What’s Up With CCNA 4, Final Exam - B

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1. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

Explanation

RADIUS and TACACS+ are both protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access users. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that also provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services, with additional features such as command authorization and accounting for network devices. Both protocols are commonly used for secure network access control and management.

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2. What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?

Explanation

A T1 line has a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel in a T1 line has a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. To find the maximum number of DS0 channels, we divide the total bandwidth by the bandwidth of each channel: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24 channels. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.

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3. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands: R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70 What is the effect of these commands?

Explanation

The commands "encapsulation ppp" and "ppp quality 70" are used to configure a PPP link. The "ppp quality 70" command sets the threshold for link quality to 70 percent. If the link quality drops below this threshold, the PPP link will be closed down. Therefore, the effect of these commands is that the PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.

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4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?

Explanation

In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, at least four routers must use External BGP (EBGP). EBGP is used to exchange routing information between routers in different autonomous systems. Therefore, for effective communication and sharing of routing information, four routers using EBGP are required.

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5. Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?

Explanation

The correct answer is a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5. The SNMP manager needs to have the correct host address (192.168.0.5) in order to communicate with the switch ACSw1 and set a parameter. The host address is used to identify and establish a connection between the manager and the device being managed.

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6. Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?

Explanation

Fog computing is the correct answer because it refers to the pillar of the Cisco IoT System that enables data analysis and management at the location where it is generated. Fog computing involves processing and analyzing data at the edge of the network, closer to the source of data generation, rather than sending all the data to a centralized cloud. This allows for real-time analysis, reduced latency, and improved security and privacy. Fog computing is especially useful in IoT applications where data needs to be processed quickly and efficiently at the edge.

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7. Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?

Explanation

Level 0 indicates the highest severity level in IOS log messages. The log level determines the severity of the message, with level 0 being the most critical. This means that level 0 messages represent the most severe issues or events that require immediate attention and action.

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8. A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?

Explanation

A remote access VPN over the Internet would be the best solution for the corporation. It provides an easy and low-cost way for teleworkers to securely connect to headquarters. With a remote access VPN, teleworkers can access the corporate network from any location using the Internet. This eliminates the need for expensive leased lines or dial-up connections. Additionally, a VPN ensures that the connection is secure, protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.

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9. Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?

Explanation

The correct answer is HDLC. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol commonly used by Cisco routers. It is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces on Cisco routers unless otherwise specified. HDLC provides a simple and efficient way to encapsulate data for transmission over serial links.

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10. Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?

Explanation

Traffic shaping is a congestion avoidance technique that is used to control the rate of traffic leaving an egress interface. It regulates the flow of packets by delaying or buffering them, ensuring that the traffic adheres to a certain rate. This helps to prevent congestion and maintain a smooth flow of traffic.

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11. Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?

Explanation

CBWFQ (Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing) is a queuing mechanism that supports user-defined traffic classes. It allows the network administrator to define different traffic classes based on specific criteria such as protocol, source/destination IP address, or port number. Each traffic class can then be assigned a specific amount of bandwidth, ensuring fair treatment and prioritization of different types of traffic. CBWFQ is commonly used in Quality of Service (QoS) implementations to manage and control network traffic effectively.

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12. What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The correct answer is satellite service and telephone company. These two options are types of WAN providers. A satellite service provider uses satellite technology to provide internet connectivity over a wide area network. A telephone company, on the other hand, offers WAN services through their telecommunications infrastructure, such as DSL or fiber optic connections. Both of these providers offer wide area network services to connect users across large distances.

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13. The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is ______

Explanation

The given IP address 128.165.216.0/23 has a subnet mask of /23, which means the first 23 bits are network bits and the remaining 9 bits are host bits. The wildcard mask is the inverse of the subnet mask, so the network bits remain unchanged and the host bits are flipped. In this case, the host bits are 9 bits, so the wildcard mask would be 0.0.1.255, as it represents the 9 host bits being flipped to 1s while the network bits remain as 0s.

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14. What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three core components in the Cisco IoT system are fog computing, data analytics, and cyber and physical security. Fog computing refers to the decentralized computing infrastructure that extends cloud capabilities to the edge of the network, enabling real-time data processing and analysis. Data analytics involves the use of advanced algorithms and tools to extract insights and patterns from large volumes of data generated by IoT devices. Cyber and physical security focuses on protecting IoT devices, networks, and data from unauthorized access, breaches, and attacks.

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15. How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?

Explanation

Virtualization helps with disaster recovery within a data center by allowing for flexibility in hardware requirements. In traditional disaster recovery scenarios, identical hardware is typically required for the recovery process. However, with virtualization, the need for identical hardware is eliminated. Virtual machines can be easily migrated and run on different hardware, making it easier and faster to recover from a disaster without the need for specific hardware configurations. This flexibility reduces downtime and allows for more efficient disaster recovery processes.

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16. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

Explanation

When a company's employees are spread out across multiple branch locations, it becomes necessary to implement a corporate WAN (Wide Area Network). A WAN allows for the interconnection of these geographically dispersed locations, providing a secure and reliable network infrastructure for communication and data transfer between the branches. This ensures that employees can access necessary resources and collaborate effectively regardless of their physical location.

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17. What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)

Explanation

SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication as two features to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted between the SNMP manager and agent is secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized users. Authentication ensures that the identity of the SNMP manager or agent is verified, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the integrity of the data being exchanged. These two features enhance the security of SNMPv3 and address the vulnerabilities present in previous versions.

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18. Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?

Explanation

LLQ (Low Latency Queuing) is a QoS (Quality of Service) mechanism that allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent. LLQ provides priority queuing and ensures that delay-sensitive traffic is given preferential treatment by assigning it to a separate queue with a higher priority. This allows for better performance and reduced latency for real-time applications like voice or video.

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19. What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?

Explanation

A QoS trust boundary is used to determine which devices within a network trust the marking on packets that enter the network. This means that the trust boundary helps identify the devices that will prioritize or treat the packets based on their markings, ensuring that the quality of service (QoS) requirements are met. It helps in maintaining consistency and reliability in the network by ensuring that only trusted devices are involved in the QoS decision-making process.

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20. A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?

Explanation

The technician is using the divide-and-conquer troubleshooting method. This method involves breaking down a complex problem into smaller, more manageable parts and addressing them one by one. By asking the user to enter the IP address of the web server, the technician is attempting to isolate the issue and determine if it is related to the URL or the server itself. This approach helps to narrow down the possible causes of the problem and find a solution more efficiently.

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21. Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?

Explanation

The administrator can manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5 to the existing ACL. This will ensure that the deny rule for packets from host 172.16.0.1 is applied before the existing permit rule for the 172.16.0.0 network. By specifying a lower sequence number for the new deny ACE, it will be processed first, effectively blocking packets from the specified host while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network.

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22. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

Explanation

The correct answer is "permit icmp any any nd-na". In an IPv6 multirouter environment, routers use Neighbor Discovery (ND) to discover and communicate with each other. The "nd-na" in the answer stands for Neighbor Advertisement, which is an ICMPv6 message used in the ND process. By allowing this ICMP message in the ACL, the routers can discover and communicate with each other effectively. The other options do not specifically address the Neighbor Discovery process and its ICMP messages.

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23. What is an example of cloud computing?

Explanation

Cloud computing refers to the practice of accessing and utilizing shared resources, such as storage, servers, and software applications, through the internet on an on-demand basis. This allows users to avoid the need for physical infrastructure and instead rely on remote servers and networks to store and process data. This model offers scalability, flexibility, and cost efficiency, making it a popular choice for businesses and individuals.

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24. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Public infrastructure and cellular networks would meet the requirements of providing constant Internet connectivity to users traveling on intercity buses. Public infrastructure refers to using the existing public network infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide connectivity. Cellular networks, on the other hand, utilize mobile communication technology to provide wireless connectivity. Both options would ensure that users can access the Internet while on the bus, regardless of their location or distance from a fixed network connection.

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25. What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?

Explanation

The routing table of stub router R1 would include a default route (0.0.0.0/0) pointing to Dialer1, indicating that any traffic with no specific destination should be sent through the PPPoE connection. Additionally, it would include the subnet 192.168.1.0/32, which is directly connected to Dialer1, with two subnets (192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2) also directly connected to Dialer1. This indicates that the router has a direct connection to the ISP via Dialer1 and the specific subnets within 192.168.1.0/32.

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26. What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?

Explanation

ATM is less efficient compared to Frame Relay. This is because ATM uses fixed-size cells for data transmission, regardless of the amount of data being sent. This can result in wasted bandwidth when transmitting small amounts of data. In contrast, Frame Relay uses variable-length packets, allowing for more efficient use of bandwidth as packets can be sized according to the amount of data being transmitted. Therefore, the use of fixed-size cells in ATM makes it less efficient than Frame Relay.

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27. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully." This means that both the initial establishment of the PPP link and the subsequent network-layer connection were successful.

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28. What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?

Explanation

Port security is an effective security countermeasure for preventing CAM table overflow attacks. This feature allows network administrators to limit the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a specific switch port. By configuring port security, any attempt to exceed the specified limit will result in the port being shut down or the offending MAC address being blocked. This prevents an attacker from flooding the CAM table with a large number of fake MAC addresses, thereby mitigating the risk of CAM table overflow attacks.

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29. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

Explanation

PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) is the correct answer. PPPoE is a protocol that allows ISPs to send PPP frames over DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) networks. It is commonly used in DSL connections to establish a point-to-point connection between the user's computer and the ISP's network. PPPoE encapsulates PPP frames within Ethernet frames, allowing for the transmission of data over Ethernet-based networks such as DSL.

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30. Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?

Explanation

Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers. This symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer because it indicates a problem with the establishment of a neighbor relationship between routers. In a network, routers form neighbor adjacencies with each other to exchange routing information. If some routers are able to form neighbor adjacencies while others cannot, it suggests a potential issue with network connectivity or configuration at the network layer.

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31. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

Explanation

Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured. A default gateway is the IP address of the router interface that connects to the local network. It is used by the host to send packets to destinations outside of its own network. In this case, since H1 does not have a default gateway configured, it cannot send packets to destinations outside of its own network, which includes H4 and H5. Therefore, H1 is unable to successfully ping H4 and H5.

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32. Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?

Explanation

SNMP trap messages provide a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling. SNMP polling involves the management system continuously sending requests to the managed devices to gather information. This can result in a high amount of network traffic and resource utilization. SNMP trap messages, on the other hand, allow the managed devices to proactively send notifications to the management system when certain events occur. This reduces the need for constant polling and improves efficiency by only sending information when necessary.

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33. Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?

Explanation

The Priority field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for Quality of Service (QoS) treatment. This field allows for the prioritization of different types of traffic, ensuring that high-priority traffic receives preferential treatment in terms of bandwidth allocation and network resources. By marking frames with different priority levels, network administrators can enforce QoS policies and ensure that critical or time-sensitive data is given higher priority over less important traffic.

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34. Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?

Explanation

A Type 1 hypervisor is a bare-metal hypervisor that runs directly on the host hardware, without the need for a host operating system. It is responsible for managing and allocating the physical resources of the host machine to multiple virtual machines. A management console is required to control and monitor the virtual machines, configure network settings, and perform administrative tasks. Therefore, a management console is a necessary resource for a Type 1 hypervisor.

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35. A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?

Explanation

If the configuration change did not solve the problem, the technician should restore the previous configuration. This is because the change made might have caused further issues or was not the correct solution to the problem. By reverting back to the previous configuration, the technician can eliminate the possibility of the change being the cause of the problem and then proceed to gather symptoms and isolate the problem to find the appropriate corrective action.

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36. Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?

Explanation

MPLS (Multi-Protocol Label Switching) is a WAN (Wide Area Network) solution that uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network. MPLS creates a virtual network overlay on top of the existing physical network infrastructure, allowing for efficient routing and forwarding of data packets based on labels. This enables faster and more reliable data transmission, as well as better network management and quality of service.

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37. What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

Explanation

An attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack in order to see frames that are destined for other hosts. This type of attack allows the attacker to intercept and view network traffic that is intended for other devices on the network. By overflowing the MAC address table of a switch, the attacker can trick the switch into sending frames to their own device, giving them access to sensitive information or the ability to monitor network activity.

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38. Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?

Explanation

Cable broadband is the appropriate solution for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance. Cable broadband uses coaxial cables to provide high-speed internet access, and unlike DSL or ADSL, it is not limited by the distance between the user's home and the service provider's central office. WiMax, on the other hand, is a wireless broadband solution that may not provide the same level of reliability and speed as a wired connection.

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39. What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?

Explanation

The primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature is to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible. This feature allows network administrators to monitor the performance of their network and identify any issues or failures that may occur. By measuring various performance metrics, such as latency, packet loss, and jitter, administrators can proactively detect and address any network problems before they cause significant disruptions. This helps ensure that the network operates efficiently and provides a reliable and high-quality experience for users.

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40. When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?

Explanation

Community strings are used in SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 to provide secure access to MIB objects. A community string is essentially a password that is shared between the SNMP manager and the SNMP agent. It is used to authenticate and authorize the SNMP manager to access and manipulate MIB objects on the SNMP agent. By using community strings, only authorized users with the correct community string can access and modify MIB objects, ensuring secure access to the network devices.

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41. Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Broadband modems and CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) are two types of devices that are specific to WAN (Wide Area Network) environments and are not typically found on a LAN (Local Area Network). A broadband modem is used to connect to the internet through a service provider, while a CSU/DSU is used to convert digital data from a router into a format that can be transmitted over a WAN connection. These devices play a crucial role in establishing and maintaining connectivity in WAN environments.

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42. What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?

