What’s Up With CCNA 4, Final Exam - B
The quiz below is CCNA 4, Final Exam – B and it is just like its predecessor. It has the most up to date question and style for the CCNA exams give it a shot and see if you stand a chance of failing come exam time. All the best and believe in your preparation.
- 1.
Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?
- A.
When its employees become distributed across many branch locations
- B.
When the network will span multiple buildings
- C.
When the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN
- D.
When the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN
Correct Answer
A. When its employees become distributed across many branch locationsExplanation
When a company's employees are spread out across multiple branch locations, it becomes necessary to implement a corporate WAN (Wide Area Network). A WAN allows for the interconnection of these geographically dispersed locations, providing a secure and reliable network infrastructure for communication and data transfer between the branches. This ensures that employees can access necessary resources and collaborate effectively regardless of their physical location.Rate this question:
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- 2.
What are two types of WAN providers? (Choose two.)
- A.
DNS servers
- B.
Satellite service
- C.
web hosting service
- D.
Telephone company
- E.
Internet search engine service
- F.
Internet search engine service
Correct Answer(s)
B. Satellite service
D. Telephone companyExplanation
The correct answer is satellite service and telephone company. These two options are types of WAN providers. A satellite service provider uses satellite technology to provide internet connectivity over a wide area network. A telephone company, on the other hand, offers WAN services through their telecommunications infrastructure, such as DSL or fiber optic connections. Both of these providers offer wide area network services to connect users across large distances.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which two types of devices are specific to WAN environments and are not found on a LAN? (Choose two.)
- A.
Access layer switch
- B.
Broadband modem
- C.
Core switch
- D.
CSU/DSU
- E.
Distribution layer router
Correct Answer(s)
B. Broadband modem
D. CSU/DSUExplanation
Broadband modems and CSU/DSU (Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit) are two types of devices that are specific to WAN (Wide Area Network) environments and are not typically found on a LAN (Local Area Network). A broadband modem is used to connect to the internet through a service provider, while a CSU/DSU is used to convert digital data from a router into a format that can be transmitted over a WAN connection. These devices play a crucial role in establishing and maintaining connectivity in WAN environments.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What is a feature of dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology?
- A.
It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.
- B.
It replaces SONET and SDH technologies.
- C.
It provides Layer 3 support for long distance data communications.
- D.
It provides a 10 Gb/s multiplexed signal over analog copper telephone lines.
Correct Answer
A. It enables bidirectional communications over one strand of fiber.Explanation
Dense wavelength-division multiplexing (DWDM) technology allows bidirectional communications over a single strand of fiber. This means that both upstream and downstream data can be transmitted simultaneously on the same fiber, maximizing the utilization of the available bandwidth. This feature is particularly beneficial in telecommunications networks where efficient use of fiber infrastructure is crucial.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What is a disadvantage of ATM compared to Frame Relay?
- A.
Less efficient
- B.
Lacks SVC support
- C.
Does not scale well to provide high speed WAN connections
- D.
Requires multiple interfaces on the edge router to support multiple VCs
Correct Answer
A. Less efficientExplanation
ATM is less efficient compared to Frame Relay. This is because ATM uses fixed-size cells for data transmission, regardless of the amount of data being sent. This can result in wasted bandwidth when transmitting small amounts of data. In contrast, Frame Relay uses variable-length packets, allowing for more efficient use of bandwidth as packets can be sized according to the amount of data being transmitted. Therefore, the use of fixed-size cells in ATM makes it less efficient than Frame Relay.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which WAN solution uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network?
- A.
Cable
- B.
DSL
- C.
Frame Relay
- D.
MPLS
- E.
VSAT
Correct Answer
D. MPLSExplanation
MPLS (Multi-Protocol Label Switching) is a WAN (Wide Area Network) solution that uses labels to identify the path in sending packets through a provider network. MPLS creates a virtual network overlay on top of the existing physical network infrastructure, allowing for efficient routing and forwarding of data packets based on labels. This enables faster and more reliable data transmission, as well as better network management and quality of service.Rate this question:
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- 7.
An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
- A.
Private infrastructure
- B.
Public infrastructure
- C.
Dedicated
- D.
Circuit-switched
- E.
