Anatomy & Physiology Level III 333 Mock Paper Practice Test

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1.
A benefit of core stability training is:

Explanation

Core stability training focuses on strengthening the muscles in the abdomen, back, and pelvis, which are responsible for maintaining stability and balance. By improving the strength and stability of these core muscles, individuals can enhance their overall balance. This is particularly beneficial for activities that require balance, such as sports, dance, and everyday movements. Therefore, improved balance is a well-known benefit of core stability training.

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About This Quiz
Anatomy & Physiology Level III 333 Mock Paper Practice Test - Quiz

This Anatomy & Physiology Level III 333 Mock Paper Practice Test assesses key physiological functions and anatomical knowledge, focusing on the spinal cord, blood vessels, sensory organs, muscles,... see moreand vascular system. It is designed to enhance understanding and application in medical or health-related fields. see less

2. For clients with mild hypertension, what type of training can lead to a long-term reduction in resting blood pressure? 

Explanation

Cardiovascular training can lead to a long-term reduction in resting blood pressure for clients with mild hypertension. This type of training involves activities that increase the heart rate and promote cardiovascular health, such as running, swimming, or cycling. Regular cardiovascular exercise improves the efficiency of the heart and blood vessels, leading to lower blood pressure levels even at rest. This is because the heart becomes stronger and more efficient at pumping blood, reducing the pressure on the arteries. Therefore, cardiovascular training is recommended for individuals with mild hypertension to help manage and reduce their blood pressure levels.

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3. Which excerise is not used to improve core stability?

Explanation

Bicep curls are not used to improve core stability because they primarily target the bicep muscles in the upper arms, rather than engaging the core muscles. Core stability exercises typically involve movements that engage the muscles in the abdomen, back, and pelvis to improve strength and stability in the core region. Bicep curls, on the other hand, focus on isolating and strengthening the bicep muscles. Therefore, they are not directly related to improving core stability.

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4. Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint?

Explanation

The shoulder is an example of a ball and socket joint because it consists of a rounded head of one bone (the humerus) fitting into a cup-shaped socket of another bone (the scapula). This type of joint allows for a wide range of motion in multiple directions, including rotation, flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction. The ball and socket joint in the shoulder provides stability and allows for the arm to move freely in various positions.

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5. Which factor does NOT contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor posture

Explanation

Thinking does not contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor posture. This is because spinal abnormalities and poor posture are primarily caused by factors such as heredity, lifestyle, and aging. Thinking, on the other hand, does not directly impact the physical alignment of the spine or posture. While stress and mental health can indirectly affect posture, they are not the primary factors contributing to spinal abnormalities.

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6. What is arteriosclerosis?

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis is a disease that causes hardening of the arteries. This condition occurs when the walls of the arteries become thick and stiff, leading to a reduced blood flow to the organs and tissues. It is often caused by the buildup of plaque, consisting of cholesterol and other substances, on the arterial walls. This can result in various health issues, such as high blood pressure, heart disease, and stroke.

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7. When performing a Plank which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

When performing a Plank, the muscles that are being worked are the rectus abdominis, transversus abdominis, and erector spinae. These muscles are all located in the core and back area of the body. The rectus abdominis is responsible for flexing the spine and maintaining proper posture, while the transversus abdominis helps stabilize the spine and maintain balance. The erector spinae muscles are located along the spine and are responsible for extending and rotating the spine. By engaging these muscles during a Plank, you can strengthen your core and improve overall stability and posture.

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8. What term means: 'maintaining balance or returning a system to functioning within its normal range'?

Explanation

Homeostasis refers to the process of maintaining balance or returning a system to functioning within its normal range. It is a vital mechanism in living organisms that allows them to regulate their internal environment and keep it stable despite external changes. This process involves various physiological and biochemical mechanisms that work together to monitor and adjust different variables such as temperature, pH, and hormone levels. By maintaining homeostasis, organisms can ensure optimal functioning and survival. Glycolysis, hypertension, and metabolism are not directly related to the concept of maintaining balance or returning a system to its normal range.

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9. Which one of these fascia is NOT part of a muscle fibre

Explanation

The correct answer is "Petrolmysium" because it is not a term used in anatomy or muscle physiology. The other three options, Endomysium, Epimysium, and Perimysium, are all fascia that are part of a muscle fiber. Endomysium is the connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers, Epimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle, and Perimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles.

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10. Which of the following is a health risk associated with hypertension? 

Explanation

Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of blood against the artery walls is too high. This can lead to various health risks, including coronary heart disease. Coronary heart disease occurs when the blood vessels that supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients become narrow or blocked, leading to chest pain, heart attacks, and other complications. Hypertension is a major risk factor for developing coronary heart disease as it puts extra strain on the heart and increases the chances of damage to the blood vessels.

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11. Plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels may be decreased by:

Explanation

An improved active lifestyle can decrease plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels because regular physical activity helps to improve blood circulation and maintain healthy blood vessels. When we exercise, our heart pumps more blood, which helps to remove plaque buildup and prevent the formation of new plaques. Additionally, exercise can also help to lower cholesterol levels and maintain a healthy weight, which are both important factors in reducing plaque formation. Therefore, adopting an active lifestyle can have a positive impact on cardiovascular health and reduce the risk of plaque-related conditions such as atherosclerosis.

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12. What effect will long-term strength training have on type 2 muscle fibres? (

Explanation

Long-term strength training will lead to hypertrophy of type 2 muscle fibers. Hypertrophy refers to an increase in the size and volume of muscle cells, resulting in stronger and larger muscles. Type 2 muscle fibers are responsible for generating force and power during high-intensity activities like weightlifting or sprinting. Through consistent and progressive strength training, these muscle fibers adapt and become stronger, leading to hypertrophy. This increase in muscle size is due to an increase in the number and size of myofibrils within the muscle fibers, allowing for greater force production and improved athletic performance.

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13. What structures within skeletal muscle tissue bring about contraction?

Explanation

Actin and myosin filaments are the structures within skeletal muscle tissue that bring about contraction. Actin and myosin are the two main proteins involved in muscle contraction. When a muscle receives a signal from the nervous system, the actin and myosin filaments slide past each other, causing the muscle to contract. This sliding filament mechanism allows for the shortening of muscle fibers, resulting in muscle contraction and movement.

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14. What is the function of Spinal cord?

Explanation

The spinal cord is responsible for transmitting information to the whole body. It serves as a pathway for sensory and motor signals between the brain and the rest of the body. It allows for the transmission of nerve impulses that control movement, sensation, and reflexes. The spinal cord plays a crucial role in coordinating and regulating various bodily functions, making it essential for overall body communication and function.

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15. Complete the sentence? The anaerobic threshold is described as the point at which                .......................................... than it can be cleared.

Explanation

The anaerobic threshold is described as the point at which lactate build-up occurs faster than it can be cleared. This means that during intense exercise, the body is producing lactate at a faster rate than it can be metabolized and removed from the muscles. This leads to an accumulation of lactate in the muscles, which can contribute to fatigue and a decrease in performance.

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16. Which sensory receptor detects changes in temperature?

Explanation

Thermoreceptors are sensory receptors that detect changes in temperature. They are specialized nerve endings that are sensitive to both hot and cold stimuli. When there is a change in temperature, these receptors send signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to the temperature change. This enables us to feel sensations such as heat or cold, helping us maintain homeostasis and adjust our behavior accordingly.

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17.
Which statement best describes the endocrine system?

Explanation

The endocrine system is a collection of glands that produce and secrete hormones directly into the bloodstream. These hormones act as chemical messengers, traveling through the bloodstream to target cells and organs, where they regulate various bodily functions such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, and mood. Unlike the nervous system, which uses neurons to transmit information, the endocrine system primarily relies on hormones to communicate and coordinate the activities of different parts of the body.

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18. What type of stretching has the lowest risk of injury?

Explanation

Static stretching is the type of stretching that involves holding a stretch for an extended period without any bouncing or movement. This type of stretching is considered to have the lowest risk of injury because it allows the muscles and tendons to gradually lengthen and relax without sudden or forceful movements. Static stretching is commonly used for improving flexibility and is often recommended before and after exercise to warm up and cool down the muscles.

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19.
What statement describes a short term effect of exercise?

Explanation

During exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients to meet the increased demand of the muscles. To deliver these, the heart pumps more blood, resulting in an increase in systolic blood pressure. This increase is directly related to the intensity of the exercise, as the body needs to work harder to meet the demands. Therefore, the correct answer is "An increase in systolic blood pressure related to exercise intensity."

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20. Which muscle does NOT belong to the muscles of the arm

Explanation

The Teres Major muscle does not belong to the muscles of the arm. It is actually a muscle of the back. The other three muscles listed (Tricep Brachii, Brachialis, and Brachioradialis) are all muscles that are located in the arm.

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21. Which gland can only produce thyroxine?

Explanation

The thyroid gland is responsible for producing thyroxine, a hormone that regulates the body's metabolism. It plays a crucial role in controlling energy levels, body temperature, and growth. The hypothalamus, parathyroid, and pancreas do not produce thyroxine. The hypothalamus regulates the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, the parathyroid produces parathyroid hormone, and the pancreas produces insulin and other digestive enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is the thyroid gland.

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22. Digestive reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts and blood vessels are made from what type of muscle?

Explanation

Smooth muscle is the correct answer because it is the type of muscle that makes up the digestive, reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts, and blood vessels. Smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated, meaning it lacks the striped appearance seen in skeletal muscle. It is responsible for the involuntary movements and contractions of these organs and vessels, allowing them to function properly.

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23. Which of the following can cause the valsalva effect?

Explanation

Holding breath during exertion can cause the valsalva effect. This occurs when a person holds their breath while performing a strenuous activity, such as lifting heavy weights or pushing against a resistance. The valsalva effect happens when the person closes their airway, which increases intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure. This can lead to various physiological changes, including an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in heart rate. It is often used intentionally by athletes to stabilize their core and increase their strength during certain exercises.

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24. What is the anterior groove  in the wrist and palm called?

Explanation

The correct answer is Carpal Tunnel. The carpal tunnel is a narrow passageway located on the anterior side of the wrist and palm. It is formed by the carpal bones and a ligament called the transverse carpal ligament. The carpal tunnel houses the median nerve and several tendons that control finger movement. When the median nerve becomes compressed or irritated within the carpal tunnel, it can lead to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and fingers, a condition known as carpal tunnel syndrome.

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25. Which of the following happen during a cardiovascular training session?

Explanation

During a cardiovascular training session, the heart is working harder to meet the increased demand for oxygenated blood. This leads to an increase in stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat, and an increase in cardiac output, which is the total amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute. This is because the heart becomes more efficient at pumping blood, allowing for greater amounts to be pumped with each beat, and more blood to be pumped overall.

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26. Which of the following best describes onset of blood lactate accumulation (OBLA)?

Explanation

OBLA refers to the intensity at which lactate is being produced in the muscles faster than it can be cleared. This means that during intense exercise, the rate of lactate production exceeds the rate at which it can be removed from the muscles. This accumulation of lactate can lead to fatigue and a decrease in performance.

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27.
Which muscle is NOT part of the lower leg​
 

Explanation

The biceps femoris is not part of the lower leg. It is actually a muscle located in the back of the thigh. The lower leg consists of muscles such as the tibialis anterior, gastrocnemius, and soleus, which are responsible for movements and stability in the lower leg and foot.

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28. Which activity will predominantly recruit 'slow oxidative' motor units?

Explanation

Walking predominantly recruits 'slow oxidative' motor units because it is a low-intensity, endurance-based activity that relies on the aerobic energy system. Slow oxidative motor units are responsible for sustained, low-force contractions and have a high resistance to fatigue. Walking involves a steady and continuous movement, which requires the recruitment of slow oxidative motor units to maintain a constant level of muscle activation over an extended period of time. In contrast, activities like jogging, sprinting, and jumping involve higher intensities and shorter durations, leading to the recruitment of fast-twitch motor units.

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29. What is the equation for cardiac output?

Explanation

The equation for cardiac output is calculated by multiplying the stroke volume (the volume of blood pumped out of the heart with each beat) by the heart rate (the number of times the heart beats per minute). This equation represents the amount of blood that is pumped by the heart per minute, which is known as cardiac output.

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30. What is the role of a motor unit?

Explanation

A motor unit is responsible for contracting a group of muscle fibers in response to a nerve impulse. This means that when a nerve impulse is sent from the brain to the motor unit, it triggers the contraction of multiple muscle fibers within a specific muscle group. This coordinated contraction allows for precise and controlled movement of the muscles.

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31. Improved neuromuscular efficiency can lead to which of the following benefits?

Explanation

Improved neuromuscular efficiency refers to the ability of the nervous system to effectively communicate and coordinate with the muscles. When neuromuscular efficiency is improved, the signals from the brain to the muscles are transmitted more efficiently, resulting in faster reaction times. This means that individuals with improved neuromuscular efficiency can respond quicker to stimuli, such as catching a ball or avoiding an obstacle. Therefore, faster reaction times are a direct benefit of improved neuromuscular efficiency.

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32. Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with training? 

Explanation

Neuromuscular adaptation refers to changes that occur in the nervous system and muscles as a result of training. Better inter-muscular coordination during movement is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with training. This means that the communication and coordination between different muscles improve, leading to more efficient and coordinated movement patterns. This adaptation allows for better performance and reduced risk of injury during physical activities.

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33. What structure does myosin form when interacting with Actin in the sliding filment theory?

Explanation

When myosin interacts with actin in the sliding filament theory, it forms a cross-bridge attachment. This refers to the binding of the myosin head to the actin filament, allowing for the sliding movement of the filaments during muscle contraction. The myosin head undergoes a conformational change, pulling the actin filament towards the center of the sarcomere. This cross-bridge attachment and subsequent detachment is a crucial step in the contraction and relaxation of muscle fibers.

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34. Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be

Explanation

The optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be 120mmHg. This is because a systolic blood pressure reading of 120mmHg falls within the normal range for blood pressure. Blood pressure is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) and a reading of 120mmHg indicates that the pressure exerted by the blood against the walls of the arteries when the heart beats is within a healthy range. Higher or lower values may indicate hypertension or hypotension respectively, which can have negative health implications.

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35. Which exercise uses movement in the transverse plane?

Explanation

Torso rotation is the exercise that uses movement in the transverse plane. This exercise involves rotating the upper body from side to side, which engages the muscles in the core and promotes spinal mobility. The transverse plane is one of the three anatomical planes, and it divides the body into upper and lower sections. In this plane, movement occurs around a horizontal axis, such as twisting or rotating. Therefore, torso rotation is the correct answer as it involves movement in the transverse plane.

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36. Which joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in the sagittal plane?

Explanation

The hinge joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in the sagittal plane. This type of joint is designed to allow movement in one direction, similar to the opening and closing of a door. In the case of the knee joint, flexion refers to bending the knee, while extension refers to straightening it. The hinge joint is responsible for these movements, allowing the leg to move back and forth in a single plane.

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37. Which statement about the ability to maintain a neutral spine is FALSE.

Explanation

The statement "To promote DOMS after exercising" is false because Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS) is not directly related to the ability to maintain a neutral spine. DOMS refers to muscle soreness and stiffness that occurs 24-48 hours after intense or unfamiliar exercise, and it is caused by microscopic damage to muscle fibers, not by the maintenance of a neutral spine. The other statements in the question are true and relate to the importance of maintaining a neutral spine for various reasons such as preventing joint and ligament damage, performing weight-bearing exercises efficiently, and minimizing the transmission of stressors through the pelvis.

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38. When performing a calf raise which are the two muscles are being used?

Explanation

During a calf raise, the two muscles being used are the Gastrocnemius and the Soleus. The Gastrocnemius is the larger muscle of the calf and it is responsible for the visible bulge in the back of the lower leg. It helps to flex the foot and assists in pushing off the ground during activities like walking and running. The Soleus is a smaller muscle located underneath the Gastrocnemius and it also helps in flexing the foot. Together, these two muscles work to raise the heel and provide strength and stability to the ankle joint.

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39. What happens during someone who is under the Valsalva effect?

Explanation

During the Valsalva effect, a person holds their breath and attempts to exhale forcefully without actually releasing air. This action leads to increased pressure in the chest cavity, which in turn compresses the blood vessels and restricts blood flow back to the heart. As a result, the heart has to work harder to pump blood, leading to an increase in blood pressure.

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40. Which of the following developmental postural adaptations has the greatest impact upon normal breathing patterns?

Explanation

Kyphosis is a postural adaptation characterized by an excessive outward curvature of the upper back. This condition can significantly impact normal breathing patterns because it restricts the expansion of the chest and limits the movement of the ribcage. The increased curvature of the upper back compresses the lungs and reduces their ability to fully expand during inhalation, leading to shallow breathing and decreased oxygen intake. Therefore, kyphosis has the greatest impact on normal breathing patterns compared to flat back, lordosis, and scoliosis.

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41. Which joint movement is responsible for turning the soles of your feet inwards and outwards

Explanation

Inversion and eversion are the correct joint movements responsible for turning the soles of your feet inwards and outwards. Inversion refers to the movement of the sole of the foot towards the midline of the body, while eversion refers to the movement of the sole away from the midline. These movements occur at the subtalar joint, which is located between the talus bone of the foot and the calcaneus bone of the ankle.

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42. Which exercise occurs in the Sagittal plane?

Explanation

Walking lunges occur in the Sagittal plane because they involve forward movement in a straight line, with the legs moving in a front-to-back motion. The Sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane occur along the anterior-posterior axis. Walking lunges involve flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints, which are movements that occur in the Sagittal plane.

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43. Where is the heart located?

Explanation

The heart is located posterior to (behind) the sternum, which is the bone in the center of the chest. It is also positioned just left of center, indicating that it is slightly more towards the left side of the body. This is the correct answer because it accurately describes the anatomical location of the heart.

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44. What is Hyperplasia?

Explanation

Hyperplasia refers to the process of cell division, where individual fibres (cells) split to produce more fibres (cells). This is a natural mechanism for tissue growth and repair in the body. It allows for the expansion and regeneration of tissues, such as during wound healing or muscle growth. Hyperplasia can occur in various organs and tissues, including the skin, glands, and blood vessels. It is an essential process for maintaining the body's homeostasis and adapting to changes in the environment or physiological demands.

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45. What does abduction movement achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Abduction movement achieves the anatomical action of moving a limb or body part away from the midline. This means that the limb or body part is being moved laterally or outwards, away from the center of the body. This movement is commonly seen in actions such as spreading the arms or legs apart from each other.

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46.
Arteriosclerosis can be defined as:

Explanation

Arteriosclerosis refers to a group of diseases that lead to the hardening and loss of elasticity in arteries. This condition occurs when the arterial walls become thick and stiff, reducing blood flow and increasing the risk of various cardiovascular problems. It is typically caused by the accumulation of fatty deposits, cholesterol, and other substances in the arterial walls, leading to the formation of plaques. Over time, these plaques can harden and narrow the arteries, restricting blood flow and potentially causing complications such as heart attacks or strokes.

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47. What is the explanation of Medial?