Explanation

Dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology allows bidirectional communications over a single strand of fiber. This means that both upstream and downstream data can be transmitted simultaneously on the same fiber, maximizing the utilization of the available bandwidth. This feature is particularly beneficial in telecommunications networks where efficient use of fiber infrastructure is crucial.

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43. What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?

Explanation

A DSLAM (Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer) is a device that is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers. DSLAMs are responsible for receiving and transmitting data between the customer's premises and the service provider's network. They allow multiple DSL connections to be combined and connected to the service provider's backbone network, enabling efficient and high-speed internet access for multiple customers.

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44. What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?

Explanation

The "show ppp multilink" command on a Cisco router will display the serial interfaces that are participating in the multilink. This command provides information about the configuration and status of the multilink bundle, including the interfaces that are bundled together to form the multilink. It does not display the link LCP and NCP status, queuing type on the link, or the IP addresses of the link interfaces.

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45. In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?

Explanation

In software defined network architecture, the function that is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller is the control plane. The control plane is responsible for making decisions about how data is forwarded in the network, such as routing and switching decisions. By moving this function to a centralized controller, network devices can focus solely on forwarding data packets, resulting in a more efficient and flexible network.

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46. Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?

Explanation

A central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption would support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling. Generic routing encapsulation (GRE) is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols inside virtual point-to-point links. In this scenario, the central site would establish a GRE tunnel with the SOHO site, allowing for the transmission of network layer protocols between the two sites without the need for encryption.

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47. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

Explanation

When creating an extended access control list entry, three values or sets of values that are included are: access list number between 100 and 199, destination address and wildcard mask, and source address and wildcard mask. The access list number determines the specific access control list that the entry belongs to. The destination address and wildcard mask specify the destination IP address or range of addresses that the entry applies to. Similarly, the source address and wildcard mask specify the source IP address or range of addresses that the entry applies to.

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48. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

Explanation

Based on the output, it can be concluded that there is connectivity between the device in question and the device at 192.168.100.1 because there is a successful reply from that IP address. Additionally, the output shows that there are 4 hops between the device in question and the device at 192.168.100.1, as indicated by the "4 packets transmitted, 4 received" message. Therefore, the two correct statements about network connectivity are that there is connectivity between the two devices and there are 4 hops between them.

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49. Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?

Explanation

Standard IPv4 ACLs are configured in the interface configuration mode. They can be created with a number but not with a name. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only, not considering the source ports.

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50. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

Explanation

The three implicit access control entries that are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL are "deny ipv6 any any", "permit icmp any any nd-ns", and "permit icmp any any nd-na". These entries are added by default to ensure that all IPv6 traffic is denied, except for ICMP Neighbor Discovery messages, which are necessary for the proper functioning of IPv6 networks.

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51. Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)
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52. What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?

Explanation

A benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) network design is that it will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one. This means that remote peers can easily establish connections with the DMVPN network without the need for manual configuration of IP addresses. The mapping database allows for efficient and dynamic routing of traffic between the remote peers and the DMVPN network, enhancing connectivity and simplifying network management.

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53. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)CHAP CHARACTERISTICS

Explanation

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54. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The first command "access-class 5 in" is used to apply an access control list (ACL) to incoming traffic on the interface. This will ensure that only devices specified in the ACL will be allowed Telnet access to the routers.

The second command "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31" creates an ACL entry that permits traffic from the network 10.7.0.0/27. The wildcard mask 0.0.0.31 allows for a range of IP addresses from 10.7.0.0 to 10.7.0.31.

By using these two commands together, the ACL will only allow Telnet access to the routers from devices within the specified network range.

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55. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)PAP CHARACTERISTICS

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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56. Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)

Explanation

The NCP (Network Control Protocol) is responsible for bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down during a PPP connection. It is also responsible for negotiating options for the IP protocol. These functions allow for the establishment and termination of the network layer protocols and the negotiation of options specific to the IP protocol. The other options mentioned in the question are not functions performed by the NCP during a PPP connection.

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What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA...
What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?
A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:...
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP...
Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order...
Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and...
Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?
A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to...
Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used...
Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface...
Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?
What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)
The wildcard mask that is associated with 128.165.216.0/23 is ______
What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system?...
How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data...
Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement...
What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of...
Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be...
What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?
A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a...
Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all...
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter...
What is an example of cloud computing?
An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity...
What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub...
What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP...
What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table...
What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames...
Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?
Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface...
Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of...
Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?
Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?
A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in...
Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets...
What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC...
Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a...
What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level...
When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure...
Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are...
What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM)...
What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital...
What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues...
In software defined network architecture, what function is removed...
Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of...
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an...
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements...
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to...
Match the term to the description. (Not all options are used.)
What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network...
Match the characteristic to the appropriate...
The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on...
Match the characteristic to the appropriate...
Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection?...
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