Anatomy And Physiology Level II Quiz (Mix Questions From Mock Papers)

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Anatomy And Physiology Level II Quiz (Mix Questions From Mock Papers) - Quiz

Anatomy is a branch of biology that studies the structure and relationship between body parts. Physiology, on the other hand, is the study of the function of body parts and the body as a whole. The Anatomy and Physiology Level II Quiz is a challenging assessment designed to test your knowledge of advanced concepts in human anatomy and physiology.

This quiz delves into the intricacies of the human body, covering topics such as advanced musculoskeletal and nervous system functions, circulatory and respiratory physiology, and an in-depth understanding of organ systems.

This quiz offers a comprehensive set of questions to Read moreevaluate your proficiency in Anatomy and Physiology at an advanced level. Engage in this quiz to deepen your understanding of the intricacies of the human body's structure and function. How conversant are you when it comes to the two disciplines? Take our test to find out.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which of the following blood vessels carries blood towards the heart?

    • A.

      Arteries

    • B.

      Veins

    • C.

      The Aorta

    • D.

      Capillaries

    Correct Answer
    B. Veins
    Explanation
    Veins carry blood towards the heart. Unlike arteries that carry oxygenated blood away from the heart, veins transport deoxygenated blood back to the heart for oxygenation. This is possible due to the presence of valves in veins that prevent the backflow of blood. The Aorta is the largest artery in the body, while capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins, enabling the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and surrounding tissues.

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  • 2. 

    Diastolic blood pressure is a measure of the force that blood exerts on the walls of the:

    • A.

      Arteries whilst the heart contracts

    • B.

      Arteries whilst the heart relaxes

    • C.

      Veins whilst the heart relaxes

    • D.

      Veins whilst the heart contracts

    Correct Answer
    B. Arteries whilst the heart relaxes
    Explanation
    Diastolic blood pressure is a measure of the force that blood exerts on the walls of the arteries whilst the heart relaxes. During diastole, the heart is in its resting phase and is filling up with blood. The pressure in the arteries at this time represents the minimum pressure exerted on the arterial walls, indicating the resistance to blood flow when the heart is not actively pumping. Therefore, the correct answer is "arteries whilst the heart relaxes."

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  • 3. 

    During exhalation the diaphragm:

    • A.

      Contracts and moves down

    • B.

      Contracts and moves up

    • C.

      Relaxes and moves up

    • D.

      Relaxes and moves down

    Correct Answer
    C. Relaxes and moves up
    Explanation
    During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and moves up. The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle located at the base of the lungs. When we inhale, the diaphragm contracts and moves down, creating more space in the chest cavity for the lungs to expand and fill with air. However, during exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and returns to its dome shape, causing it to move up. This relaxation of the diaphragm reduces the space in the chest cavity, allowing the air to be expelled from the lungs.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following gases diffuses into the alveoli from the capillaries to be exhaled?

    • A.

      Carbon Dioxide

    • B.

      Nitrogen

    • C.

      Carbon Monoxide

    • D.

      Oxygen

    Correct Answer
    A. Carbon Dioxide
    Explanation
    Carbon dioxide is the correct answer because it is a waste product produced by cellular respiration in the body. It diffuses from the capillaries surrounding the alveoli in the lungs into the alveoli, where it can then be exhaled out of the body. Oxygen, on the other hand, diffuses from the alveoli into the capillaries to be transported to the body's cells. Nitrogen is a non-reactive gas that makes up the majority of the air we breathe, and carbon monoxide is a toxic gas produced by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

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  • 5. 

    What is the name of the air sacs that are located at the end of the bronchioles in the lungs?

    • A.

      Bronchi

    • B.

      Trachea

    • C.

      Cilia

    • D.

      Alveoli

    Correct Answer
    D. Alveoli
    Explanation
    The air sacs located at the end of the bronchioles in the lungs are called alveoli. These small, balloon-like structures are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the bloodstream. The thin walls of the alveoli allow for efficient gas exchange, ensuring that oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is eliminated during the process of breathing.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following description is describing an irregular bone?

    • A.

      Curved to help absorb stress from the body

    • B.

      Have complex shapes

    • C.

      Almost equal in width and length, cube shape

    • D.

      Thin, give protection to internal organs, provide sites for muscle attachment

    Correct Answer
    B. Have complex shapes
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Have complex shapes." Irregular bones are characterized by their complex shapes, which do not fit into any other category of bone shape (such as long, short, flat, or sesamoid bones). These bones often have unique and varied structures that serve specific functions in the body. Examples of irregular bones include the vertebrae in the spine and the bones of the face and skull.

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  • 7. 

    Which joint action is taking place when the palm turns upwards?

    • A.

      Pronation

    • B.

      Supination

    • C.

      Abduction

    • D.

      Adduction

    Correct Answer
    B. Supination
    Explanation
    Supination is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of the palm turning upwards. This action involves the rotation of the forearm, where the radius and ulna bones in the forearm are parallel, causing the palm to face upwards. This movement is commonly observed when holding a bowl of soup or when performing a bicep curl with a dumbbell.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is a component of muscle structure?

    • A.

      Synovial Membrane

    • B.

      Periosteum

    • C.

      The epiphysis

    • D.

      Sarcomere

    Correct Answer
    D. Sarcomere
    Explanation
    A sarcomere is a component of muscle structure. It is the basic unit of muscle contraction and is responsible for generating force and movement. It is made up of overlapping actin and myosin filaments, which slide past each other during muscle contraction. Sarcomeres are arranged end to end along the length of a muscle fiber, giving muscles their striated appearance. The other options listed, synovial membrane, periosteum, and epiphysis, are not components of muscle structure but rather are associated with joints and bones.

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  • 9. 

    Which one of these is a type of voluntary muscle?

    • A.

      Gastrointestinal

    • B.

      Heart Muscle

    • C.

      Biceps

    • D.

      Capillaries

    Correct Answer
    C. Biceps
    Explanation
    The biceps is a type of voluntary muscle because it is under conscious control. This means that we can choose to contract or relax our biceps as needed. Voluntary muscles are typically found in the limbs and are responsible for movements such as walking, running, and lifting objects. In contrast, involuntary muscles, such as the gastrointestinal muscles and the heart muscle, are not under conscious control and function automatically without us having to think about it. Capillaries, on the other hand, are not muscles at all but are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins.

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  • 10. 

    According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), hypertension is considered severe if:

    • A.

      Systolic blood pressure is 160 mmHg or higher or diastolic blood pressure is 100 mmHg or higher

    • B.

      Systolic blood pressure is 140 mmHg or higher or diastolic blood pressure is 90 mmHg or higher

    • C.

      Systolic blood pressure is 150 mmHg or higher or diastolic blood pressure is 110 mmHg or higher

    • D.

      Systolic blood pressure is 180 mmHg or higher or diastolic blood pressure is 110 mmHg or higher

    Correct Answer
    D. Systolic blood pressure is 180 mmHg or higher or diastolic blood pressure is 110 mmHg or higher
    Explanation
    According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), hypertension is considered severe if the systolic blood pressure is 180 mmHg or higher or the diastolic blood pressure is 110 mmHg or higher. This means that if either the systolic blood pressure or the diastolic blood pressure reaches or exceeds these thresholds, it is classified as severe hypertension.

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  • 11. 

    Where are the lungs located in relation to the diaphragm?

    • A.

      In front

    • B.

      Behind

    • C.

      Above

    • D.

      Below

    Correct Answer
    C. Above
    Explanation
    The lungs are located above the diaphragm. The diaphragm is a muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity. The lungs are situated in the chest cavity, above the diaphragm. This positioning allows the diaphragm to contract and expand, causing the lungs to inflate and deflate during the breathing process.

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  • 12. 

    What is the approximate percentage of oxygen in exhaled air?

    • A.

      12

    • B.

      16

    • C.

      18

    • D.

      21

    Correct Answer
    B. 16
    Explanation
    The approximate percentage of oxygen in exhaled air is 16. This is because when we inhale, we take in oxygen-rich air, but when we exhale, we release air that has been depleted of oxygen and enriched with carbon dioxide. Therefore, the percentage of oxygen in exhaled air is lower than the atmospheric concentration of 21%.

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  • 13. 

    What type of bone is the coccyx?

    • A.

      Irregular

    • B.

      Sesamoid

    • C.

      Flat

    • D.

      Short

    Correct Answer
    A. Irregular
    Explanation
    The coccyx is a small triangular bone located at the base of the spine. It is made up of four fused vertebrae and has a curved shape. This irregular shape is what categorizes it as an irregular bone. Irregular bones do not fit into any other category and have complex shapes that serve specific functions in the body, such as providing support and protection.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following describes the passage of air through the respiratory tract?

    • A.

      Trachea, bronchioles, bronchi, pharynx, larynx, alveoli

    • B.

      Bronchioles, bronchi, trachea, pharynx, larynx, alveoli

    • C.

      Larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

    • D.

      Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli

    Correct Answer
    D. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli." This sequence accurately describes the passage of air through the respiratory tract, starting from the pharynx (throat), then moving through the larynx (voice box), trachea (windpipe), bronchi (large airways), bronchioles (smaller airways), and finally reaching the alveoli (air sacs in the lungs) where gas exchange occurs.

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  • 15. 

    Which one is a sesamoid bone?

    • A.

      Patella

    • B.

      Femur

    • C.

      Ribs

    • D.

      Carpals

    Correct Answer
    A. Patella
    Explanation
    The patella is a sesamoid bone because it is a small, rounded bone that is embedded within a tendon. Sesamoid bones are typically found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint, and they serve to protect the tendon and enhance its mechanical function. The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps muscle and helps to increase the leverage and efficiency of the muscle during movements of the knee joint. The femur, ribs, and carpals are not sesamoid bones.

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  • 16. 

    Which part of a long bone is the diaphysis?

    • A.

      The central canal

    • B.

      The shaft

    • C.

      The end

    • D.

      The outer membrane

    Correct Answer
    B. The shaft
    Explanation
    The diaphysis refers to the shaft of a long bone. It is the long, cylindrical portion of the bone that lies between the two ends. It is primarily composed of compact bone tissue and contains the medullary cavity, which houses the bone marrow. The diaphysis provides support and strength to the bone, allowing for movement and weight-bearing.

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  • 17. 

    Which region of the spine has the least potential movement?

    • A.

      Thoracic

    • B.

      Lumbar

    • C.

      Sacral

    • D.

      Cervical

    Correct Answer
    C. Sacral
    Explanation
    The sacral region of the spine has the least potential movement because it consists of five fused vertebrae that form the sacrum. The sacrum is located at the base of the spine, below the lumbar vertebrae. The fusion of these vertebrae creates a strong and stable structure that provides support for the pelvis. Due to this fusion, the sacral region has limited flexibility and movement compared to the other regions of the spine.

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  • 18. 

    Circumduction is available at which of the following synovial joints?

    • A.

      Shoulder

    • B.

      Knee

    • C.

      Spine

    • D.

      Elbow

    Correct Answer
    A. Shoulder
    Explanation
    Circumduction is the movement of a body part in a circular motion, where the distal end of the limb moves in a circle while the proximal end remains stationary. This type of movement is possible at the shoulder joint, as it is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including circumduction. The knee joint, spine, and elbow joint do not allow for circumduction as they are hinge joints that primarily enable flexion and extension movements.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following joints permits dorsi flexion and plantar flexion to occur?

    • A.

      Shoulder

    • B.

      Hip

    • C.

      Ankle

    • D.

      Spine

    Correct Answer
    C. Ankle
    Explanation
    The ankle joint permits dorsi flexion and plantar flexion to occur. Dorsi flexion is the movement of bringing the top of the foot towards the shin, while plantar flexion is the movement of pointing the toes away from the shin. The ankle joint is responsible for these movements, allowing for flexion and extension of the foot. The shoulder joint allows for movement of the arm, the hip joint allows for movement of the leg, and the spine allows for movement of the back, but none of these joints specifically permit dorsi flexion and plantar flexion.

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  • 20. 

    Which type of muscle tissue is found in the digestive system?

    • A.

      Smooth

    • B.

      Cardiac

    • C.

      Skeletal

    • D.

      Striated

    Correct Answer
    A. Smooth
    Explanation
    Smooth muscle tissue is found in the digestive system. Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles that line the walls of organs and structures such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. They are responsible for the movement and contraction of these organs, allowing for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. Unlike skeletal and cardiac muscles, smooth muscles do not have striations or a regular pattern of bands, which is why they are called smooth muscles.

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  • 21. 

    Which of the following affects the strength of a muscle contraction?

    • A.

      The amount of fat stored in the muscle

    • B.

      The number of motor units recruited

    • C.

      The range of movement at the working joint

    • D.

      The amount of glycogen stored in the muscle

    Correct Answer
    B. The number of motor units recruited
    Explanation
    The strength of a muscle contraction is influenced by the number of motor units recruited. Motor units consist of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates. When more motor units are recruited, a greater number of muscle fibers are activated, resulting in a stronger contraction. Therefore, the more motor units that are involved in a muscle contraction, the greater the strength of the contraction.

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  • 22. 

    Regular aerobic exercise can improve motor fitness by:

    • A.

      Enhancing the growth of new connections within the nervous system

    • B.

      Reducing synchronous recruitment of motor units

    • C.

      Improving the ability to store glycogen and fat as fuels for exercise

    • D.

      Increasing the proportion of type II muscle fibres

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancing the growth of new connections within the nervous system
    Explanation
    Regular aerobic exercise can improve motor fitness by enhancing the growth of new connections within the nervous system. This is because aerobic exercise increases blood flow and oxygen delivery to the brain, which promotes the growth of new neurons and the formation of new connections between them. These new connections improve communication between the brain and muscles, leading to better motor control, coordination, and overall motor fitness.

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  • 23. 

    Which  nervous  system  is  responsible  for  the  ‘fight  or  flight’  response  that  speeds  up  the heart rate?

    • A.

      Central

    • B.

      Sympathetic

    • C.

      Motor

    • D.

      Parasympathetic

    Correct Answer
    B. Sympathetic
    Explanation
    The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'fight or flight' response that speeds up the heart rate. This response is triggered in stressful or dangerous situations, preparing the body to either fight or flee. The sympathetic nervous system activates the release of adrenaline and increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate to provide the body with the energy and oxygen needed to respond to the threat.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following activities would use the ATP-PC system as its primary source of energy?

    • A.

      50 metre sprint

    • B.

      500 metre row

    • C.

      Marathon

    • D.

      5 mile jog

    Correct Answer
    A. 50 metre sprint
    Explanation
    The ATP-PC system is the primary source of energy for short bursts of high-intensity activities. The 50 metre sprint is a short distance that requires a quick burst of energy, making it the activity that would primarily use the ATP-PC system. The other activities, such as the 500 metre row, marathon, and 5 mile jog, are longer in duration and require a sustained energy source, such as aerobic metabolism.

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  • 25. 

    In the process of ossification what does bone develop from:

    • A.

      Bone Marrow

    • B.

      Synovial fluid

    • C.

      Ligaments

    • D.

      Cartilage

    Correct Answer
    D. Cartilage
    Explanation
    During the process of ossification, bones develop from cartilage. This is known as endochondral ossification, which is the most common type of bone formation. In this process, a cartilage model is first formed and then gradually replaced by bone tissue. The cartilage serves as a template for bone formation, providing a framework for the bones to develop. As the cartilage model matures, it is gradually replaced by bone cells, leading to the formation of fully developed bones. Therefore, cartilage is the starting point for bone development in the process of ossification.

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  • 26. 

    The risk of growth plate injuries is a special consideration when working with:

    • A.

      Disabled people

    • B.

      Ante/post natal women

    • C.

      Older adults (aged 50 plus)

    • D.

      Children agred (14-16)

    Correct Answer
    D. Children agred (14-16)
    Explanation
    The growth plates in children aged 14-16 are still developing and are more vulnerable to injuries compared to other age groups. These growth plates are areas of cartilage at the ends of long bones that are responsible for bone growth. Any trauma or injury to these growth plates can disrupt their normal development and potentially lead to growth abnormalities or deformities. Therefore, it is important to be cautious and take special care when working with children in this age range to minimize the risk of growth plate injuries.

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  • 27. 

    What is adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

    • A.

      An energy-producing/storing molecule yielded during the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins

    • B.

      An energy system used for endurance-based training

    • C.

      An acid that supports the break-down of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the stomach

    • D.

      The precursor to lactic acid production and DOMS (delayed onset of muscle soreness)

    Correct Answer
    A. An energy-producing/storing molecule yielded during the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and proteins
    Explanation
    Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a molecule that is produced and stored during the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. It serves as the main energy currency in cells, providing the necessary energy for various cellular processes. ATP is synthesized through the process of cellular respiration, where the energy from the breakdown of these macronutrients is used to convert adenosine diphosphate (ADP) into ATP. This energy-rich molecule is then utilized by cells to carry out functions such as muscle contraction, active transport, and protein synthesis.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following is part of the pelvic floor?

    • A.

      Levator ani

    • B.

      Gracilis

    • C.

      Uterus

    • D.

      Bladder

    Correct Answer
    A. Levator ani
    Explanation
    The levator ani is part of the pelvic floor. It is a group of muscles that supports the pelvic organs, including the bladder, uterus, and rectum. It helps maintain continence and plays a role in sexual function. The gracilis is a muscle in the thigh and is not part of the pelvic floor. The uterus is a reproductive organ located in the pelvic area, but it is not specifically part of the pelvic floor. The bladder, on the other hand, is part of the pelvic floor and is responsible for storing and releasing urine.

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  • 29. 

    What will happen to slow twitch muscle fibres as a result of long term endurance training?

    • A.

      They will use less oxygen

    • B.

      They will develop more mitochondria

    • C.

      They will fatigue more quickly

    • D.

      Metabolic activity will decrease

    Correct Answer
    A. They will use less oxygen
    Explanation
    As a result of long-term endurance training, slow twitch muscle fibers adapt to become more efficient in utilizing oxygen. This adaptation allows them to generate energy aerobically, reducing their reliance on anaerobic pathways. Consequently, they will use less oxygen during exercise, enabling individuals to sustain prolonged physical activity. This adaptation is achieved through an increase in the number and size of mitochondria within the muscle fibers, which are responsible for aerobic energy production. Therefore, the correct answer is that slow twitch muscle fibers will use less oxygen.

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  • 30. 

    Energy produced from the phosphocreatine energy system will last approximately?

    • A.

      15 seconds

    • B.

      30 seconds

    • C.

      60 seconds

    • D.

      90 seconds

    Correct Answer
    A. 15 seconds
    Explanation
    The phosphocreatine (PCr) energy system provides immediate energy for high-intensity, short-duration activities lasting up to approximately 15 seconds. This system rapidly regenerates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from phosphocreatine stored in muscles, providing a quick burst of energy during activities such as sprinting or weightlifting.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following is the antagonist during a calf raise?

    • A.

      Tibialis anterior

    • B.

      The hamstrings

    • C.

      The quadriceps

    • D.

      Gastrocnemius

    Correct Answer
    A. Tibialis anterior
    Explanation
    During a calf raise, the antagonist muscle is the muscle that opposes or works in the opposite direction of the primary muscle being used. In this case, the primary muscle being used is the gastrocnemius, which is responsible for plantar flexion of the foot. The tibialis anterior, located on the front of the lower leg, is the antagonist during a calf raise as it is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot, which is the opposite movement to plantar flexion.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group?

    • A.

      Trapezius

    • B.

      Rhomboid

    • C.

      Illiopsoas

    • D.

      Triceps

    Correct Answer
    C. Illiopsoas
    Explanation
    The iliopsoas is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group. It is a combination of two muscles, the iliacus and the psoas major, which work together to flex the hip joint. Located deep in the abdomen, the iliopsoas is responsible for movements such as lifting the thigh towards the chest and bending the trunk forward. The trapezius, rhomboid, and triceps are all posterior muscles, meaning they are located on the back of the body.

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  • 33. 

    What is the name given to a unit of myofibrils repeated within skeletal muscle?

    • A.

      Sacromere

    • B.

      Actin

    • C.

      Myosin head

    • D.

      Muscle fibre

    Correct Answer
    A. Sacromere
    Explanation
    A sarcomere is the name given to a unit of myofibrils repeated within skeletal muscle. It is the basic functional unit of muscle contraction and is responsible for the muscle's ability to contract and generate force. Sarcomeres are made up of actin and myosin filaments, which slide past each other during muscle contraction. The arrangement of these filaments within the sarcomere gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance. Therefore, the correct answer is Sacromere.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following muscles is contracting eccentrically during the lowering phase of a lateral raise?

    • A.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • B.

      Erector spinae

    • C.

      Triceps

    • D.

      Medial deltiods

    Correct Answer
    D. Medial deltiods
    Explanation
    During the lowering phase of a lateral raise, the medial deltoids are contracting eccentrically. This means that the muscle is lengthening while still under tension. The medial deltoids are responsible for the abduction of the arm, which is the movement of raising the arm away from the body. During the lowering phase, the arm is being lowered back down to the starting position, and the medial deltoids are contracting eccentrically to control this movement and prevent it from happening too quickly or forcefully.

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  • 35. 

    The role of motor neurons is to transmit nerve impulses:

    • A.

      To the brain to stimulate information processing

    • B.

      From the senses to the central nervous system

    • C.

      To muscles to bring about movement

    • D.

      From pain receptors to muscles

    Correct Answer
    C. To muscles to bring about movement
    Explanation
    Motor neurons are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses from the central nervous system to the muscles. These impulses carry the instructions for muscle contraction and movement. Therefore, the role of motor neurons is to facilitate and control movement in the body.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation to high-intensity short duration exercise?

    • A.

      Increase in type I muscle fibres and improved resistance to fatigue

    • B.

      Frequency of nerve impulses to motor units increases

    • C.

      Improved protein storage and availability as a fuel for exercise

    • D.

      Reduced synchronous recruitment of motor units

    Correct Answer
    B. Frequency of nerve impulses to motor units increases
    Explanation
    During high-intensity short duration exercise, the frequency of nerve impulses to motor units increases. This means that the nerves send signals to the muscles at a faster rate, resulting in more frequent muscle contractions. This adaptation allows for greater force production and improved muscle performance during intense exercise. It helps to recruit a larger number of motor units and generate more forceful contractions, leading to enhanced power and strength.

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  • 37. 

    The role of motor neurons is to transmit nerve impulses

    • A.

      To the brain to stimulate information processing

    • B.

      From the senses to the central nervous system

    • C.

      To muscles to bring about movement

    • D.

      From pain receptors to muscles

    Correct Answer
    C. To muscles to bring about movement
    Explanation
    Motor neurons are specialized nerve cells that transmit signals from the brain and spinal cord to muscles throughout the body. These signals, known as nerve impulses, initiate muscle contractions and ultimately bring about movement. Motor neurons play a crucial role in the coordination and control of voluntary movements, allowing us to perform tasks such as walking, talking, and grasping objects. By sending signals from the central nervous system to the muscles, motor neurons enable the execution of various movements and actions in response to sensory information and internal commands.

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  • 38. 

    Which bones meet to form a pivot joint?

    • A.

      Femur and tibia

    • B.

      Radius and ulna

    • C.

      Clavicle and humerus

    • D.

      Pelvis and hip

    Correct Answer
    B. Radius and ulna
    Explanation
    The correct answer is radius and ulna. A pivot joint is a type of joint that allows rotational movement. In the forearm, the radius and ulna bones meet to form a pivot joint, which enables the forearm to rotate. This allows movements like pronation (turning the palm down) and supination (turning the palm up). The other options mentioned (femur and tibia, clavicle and humerus, pelvis and hip) are not examples of pivot joints.

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  • 39. 

    What effect does regular weight-bearing exercise have on joints?

    • A.

      Increased ligament strength

    • B.

      Increased mitochondria density

    • C.

      Increased joint friction

    • D.

      Increased joint volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased ligament strength
    Explanation
    Regular weight-bearing exercise can lead to increased ligament strength. Ligaments are tough, fibrous tissues that connect bones to other bones, providing stability and support to joints. When we engage in weight-bearing exercises such as walking, running, or weightlifting, the stress placed on the joints stimulates the production of collagen fibers in the ligaments. This increased collagen production helps to reinforce and strengthen the ligaments, making them more resilient and less prone to injury. Therefore, regular weight-bearing exercise can have a positive effect on joint health by promoting increased ligament strength.

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  • 40. 

    What is the function of actin and myosin filaments?

    • A.

      Muscle fibre breakdown

    • B.

      Energy production

    • C.

      Muscle Contraction

    • D.

      Regeneration of ATP

    Correct Answer
    C. Muscle Contraction
    Explanation
    Actin and myosin filaments are proteins found in muscle cells that play a crucial role in muscle contraction. When a muscle needs to contract, the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other, causing the muscle fibers to shorten and generate force. This contraction allows for movement and is essential for various bodily functions such as locomotion, breathing, and digestion. Therefore, the function of actin and myosin filaments is muscle contraction.

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Stephen Reinbold |PhD, Biological Sciences |
Biology Expert
Stephen Reinbold has a Ph.D. in Biological Sciences with a particular interest in teaching. He taught General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology for almost thirty years at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri. He particularly enjoyed emphasizing scientific methodology and student research projects. Now, enjoying retirement, he works part-time as an editor while also engaging in online activities.

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