Cellular
Correct Answer(s)
B. Public infrastructure
E. CellularExplanation
Public infrastructure and cellular networks would meet the requirements of providing constant Internet connectivity to users traveling on intercity buses. Public infrastructure refers to using the existing public network infrastructure, such as the Internet, to provide connectivity. Cellular networks, on the other hand, utilize mobile communication technology to provide wireless connectivity. Both options would ensure that users can access the Internet while on the bus, regardless of their location or distance from a fixed network connection.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What device is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers?
- A.
CMTS
- B.
DSLAM
- C.
CSU/DSU
- D.
Access server
Correct Answer
B. DSLAMExplanation
A DSLAM (Digital Subscriber Line Access Multiplexer) is a device that is needed at a central office to aggregate many digital subscriber lines from customers. DSLAMs are responsible for receiving and transmitting data between the customer's premises and the service provider's network. They allow multiple DSL connections to be combined and connected to the service provider's backbone network, enabling efficient and high-speed internet access for multiple customers.Rate this question:
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- 9.
A corporation is searching for an easy and low cost solution to provide teleworkers with a secure connection to headquarters. Which solution should be selected?
- A.
Dial-up connection
- B.
Leased line connection
- C.
Site-to-site VPN over the Internet
- D.
Remote access VPN over the Internet
Correct Answer
D. Remote access VPN over the InternetExplanation
A remote access VPN over the Internet would be the best solution for the corporation. It provides an easy and low-cost way for teleworkers to securely connect to headquarters. With a remote access VPN, teleworkers can access the corporate network from any location using the Internet. This eliminates the need for expensive leased lines or dial-up connections. Additionally, a VPN ensures that the connection is secure, protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the maximum number of DS0 channels in a 1.544 Mbps T1 line?
- A.
2
- B.
12
- C.
24
- D.
28
Correct Answer
C. 24Explanation
A T1 line has a total bandwidth of 1.544 Mbps. Each DS0 channel in a T1 line has a bandwidth of 64 Kbps. To find the maximum number of DS0 channels, we divide the total bandwidth by the bandwidth of each channel: 1.544 Mbps / 64 Kbps = 24 channels. Therefore, the correct answer is 24.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for RtrA connection D if it is left to the default and the router is a Cisco router?
- A.
Ethernet
- B.
Frame Relay
- C.
HDLC
- D.
PPP
Correct Answer
C. HDLCExplanation
The correct answer is HDLC. HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control) is a Layer 2 encapsulation protocol commonly used by Cisco routers. It is the default encapsulation type for serial interfaces on Cisco routers unless otherwise specified. HDLC provides a simple and efficient way to encapsulate data for transmission over serial links.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Which two functions are provided by the NCP during a PPP connection? (Choose two.)
- A.
Identifying fault conditions for the PPP link
- B.
Providing multilink capabilities over the PPP link
- C.
Bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down
- D.
Enhancing security by providing callback over PPP
- E.
Negotiating options for the IP protocol
- F.
Managing authentication of the peer routers of the PPP link
Correct Answer(s)
C. Bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down
E. Negotiating options for the IP protocolExplanation
The NCP (Network Control Protocol) is responsible for bringing the network layer protocol or protocols up and down during a PPP connection. It is also responsible for negotiating options for the IP protocol. These functions allow for the establishment and termination of the network layer protocols and the negotiation of options specific to the IP protocol. The other options mentioned in the question are not functions performed by the NCP during a PPP connection.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What PPP information will be displayed if a network engineer issues the show ppp multilink command on Cisco router?
- A.
The link LCP and NCP status
- B.
The queuing type on the link
- C.
The IP addresses of the link interfaces
- D.
The serial interfaces participating in the multilink
Correct Answer
D. The serial interfaces participating in the multilinkExplanation
The "show ppp multilink" command on a Cisco router will display the serial interfaces that are participating in the multilink. This command provides information about the configuration and status of the multilink bundle, including the interfaces that are bundled together to form the multilink. It does not display the link LCP and NCP status, queuing type on the link, or the IP addresses of the link interfaces.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection?
- A.
Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
- B.
Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
- C.
Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully.
- D.
Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.
Correct Answer
D. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully.Explanation
The correct answer is "Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully." This means that both the initial establishment of the PPP link and the subsequent network-layer connection were successful.Rate this question:
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- 15.
A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70What is the effect of these commands?
- A.
The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.
- B.
The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.
- C.
The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.
- D.
The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.
Correct Answer
A. The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.Explanation
The commands "encapsulation ppp" and "ppp quality 70" are used to configure a PPP link. The "ppp quality 70" command sets the threshold for link quality to 70 percent. If the link quality drops below this threshold, the PPP link will be closed down. Therefore, the effect of these commands is that the PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.Rate this question:
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- 16.
How does virtualization help with disaster recovery within a data center?
- A.
Power is always provided.
- B.
Less energy is consumed.
- C.
Server provisioning is faster.
- D.
Hardware does not have to be identical.
Correct Answer
D. Hardware does not have to be identical.Explanation
Virtualization helps with disaster recovery within a data center by allowing for flexibility in hardware requirements. In traditional disaster recovery scenarios, identical hardware is typically required for the recovery process. However, with virtualization, the need for identical hardware is eliminated. Virtual machines can be easily migrated and run on different hardware, making it easier and faster to recover from a disaster without the need for specific hardware configurations. This flexibility reduces downtime and allows for more efficient disaster recovery processes.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which broadband solution is appropriate for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance?
- A.
Cable
- B.
DSL
- C.
WiMax
- D.
ADSL
Correct Answer
A. CableExplanation
Cable broadband is the appropriate solution for a home user who needs a wired connection not limited by distance. Cable broadband uses coaxial cables to provide high-speed internet access, and unlike DSL or ADSL, it is not limited by the distance between the user's home and the service provider's central office. WiMax, on the other hand, is a wireless broadband solution that may not provide the same level of reliability and speed as a wired connection.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?
- A.
PPPoE
- B.
CHAP
- C.
ADSL
- D.
LTE
Correct Answer
A. PPPoEExplanation
PPPoE (Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet) is the correct answer. PPPoE is a protocol that allows ISPs to send PPP frames over DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) networks. It is commonly used in DSL connections to establish a point-to-point connection between the user's computer and the ISP's network. PPPoE encapsulates PPP frames within Ethernet frames, allowing for the transmission of data over Ethernet-based networks such as DSL.Rate this question:
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- 19.
In software defined network architecture, what function is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller?
- A.
Control plane
- B.
Data plane
- C.
Security
- D.
Application policies
Correct Answer
A. Control planeExplanation
In software defined network architecture, the function that is removed from network devices and performed by an SDN controller is the control plane. The control plane is responsible for making decisions about how data is forwarded in the network, such as routing and switching decisions. By moving this function to a centralized controller, network devices can focus solely on forwarding data packets, resulting in a more efficient and flexible network.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What would a network administrator expect the routing table of stub router R1 to look like if connectivity to the ISP was established via a PPPoE configuration?
- A.
192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnettedC 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer2
- B.
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1
- C.
192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnettedC 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer
- D.
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnettedC 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1
Correct Answer
D. S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Dialer1 192.168.1.0/32 is subnetted, 2 subnettedC 192.168.1.1 is directly connected, Dialer1C 192.168.1.2 is directly connected, Dialer1Explanation
The routing table of stub router R1 would include a default route (0.0.0.0/0) pointing to Dialer1, indicating that any traffic with no specific destination should be sent through the PPPoE connection. Additionally, it would include the subnet 192.168.1.0/32, which is directly connected to Dialer1, with two subnets (192.168.1.1 and 192.168.1.2) also directly connected to Dialer1. This indicates that the router has a direct connection to the ISP via Dialer1 and the specific subnets within 192.168.1.0/32.Rate this question:
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- 21.
What is a benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN network design?
- A.
A DMVPN will use an encrypted session and does not require IPsec.
- B.
A DMVPN uses a Layer 3 protocol, NHRP, to dynamically establish tunnels.
- C.
A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.
- D.
A DMVPN uses mGRE to create multiple GRE interfaces that each support a single VPN tunnel.
Correct Answer
C. A DMVPN will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one.Explanation
A benefit of implementing a Dynamic Multipoint VPN (DMVPN) network design is that it will support remote peers by providing a mapping database of public IP addresses to each one. This means that remote peers can easily establish connections with the DMVPN network without the need for manual configuration of IP addresses. The mapping database allows for efficient and dynamic routing of traffic between the remote peers and the DMVPN network, enhancing connectivity and simplifying network management.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Which remote access implementation scenario will support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling?
- A.
A mobile user who connects to a router at a central site
- B.
A branch office that connects securely to a central site
- C.
A mobile user who connects to a SOHO site
- D.
a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption
Correct Answer
D. a central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryptionExplanation
A central site that connects to a SOHO site without encryption would support the use of generic routing encapsulation tunneling. Generic routing encapsulation (GRE) is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols inside virtual point-to-point links. In this scenario, the central site would establish a GRE tunnel with the SOHO site, allowing for the transmission of network layer protocols between the two sites without the need for encryption.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Refer to the exhibit. All routers are successfully running the BGP routing protocol. How many routers must use EBGP in order to share routing information across the autonomous systems?
- A.
2
- B.
3
- C.
4
- D.
5
Correct Answer
C. 4Explanation
In order to share routing information across autonomous systems, at least four routers must use External BGP (EBGP). EBGP is used to exchange routing information between routers in different autonomous systems. Therefore, for effective communication and sharing of routing information, four routers using EBGP are required.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
- A.
They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
- B.
They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
- C.
They can be created with a number but not with a name.
- D.
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.
Correct Answer
B. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.Explanation
Standard IPv4 ACLs are configured in the interface configuration mode. They can be created with a number but not with a name. They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only, not considering the source ports.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
- A.
Access list number between 1 and 99
- B.
Access list number between 100 and 199
- C.
Default gateway address and wildcard mask
- D.
Destination address and wildcard mask
- E.
Source address and wildcard mask
- F.
Source subnet mask and wildcard mask
- G.
Destination subnet mask and wildcard mask
Correct Answer(s)
B. Access list number between 100 and 199
D. Destination address and wildcard mask
E. Source address and wildcard maskExplanation
When creating an extended access control list entry, three values or sets of values that are included are: access list number between 100 and 199, destination address and wildcard mask, and source address and wildcard mask. The access list number determines the specific access control list that the entry belongs to. The destination address and wildcard mask specify the destination IP address or range of addresses that the entry applies to. Similarly, the source address and wildcard mask specify the source IP address or range of addresses that the entry applies to.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?
- A.
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
- B.
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
- C.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
- D.
Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.
Correct Answer
A. Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.Explanation
The administrator can manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5 to the existing ACL. This will ensure that the deny rule for packets from host 172.16.0.1 is applied before the existing permit rule for the 172.16.0.0 network. By specifying a lower sequence number for the new deny ACE, it will be processed first, effectively blocking packets from the specified host while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)
- A.
deny ip any any
- B.
Deny ipv6 any any
- C.
Permit ipv6 any any
- D.
Deny icmp any any
- E.
Permit icmp any any nd-ns
- F.
Permit icmp any any nd-na
Correct Answer(s)
B. Deny ipv6 any any
E. Permit icmp any any nd-ns
F. Permit icmp any any nd-naExplanation
The three implicit access control entries that are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL are "deny ipv6 any any", "permit icmp any any nd-ns", and "permit icmp any any nd-na". These entries are added by default to ensure that all IPv6 traffic is denied, except for ICMP Neighbor Discovery messages, which are necessary for the proper functioning of IPv6 networks.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
- A.
Access-class 5 in
- B.
Access-list 5 deny any
- C.
Access-list standard VTYpermit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
- D.
Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
- E.
Ip access-group 5 out
- F.
Ip access-group 5 in
Correct Answer(s)
A. Access-class 5 in
D. Access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31Explanation
The first command "access-class 5 in" is used to apply an access control list (ACL) to incoming traffic on the interface. This will ensure that only devices specified in the ACL will be allowed Telnet access to the routers.
The second command "access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31" creates an ACL entry that permits traffic from the network 10.7.0.0/27. The wildcard mask 0.0.0.31 allows for a range of IP addresses from 10.7.0.0 to 10.7.0.31.
By using these two commands together, the ACL will only allow Telnet access to the routers from devices within the specified network range.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
- A.
Permit ip any any
- B.
Permit ip any host ip_address
- C.
Permit icmp any any nd-na
- D.
Deny ip any any
Correct Answer
C. Permit icmp any any nd-naExplanation
The correct answer is "permit icmp any any nd-na". In an IPv6 multirouter environment, routers use Neighbor Discovery (ND) to discover and communicate with each other. The "nd-na" in the answer stands for Neighbor Advertisement, which is an ICMPv6 message used in the ND process. By allowing this ICMP message in the ACL, the routers can discover and communicate with each other effectively. The other options do not specifically address the Neighbor Discovery process and its ICMP messages.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What are three of the six core components in the Cisco IoT system? (Choose three.)
- A.
Fog computing
- B.
Wearable technologies
- C.
Data analytics
- D.
Robot guides
- E.
Cyber and physical security
- F.
Smart bandages
Correct Answer(s)
A. Fog computing
C. Data analytics
E. Cyber and physical securityExplanation
The three core components in the Cisco IoT system are fog computing, data analytics, and cyber and physical security. Fog computing refers to the decentralized computing infrastructure that extends cloud capabilities to the edge of the network, enabling real-time data processing and analysis. Data analytics involves the use of advanced algorithms and tools to extract insights and patterns from large volumes of data generated by IoT devices. Cyber and physical security focuses on protecting IoT devices, networks, and data from unauthorized access, breaches, and attacks.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?
- A.
So that the switch stops forwarding traffic
- B.
So that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address
- C.
So that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts
- D.
So that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch
Correct Answer
C. So that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hostsExplanation
An attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack in order to see frames that are destined for other hosts. This type of attack allows the attacker to intercept and view network traffic that is intended for other devices on the network. By overflowing the MAC address table of a switch, the attacker can trick the switch into sending frames to their own device, giving them access to sensitive information or the ability to monitor network activity.Rate this question:
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- 32.
What security countermeasure is effective for preventing CAM table overflow attacks?
- A.
Port security
- B.
DHCP snooping
- C.
IP source guard
- D.
Dynamic ARP Inspection
Correct Answer
A. Port securityExplanation
Port security is an effective security countermeasure for preventing CAM table overflow attacks. This feature allows network administrators to limit the number of MAC addresses that can be learned on a specific switch port. By configuring port security, any attempt to exceed the specified limit will result in the port being shut down or the offending MAC address being blocked. This prevents an attacker from flooding the CAM table with a large number of fake MAC addresses, thereby mitigating the risk of CAM table overflow attacks.Rate this question:
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- 33.
What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)
- A.
VTP
- B.
LLDP
- C.
HSRP
- D.
RADIUS
- E.
TACACS+
Correct Answer(s)
D. RADIUS
E. TACACS+Explanation
RADIUS and TACACS+ are both protocols supported on Cisco devices for AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) communications. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a widely used protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access users. TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that also provides authentication, authorization, and accounting services, with additional features such as command authorization and accounting for network devices. Both protocols are commonly used for secure network access control and management.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Which SNMP feature provides a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling?
- A.
SNMP trap messages
- B.
SNMP set messages
- C.
SNMP get messages
- D.
SNMP community strings
Correct Answer
A. SNMP trap messagesExplanation
SNMP trap messages provide a solution to the main disadvantage of SNMP polling. SNMP polling involves the management system continuously sending requests to the managed devices to gather information. This can result in a high amount of network traffic and resource utilization. SNMP trap messages, on the other hand, allow the managed devices to proactively send notifications to the management system when certain events occur. This reduces the need for constant polling and improves efficiency by only sending information when necessary.Rate this question:
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- 35.
When SNMPv1 or SNMPv2 is being used, which feature provides secure access to MIB objects?
- A.
Packet encryption
- B.
Message integrity
- C.
Community strings
- D.
source validation
Correct Answer
C. Community stringsExplanation
Community strings are used in SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 to provide secure access to MIB objects. A community string is essentially a password that is shared between the SNMP manager and the SNMP agent. It is used to authenticate and authorize the SNMP manager to access and manipulate MIB objects on the SNMP agent. By using community strings, only authorized users with the correct community string can access and modify MIB objects, ensuring secure access to the network devices.Rate this question:
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- 36.
What two features are added in SNMPv3 to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP? (Choose two.)
- A.
Bulk MIB objects retrieval
- B.
encryption
- C.
Authorization with community string priority
- D.
Authentication
- E.
ACL management filtering
Correct Answer(s)
B. encryption
D. AuthenticationExplanation
SNMPv3 added encryption and authentication as two features to address the weaknesses of previous versions of SNMP. Encryption ensures that the data transmitted between the SNMP manager and agent is secure and cannot be accessed by unauthorized users. Authentication ensures that the identity of the SNMP manager or agent is verified, preventing unauthorized access and ensuring the integrity of the data being exchanged. These two features enhance the security of SNMPv3 and address the vulnerabilities present in previous versions.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Refer to the exhibit. What feature does an SNMP manager need in order to be able to set a parameter on switch ACSw1?
- A.
A manager who is using an SNMP string of K44p0ut
- B.
A manager who is using an Inform Request MIB
- C.
A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5
- D.
A manager who is using authPriv
Correct Answer
C. A manager who is using host 192.168.0.5Explanation
The correct answer is a manager who is using host 192.168.0.5. The SNMP manager needs to have the correct host address (192.168.0.5) in order to communicate with the switch ACSw1 and set a parameter. The host address is used to identify and establish a connection between the manager and the device being managed.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Which queuing mechanism supports user-defined traffic classes?
- A.
FIFO
- B.
CBWFQ
- C.
WFQ
- D.
FCFS
Correct Answer
B. CBWFQExplanation
CBWFQ (Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing) is a queuing mechanism that supports user-defined traffic classes. It allows the network administrator to define different traffic classes based on specific criteria such as protocol, source/destination IP address, or port number. Each traffic class can then be assigned a specific amount of bandwidth, ensuring fair treatment and prioritization of different types of traffic. CBWFQ is commonly used in Quality of Service (QoS) implementations to manage and control network traffic effectively.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Which QoS mechanism allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent?
- A.
CBWFQ
- B.
FIFO
- C.
LLQ
- D.
FCFS
Correct Answer
C. LLQExplanation
LLQ (Low Latency Queuing) is a QoS (Quality of Service) mechanism that allows delay-sensitive data, such as voice, to be sent first before packets in other queues are sent. LLQ provides priority queuing and ensures that delay-sensitive traffic is given preferential treatment by assigning it to a separate queue with a higher priority. This allows for better performance and reduced latency for real-time applications like voice or video.Rate this question:
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- 40.
Refer to the exhibit. As traffic is forwarded out an egress interface with QoS treatment, which congestion avoidance technique is used?
- A.
Traffic shaping
- B.
Weighted random early detection
- C.
Classification and marking
- D.
Traffic policing
Correct Answer
A. Traffic shapingExplanation
Traffic shaping is a congestion avoidance technique that is used to control the rate of traffic leaving an egress interface. It regulates the flow of packets by delaying or buffering them, ensuring that the traffic adheres to a certain rate. This helps to prevent congestion and maintain a smooth flow of traffic.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for QoS treatment?
- A.
Type of Service field
- B.
Traffic Class field
- C.
Priority field
- D.
Version field
Correct Answer
C. Priority fieldExplanation
The Priority field is used to mark Layer 2 Ethernet frames for Quality of Service (QoS) treatment. This field allows for the prioritization of different types of traffic, ensuring that high-priority traffic receives preferential treatment in terms of bandwidth allocation and network resources. By marking frames with different priority levels, network administrators can enforce QoS policies and ensure that critical or time-sensitive data is given higher priority over less important traffic.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?
- A.
A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.
- B.
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.
- C.
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
- D.
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
Correct Answer
B. A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.Explanation
A QoS trust boundary is used to determine which devices within a network trust the marking on packets that enter the network. This means that the trust boundary helps identify the devices that will prioritize or treat the packets based on their markings, ensuring that the quality of service (QoS) requirements are met. It helps in maintaining consistency and reliability in the network by ensuring that only trusted devices are involved in the QoS decision-making process.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which pillar of the Cisco IoT System allows data to be analyzed and managed at the location where it is generated?
- A.
Data analytics
- B.
Fog computing
- C.
Network connectivity
- D.
Application enhancement platform
Correct Answer
B. Fog computingExplanation
Fog computing is the correct answer because it refers to the pillar of the Cisco IoT System that enables data analysis and management at the location where it is generated. Fog computing involves processing and analyzing data at the edge of the network, closer to the source of data generation, rather than sending all the data to a centralized cloud. This allows for real-time analysis, reduced latency, and improved security and privacy. Fog computing is especially useful in IoT applications where data needs to be processed quickly and efficiently at the edge.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What is an example of cloud computing?
- A.
A continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things
- B.
a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources
- C.
A network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area
- D.
An architectural style of the World Wide Web
Correct Answer
B. a service that offers on-demand access to shared resourcesExplanation
Cloud computing refers to the practice of accessing and utilizing shared resources, such as storage, servers, and software applications, through the internet on an on-demand basis. This allows users to avoid the need for physical infrastructure and instead rely on remote servers and networks to store and process data. This model offers scalability, flexibility, and cost efficiency, making it a popular choice for businesses and individuals.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which type of resources are required for a Type 1 hypervisor?
- A.
A host operating system
- B.
A server running VMware Fusion
- C.
A management console
- D.
A dedicated VLAN
Correct Answer
C. A management consoleExplanation
A Type 1 hypervisor is a bare-metal hypervisor that runs directly on the host hardware, without the need for a host operating system. It is responsible for managing and allocating the physical resources of the host machine to multiple virtual machines. A management console is required to control and monitor the virtual machines, configure network settings, and perform administrative tasks. Therefore, a management console is a necessary resource for a Type 1 hypervisor.Rate this question:
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- 46.
A network technician made a configuration change on the core router in order to solve a problem. However, the problem is not solved. Which step should the technician take next?
- A.
Gather symptoms.
- B.
Isolate the problem.
- C.
Restore the previous configuration.
- D.
Implement the next possible corrective action.
Correct Answer
C. Restore the previous configuration.Explanation
If the configuration change did not solve the problem, the technician should restore the previous configuration. This is because the change made might have caused further issues or was not the correct solution to the problem. By reverting back to the previous configuration, the technician can eliminate the possibility of the change being the cause of the problem and then proceed to gather symptoms and isolate the problem to find the appropriate corrective action.Rate this question:
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- 47.
A user reports that when the corporate web page URL is entered on a web browser, an error message indicates that the page cannot be displayed. The help-desk technician asks the user to enter the IP address of the web server to see if the page can be displayed. Which troubleshooting method is being used by the technician?
- A.
Top-down
- B.
Bottom-up
- C.
Substitution
- D.
Divide-and-conquer
Correct Answer
D. Divide-and-conquerExplanation
The technician is using the divide-and-conquer troubleshooting method. This method involves breaking down a complex problem into smaller, more manageable parts and addressing them one by one. By asking the user to enter the IP address of the web server, the technician is attempting to isolate the issue and determine if it is related to the URL or the server itself. This approach helps to narrow down the possible causes of the problem and find a solution more efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 48.
What is a primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature?
- A.
To measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible
- B.
to detect potential network attacks
- C.
To provide network connectivity for customers
- D.
To adjust network device configurations to avoid congestion
Correct Answer
A. To measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possibleExplanation
The primary function of the Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements feature is to measure network performance and discover a network failure as early as possible. This feature allows network administrators to monitor the performance of their network and identify any issues or failures that may occur. By measuring various performance metrics, such as latency, packet loss, and jitter, administrators can proactively detect and address any network problems before they cause significant disruptions. This helps ensure that the network operates efficiently and provides a reliable and high-quality experience for users.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Which IOS log message level indicates the highest severity level?
- A.
Level 0
- B.
Level 1
- C.
Level 4
- D.
Level 7
Correct Answer
A. Level 0Explanation
Level 0 indicates the highest severity level in IOS log messages. The log level determines the severity of the message, with level 0 being the most critical. This means that level 0 messages represent the most severe issues or events that require immediate attention and action.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer?
- A.
A misconfigured firewall blocks traffic to a file server.
- B.
There are too many invalid frames transmitted in the network.
- C.
Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.
- D.
A web server cannot be reached by its domain name, but can be reached via its IP address.
Correct Answer
C. Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers.Explanation
Neighbor adjacency is formed with some routers, but not all routers. This symptom is an example of network issues at the network layer because it indicates a problem with the establishment of a neighbor relationship between routers. In a network, routers form neighbor adjacencies with each other to exchange routing information. If some routers are able to form neighbor adjacencies while others cannot, it suggests a potential issue with network connectivity or configuration at the network layer.Rate this question:
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