CCNA Routing & Switching 200-125: New Questions - Part 3
CCNA Routing & Switching 200-125: New Questions - Part 3 of 3.
- 1.
Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two.)
- A.
Whether an ACL was applied inbound or outbound to an interface
- B.
The length of time that a route has been known
- C.
The EIGRP or BGP autonomous system
- D.
Which neighbor adjacencies are established
- E.
Whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured
Correct Answer(s)
B. The length of time that a route has been known
E. Whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configuredExplanation
By viewing the routing table, you can learn the length of time that a route has been known. This information helps in understanding the stability and reliability of the route. Additionally, you can also determine whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured. Administrative distance is a measure of the trustworthiness of a routing protocol, and knowing how it was configured provides insights into the network's routing decisions.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
- A.
The routers have mismatched K values.
- B.
An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5.
- C.
Both routers have the same router ID.
- D.
The routers are on different subnets.
- E.
The two routers have the same autonomous system number.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The routers have mismatched K values.
D. The routers are on different subnets.Explanation
Two circumstances that can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency are having mismatched K values and being on different subnets. Having mismatched K values means that the routers have different metrics for determining the best path, which can prevent them from establishing a neighbor adjacency. Being on different subnets means that the routers are not directly connected and cannot form a neighbor adjacency.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which QoS feature can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
- A.
Policing
- B.
FIFO
- C.
Shaping
- D.
Weighted fair queuing
Correct Answer
A. PolicingExplanation
Policing is a QoS feature that can drop traffic that exceeds the committed access rate. Policing is a mechanism used to enforce traffic limits by monitoring the incoming traffic and discarding or marking packets that exceed the defined rate. It ensures that the traffic adheres to the specified rate and prevents network congestion by dropping excessive packets.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
It sends periodic updates via broadcast
- B.
It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1
- C.
It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
- D.
It supports CIDR and VLSM
- E.
It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table
Correct Answer(s)
C. It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
D. It supports CIDR and VLSMExplanation
RIPv2 uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm, which is a distance-vector algorithm that calculates the best path to a destination based on the number of hops. This algorithm allows RIPv2 to determine the most efficient route to a destination. Additionally, RIPv2 supports CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) and VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Mask), which allow for more efficient use of IP addresses by allowing the use of smaller subnets. These features make RIPv2 a more advanced and flexible routing protocol compared to RIPv1.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Which two statements about the successor and feasible successor are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
The feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table.
- B.
The successor is stored in the routing table.
- C.
The successor is the primary route.
- D.
The successor is the secondary route.
- E.
The feasible successor has a lower metric than the successor.
Correct Answer(s)
B. The successor is stored in the routing table.
C. The successor is the primary route.Explanation
The first statement is true because the feasible successor is stored in both the topology table and the routing table. The second statement is also true because the successor is indeed stored in the routing table. The third statement is incorrect because the successor is the primary route, not the feasible successor. The fourth statement is also incorrect because the feasible successor is not the secondary route. The last statement is incorrect because the feasible successor may have a higher metric than the successor.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
- B.
The interface is error-disabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address.
- C.
Learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity.
- D.
The security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address.
- E.
It has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses.
Correct Answer(s)
A. It has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
C. Learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity.Explanation
The exhibit shows that the interface has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses, which means that it has learned the MAC addresses of two devices that are allowed to communicate through this interface. Additionally, the exhibit also indicates that the learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity, which helps to ensure that only active and authorized devices can communicate through the interface.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Which value is used to build the CAM table?
- A.
Source MAC address
- B.
Source IP address
- C.
Destination MAC address
- D.
Destination IP address
Correct Answer
A. Source MAC addressExplanation
The CAM table, also known as the Content Addressable Memory table, is used in networking to store the MAC addresses of devices connected to a switch. When a device sends a frame to the switch, the switch examines the source MAC address of the frame and records it in the CAM table along with the corresponding port. This allows the switch to quickly and efficiently forward frames to the correct destination based on the MAC address. Therefore, the source MAC address is used to build the CAM table.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
It combines authentication and authorization to simplify configuration.
- B.
It uses TCP port 49.
- C.
It encrypts the password only.
- D.
It uses UDP port 49.
- E.
It supports full command logging.
Correct Answer(s)
B. It uses TCP port 49.
E. It supports full command logging.Explanation
TACACS+ uses TCP port 49 for communication, allowing reliable and connection-oriented data transfer. Additionally, TACACS+ supports full command logging, which enables the tracking and auditing of all commands executed by users.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Which two commands can you enter to configure an interface to actively negotiate an EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
- A.
Channel-group 10 mode desirable
- B.
Channel-group 10 mode on
- C.
Channel-group 10 mode passive
- D.
Channel-group 10 mode active
- E.
Channel-group 10 mode auto
Correct Answer(s)
A. Channel-group 10 mode desirable
D. Channel-group 10 mode activeExplanation
The two commands that can be entered to configure an interface to actively negotiate an EtherChannel are "channel-group 10 mode desirable" and "channel-group 10 mode active". The "channel-group 10 mode desirable" command enables the interface to actively try to form an EtherChannel with the remote device, while the "channel-group 10 mode active" command enables the interface to actively negotiate an EtherChannel with the remote device.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Which two statements about PDU encapsulation are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and trailer to the PDU from the layer below.
- B.
In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation occurs on the network layer.
- C.
During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the layer above.
- D.
In the TCP/IP reference model, PDU encapsulation starts on the Internet layer with the data from the application layer.
- E.
PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer.
Correct Answer(s)
C. During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the layer above.
E. PDU encapsulation takes place only at the transport layer.Explanation
During encapsulation, each layer adds a header and sometimes adds a trailer to the PDU from the layer above. This is true because each layer in the networking stack adds its own header information to the data received from the layer above it. Additionally, PDU encapsulation does not take place only at the transport layer. It occurs at multiple layers in the networking stack, including the network layer, data link layer, and physical layer.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Which two commands should you enter to view the PID and serial number of a router? (Choose two.)
- A.
Show license status
- B.
Show version
- C.
Show license udi
- D.
Show license
- E.
Show license feature
Correct Answer(s)
B. Show version
C. Show license udiExplanation
To view the PID (Product IDentifier) and serial number of a router, you need to enter the "show version" and "show license udi" commands. The "show version" command provides detailed information about the hardware and software components of the router, including the PID. On the other hand, the "show license udi" command displays the Unique Device Identifier (UDI) information, which includes the serial number of the router. By using these two commands, you can obtain both the PID and serial number of the router.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
- A.
Designated
- B.
Alternate
- C.
Forwarding
- D.
Backup
Correct Answer
B. AlternateExplanation
The alternate port role in Rapid PVST+ provides a different path to the root bridge. This means that if the primary path to the root bridge fails, the alternate port will be used to establish a new path. This helps in maintaining network redundancy and ensuring that there is always a backup path available in case of link failures. The alternate port role is important in preventing network downtime and improving network resilience.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two.)
- A.
RG11
- B.
Category 5e
- C.
RG-6
- D.
Category 6
- E.
Category 3
Correct Answer(s)
B. Category 5e
D. Category 6Explanation
Category 5e and Category 6 cables are both capable of supporting 1-Gbps Ethernet. These cable specifications are designed to provide high-speed data transmission and are commonly used in networking environments. RG11, RG-6, and Category 3 cables, on the other hand, do not have the necessary capabilities to support 1-Gbps Ethernet.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which two statements about static routing are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
It allows packets to transmit a different path if the topology changes.
- B.
Its initial implementation is more complex than OSPF.
- C.
It provides only limited security unless the administrator performs additional configuration.
- D.
It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet.
- E.
Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.
Correct Answer(s)
D. It allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet.
E. Its default administrative distance is lower than EIGRP.Explanation
Static routing allows the administrator to determine the entire path of a packet because the administrator manually configures the routes in the routing table. Additionally, the default administrative distance of static routing is lower than EIGRP, which means that static routes are preferred over EIGRP routes when multiple routes to the same destination exist.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path from a router to host 192.168.2.1?
- A.
Add a static route for host 192.168.2.1 to the routing table of the router
- B.
Use Telnet to connect the router to host 192.168.2.1
- C.
Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1
- D.
Execute a ping from the router to host 192.168.2.1
Correct Answer
C. Execute a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1Explanation
Executing a traceroute from the router to host 192.168.2.1 is the easiest way to verify the Layer 3 path. Traceroute is a network diagnostic tool that shows the route (path) taken by packets from the router to the destination host. It displays the IP addresses of the routers (hops) along the path, allowing you to verify the Layer 3 connectivity and identify any issues or delays in the network. This helps in troubleshooting and ensuring that the packets are being routed correctly to the intended destination.Rate this question:
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- 16.
What is the minimum Ethernet frame size?
- A.
1500 bytes
- B.
1024 bytes
- C.
32 bytes
- D.
64 bytes
Correct Answer
D. 64 bytesExplanation
The minimum Ethernet frame size is 64 bytes. This is because the Ethernet standard requires a minimum frame size of 64 bytes in order to ensure proper collision detection and avoid data corruption. Frames smaller than 64 bytes would not provide enough space for the necessary headers and data, leading to inefficient network performance.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which two statements about UTP cables are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
All Ethernet cable types from Category 1 through Category 6 are suitable for transmitting data in the appropriate environments.
- B.
Category 6 Ethernet cables are appropriate for installation of up to 200m.
- C.
Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps.
- D.
Category 5 Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps beyond 100m.
- E.
Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps.
Correct Answer(s)
C. Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps.
E. Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps.Explanation
Category 6a Ethernet cable can transmit up to 10 Gbps because it has improved specifications and performance compared to Category 6 cables. Category 5e Ethernet cables support speeds up to 1000 Mbps because they have been designed to support Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet standards.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
- A.
The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses
- B.
A syslog message is generated
- C.
The security violation counter does not increment
- D.
The port LED turns off
- E.
The interface is error-disabled
Correct Answer(s)
A. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC addresses
C. The security violation counter does not incrementExplanation
When the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC addresses, it will start dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the network. Additionally, the security violation counter does not increment in this scenario. This counter usually increases when a security violation occurs, such as when an unknown MAC address is detected. Therefore, in this case, the interface will drop traffic from unknown MAC addresses and the security violation counter will not increment.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which adverse circumstance can occur when you connect full-duplex devices to a shared Ethernet hub?
- A.
Excessive collisions
- B.
Alignment errors
- C.
A duplex mismatch
- D.
Native VLAN mismatches
Correct Answer
A. Excessive collisionsExplanation
When full-duplex devices are connected to a shared Ethernet hub, excessive collisions can occur. In a full-duplex communication, both devices can transmit and receive data simultaneously, but a shared Ethernet hub does not support full-duplex communication. As a result, when multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time, collisions occur and the data packets have to be retransmitted, leading to a decrease in network performance.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end-to-end response time between devices?
- A.
ICMP path jitter
- B.
ICMP echo
- C.
ICMP path echo
- D.
ICMP jitter
Correct Answer
B. ICMP echoExplanation
ICMP echo is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end-to-end response time between devices. ICMP echo sends a single packet from a source device to a destination device and measures the round-trip time for the packet to reach the destination and return to the source. This operation is commonly used to test network connectivity and latency between devices. ICMP path jitter, ICMP path echo, and ICMP jitter are not the correct answers as they do not specifically measure end-to-end response time.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Which two commands should you enter to prevent a Cisco device from sharing information with upstream devices? (Choose two.)
- A.
R1(config)#no cdp enable
- B.
R1(config-if)#no cdp enable
- C.
R1(config)#no cdp advertise-v2
- D.
R1(config-if)#no cdp run
- E.
R1(config)#no cdp run
Correct Answer(s)
B. R1(config-if)#no cdp enable
E. R1(config)#no cdp runExplanation
The two commands that should be entered to prevent a Cisco device from sharing information with upstream devices are "R1(config-if)#no cdp enable" and "R1(config)#no cdp run". The "no cdp enable" command is used to disable CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) on a specific interface, while the "no cdp run" command is used to globally disable CDP on the entire device. By disabling CDP, the device will not share any information with upstream devices, helping to enhance security and prevent unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in one stack?
- A.
6
- B.
8
- C.
9
- D.
10
Correct Answer
C. 9Explanation
StackWise is a technology used in Cisco switches to create a virtual switch stack. It allows multiple physical switches to behave as a single logical switch, providing increased scalability and redundancy. The maximum number of switches that StackWise can support in one stack is 9. This means that up to 9 physical switches can be connected together to form a single logical switch using StackWise technology.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Which command should you enter to configure a single port to prevent alternate ports from becoming designated ports?
- A.
Spanning-tree etherchannel misconfig
- B.
Spanning-tree loopguard default
- C.
Spanning-tree guard root
- D.
Spanning-tree guard loop
Correct Answer
D. Spanning-tree guard loopExplanation
The command "spanning-tree guard loop" should be entered to configure a single port to prevent alternate ports from becoming designated ports. This command enables the loop guard feature in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which helps to prevent loops in the network by detecting and blocking any ports that may cause a loop. By configuring "spanning-tree guard loop" on a port, it ensures that the port will not transition to a designated port if it receives a superior BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) from another switch.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What are two features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
- A.
Broadcast
- B.
Multicast
- C.
Anycast
- D.
Allcast
- E.
Podcast
Correct Answer(s)
B. Multicast
C. AnycastExplanation
IPv6 has two main features: multicast and anycast. Multicast allows the transmission of a packet to multiple destinations simultaneously. It is used for efficient group communication. Anycast, on the other hand, is a routing technique that allows multiple devices to share the same IP address. It is used to deliver packets to the nearest or most appropriate destination out of a group of potential recipients. The other options mentioned in the question, such as broadcast, allcast, and podcast, are not valid features of IPv6.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which two facts must you take into account when you deploy PPPoE? (Choose two.)
- A.
DDR idle timers must be configured to support VPDN login.
- B.
DDR is not supported.
- C.
An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.
- D.
You must manually configure IP addresses on the PPPoE interface.
- E.
PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment.
Correct Answer(s)
C. An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client.
E. PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment.Explanation
When deploying PPPoE, two important facts to consider are:
1) An individual PVC can support one PPPoE client. This means that each Point-to-Point Virtual Circuit (PVC) can only accommodate a single PPPoE client connection.
2) PPPoE supports a maximum of 10 clients per customer premises equipment (CPE). This means that a single CPE can have up to 10 PPPoE client connections.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which two statements about an Ethernet frame source addresses are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
The address is 4 bits long.
- B.
The leftmost bit is always 0.
- C.
The leftmost bit is always 1.
- D.
The address is 6 bytes long.
- E.
The address is 4 bytes long.
Correct Answer(s)
B. The leftmost bit is always 0.
D. The address is 6 bytes long.Explanation
The leftmost bit is always 0 in an Ethernet frame source address. This is because the leftmost bit is used to indicate whether the address is a unicast (0) or multicast (1) address.
The address is 6 bytes long in an Ethernet frame source address. This is because Ethernet addresses are typically represented in 48-bit binary format, which is equivalent to 6 bytes.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Refer to the exhibit. If all routers on this network run RIPv2, which two configurations can you apply to router R3 to produce this routing table? (Choose two.)
- A.
router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.4.0 network 192.168.23.0 passive-interface default
- B.
router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.23.0 passive-interface default
- C.
router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.4.0 network 192.168.23.0
- D.
router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.4.0
Correct Answer(s)
A. router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.4.0 network 192.168.23.0 passive-interface default
C. router rip version 2 network 192.168.3.0 network 192.168.4.0 network 192.168.23.0Explanation
The correct answer is the first and third configurations. In the first configuration, the "passive-interface default" command is used, which makes all interfaces passive by default, except for the interfaces that are explicitly configured with the "no passive-interface" command. This allows R3 to advertise its directly connected networks (192.168.3.0, 192.168.4.0, and 192.168.23.0) to its neighboring routers. In the third configuration, the "passive-interface default" command is not used, but the "network" command is used to advertise the same directly connected networks. Both configurations will result in the same routing table.Rate this question:
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- 28.
Which two benefits are provided by cloud resources to an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
- A.
Full control of infrastructure
- B.
Complexity at higher cost
- C.
Flexibility
- D.
On-demand scalability
- E.
Easy access with low security
Correct Answer(s)
C. Flexibility
D. On-demand scalabilityExplanation
Cloud resources provide flexibility to an enterprise network by allowing them to easily scale up or down their resources based on their needs. This flexibility allows businesses to quickly adapt to changing demands and optimize their resource allocation. Additionally, cloud resources offer on-demand scalability, which means that businesses can quickly and easily add or remove resources as needed without any downtime. This scalability helps businesses to efficiently manage their resources and ensure that they are only paying for what they need.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about router R1 are true? (Choose two.)
- A.
At least three IGP routing protocols are running on the router
- B.
At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router
- C.
The router has two EIGRP neighbors and one OSPF neighbor
- D.
The router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42
- E.
The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes
Correct Answer(s)
B. At least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router
E. The router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routesExplanation
The given correct answer states that at least two IGP routing protocols are running on the router and the router is learning external OSPF and EIGRP routes. This can be inferred from the fact that the router has an OSPF Area 0 adjacency with the device at 10.82.4.42 and it also has two EIGRP neighbors. Therefore, it can be concluded that the router is running both OSPF and EIGRP as its IGP routing protocols and is learning routes from external OSPF and EIGRP sources.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two.)
- A.
Whether the NTP peer is statically configured
- B.
The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
- C.
The configured NTP servers
- D.
Whether the clock is synchronized
- E.
The NTP version number of the peer
Correct Answer(s)
B. The IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
D. Whether the clock is synchronizedExplanation
From the output of the "show ntp status" command, you can determine two pieces of information. Firstly, you can determine the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized. This information is important for understanding the network time synchronization. Secondly, you can determine whether the clock is synchronized or not. This is crucial for ensuring accurate timekeeping in a network environment.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which feature or method can you use to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link?
- A.
Loopback tests
- B.
Autonegotiation
- C.
UDLD
- D.
Protocol analyzer
Correct Answer
A. Loopback testsExplanation
Loopback tests can be used to isolate physical layer problems on a serial link. A loopback test involves sending a signal from a device and then receiving it back on the same device. By doing this, any issues with the physical layer, such as cable faults or interface problems, can be identified and isolated. This helps in troubleshooting and resolving connectivity issues on the serial link.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
- A.
Mismatched autonomous system numbers
- B.
An ACL blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.10
- C.
Mismatched process IDs
- D.
Mismatched hello timers and dead timers
- E.
Use of the same router ID on both devices
Correct Answer(s)
D. Mismatched hello timers and dead timers
E. Use of the same router ID on both devicesExplanation
Mismatched hello timers and dead timers can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency because OSPF uses hello packets to establish and maintain neighbor relationships. If the routers have different hello timers or dead timers, they will not be able to synchronize their hellos and establish a neighbor relationship. Additionally, if both routers have the same router ID, OSPF will see them as the same router and will not establish a neighbor adjacency.Rate this question:
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- 33.
After an FTP session to ftp.cisco.com fails, you attempt to ping the server. A ping to ftp.cisco.com also fails, but a ping to the IP address of the server is successful. What is a reason for the failed FTP session?
- A.
An ACL is blocking the FTP request
- B.
The assigned DNS server is down
- C.
A firewall is blocking traffic from the FTP site
- D.
The internet connection is down
Correct Answer
B. The assigned DNS server is downExplanation
The reason for the failed FTP session is that the assigned DNS server is down. When the FTP session fails and the ping to ftp.cisco.com also fails, it indicates that the domain name resolution is not working. However, the successful ping to the IP address of the server suggests that the server itself is reachable. This implies that the issue lies with the DNS server, which is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses. Since the DNS server is down, the FTP request cannot resolve the domain name and establish a connection.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which access layer threat mitigation technique provides security by acting as a filter between trusted and untrusted traffic sources?
- A.
DHCP snooping
- B.
Dynamic packet inspection
- C.
802.1X
- D.
A nondefault native VLAN
Correct Answer
C. 802.1XExplanation
802.1X is an access layer threat mitigation technique that provides security by acting as a filter between trusted and untrusted traffic sources. It is an authentication protocol that allows only authorized devices to connect to the network. By requiring users and devices to authenticate before granting access, 802.1X ensures that only trusted traffic is allowed onto the network, while untrusted sources are blocked. This helps to prevent unauthorized access and potential security threats from entering the network.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?
- A.
Native VLAN mismatch
- B.
Overloaded hardware queues
- C.
Software misconfiguration
- D.
Duplex mismatch
Correct Answer
D. Duplex mismatchExplanation
A duplex mismatch is a common cause of late collisions. A duplex mismatch occurs when two devices on a network have different duplex settings, meaning one device is set to full-duplex while the other is set to half-duplex. This results in data collisions and late collisions, where the transmitting device detects a collision after it has already started sending the data. This can lead to network congestion and slower performance.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Which task do you need to perform first when you configure IP SLA to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue?
- A.
Enable the ICMP echo operation
- B.
Specify the test frequency
- C.
Verify the ICMP echo operation
- D.
Schedule the ICMP operation
Correct Answer
A. Enable the ICMP echo operationExplanation
To troubleshoot a network connectivity issue using IP SLA, the first task that needs to be performed is enabling the ICMP echo operation. This operation allows the router to send ICMP echo requests to a specific destination IP address and measure the response time. By enabling this operation, the router can start monitoring the network connectivity and gather data for troubleshooting purposes. Once enabled, other tasks such as specifying the test frequency, verifying the ICMP echo operation, and scheduling the ICMP operation can be performed to further analyze and optimize network performance.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Which command allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6?
- A.
Metric weights
- B.
Ipv6 summary-address eigrp
- C.
Ipv6 bandwidth-percent eigrp
- D.
Ipv6 next-hop-self eigrp
Correct Answer
B. Ipv6 summary-address eigrpExplanation
The command "ipv6 summary-address eigrp" allows you to set the administrative distance for EIGRP for IPv6. This command is used to configure a summary address for EIGRP routing protocol in IPv6 networks. It helps in summarizing multiple routes into a single route, reducing the size of the routing table and improving network efficiency.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?
- A.
A session ID
- B.
A TTL number
- C.
Sequence number
- D.
An acknowledgment number
Correct Answer
C. Sequence numberExplanation
The initial TCP SYN message includes a sequence number. This number is used to keep track of the order of the packets sent and received during the TCP handshake process. It helps in establishing a reliable and ordered connection between the client and server.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which two address spaces are valid Class B IPv4 ranges that are non-routable to the Internet? (Choose two.)
- A.
10.0.0.0 through 10.0.255.255
- B.
169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
- C.
172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
- D.
172.16.0.0 through 172.32.255.255
- E.
192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
Correct Answer(s)
B. 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255
C. 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255Explanation
The two valid Class B IPv4 ranges that are non-routable to the Internet are 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 and 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255. These ranges are reserved for private use and are not meant to be routed on the public Internet. The 169.254.0.0/16 range is specifically allocated for Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA), which allows devices to assign themselves an IP address when no DHCP server is available. The 172.16.0.0/12 range is part of the private address space defined by RFC 1918 and is commonly used for local area networks (LANs).Rate this question:
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- 40.
Which IP address can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16?
- A.
10.101.0.1
- B.
10.101.254.254
- C.
244.0.0.1
- D.
10.101.255.255
Correct Answer
D. 10.101.255.255Explanation
The IP address 10.101.255.255 can send traffic to all hosts on network 10.101.0.0/16 because it is the broadcast address for that network. The broadcast address is used to send a message to all hosts on a specific network, and it is the highest address in that network's range. In this case, since the network is 10.101.0.0/16, the broadcast address is 10.101.255.255.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which symbol in the APIC-EM Path Trace tool output indicates that an ACL is present and might deny packets?
- A.
Option 1
- B.
Option 2
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Option 1Explanation
In the APIC-EM Path Trace tool output, the symbol that indicates the presence of an ACL and the potential denial of packets is Option 1.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? (Choose two.)
- A.
HSRP
- B.
GLBP
- C.
StackWise
- D.
VRRP
- E.
VSS
Correct Answer(s)
C. StackWise
E. VSSExplanation
StackWise and VSS are the two technologies that can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch. StackWise is a Cisco technology that allows multiple switches to be connected together and operate as a single logical unit, increasing scalability and simplifying management. VSS (Virtual Switching System) is also a Cisco technology that combines two physical switches into one virtual switch, providing redundancy and load balancing. Both technologies enhance network performance and availability by creating a unified and resilient switching infrastructure.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
- A.
Show standby
- B.
Show hsrp
- C.
Show sessions
- D.
Show interfaces
Correct Answer
A. Show standbyExplanation
The "show standby" command should be entered to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group. This command displays the current HSRP configuration and status, including the priority of the router. By using this command, you can confirm the priority value assigned to the router and ensure that it is correctly configured within the HSRP group.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Which two actions must you take to correctly configure PPPoE on a client? (Choose two.)
- A.
Define a dialer interface
- B.
Create a dialer pool and bind it to the virtual template
- C.
Define a virtual template interface
- D.
Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface
- E.
Create a BBA group and link it to the dialer interface
Correct Answer(s)
A. Define a dialer interface
D. Create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interfaceExplanation
To correctly configure PPPoE on a client, two actions must be taken. First, the client needs to define a dialer interface. This interface will be used to establish the PPPoE connection with the service provider. Second, the client needs to create a dialer pool and bind it to the physical interface. The dialer pool will contain the necessary parameters for the PPPoE connection, such as the username and password. Binding the dialer pool to the physical interface ensures that the PPPoE connection is established on that interface.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which two features are compatible with port security? (Choose two.)
- A.
SPAN destination port
- B.
Voice VLAN
- C.
DTP
- D.
EtherChannel
- E.
SPAN source port
Correct Answer(s)
B. Voice VLAN
E. SPAN source portExplanation
Voice VLAN and SPAN source port are compatible with port security.
Voice VLAN allows for the separation of voice and data traffic on a network, ensuring that only authorized devices can access the voice VLAN. This helps to enhance security and prioritize voice traffic.
SPAN source port is used for port mirroring, which allows the monitoring of network traffic for analysis and troubleshooting purposes. Port security can be implemented on the SPAN source port to control and restrict access to the mirrored traffic, ensuring that only authorized devices can access it.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which plane handles switching traffic through a Cisco router?
- A.
Control
- B.
Data
- C.
Management
- D.
Performance
Correct Answer
B. DataExplanation
The correct answer is "data" because the data plane is responsible for handling the actual traffic forwarding and switching within a Cisco router. It processes packets based on the routing table and forwards them to the appropriate destination. The data plane operates independently of the control plane, which is responsible for managing the router's overall operation and configuration. The management plane handles administrative tasks, while the performance plane focuses on optimizing the router's performance.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which two statements correctly describe the ping utility? (Choose two.)
- A.
It can identify source of an ICMP ―time exceeded‖message
- B.
It can identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device
- C.
It uses ICMP
- D.
It use UDP
- E.
It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the path
Correct Answer(s)
C. It uses ICMP
E. It can verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the pathExplanation
The ping utility uses ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) to send echo request messages to a remote device and receive echo reply messages. This allows it to verify connectivity to a remote device without identifying the specific path that the packet takes. It does not use UDP (User Datagram Protocol) for this purpose. Additionally, it cannot identify the path that a packet takes to a remote device, but it can identify the source of an ICMP "time exceeded" message if it receives one.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Which two commands can you use to configure a PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
- A.
Channel-group 10 mode on
- B.
Channel-group 10 mode auto
- C.
Channel-group 10 mode desirable
- D.
Channel-group 10 mode passive
- E.
Channel-group 10 mode active
Correct Answer(s)
B. Channel-group 10 mode auto
C. Channel-group 10 mode desirableExplanation
The correct answer is "channel-group 10 mode auto" and "channel-group 10 mode desirable". These two commands are used to configure a PAgP (Port Aggregation Protocol) EtherChannel. The "channel-group 10 mode auto" command enables the auto mode, which allows the interface to negotiate with the other end of the link to form an EtherChannel. The "channel-group 10 mode desirable" command enables the desirable mode, which actively tries to negotiate with the other end to form an EtherChannel.Rate this question:
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