B. 

      In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation occurs on the network layer.

    • C. 

      During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the layer above.

    • D. 

      In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation starts on the Internet layer with the data from the application layer.

    • E. 

      PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer.

  • 11. 
    Which two commands should you enter to view the PID and serial number of a router? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Show license status

    • B. 

      Show version

    • C. 

      Show license udi

    • D. 

      Show license

    • E. 

      Show license feature

  • 12. 
    Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
    • A. 

      Designated

    • B. 

      Alternate

    • C. 

      Forwarding

    • D. 

      Backup

  • 13. 
    Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      RG11

    • B. 

      Category 5e

    • C. 

      RG-6

    • D. 

      Category 6

    • E. 

      Category 3

  • 14. 
    Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      It allows packets to transmit a different path if the topology changes.

    • B. 

      Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF.

    • C. 

      It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration.

    • D. 

      It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet.

    • E. 

      Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.

  • 15. 
    What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192.168.2.1?
    • A. 

      Add a static route for host 192.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router

    • B. 

      Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1

    • C. 

      Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1

    • D. 

      Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1

  • 16. 
    What is the minimum Ethernet frame size?
    • A. 

      1500 bytes

    • B. 

      1024 bytes

    • C. 

      32 bytes

    • D. 

      64 bytes

  • 17. 
    Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the appropriate environments.

    • B. 

      Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installation of up to 200m.

    • C. 

      Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps.

    • D. 

      Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m.

    • E. 

      Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps.

  • 18. 
    Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses

    • B. 

      A syslog message is generated

    • C. 

      The security violation counter does not increment

    • D. 

      The port LED turns off

    • E. 

      The interface is error-disabled

  • 19. 
    Which adverse circumstance can occur when you connect full-duplex devices to a shared Ethernet hub?
    • A. 

      Excessive collisions

    • B. 

      Alignment errors

    • C. 

      A duplex mismatch

    • D. 

      Native VLAN mismatches

  • 20. 
    What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end-to-end response time between devices?
    • A. 

      ICMP path jitter

    • B. 

      ICMP echo

    • C. 

      ICMP path echo

    • D. 

      ICMP jitter

  • 21. 
    Which two commands should you enter to prevent a Cisco device from sharing information with upstream devices? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      R1(config)#no cdp enable

    • B. 

      R1(config-if)#no cdp enable

    • C. 

      R1(config)#no cdp advertise-v2

    • D. 

      R1(config-if)#no cdp run

    • E. 

      R1(config)#no cdp run

  • 22. 
    What is the maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in one stack?
    • A. 

      6

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      9

    • D. 

      10

  • 23. 
    Which command should you enter to configure a single port to prevent alternate ports from becoming designated ports?
    • A. 

      Spanning-tree etherchannel misconfig

    • B. 

      Spanning-tree loopguard default

    • C. 

      Spanning-tree guard root

    • D. 

      Spanning-tree guard loop

  • 24. 
    What are two features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      Broadcast

    • B. 

      Multicast

    • C. 

      Anycast

    • D. 

      Allcast

    • E. 

      Podcast

  • 25. 
    Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)
    • A. 

      DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN login.

    • B. 

      DDR is not supported.

    • C. 

      An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.

    • D. 

      You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface.

    • E. 

      PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment.