CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1

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1/54 Questions

What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
- A terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
- A protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
- A protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
- A protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
- A protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console
- A protocol that conducts a test of the path through which a packet travels from source to destination

CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1 - Quiz

About This Quiz

This CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1 assesses key skills in networking protocols, TCP\/IP layers, Ethernet LAN congestion factors, and VLAN management on Cisco devices. It's designed to prepare learners for CCNA certification, enhancing their understanding of network infrastructure and operations.

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2.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)
- PDU #1 is a frame.
- PDU #2 is an application layer PDU
- PDU #3 is a segment.
- PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.
- The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
- The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3.
Correct Answer(s)

A. PDU #1 is a frame.
A. PDU #3 is a segment.
A. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.

Explanation

The correct answer states that PDU #1 is a frame, PDU #3 is a segment, and the order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2. This means that PDU #1 is created after PDU #4, which is a transport layer PDU, and PDU #3, which is a segment. The order of creation suggests that the encapsulation process starts at the transport layer, then moves to the network layer (PDU #3), followed by the data link layer (PDU #1), and finally the application layer (PDU #2 is not mentioned in the answer).

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3.

What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
- Data transport reliability
- Best path determination
- Establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
- Encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
- Best-effort datagram delivery
Correct Answer(s)

A. Data transport reliability
A. Establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits

Explanation

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a reliable transport protocol that ensures data transport reliability by providing mechanisms for error detection, retransmission of lost packets, and flow control. It also establishes, maintains, and terminates virtual circuits between communicating devices, ensuring a reliable and ordered delivery of data. Therefore, the two characteristics of TCP mentioned in the answer are data transport reliability and establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits.

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4.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router: RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0 RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252 RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown
- Ethernet
- Frame Relay
- HDLC
- PPP
Correct Answer

A. HDLC

Explanation

Based on the given configuration, HDLC will be used for Layer 2 encapsulation for connection D. The configuration does not mention any specific encapsulation protocol, so the default protocol, which is HDLC, will be used.

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5.

Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)
- Improper placement of enterprise level servers
- Addition of hosts to a physical segment
- Replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
- Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
- Creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts
- Migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
Correct Answer(s)

A. Improper placement of enterprise level servers
A. Addition of hosts to a physical segment
A. Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications

Explanation

The three factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN are improper placement of enterprise level servers, addition of hosts to a physical segment, and increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications. Improper placement of servers can lead to congestion as it may result in uneven distribution of network traffic. Adding more hosts to a physical segment without considering the capacity can also cause congestion. Similarly, the use of bandwidth intensive applications can consume a significant amount of network resources, leading to congestion.

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6.

A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?
- Client
- Server
- Domain
- Transparent
- Designated
Correct Answer

A. Server

Explanation

In order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain on a Catalyst switch, it must be in the "server" mode. In this mode, the switch can create, modify, and delete VLANs and propagate these changes to other switches in the VTP domain. The "client" mode can only receive and synchronize VLAN information from the server, while the "transparent" mode does not participate in VTP updates. The "domain" and "designated" options are not valid VTP modes.

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7.

What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?
- Hold-down timers
- Poison reverse
- Spanning Tree Protocol
- Time to Live
- Split Horizon Protocol
- Routing Information Protocol
Correct Answer

A. Spanning Tree Protocol

Explanation

The Spanning Tree Protocol creates a loop-free path through a switch network. It does this by identifying and disabling redundant links in the network, ensuring that there is only one active path between any two switches. This prevents the formation of loops, which can cause network congestion and broadcast storms. By using a tree-like structure, the Spanning Tree Protocol allows for efficient and reliable communication within the network.

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8.

Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)
- One broadcast domain
- Three broadcast domains
- Three collision domains
- Five broadcast domains
- Nine collision domains
- Ten collision domains
Correct Answer(s)

A. Three broadcast domains
A. Nine collision domains

Explanation

The network has three broadcast domains because each VLAN represents a separate broadcast domain. The Production VLAN on switch fl-1 and the Development VLAN on switch fl-2 are two separate broadcast domains, and the third broadcast domain is the default VLAN that exists on both switches.

The network has nine collision domains because each port on a switch represents a separate collision domain. There are a total of nine ports on both switches, so there are nine collision domains in the network.

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9.

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem?
- FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20.
- FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20
- VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2.
- Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.
- Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports.
Correct Answer

A. Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports.

Explanation

The problem is most likely that interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports. Trunk ports are used to carry traffic for multiple VLANs, while access ports are used for individual VLANs. Since workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch, it suggests that the VLAN traffic is not being properly carried between the switches. By configuring FA0/1 on both switches as trunk ports, the VLAN traffic will be able to pass between the switches, allowing workstations in VLAN 20 to communicate with each other.

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10.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?
- The management VLAN is VLAN 99.
- The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99.
- The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99.
- The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the 10.99.0.0 network.
Correct Answer

A. The management VLAN is VLAN 99.

Explanation

The output suggests that the management VLAN for the switch is VLAN 99.

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11.

Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type. Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?
- The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.
- The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.
- The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.
- The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
- The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.
Correct Answer

A. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.

Explanation

The error message indicates that the switch SwA received an 802.1Q BPDU on a non-trunk port, specifically FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. This suggests that the port on SwA is configured as a trunk port, capable of carrying multiple VLANs, while the port on SwB is configured as an access port, only allowing traffic from a single VLAN. This inconsistency in port configuration is causing the error message to be generated.

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12.

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?
- Because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99
- Because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN
- Because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch
- Because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface
- Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command
Correct Answer

A. Because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command

Explanation

The VLAN 99 is missing because it has not been manually entered into the VLAN database using the "vlan 99" command. This command is necessary to create and activate VLAN 99 on the switch. Without this command, VLAN 99 will not be recognized or available for use.

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13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration?
- RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q
- RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10
- RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate
- RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q
- RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q
Correct Answer

A. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10

Explanation

The correct answer is "RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10". This command is used to configure the VLAN encapsulation on the router interface Fa 0/1. The "dot1q" keyword indicates that the VLAN encapsulation will be using the IEEE 802.1Q standard, and the "10" specifies the VLAN ID that will be associated with this interface.

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14.

Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem?
- SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port.
- The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs.
- The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20.
- The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN.
- The IP address of computer A is incorrect.
Correct Answer

A. The IP address of computer A is incorrect.

Explanation

The most likely problem is that the IP address of computer A is incorrect. This is because if the IP address is incorrect, it will not be able to communicate with other devices on the network, such as RT_1. The other options mentioned in the question do not directly relate to the issue of computer A being unable to ping RT_1.

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15.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)
- Host B
- Host C
- Host D
- Host E
- Host F
- Host G
Correct Answer(s)

A. Host C
A. Host D
A. Host F

Explanation

Host A will send ARP requests to hosts C, D, and F because they are connected to the same VLAN as Host A. Host B, E, and G are not on the same VLAN as Host A, so they will not receive ARP requests from Host A.

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16.

Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)
- All hosts are in one collision domain
- All hosts are in one broadcast domain.
- A router is required for communication between VLANs.
- The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.
- The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.
Correct Answer(s)

A. A router is required for communication between VLANs.
A. The hosts are in separate broadcast domains.

Explanation

The first explanation for this problem is that a router is required for communication between VLANs. VLANs are designed to separate broadcast domains, and without a router to connect them, communication between VLANs is not possible.
The second explanation is that the hosts are in separate broadcast domains. This is a characteristic of VLANs - they create separate broadcast domains, which means that broadcasts sent by hosts in one VLAN will not be received by hosts in another VLAN.

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17.

. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?
- Vlsm
- Pvst
- 802.1Q
- Rstp
- Vtp
Correct Answer

A. Rstp

Explanation

RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) was developed to decrease the time needed for switch ports to move to the forwarding state in a redundantly switched topology. It improves the convergence time of the spanning tree protocol by reducing the time it takes for a switch to transition from the blocking state to the forwarding state. This helps to minimize network downtime and improve network performance in environments with redundant links.

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18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
- SW1 will become the root bridge.
- SW2 will become the root bridge.
- SW2 will get a port blocked.
- SW4 will get a port blocked.
- SW3 will become the root bridge.
- SW4 will become the root bridge.
Correct Answer(s)

A. SW4 will get a port blocked.
A. SW3 will become the root bridge.

Explanation

SW3 will become the root bridge because it has the lowest bridge ID. SW4 will get a port blocked because it has the second highest bridge ID among the switches.

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19.

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
- Prevents Layer 2 loops
- Prevents routing loops on a router
- Creates smaller collision domains
- Creates smaller broadcast domains
- Allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates
Correct Answer

A. Prevents Layer 2 loops

Explanation

The purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is to prevent Layer 2 loops. Layer 2 loops can occur in a network when there are redundant links between switches, causing broadcast storms and network congestion. STP helps to eliminate these loops by selecting a single, optimal path for data transmission and blocking the redundant paths. This ensures that there is a loop-free topology in the network, improving its stability and performance.

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20.

Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?
- Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
- Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
- Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
- It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.
Correct Answer

A. Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
21.

Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)
- 192.168.14.8
- 192.168.14.16
- 192.168.14.24
- 192.168.14.32
- 192.168.14.148
- 192.168.14.208
Correct Answer(s)

A. 192.168.14.16
A. 192.168.14.32
A. 192.168.14.208

Explanation

When four bits are borrowed to create subnets, it means that the subnet mask has been increased by four bits, resulting in a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. This means that the last four bits of the IP address are used for subnetting. The three addresses that have subnet addresses are the ones where the last four bits are not all zeros or all ones. In this case, the subnet addresses are 192.168.14.16, 192.168.14.32, and 192.168.14.208.

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22.

Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown?
- IPv4
- IPv6
- TCP
- UDP
Correct Answer

A. IPv6

Explanation

The type of header shown in the exhibit is IPv6.

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23.
- Ar
- Er
Correct Answer(s)

A. Ar
A. Er
24.

Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
- 10.78.103.0
- 10.67.32.0
- 10.78.160.0
- 10.178.48.0
- 172.55.96.0
- 172.2.11.100.0
Correct Answer(s)

A. 10.78.103.0
A. 10.178.48.0
A. 172.2.11.100.0
25.

What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?
- A useable host address
- A broadcast address
- A network address
- A multicast address
- A public address
Correct Answer

A. A useable host address

Explanation

The IP address 172.16.134.48/27 is a usable host address. The "/27" indicates that the first 27 bits of the IP address are the network portion, leaving the remaining 5 bits for host addresses. This means that there are 32 possible host addresses in this network. The given IP address falls within this range and can be assigned to a device on the network as a usable host address.

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26.

Which address is a valid IPv6 global unicast address?
- FE90::1::FFFF
- FD80::1::1234
- FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
- FEA0::100::7788:998F
- FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF
Correct Answer

A. FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1
27.

A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements: Network 1 - 500 hosts Network 2 - 100 hosts Network 3 - 1000 hosts Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.252.0
- 255.255.248.0
- 255.255.255.128
- 255.255.255.192
Correct Answer(s)

A. 255.255.254.0
A. 255.255.252.0
A. 255.255.255.128

Explanation

The given answer is correct because it includes three subnet masks that can accommodate the specified number of hosts for each network.

- Network 1 requires a subnet mask that can accommodate 500 hosts, so the subnet mask 255.255.254.0 is suitable as it allows for 512 hosts.
- Network 2 requires a subnet mask that can accommodate 100 hosts, so the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 is suitable as it allows for 1024 hosts.
- Network 3 requires a subnet mask that can accommodate 1000 hosts, so the subnet mask 255.255.255.128 is suitable as it allows for 1022 hosts.

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28.

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
- RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
Correct Answer(s)

A. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
A. RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Explanation

The correct answer is "RouterA(config)# router ospf 1" because this command is used to enable OSPF routing process on the router.

The correct answer is "RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0" because this command is used to advertise the network 192.168.2.0 with a wildcard mask of 0.0.0.255 into OSPF area 0. This command tells the router to include this network in its OSPF routing table and advertise it to other OSPF routers in the same area.

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29.

Wdwd
- W
- D
Correct Answer(s)

A. W
A. D
30.

Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?
- SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
- SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
- SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
- SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
Correct Answer

A. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
31.

A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?
- The IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0
- The OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address
- The loopback interface IP address
- The highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
- The highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces
Correct Answer

A. The loopback interface IP address

Explanation

The router OSPF process uses the IP address of the loopback interface to assign the router ID. The loopback interface is a virtual interface that is always up and available, even if the physical interfaces are down. Assigning the router ID based on the loopback interface IP address ensures that the router ID remains stable and does not change even if there are changes in the physical interfaces or their IP addresses.

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32.

What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?
- Routing table
- Topology table
- DUAL table
- CAM table
- ARP table
Correct Answer

A. Topology table

Explanation

The EIGRP DUAL algorithm uses the topology table to calculate the best route to each destination router. The topology table contains information about all the routers in the network and their respective routes. This table is constantly updated with the latest information about network topology changes. The DUAL algorithm uses this information to determine the best path to each destination based on metrics such as bandwidth, delay, reliability, and load. The routing table, on the other hand, is the table that contains the actual routes that will be used for forwarding packets.

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33.

What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two)
- Link-state advertisements (LSA)
- Spanning Tree Protocol
- Shortest path first tree
- Split horizon
- Hold-down timers
Correct Answer(s)

A. Split horizon
A. Hold-down timers

Explanation

Split horizon and hold-down timers are two measures used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols. Split horizon is a technique where a router does not advertise a route back to the same interface from which it was learned, preventing loops from occurring. Hold-down timers are used to temporarily ignore route updates after a route has been invalidated, preventing incorrect information from being propagated and potential loops from forming. These measures help maintain the stability and efficiency of the routing protocol.

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34.

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?
- R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
- R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
- The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
- R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
- R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.
Correct Answer

A. R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.

Explanation

The most likely problem is that R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network. This is indicated by the fact that when the "show ip ospf neighbor" command is given, no output is shown. OSPF neighbors are formed based on the network statements configured on the routers, and if the network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network is missing, OSPF neighbors will not be established. However, the "show ip interface brief" command shows that all interfaces are up and up, indicating that the physical connections are functioning properly.

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35.

Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?
- ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
- ISP# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s/0/0/0
- ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1
- ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/0
- ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.240 s0/0/1
- ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1
Correct Answer

A. ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1

Explanation

The appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network would be "ISP# ip route 192.135.250.0 255.255.255.248 s0/0/1". This is because it specifies the correct destination network (192.135.250.0) and subnet mask (255.255.255.248) for the XYZ network, and it specifies the correct outgoing interface (s0/0/1) for forwarding the traffic to the XYZ network.

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36.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?
- Application
- Transport
- Network
- Data link
- Physical
Correct Answer

A. Data link

Explanation

The most likely cause of the problem is the data link layer. The data link layer is responsible for the reliable transmission of data between network devices over a physical link. If the routers cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface, it suggests that there may be an issue with the data link layer, such as a problem with the physical connection or with the data link protocols being used.

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37.

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
- They use hop count as their only metric.
- They only send out updates when a new network is added.
- They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
- They flood the entire network with routing updates.
Correct Answer

A. They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

Explanation

Distance vector routing protocols, such as RIP (Routing Information Protocol), operate by sending their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. This means that each router shares information about the networks it knows how to reach with its immediate neighbors. By exchanging this information, routers can build a picture of the entire network and determine the best path to reach each network. The hop count, or the number of routers a packet must pass through, is one of the metrics used by distance vector protocols to determine the best path. However, it is not the only metric, as other factors like link speed or network congestion may also be considered.

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38.

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?
- Router ospf 0
- Router ospf 0
- Router ospf 1
- Router ospf 1
- Router ospf 1
Correct Answer

A. Router ospf 1

Explanation

The correct answer is "router ospf 1". This command is used to configure OSPF on router A with process ID 1. The other commands mentioned in the exhibit are either duplicates or incorrect, as they repeat the same command or use incorrect process IDs.

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39.

Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?
- Passive-interface fastethernet 0/0
- Passive-interface serial 0/0/0
- Access-class 12 out
- Access-class 12 in
Correct Answer

A. Passive-interface serial 0/0/0

Explanation

The correct answer is "passive-interface serial 0/0/0". This command will configure the serial interface 0/0/0 on router B as a passive interface for RIP. A passive interface does not send or receive routing updates. Therefore, by configuring the serial interface as passive, router B will not send routing updates to router A.

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40.

A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?
- D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
- O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0
- R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0
- S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
Correct Answer

A. S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

Explanation

The route that will appear in the routing table for the network 192.168.168.0 is the "S" route. This is because the "S" route has the lowest administrative distance of 1, indicating that it is a static route. The other routes have higher administrative distances, indicating that they are learned through dynamic routing processes.

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41.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)
- The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
- The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
- The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.
- The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates.
- The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers.
Correct Answer(s)

A. The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown.
A. The Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration.

Explanation

Two possible causes for the problem could be that the Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown and that the Popcorn router did not include network 192.168.12.0 in its routing configuration. This means that the administrator is unable to ping the Ethernet1 interface because it is not operational, and the Popcorn router is not aware of the network 192.168.12.0, so it cannot forward any traffic to that network.

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42.

When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?
- When security is an issue
- When user mobility is needed
- When more than one laptop is used in a cubicle
- When electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue
Correct Answer

A. When user mobility is needed

Explanation

A WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network) is a better solution than a LAN (Local Area Network) when user mobility is needed. Unlike a LAN, which requires wired connections, a WLAN allows users to connect to the network wirelessly, enabling them to move freely within the network coverage area. This is particularly beneficial in environments where users need to access the network while on the move, such as in a large office space or a public area. WLANs provide flexibility and convenience for users, making them a better solution when user mobility is a requirement.

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43.

Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?
- 802.11a
- 802.11b
- 802.11g
- 802.11i
- 802.11n
Correct Answer

A. 802.11g

Explanation

802.11g is the correct answer because it is the wireless standard that works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s. This standard was introduced as an improvement over the 802.11b standard, offering faster speeds while still operating in the same frequency range. It is backward compatible with 802.11b devices, making it a popular choice for home and small office networks.

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44.

Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?
- The enable secret command has not been issued yet.
- The enable password command has not been issued yet.
- The password command has not been set for the console port.
- The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet.
Correct Answer

A. The password command has not been set for the console port.

Explanation

The error message "No password set" indicates that a password has not been set for the console port. This means that anyone can access the router's console without authentication, which is a security risk. To resolve this issue, the network administrator should use the password command to set a password for the console port.

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45.
- A
- B
Correct Answer(s)

A. A
A. B
46.

Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
- Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
- The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
- A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
- The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured.
Correct Answer

A. Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.

Explanation

In Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading, multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address. This allows multiple devices with private IP addresses to share a single public IP address when communicating with external networks. This process is commonly used in home and small office networks where there are more devices than available public IP addresses. By mapping multiple private IP addresses to one public IP address, NAT overloading helps conserve the limited number of available public IP addresses.

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47.

Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
- Destination address and wildcard mask
- Source address and wildcard mask
- Subnet mask and wildcard mask
- Access list number between 100 and 199
- Access list number between 1 and 99
Correct Answer(s)

A. Source address and wildcard mask
A. Access list number between 1 and 99

Explanation

When creating a standard access control list, two pieces of information are required. The first is the source address and wildcard mask, which determine the specific source IP addresses that will be affected by the access control list. The second is the access list number between 1 and 99, which identifies the access control list itself and allows it to be referenced and applied to the appropriate interfaces or traffic.

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48.

Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)
- Most
- Host
- All
- Any
- Some
- Gt
Correct Answer(s)

A. Host
A. Any

Explanation

In an access control list, the "host" keyword can be used to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. This keyword is used to specify a single host or IP address. The "any" keyword can also be used to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. This keyword is used to match any IP address or host. Both keywords provide flexibility in specifying access control rules without the need for specific addresses or masks.

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49.

What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?
- They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.
- They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied.
- They should be placed on the fastest interface available.
- They should be placed on the destination WAN link.
Correct Answer

A. They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied.

Explanation

Extended access control lists (ACLs) are used to filter network traffic based on specific criteria. By placing the ACLs as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied, network administrators can prevent unnecessary traffic from entering the network, thus improving overall network performance and reducing the load on other network devices. This placement allows for more efficient filtering and reduces the potential for unwanted traffic to consume network resources.

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Quiz Edited by
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Jun 04, 2011

Quiz Created by
Kapper59

CCNA Practice Certification Exam # 1

What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)

Quiz Preview

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)

What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router: RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0 RtrA(config-if)# ip address 128.107.0.2 255.255.255.252 RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown

Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)

A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain?

What creates a loop-free path through a switch network?

Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.)

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown?

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing?

Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration?

Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of 192.168.20.5 and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem?

Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.)

. Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)

What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?

Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.)

Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown?

Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0, which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.)

What type of IP address is 172.16.134.48/27?

Which address is a valid IPv6 global unicast address?

A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements: Network 1 - 500 hosts Network 2 - 100 hosts Network 3 - 1000 hosts Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.)

A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

Wdwd

Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem?

A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID?

What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router?

What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two)

Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network?

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem?

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF?

Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates?

A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN?

Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem?

Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?

Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists?