Anp II Final Exam

131 Questions

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  • 1. 
    Which is NOT a major function of the blood?
    • A. 

      Transportation of nutrients

    • B. 

      Regulation of blood pH

    • C. 

      Production of oxygen

  • 2. 
    The normal average temperature of blood is around
    • A. 

      98.6OF

    • B. 

      90.8OF

    • C. 

      100.4OF

  • 3. 
    The normal pH range for blood  
    • A. 

      7.35-7.45

    • B. 

      7.35-8.5

    • C. 

      7.35-9.45

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not a component of blood?
    • A. 

      Blood plasma

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      Carbon dioxide

  • 5. 
    The hematocrit is composed of
    • A. 

      WBC c.

    • B. 

      Platelets

    • C. 

      RBC

  • 6. 
    How much of blood plasma is water (approximately)?
    • A. 

      95%

    • B. 

      91%

    • C. 

      88%

  • 7. 
    Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance
    • A. 

      Albumins

    • B. 

      Globulins

    • C. 

      Fibrinogens

  • 8. 
    Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
    • A. 

      Albumins

    • B. 

      Fibrinogens

    • C. 

      Globulins

  • 9. 
    A hemocrit measures
    • A. 

      Percentage of RBC in packed blood

    • B. 

      Percentage of WBC in packed blood

    • C. 

      Percentage of platelets in packed blood

  • 10. 
    The process by which formed elements of the blood develop is called:
    • A. 

      Immunology

    • B. 

      Hemopoiesis

    • C. 

      None of the above

  • 11. 
    A megakaryoblast will develop into
    • A. 

      Red blood cell

    • B. 

      Platelet

    • C. 

      White blood cell

  • 12. 
    During hemopoiesis, some of the myeloid stem cells differentiate into
    • A. 

      Progenitor cells

    • B. 

      Enzymes

    • C. 

      Plasma proteins

  • 13. 
    This hormone stimulates proliferation of red blood cells in red bone marrow
    • A. 

      EPO

    • B. 

      TPO

    • C. 

      Human growth hormone

  • 14. 
    How many hemoglobin molecules are in each RBC?
    • A. 

      50 million

    • B. 

      100 million

    • C. 

      280 million

  • 15. 
    Ferritin is used to
    • A. 

      Transport iron

    • B. 

      Store iron

    • C. 

      Convert iron

  • 16. 
    A red blood cell’s function is
    • A. 

      Cytokine stimulation

    • B. 

      Blood cell proliferation

    • C. 

      Gas transport

  • 17. 
    A red blood cell without a nucleus is called a
    • A. 

      Precursor cell

    • B. 

      Interleukin

    • C. 

      Reticulocyte

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is a phagocyte?
    • A. 

      Monocytes

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Platelet

  • 19. 
    Which of the following reduces blood loss?
    • A. 

      Erythrocyte

    • B. 

      Platelet

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 20. 
    Which of the following promotes inflammation?
    • A. 

      Monocyte

    • B. 

      Basophil

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 21. 
    Which of the following destroys antigen-antibody complexes?
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Monocyte

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 22. 
    Which of the following destroys provides immune responses?
    • A. 

      Eosinophil

    • B. 

      Macrophage

    • C. 

      Lymphocyte

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is not an agranular leukocyte?
    • A. 

      Macrophaged.

    • B. 

      Lymphocyte

    • C. 

      Basophil

  • 24. 
    The process of a white blood cell squeezing between cells to exit the blood vessel is called
    • A. 

      Emigration

    • B. 

      Wandering

    • C. 

      Adhesion

  • 25. 
    Which of the following do mast cells not release?
    • A. 

      Heparin

    • B. 

      Nitric oxide

    • C. 

      Histamine

  • 26. 
    This hormone causes the development of megakaryoblasts.
    • A. 

      Erythropoietin

    • B. 

      Thrombopoietin

    • C. 

      Nitric oxide

  • 27. 
    Which methods provide hemostasis
    • A. 

      Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, clotting

    • B. 

      Hemolysis, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation

    • C. 

      Emigration, clotting, hemolysis

  • 28. 
    Once this is formed, the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are identical.
    • A. 

      Thromboplastin

    • B. 

      Fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Prothrombinase

  • 29. 
    Which of the following clotting factors has the most to do with strengthening and stabilizing a blood clot?
    • A. 

      Factor XI

    • B. 

      Factor XIII

    • C. 

      Factor XIV

  • 30. 
    Considering Rh blood types, which of the below situations would result in maternal antibodies attacking the fetus?
    • A. 

      Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

    • B. 

      Mom is Rh negative and fetus is Rh negative

    • C. 

      Mom is Rh positive and fetus is Rh negative

  • 31. 
    Which of the following opposes the action of thromboxane A2
    • A. 

      Plasmin

    • B. 

      Antithrombin

    • C. 

      Prostacyclin

  • 32. 
    Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
    • A. 

      Heparin

    • B. 

      Fibrinogen

    • C. 

      Protease

  • 33. 
    This is the mass of tissue from the sternum to the vertebral column between the lungs.
    • A. 

      Parietal layer

    • B. 

      Mediastinum

    • C. 

      Pericardial tissue

  • 34. 
    This is the layer that protects the heart.
    • A. 

      Epicardium

    • B. 

      Parietal layer

    • C. 

      Myocardial tissue

  • 35. 
    To which side of the body is the apex pointed?
    • A. 

      At the midline

    • B. 

      To the left

    • C. 

      To the right

  • 36. 
    Which of the following consists of inelastic dense irregular connective tissue?
    • A. 

      Parietal layer of pericardium

    • B. 

      Serous pericardium

    • C. 

      Fibrous pericardium

  • 37. 
    This is used to reduce the friction between membranes of the heart.
    • A. 

      Endocardium layer

    • B. 

      Pericardial (serous) fluid

    • C. 

      Pericardium

  • 38. 
    This consists of mesothelium and connective tissue.
    • A. 

      Epicardium

    • B. 

      Myocardium

    • C. 

      Endocardium

  • 39. 
    Which layer consists of cardiac muscle tissue?
    • A. 

      Epicardium

    • B. 

      Pericardium

    • C. 

      Myocardium

  • 40. 
     This is used to increase the capacity of the atrium.
    • A. 

      Interatrial septum

    • B. 

      Ventricle

    • C. 

      Auricle

  • 41. 
    This marks the boundary between the ventricles.
    • A. 

      Posterior interventricular sulcus

    • B. 

      Coronary sulcus and posterior interventricular sulcus

    • C. 

      Anterior and posterior intercentricular sulcus

  • 42. 
    These extend into the auricle.
    • A. 

      Pectinate muscles

    • B. 

      Interatrial septum

    • C. 

      Coronary sulcus

  • 43. 
    Through which structure does blood pass from the right atrium to the right ventricle?
    • A. 

      Bicuspid valve

    • B. 

      Interventricular septum

    • C. 

      Tricuspid valve

  • 44. 
    What types of tissue comprise the valves of the heart?
    • A. 

      Dense regular connective tissue

    • B. 

      Dense irregular connective tissue

    • C. 

      Areolar connective tissue

  • 45. 
    From the left ventricle, where does blood pass?
    • A. 

      Bicuspid valve

    • B. 

      Aortic semilunar valve

    • C. 

      Pulmonary trunk

  • 46. 
    In a fetus, this structure temporarily shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk into the aorta.
    • A. 

      Trabeculae carnae

    • B. 

      Descending aorta

    • C. 

      Ductus arteriosus

  • 47. 
    As each ventricle contracts, where does blood move?
    • A. 

      Into an artery

    • B. 

      Into the apex

    • C. 

      Into a vein

  • 48. 
    As each atrium contracts where does blood move?
    • A. 

      Through an atrioventricular valve

    • B. 

      Into a vein

    • C. 

      Through a semilunar valve

  • 49. 
    Which of the below valves prevents blood from flowing back from the lungs?
    • A. 

      Tricuspid valve

    • B. 

      Bicuspid valve

    • C. 

      Pulmonary valve

  • 50. 
    In this disorder the aortic valve is narrowed.
    • A. 

      Mitral valve prolapse

    • B. 

      Aortic stenosis

    • C. 

      Mitral insufficiency

  • 51. 
    This heart structure carries deoxygenated blood
    • A. 

      Left atrium and ventricle

    • B. 

      Left artium only

    • C. 

      Right atrium and ventricle

  • 52. 
    This vessel distributes oxygenated blood to the myocardium.
    • A. 

      Coronary artery

    • B. 

      Coronary vein

    • C. 

      Right ventricle

  • 53. 
    Cardiac muscle fibers electrically connect to neighboring fibers by
    • A. 

      Desmosomes

    • B. 

      Intermediate discs

    • C. 

      Gap junctions

  • 54. 
    Which of the following contains the largest amount of mitochondria?
    • A. 

      Smooth muscle

    • B. 

      Skeletal muscle

    • C. 

      Cardiac muscle

  • 55. 
    This is a network of specialized cardiac muscle fibers that provide a path for each cycle of cardiac excitation to progress through the heart
    • A. 

      Sinoatrial node

    • B. 

      Purkinje fibers

    • C. 

      Conduction system

  • 56. 
    This is a the correct sequence of structures that allows the normal sequence of excitation to progress through the heart.
    • A. 

      Purkinje fibers, AV node, SA node, Bundle of His

    • B. 

      SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

    • C. 

      Bundle of His, SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers

  • 57. 
    By comparison, cardiac muscle cells have _____________contraction plateau time than skeletal muscle cells.
    • A. 

      A shorter

    • B. 

      a longer

    • C. 

      No difference in

  • 58. 
    This is the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle into the aorta each minute.
    • A. 

      Cardiac output

    • B. 

      Cardiac input

    • C. 

      Stroke volume

  • 59. 
    This term refers to the period of time during a cardiac cycle when contraction occurs and blood pressure rises.
    • A. 

      Filling

    • B. 

      Systole

    • C. 

      repolarization

  • 60. 
    Which of these periods represents greatest cardiac output?
    • A. 

      Ventricular diastole

    • B. 

      Atrial systole

    • C. 

      Ventricular systole

  • 61. 
    The second heart sound represents which of the below events?
    • A. 

      Semilunar valves opening

    • B. 

      Atrioventricular valves closed

    • C. 

      Semilunar valves closing

  • 62. 
    This part of the heart can initiate a contraction and can set a constant heart rate of about 100 beats per minute.
    • A. 

      Cardiovascular center

    • B. 

      Sinoatrial valve

    • C. 

      Proprioceptors

  • 63. 
    Stimulation of this nerve reduces heart rate.
    • A. 

      Medulla oblongata nerve

    • B. 

      Vagus nerve

    • C. 

      Phrenic nerve

  • 64. 
    Which of the below reduces heart rate.
    • A. 

      Increased potassium levels

    • B. 

      Increased Thyroid hormone

    • C. 

      Increased calcium levels

  • 65. 
    This part of the brain regulates heart rate.
    • A. 

      Cardiac accelerator nerves

    • B. 

      Chemoreceptors

    • C. 

      Medulla oblongata

  • 66. 
    This electrical event represents repolarization of the ventricle.
    • A. 

      R wave

    • B. 

      T wave

    • C. 

      S wave

  • 67. 
    Which of the below factors would increase Stroke volume?
    • A. 

      increased preload, increased afterload, increased contractility

    • B. 

      Decreased preload, decreased afterload, decreased contractility

    • C. 

      Increased preload, decreased afterload, increased contractility

  • 68. 
    This electrical event triggers contraction of the atria.
    • A. 

      S wave

    • B. 

      P wave

    • C. 

      Q wave

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is the blood vessel that distributes blood to organs?
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Capillaries

    • C. 

      Venules

  • 70. 
    This is a blood vessel that conveys blood from the tissues back to the heart.
    • A. 

      Arteriole

    • B. 

      Aorta

    • C. 

      Vein

  • 71. 
    Which artery wall is responsible for vasoconstriction?
    • A. 

      Tunica interna

    • B. 

      Tunica media

    • C. 

      Tunica externa

  • 72. 
    This layer of the artery is composed mainly of elastic and collagen fibers.
    • A. 

      Tunica interna

    • B. 

      Tunica media

    • C. 

      Tunica externa

  • 73. 
    When an artery or arteriole is damaged, its smooth muscle contracts producing
    • A. 

      a branch off the artery called an arteriole

    • B. 

      A vascular spasm

    • C. 

      tetanus

  • 74. 
    Elastic arteries function as a
    • A. 

      conduit to the tissues of the trunk only

    • B. 

      barrier to microcirculation

    • C. 

      Pressure reservoir

  • 75. 
     These vessels make up the largest blood reservoir
    • A. 

      Venules and capillaries

    • B. 

      Veins and venules

    • C. 

      Aorta and veins

  • 76. 
    This vessel plays a key role in regulating blood flow into capillaries.
    • A. 

      Arteries

    • B. 

      Arterioles

    • C. 

      Venules

  • 77. 
    Which of the below is NOT found in arteries but is found in veins?
    • A. 

      Tunica media

    • B. 

      Tunica interna

    • C. 

      valves

  • 78. 
    Capillaries are also known as
    • A. 

      Exchange vessels

    • B. 

      Vasodilators

    • C. 

      Vasoconstrictors

  • 79. 
    Which of the below is the most important capillary exchange method?
    • A. 

      Diffusion

    • B. 

      transcytosis

    • C. 

      Bulk flow

  • 80. 
    These control the flow of blood through a capillary bed
    • A. 

      Thoroughfare channel

    • B. 

      Postcapillary sphincter

    • C. 

      Precapillary sphincter

  • 81. 
    Continuous capillaries can be found in the following tissues.
    • A. 

      Connective tissue

    • B. 

      lungs

    • C. 

      All of the above

  • 82. 
    The alternate route of blood flow to a body part through an anastomosis is called
    • A. 

      Detour blood

    • B. 

      Collateral circulation

    • C. 

      microcirculation

  • 83. 
    The largest factor that promotes reabsorption of fluids, into blood, from the interstitial fluids is
    • A. 

      Tissue osmotic pressure

    • B. 

      Blood osmotic pressure

    • C. 

      Blood hydrostatic pressure

  • 84. 
    The pressure driven movement of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called
    • A. 

      reabsorption

    • B. 

      filtration

    • C. 

      Bulk flow

  • 85. 
    This is the volume of blood that flows through any tissue in a given time period.
    • A. 

      Microcirculation

    • B. 

      Circulation

    • C. 

      Blood flow

  • 86. 
    Blood flow depends on which of following criteria.
    • A. 

      Blood pressure and systemic vascular pressure

    • B. 

      Blood type

    • C. 

      Blood pressure and heart rate

  • 87. 
    Which of the below would NOT increase blood pressure.
    • A. 

      Increased heart rate

    • B. 

      Increased stroke volume

    • C. 

      Decreased cardiac output

  • 88. 
    Which of the below factors do NOT increase systemic vascular resistance?
    • A. 

      Decreased vessel lumen diameter

    • B. 

      increased blood viscosity

    • C. 

      Decreased vessel length

  • 89. 
     This depends mostly on the ratio of RBC to plasma volume
    • A. 

      total blood volume .

    • B. 

      Blood viscosity

    • C. 

      Systemic resistance

  • 90. 
    Circulation time
    • A. 

      Varies with diet

    • B. 

      in a resting person is normally 1 minute

    • C. 

      is set by the hypothalamus

  • 91. 
     The cardiovascular center is located
    • A. 

      in the cerebellum

    • B. 

      in the medulla oblongata

    • C. 

      In the hypothalamus

  • 92. 
    Which of the below factors is most important in forcing blood flow through veins?
    • A. 

      Heart rate

    • B. 

      Stroke volume

    • C. 

      Muscular activity

  • 93. 
    Which of the below would be the response of the body as a result of decreased frequency of action potentials arising from the baroreceptors?
    • A. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • B. 

      Increased parasympathetic stimulation

    • C. 

      Decreased heart rate

  • 94. 
    Which of the following hormones would NOT cause an increase in blood pressure?
    • A. 

      Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

    • B. 

      Antidiuretic Hormone

    • C. 

      Aldosterone

  • 95. 
    Chemoreceptors in blood vessels measuring high levels of blood carbon dioxide would NOT cause which of the following
    • A. 

      Decreased respiratory rate

    • B. 

      Increased blood pressure

    • C. 

      Decreased heart rate

  • 96. 
    The myogenic response make smooth muscle
    • A. 

      Contract more forcefully when stretched

    • B. 

      Contract more forcefully when relaxed

    • C. 

      Stay in an isotonic state

  • 97. 
    What do these chemicals have in common: potassium, hydrogen ions, lactic acid, nitric oxide and adenosine?
    • A. 

      They are all potent vasoconstrictors

    • B. 

      They are all potent vasodilators

    • C. 

      They are used to begin smooth muscle contractions

  • 98. 
    Where can pulse not be felt?
    • A. 

      Venules

    • B. 

      Capillaries

    • C. 

      Arterioles

  • 99. 
    This pressure provides information about the condition of the cardiovascular system such as atherosclerosis and patent ductus arteriosus.
    • A. 

      Diastolic blood pressure

    • B. 

      Systolic blood pressure

    • C. 

      Pulse pressure

  • 100. 
    This type of shock is due to decreased blood volume
    • A. 

      Hypovolemic

    • B. 

      Cardiogenic

    • C. 

      Vascular

  • 101. 
    Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic and immune system?
    • A. 

      Draining excess interstitial fluid

    • B. 

      Maintaining water homeostasis in the body

    • C. 

      Transporting dietary lipids

  • 102. 
     What is the major difference between lymph and interstitial fluid?
    • A. 

      Composition of electrolytes

    • B. 

      White blood cells are present in lymph

    • C. 

      Location

  • 103. 
    Lack of resistance is also known as:
    • A. 

      Innate

    • B. 

      Specific

    • C. 

      Susceptibility

  • 104. 
    What causes lymph from the small intestines to appear white?
    • A. 

      RBC

    • B. 

      Lipids

    • C. 

      Fats

  • 105. 
    Which of the following is not considered an organ of the immune system?
    • A. 

      Red bone marrow

    • B. 

      Thymus

    • C. 

      Pancreas

  • 106. 
    The left subclavian vein receives lymph from
    • A. 

      Jugular trunk

    • B. 

      Thoracic duct

    • C. 

      Right lymphatic duct

  • 107. 
    The lymph from the right foot empties into the
    • A. 

      Jugular trunk

    • B. 

      Thoracic duct

    • C. 

      Right lymphatic duct

  • 108. 
    The skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in
    • A. 

      Immune system

    • B. 

      Lymphatic and Immune systems only

    • C. 

      Lymphatic, Immune and Cardiovascular systems

  • 109. 
    Which of the below produces the hormone that promotes maturation of T cells?
    • A. 

      Red bone marrow

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Thymus

  • 110. 
    In the thymus, where is it speculated that T cells die.
    • A. 

      Trabeculae

    • B. 

      Hasall’s corpuscles

    • C. 

      Epithelial cell

  • 111. 
    This portion of the lymph node does not contain any lymphatic nodules.
    • A. 

      Inner cortex

    • B. 

      Medulla

    • C. 

      Outer cortex

  • 112. 
    Which of the following is a function of the spleen?
    • A. 

      Removes worn out blood cells

    • B. 

      Circulates lymph

    • C. 

      Cleanses interstitial fluid

  • 113. 
    Which of these does NOT provide a physical or chemical barrier?
    • A. 

      Macrophages

    • B. 

      Saliva

    • C. 

      Urine

  • 114. 
    These anti-microbial substances will diffuse to uninfected cells and reduce production of viral proteins.
    • A. 

      Complement proteins

    • B. 

      Defensins

    • C. 

      Interferons

  • 115. 
    These anti-microbial substances promote cytolysis, phagocytosis and inflammation.
    • A. 

      Transferrins

    • B. 

      Perforins

    • C. 

      Complement proteins

  • 116. 
    These are mainly used to kill infectious microbes and tumor cells.
    • A. 

      Natural killer cells

    • B. 

      platelets

    • C. 

      Perforins

  • 117. 
    Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?
    • A. 

      Heat

    • B. 

      Pain

    • C. 

      Mucus production

  • 118. 
    Which of the following intensifies the effect of interferons and promotes the rate of repair?
    • A. 

      Complement proteins

    • B. 

      Perforin

    • C. 

      Fever

  • 119. 
    Which of the below do NOT induce vasodilation and permeability (increased fluid flow) to an infection site.
    • A. 

      Histamines

    • B. 

      Kinins

    • C. 

      Perforin

  • 120. 
    When B and T cells are fully developed and mature, they are known to be
    • A. 

      Immunocompetent

    • B. 

      Pluripotent stem cells

    • C. 

      Primary lymphatic cells

  • 121. 
    This induces production of a specific antibody.
    • A. 

      Phagocytosis

    • B. 

      Antigen

    • C. 

      Antibody

  • 122. 
    This can only stimulate an immune response if attached to a large carrier molecule.
    • A. 

      Epitope

    • B. 

      Antigen

    • C. 

      Hapten

  • 123. 
    Which of the following is responsible for diversity in the immune system?
    • A. 

      MHC

    • B. 

      Hapten

    • C. 

      MHC and antigen receptors

  • 124. 
    This class of cells includes macrophages, B cells and dendritic cells.
    • A. 

      Antigen presenting cells

    • B. 

      Primary lymphocytes

    • C. 

      T cells

  • 125. 
    This can only become activated when bound to a foreign antigen and simultaneously receiving a co stimulate
    • A. 

      B Cell

    • B. 

      T Cell

    • C. 

      Interferon

  • 126. 
    These display CD 4 in their membrane and are associated with MHC class II molecules
    • A. 

      Cytotoxic T cells

    • B. 

      Helper T Cells

    • C. 

      Memory T Cells

  • 127. 
     T Cells secrete this toxin that is used to fragment DNA.
    • A. 

      Interferons

    • B. 

      Lymphotoxin

    • C. 

      Toxin T

  • 128. 
    This class of antibodies is mainly found in sweat, tears, breast milk and GI secretions.
    • A. 

      IgG

    • B. 

      IgA

    • C. 

      IgM

  • 129. 
    This will lead to inflammation, enhancement of phagocytosis and bursting of microbes.
    • A. 

      Classical complement system

    • B. 

      Alternative complement system

    • C. 

      Classical and Alternative complement systems

  • 130. 
    This action makes microbes more susceptible to phagocytosis.
    • A. 

      Opsonization

    • B. 

      Cytolysis

    • C. 

      Inflammation

  • 131. 
    This is a self-responsive cell that is inactive.
    • A. 

      Epitopic cell

    • B. 

      Anergy cell

    • C. 

      Natural killer cell