Explanation

The term "medial" refers to a position or direction that is towards the midline of the body. In anatomical terms, the midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into equal left and right halves. Therefore, if something is described as medial, it means it is closer to or moving towards the midline of the body. This is in contrast to "away from the midline of the body," which would be a lateral direction. "At the front of the body" and "on one side of the body" are not accurate explanations for the term "medial."

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48. What is residual volume?

Explanation

Residual volume refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a complete exhalation. This is the volume of air that cannot be expelled from the lungs and is necessary to keep the lungs inflated and prevent collapse. It is typically around 1.2 liters and cannot be measured directly through normal breathing.

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49. Which of the following is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group?

Explanation

The iliopsoas muscle is an anterior skeletal muscle group. It is composed of two muscles, the psoas major and the iliacus, which work together to flex the hip joint. The triceps muscle is located on the back of the upper arm and is not an anterior muscle group. The rhomboids and trapezius muscles are both located in the upper back and are not anterior muscles. Therefore, the correct answer is lliopsoas.

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50. Which risk  is a Non-Lifestyle factor that can affect an individual's risk of developing circulatory disease?

Explanation

Family history is a non-lifestyle factor that can affect an individual's risk of developing circulatory disease. This means that if someone has a family member who has had circulatory disease, they may have a higher risk of developing the condition themselves. This risk factor is not related to the individual's own lifestyle choices, such as physical inactivity, hypertension, or stress. Instead, it is based on their genetic predisposition and the presence of certain genes that may increase their susceptibility to circulatory disease.

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51. What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen?

Explanation

Pyruvic acid is converted to lactic acid when there is inadequate oxygen. This process is known as anaerobic glycolysis. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted to lactic acid by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. This allows the cells to continue producing ATP, the energy currency of the cell, even when oxygen is limited. Lactic acid can build up in the muscles during intense exercise, leading to muscle fatigue and soreness.

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52.
What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre?

Explanation

The contractile unit of a muscle fiber is called a sarcomere. It is the basic structural and functional unit of a muscle, responsible for muscle contraction. Sarcomeres are composed of thin actin filaments and thick myosin filaments, which slide past each other during muscle contraction, resulting in the shortening of the sarcomere and overall muscle contraction. Tendons are connective tissues that attach muscles to bones, fascicles are bundles of muscle fibers, and endomysium is the connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers.

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53. The myocardium is formed from what type of muscle?

Explanation

The myocardium is the muscular tissue of the heart, responsible for its contraction and pumping action. It is specifically formed from cardiac muscle, which is a unique type of muscle found only in the heart. Cardiac muscle is striated like skeletal muscle, but it is involuntary like smooth muscle. Therefore, it is distinct from both skeletal and smooth muscles.

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54. Which anatomical movement can't occur at the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint.

Explanation

Opposition is the movement that occurs when the thumb is brought across the palm to touch the fingertips. This movement is not possible at the shoulder joint, as it is primarily controlled by the joints of the hand and wrist. The shoulder joint allows for flexion, extension, and rotation, but opposition is not one of its movements.

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55. Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands?

Explanation

The endocrine system is responsible for producing and releasing hormones into the bloodstream to regulate various bodily functions. The pancreas, pituitary gland, and thyroid gland are all part of the endocrine system and are classified as endocrine glands. The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon, which regulate blood sugar levels. The pituitary gland produces and releases hormones that control other endocrine glands. The thyroid gland produces hormones that regulate metabolism. Therefore, the list "Pancreas, pituitary and thyroid" contains only endocrine glands.

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56. What is the explanation for superficial (global)

Explanation

The term "superficial" refers to something that is closest to the surface. In the context of the human body, it means being near or on the outermost layer of skin or tissue. Therefore, the explanation for "superficial (global)" is that it refers to something that is nearest to the surface of the body.

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57. Which of the following training methods is most effective for improving the efficiency of fat burning pathways? 

Explanation

Long-duration continuous training is the most effective training method for improving the efficiency of fat burning pathways. This type of training involves exercising at a steady pace for an extended period of time, typically at a low to moderate intensity. By engaging in prolonged aerobic activity, the body relies on fat as its primary source of fuel, leading to increased fat burning and improved efficiency of the fat burning pathways. This type of training is commonly associated with activities such as jogging, cycling, or swimming for longer durations.

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58. What does adduction movement achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Adduction movement achieves anatomically by moving a limb or body part towards the midline. This means that the limb or body part is brought closer to the center of the body. This movement is commonly seen in activities such as bringing the arms or legs closer to the body's midline.

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59. Which of the following describes the articulation at the pubis symphysis?

Explanation

The pubis symphysis is a cartilaginous joint located between the two pubic bones in the pelvis. This type of joint is held together by fibrocartilage, which allows for limited movement. It provides stability and support to the pelvis during activities such as walking and running.

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60. Which part of a long bone is the diaphysis?

Explanation

The diaphysis refers to the shaft of a long bone. It is the long, cylindrical part of the bone between the two ends. This region is primarily composed of compact bone tissue and contains the medullary cavity, which houses yellow bone marrow in adults. The diaphysis provides support and stability to the bone, while also serving as a site for muscle attachment.

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61. A reading of <90 systolic over <60 diastolic is a classification of which blood pressure?

Explanation

A reading of

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62. As the agonist contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes to allow movement. What is this occurrence known as? 

Explanation

Reciprocal inhibition refers to the phenomenon where the antagonist muscle relaxes while the agonist muscle contracts, allowing smooth movement. This occurs to maintain balance and coordination during movement.

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63. Which system is NOT used in core stability

Explanation

The question asks for the system that is NOT used in core stability. Core stability refers to the ability of the body's core muscles to maintain control and stability during movement. The biological control system involves the body's natural ability to regulate and control its functions, including muscle activation and coordination. Therefore, it is used in core stability. The passive system refers to the passive structures in the body such as ligaments and bones, which provide stability but do not actively control movement. The active system refers to the muscles themselves, which actively contract and generate movement. The neural control system involves the central nervous system's control over muscle activation and coordination. Therefore, the system that is NOT used in core stability is the passive system.

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64. Which spinal disorder may also be known as the term ''hunchback''?

Explanation

Hyper-kyphosis may also be known as the term "hunchback" because it refers to an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, causing a rounded or hunched appearance of the upper back. This condition can result in poor posture, back pain, and limited mobility.

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65. Excessive abdominal adiposity is most associated with what type of postural deviation?

Explanation

Excessive abdominal adiposity refers to having an excessive amount of fat in the abdominal area. This can lead to an increased curvature of the lower spine, known as lordosis. Lordosis is a postural deviation characterized by an exaggerated inward curve of the lower back. The excessive weight in the abdomen pulls the pelvis forward, causing an increased arch in the lower back. Therefore, excessive abdominal adiposity is most associated with lordosis.

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66. Which of the following statements about type 1 muscle fibres is true?

Explanation

Type 1 muscle fibers are known as slow-twitch fibers and are indeed slower to fatigue compared to type 2 fibers. This is because type 1 fibers are more efficient in utilizing oxygen and have a higher density of mitochondria, which allows them to generate energy aerobically for a longer duration. Type 1 fibers are also known as red fibers due to their high myoglobin content, which gives them a reddish appearance.

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67. Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic rate?

Explanation

Thyroid hormone is responsible for maintaining the basal metabolic rate. It controls the rate at which the body uses energy and regulates various bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and temperature. When the thyroid gland produces insufficient amounts of thyroid hormone, it can result in a slower metabolic rate, leading to symptoms like fatigue and weight gain. Conversely, an overproduction of thyroid hormone can cause a faster metabolic rate, leading to symptoms like weight loss and increased heart rate. Therefore, the thyroid hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's basal metabolic rate.

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68. What is the function of muscle spindle cells?

Explanation

Muscle spindle cells are sensory receptors located within the muscle that are responsible for detecting changes in muscle length. When a muscle is excessively lengthened, such as during stretching or when a weight is placed on it, the muscle spindle cells are activated and send signals to the spinal cord and brain. This helps to initiate a reflex contraction of the muscle, preventing it from being stretched too far and potentially causing damage. Therefore, the correct answer is that muscle spindle cells respond to excessive lengthening of the muscle.

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69. What is the explanation for Proximal?

Explanation

The term "proximal" refers to a location that is closer to the origin or point of attachment. In anatomical terms, it is used to describe the position of a body part or structure in relation to its attachment or origin point. For example, in the context of a limb, the proximal end is the end that is closer to the body's midline or point of attachment, while the distal end is further away. This term is commonly used in medical and anatomical discussions to accurately describe the relative positions of body parts.

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70. What does the Pancreas control?

Explanation

The pancreas controls blood sugar levels by producing and releasing insulin, a hormone that helps regulate glucose in the bloodstream. Insulin allows cells to absorb and utilize glucose for energy, thereby maintaining the balance of blood sugar. When blood sugar levels rise, the pancreas releases more insulin to lower it, and when blood sugar levels drop, the pancreas reduces insulin production. This control is crucial in preventing high or low blood sugar levels, which can lead to various health complications.

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71. What is the muscle that is longest in the leg?

Explanation

The correct answer is Sartorius. The Sartorius muscle is the longest muscle in the leg. It is a long, thin muscle that runs down the length of the thigh, crossing both the hip and knee joints. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine of the pelvis and inserts onto the medial surface of the tibia. The Sartorius muscle is responsible for flexing, abducting, and laterally rotating the hip joint, as well as flexing and medially rotating the knee joint.

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72. If a client with moderate hypertension began regular cardiovascular training, resting and exercising blood pressures can be reduced by:as much as

Explanation

Regular cardiovascular training has been shown to have a positive effect on blood pressure. It can help to strengthen the heart, improve blood flow, and reduce the resistance to blood flow in the arteries. As a result, both resting and exercising blood pressures can be reduced. The answer "Up to 10mmHg" suggests that regular cardiovascular training can potentially lower both resting and exercising blood pressures by as much as 10mmHg.

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73. '''Threshold reaction'' of a particular nerve cell and muscle fibre to a stimulation is known as?

Explanation

The correct answer is "All or nothing reaction." This term refers to the phenomenon where a nerve cell or muscle fiber either responds completely to a stimulation, producing a full action potential or contraction, or does not respond at all. There is no partial response. This concept is important in understanding the functioning of neurons and muscle fibers.

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74. Which hormone causes the conversion of glycogen to glucose to raise blood sugar level?

Explanation

Glucagon is the hormone responsible for converting glycogen to glucose in order to raise blood sugar levels. When blood sugar levels drop, the pancreas releases glucagon, which stimulates the liver to break down stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This process, known as glycogenolysis, helps to maintain a stable blood sugar level and provide energy to the body.

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75. What effect does atherosclerosis have on blood flow through arteries?

Explanation

Atherosclerosis is a condition where plaque builds up in the arteries, narrowing the blood vessels and reducing their elasticity. This narrowing increases the resistance to blood flow, making it harder for blood to pass through the arteries. As a result, the heart has to work harder to pump blood, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is that atherosclerosis increases resistance to blood flow, thus increasing blood pressure.

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76. Where is the biceps brachii muscles located

Explanation

The biceps brachii muscles are located in the upper arm. These muscles are responsible for flexing the elbow joint and supinating the forearm. They are easily visible and can be felt as a prominent bulge when the arm is flexed. The biceps brachii muscles play a crucial role in various activities involving the upper arm, such as lifting, pulling, and throwing.

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77. Which sensory organs register changes in blood pressure?

Explanation

Baroreceptors are sensory organs that detect changes in blood pressure. They are located in the walls of the major blood vessels, such as the carotid arteries and aorta. When blood pressure increases or decreases, baroreceptors send signals to the brain, which then regulates the heart rate and blood vessel diameter to maintain blood pressure within a normal range. Chemoreceptors detect changes in the chemical composition of the blood, thermoreceptors detect changes in temperature, and there is no such thing as "bio receptors."

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78. Which one of these functions is NOT part of the nervous system?

Explanation

Biological Input is not part of the nervous system because it is not a recognized function. The nervous system is responsible for sensory input, interpretation, and motor output. Sensory input involves receiving information from the environment, interpretation involves processing and analyzing the information, and motor output involves responding to the information by initiating muscle contractions or glandular secretions. Biological input does not fit into any of these categories and is therefore not part of the nervous system.

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79. When performing a crunch machine exercise which is the Only muscle being worked?

Explanation

During a crunch machine exercise, the only muscle being worked is the rectus abdominis. This muscle is located in the front of the abdomen and is responsible for flexing the spine, allowing you to curl your torso towards your legs. The transverse abdominis, internal obliques, and external obliques are also involved in core stability and support, but they are not the primary muscles targeted during a crunch machine exercise.

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80. When a muscle assists another muscle to allow movement to occur it is acting as a/an

Explanation

A muscle that assists another muscle to allow movement to occur is acting as a synergist. Synergists work together with the prime mover muscle to enhance its action and provide additional support and stability. They help to coordinate and control movement, ensuring smooth and efficient motion. In this context, the term "synergist" accurately describes the muscle's role in assisting and working in harmony with the prime mover.

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81. Which statement describes the systolic blood pressure response during exercise?

Explanation

During exercise, the body requires more oxygen and nutrients to be delivered to the muscles. The autonomic nervous system, specifically the sympathetic branch, is responsible for increasing heart rate and blood pressure to meet this increased demand. This is why systolic blood pressure increases under the influence of the autonomic nervous system during exercise.

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82. During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip?

Explanation

During the downward phase of a squat, the movement that occurs at the hip is flexion. Flexion refers to the bending of a joint, in this case, the hip joint, bringing the thigh closer to the torso. This movement is essential in a squat as it allows the hips to lower down towards the ground while maintaining stability and balance. Lateral flexion refers to the bending of the spine sideways, horizontal flexion refers to the movement of the shoulder joint towards the midline, and plantar flexion refers to the movement of the foot pointing downwards.

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83. Which part of the female pelvis is false 

Explanation

The given answer suggests that the statement "Smaller Q between hip and knee joints causing less efficient transfer of force between hip and knee" is false. This means that there is no smaller Q between the hip and knee joints, and therefore, there is an efficient transfer of force between these joints.

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84. What are peptides made from?

Explanation

Peptides are made from proteins. Proteins are large molecules made up of amino acids that are joined together by peptide bonds. Peptides are smaller chains of amino acids that are derived from proteins. They play important roles in various biological processes, such as cell signaling and hormone regulation. Therefore, it is correct to say that peptides are made from proteins.

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85. Which excerises is NOT done in the frontal plane

Explanation

The bicep curl is not done in the frontal plane. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and movements in this plane involve side-to-side movements. The bicep curl, on the other hand, is a movement that primarily occurs in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. This exercise involves flexing the elbow joint to bring the weight towards the shoulder, without any significant side-to-side movement.

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86. Which one of these two muscles is used when performing a back extension?

Explanation

The erector spinae and multifidus muscles are used when performing a back extension. These muscles are responsible for extending the spine and maintaining proper posture. The erector spinae muscles run along the length of the spine and help to keep it upright, while the multifidus muscles are deeper and provide stability and control during movement. Together, these muscles work to extend the back and maintain its alignment.

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87. What does Rotation achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Rotation achieves the turning of a bone around its own long axis in the transverse plane. This movement allows for the bone to rotate internally or externally, depending on the direction of the rotation. It is an important anatomical movement that contributes to various functions such as joint mobility, muscle coordination, and overall body movement.

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88. Which method is NOT used in training using the ATP-PC System

Explanation

Cycling is not used in training using the ATP-PC system. The ATP-PC system is the primary energy system used for short bursts of high-intensity exercise, such as sprinting or weightlifting. Cycling is a form of aerobic exercise that primarily relies on the aerobic energy system, which uses oxygen to produce energy over a longer duration. Therefore, cycling does not directly stress the ATP-PC system and is not typically used in training specifically targeting this energy system.

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89. What does the myelin sheath do?

Explanation

The myelin sheath acts as an insulator, which allows electrical messages to be sent quickly and easily. By providing insulation, the myelin sheath prevents the electrical impulses from dissipating or getting lost as they travel along the neuron. This insulation increases the speed and efficiency of nerve impulse transmission, enabling effective communication between different parts of the nervous system.

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90. What is the systolic and diastolic reading needed to classify a cilent with hypertension?

Explanation

The systolic and diastolic readings needed to classify a client with hypertension are greater than 140 for systolic and greater than 90 for diastolic. This means that if a person's blood pressure readings consistently exceed these values, they would be classified as having hypertension. The answer provided states ">140 over >90", which aligns with the correct classification for hypertension.

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91.
Which quadricep muscle crosses two joints?

Explanation

The rectus femoris is the quadricep muscle that crosses two joints. It originates from the anterior inferior iliac spine and inserts into the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon. It crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint, allowing it to flex the hip and extend the knee. The vastus intermedius, vastus medialis, and vastus lateralis are also quadricep muscles, but they only cross the knee joint.

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92.
Which reaction is caused by the release of epinephrine?

Explanation

Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a hormone released by the adrenal glands in response to stress or fear. It acts as a stimulant and triggers a "fight or flight" response in the body. One of the effects of epinephrine is an increase in breathing rate. This is because epinephrine dilates the airways in the lungs, allowing more oxygen to enter and increasing the efficiency of respiration. Therefore, increased breathing rate is the reaction caused by the release of epinephrine.

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93. How many Adeonsine triphosphate molecules are used up every time a myosin head pivots and pulls on an actin filament?

Explanation

When a myosin head pivots and pulls on an actin filament, only one Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) molecule is used up. ATP provides the energy needed for the myosin head to detach from the actin filament and reset its position for the next contraction. Therefore, each pivot and pull of the myosin head requires the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule.

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94. A Cell Body does?

Explanation

The cell body is responsible for containing the nucleus. The nucleus is the control center of the cell and contains the genetic material. It regulates the cell's activities and controls the synthesis of proteins and other important molecules. The cell body also plays a role in allowing nutrients and waste products to enter and leave the cell. It contains various organelles, including hundreds of sacs, which are involved in different cellular processes. However, the presence of an elongated fiber that transmits information to the cell body is not mentioned in the given options.

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95. Which sentence about pelvic floor benefits is FALSE.

Explanation

The given sentence "Inflexible to counteract changes in abdominal pressure" is FALSE. The pelvic floor is actually flexible and dynamic, allowing it to respond and adapt to changes in abdominal pressure. It plays a crucial role in providing stability to the pelvic girdle, supporting the organs of the pelvis and abdominal contents, as well as controlling continence of urine and feces.

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96. Which anatomical plane does Lordosis occur?

Explanation

Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the spine, commonly known as "swayback." It is most commonly observed in the lumbar region of the spine. The sagittal plane divides the body into left and right halves, and movements in this plane include flexion and extension. Lordosis occurs in the sagittal plane because it involves an exaggerated inward curvature of the spine, specifically in the lumbar region.

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97. How can the vascular system increase blood flow to a specific area of the body?

Explanation

The vascular system can increase blood flow to a specific area of the body by vasodilation of arterioles leading to that area. Vasodilation refers to the widening of blood vessels, which allows for increased blood flow. By dilating the arterioles, more blood can reach the specific area, supplying it with oxygen and nutrients. This mechanism is important in regulating blood flow to different tissues and organs based on their needs. Vasoconstriction, on the other hand, refers to the narrowing of blood vessels and would decrease blood flow to a specific area. Vasodilation of venules and vasoconstriction of venules do not directly impact blood flow to a specific area.

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98. Which hormone is NOT produced by the Adrenals

Explanation

Progesterone is a hormone primarily produced by the ovaries in females during the menstrual cycle and by the placenta during pregnancy. It is not produced by the adrenal glands. The adrenal glands, on the other hand, produce adrenaline, noradrenaline, and corticosteroids. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are stress hormones that are involved in the body's "fight or flight" response, while corticosteroids are a group of hormones that regulate various functions in the body, including metabolism and immune response.

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99. Which hormone is NOT produced by the Male/female reproductive system?

Explanation

Growth hormone is not produced by the male/female reproductive system. It is produced by the pituitary gland, which is located in the brain. Growth hormone plays a crucial role in stimulating growth and development in children and adolescents. It also helps regulate metabolism and body composition in adults. On the other hand, testosterone, progesterone, and estrogen are all hormones produced by the male/female reproductive system. Testosterone is primarily produced in the testes in males and in smaller amounts in the ovaries in females. Progesterone and estrogen are primarily produced in the ovaries in females.

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100. Complete the sentence: The............................stimulates the relaxation of muscle during PNF stretching.

Explanation

The Golgi tendon organ stimulates the relaxation of muscle during PNF stretching. This is because the Golgi tendon organ is a sensory receptor located in the tendons that detects changes in muscle tension. When the muscle is stretched during PNF stretching, the Golgi tendon organ is activated and sends signals to the spinal cord, which in turn causes the muscle to relax. This mechanism helps prevent excessive muscle contraction and allows for a deeper stretch during PNF stretching.

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101.
In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur?

Explanation

Lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the spine, commonly seen in the lower back. This abnormal curvature occurs in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. The sagittal plane runs parallel to the body's midline and allows for flexion and extension movements. Therefore, lordosis occurs in the sagittal plane as it involves the exaggerated inward curvature of the spine in the anterior-posterior direction.

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102. Which muscle is NOT contained in the hamstring group?

Explanation

The muscle that is not contained in the hamstring group is the Gracilis. The hamstring group consists of the Biceps femoris, Semimembranosus, and Semitendinosus muscles. The Gracilis muscle is actually part of the adductor muscle group, which is located in the inner thigh.

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103. Which exercise occurs in the frontal plane?

Explanation

Side Bends occur in the frontal plane. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and movements in this plane involve side-to-side motions. Side Bends specifically involve bending the torso to the side, targeting the oblique muscles. Bicep Curls, Squats, and Leg Extensions do not occur in the frontal plane as they involve movements in different planes of motion.

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104. If picking up a pen to do handwriting how many muscle fibres need to be recruited?

Explanation

When picking up a pen to do handwriting, only a small amount of muscle fibers need to be recruited fully. This is because the fine motor movements required for handwriting do not require a large amount of force or strength. Instead, precise control and coordination of the muscles are needed, which can be achieved by recruiting a small number of muscle fibers fully.

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105. Which description of the male pelvis is false?

Explanation

The Q angle is the angle between the quadriceps muscle and the patellar tendon. It is used to assess the alignment of the lower extremities. In males, the Q angle is typically smaller than in females, which means that the statement "Large Q angle between hip and knee joints allowing more efficient transfer of force between the hip and knee joints" is false. A larger Q angle can actually lead to biomechanical issues and increased stress on the knee joint.

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106. Which element is most important for the process muscle contraction for the sliding filament theory

Explanation

Calcium is the most important element for the process of muscle contraction in the sliding filament theory. When an action potential reaches the muscle cell, it triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. These calcium ions then bind to the protein troponin, causing a conformational change that allows myosin heads to bind to actin filaments. This initiates the sliding of the actin and myosin filaments, leading to muscle contraction. Without calcium, the muscle fibers would not be able to contract properly.

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107. Which two muscles are being worked when performing crunches?

Explanation

When performing crunches, the rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis muscles are being worked. The rectus abdominis is the muscle responsible for the "six-pack" appearance and is located in the front of the abdomen. The transverse abdominis is a deep muscle that wraps around the abdomen, providing stability and support to the core. Both of these muscles are engaged during crunches to flex the spine and strengthen the abdominal region.

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108. Which one of these is can lead to Ballistic stretching if uncontrolled?

Explanation

Dynamic stretching involves moving parts of your body and gradually increasing the range of motion. If not controlled properly, this can lead to ballistic stretching. Ballistic stretching involves bouncing or jerking movements, which can cause the muscles to stretch too far and potentially result in injury. Therefore, dynamic stretching can lead to ballistic stretching if it is not done with control and proper technique.

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109. Which part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is responsible for controlling voluntary muscular activity?

Explanation

The somatic system is responsible for controlling voluntary muscular activity. This system consists of motor neurons that transmit signals from the brain to the skeletal muscles, allowing us to consciously control our movements. Unlike the autonomic system, which controls involuntary functions such as heart rate and digestion, the somatic system is under our conscious control and allows us to perform actions like walking, talking, and writing.

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110. How many bones make up the Entire Spinal Column

Explanation

The spinal column is made up of 33 bones. It is composed of individual bones called vertebrae, which are stacked on top of each other to form a flexible and protective structure. Each vertebra has a specific shape and function, and together they provide support to the body, protect the spinal cord, and allow for movement and flexibility. Therefore, the correct answer is 33.

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111. Strengthening which muscles can help to correct lordosis? 

Explanation

Strengthening the muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards can help to correct lordosis. Lordosis is an excessive inward curvature of the lower spine, causing the pelvis to tilt forward. By strengthening the muscles that tilt the pelvis backwards, such as the gluteus maximus and hamstrings, it can help to counteract the excessive forward tilt of the pelvis and bring it back to a more neutral position. This can help to alleviate the symptoms and improve the posture associated with lordosis.

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112. Which anatomical plane does Kyphosis occur?

Explanation

Kyphosis is a condition characterized by an excessive forward curvature of the spine, causing a hunched or rounded back. This abnormal curvature primarily occurs in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. The sagittal plane runs from the front to the back of the body, and kyphosis affects the alignment of the spine in this plane. Therefore, the correct answer is the Sagittal Plane.

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113.
Which statement describes a motor unit?

Explanation

A motor unit refers to a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers that it innervates. When a motor neuron is activated, it stimulates all the muscle fibers it connects to contract simultaneously. This coordinated contraction allows for precise control and movement of muscles.

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114. When performing a shoulder shrug exercise which one of these muscles is  being used?

Explanation

During a shoulder shrug exercise, the trapezius muscle is being used. The trapezius muscle is located in the upper back and neck area and is responsible for the movement of the shoulder blades. When performing a shoulder shrug, the trapezius muscle contracts to elevate the shoulders towards the ears, creating the shrugging motion. This exercise helps to strengthen and tone the trapezius muscle, improving posture and shoulder stability.

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115. Complete the following sentence ''The transport of Sodium and ............. ions in and out of the neuron is known as the sodium..................... pump?

Explanation

The transport of Sodium and Potassium ions in and out of the neuron is known as the sodium-potassium pump. This pump plays a crucial role in maintaining the resting membrane potential of neurons and is responsible for generating action potentials. It actively transports three sodium ions out of the neuron for every two potassium ions it brings in, contributing to the electrical signaling and functioning of the nervous system.

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116.
Which term is used to describe the middle layer of a muscle?

Explanation

Perimysium is the correct answer because it refers to the connective tissue layer that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers, known as fascicles, within a muscle. It provides support and protection to the muscle fibers and helps in transmitting force generated by the muscle. The other options, endomysium, epimysium, and periosteum, refer to different connective tissue layers but are not specifically related to the middle layer of a muscle.

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117. Where are catecholamines produced?

Explanation

Catecholamines are a group of hormones that include adrenaline and noradrenaline. These hormones are produced in the adrenal glands, which are located on top of the kidneys. The adrenal glands play a crucial role in the body's response to stress and are responsible for producing various hormones, including catecholamines. Therefore, the correct answer is adrenal glands.

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118. What does lateral flexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Lateral flexion refers to the bending of the spine to the side in the frontal plane. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and movements in this plane occur side to side. Therefore, when the spine is bent to the side in the frontal plane, it achieves lateral flexion.

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119. What does Dorsiflexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Dorsiflexion is the movement that involves pointing the toes upwards in the sagittal plane. This movement occurs at the ankle joint, where the foot is brought closer to the shin. Dorsiflexion helps to increase the angle between the foot and the leg, allowing for activities such as walking, running, and jumping. It also helps to stabilize the foot and ankle during weight-bearing activities.

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120. What is the name of the valve that is located between the right ventrcle  and right atrium?

Explanation

The valve that is located between the right ventricle and right atrium is called the tricuspid valve. This valve has three cusps or leaflets that open and close to regulate the flow of blood between the two chambers. It prevents the backflow of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium during the contraction of the ventricle, ensuring that blood only flows in one direction, from the atrium to the ventricle.

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121. A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classifed as which blood pressure measurement

Explanation

A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classified as pre-high blood pressure. This means that the blood pressure is slightly elevated, but not yet in the range of hypertension. Hypertension is typically defined as a systolic reading of 140 or higher and a diastolic reading of 90 or higher. Therefore, the given reading falls within the pre-high blood pressure range, indicating that caution should be taken to prevent the development of hypertension.

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122. Which one of these muscles is not part of the hamstring group?

Explanation

The correct answer is Vectus Fermoris because it is not a muscle that is part of the hamstring group. The hamstring group consists of three muscles: Bicep Fermoris, Semimembranosus, and Semitendonosus. Vectus Fermoris is not a recognized muscle in the hamstring group.

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123. Which joint action can only be done in the sagittal plane?

Explanation

Plantar flexion is the movement of the foot and ankle that involves pointing the toes downward, away from the body. This movement occurs in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. Lateral extension, circumduction, and elevation involve movements in other planes and are not limited to the sagittal plane. Therefore, plantar flexion is the only joint action that can only be done in the sagittal plane.

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124. A single motor unit 

Explanation

A single motor unit refers to a group of muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron. These motor units work together to generate force and produce movement. However, a single motor unit cannot vary the force it generates. This is because all the muscle fibers within a motor unit are of the same type and are innervated by the same motor neuron. Therefore, they contract together and produce a fixed amount of force. To generate varying levels of force, the nervous system recruits different motor units with varying numbers of muscle fibers.

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125. Which of the following best describes coronary circulation?

Explanation

Coronary circulation refers to the circulation of blood within the coronary arteries, which supply oxygenated blood to the myocardium (heart muscle). The coronary arteries originate from the aorta and carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium, allowing the heart muscle to receive the necessary oxygen and nutrients for proper functioning.

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126. Which statement about muscles is FALSE

Explanation

Muscles do not push. They can only pull. When a muscle contracts, it pulls on the tendons attached to the bones, causing movement at the joints. This is how muscles create an action at the joint(s) they cross. The statement "Muscles Push" is false because muscles can only generate force by pulling.

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127. Which gland labelled below releases hormones that stimulate promotes growth in children and young adults

Explanation

The gland labelled "a" releases hormones that stimulate growth in children and young adults. This gland is most likely referring to the pituitary gland, which is responsible for the secretion of growth hormone. Growth hormone plays a crucial role in promoting growth and development during childhood and adolescence.

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128. What is the explanation for distal?

Explanation

The term "distal" refers to a location or position that is further away from the origin or point of attachment. It is commonly used in anatomy to describe body parts that are located farther away from the center of the body or the point where a limb attaches to the body. For example, the hand is distal to the shoulder because it is further away from the point of attachment at the shoulder.

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129.
The ovaries release hormones which can 

Explanation

The ovaries release hormones that can decrease hair growth on the body. This is because the hormones released by the ovaries, such as estrogen and progesterone, can inhibit the production of androgens, which are responsible for stimulating hair growth. By reducing the levels of androgens in the body, the ovaries can help to decrease the growth of hair on the body.

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130. When performing a chest press exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a chest press exercise, the muscles that are primarily being used are the pectoralis major and anterior fibers of the deltoid. The pectoralis major is the main muscle responsible for the pressing motion, while the anterior fibers of the deltoid assist in shoulder flexion. The posterior fibers of the deltoid, however, are not actively involved in the chest press exercise. These fibers are responsible for shoulder extension and lateral rotation, which are not utilized during a chest press.

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131. What is the main By product of using the aerobic system

Explanation

The main byproduct of using the aerobic system is carbon dioxide. During aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water. Carbon dioxide is a waste product that is released into the bloodstream and eventually exhaled through the lungs. It is important to remove carbon dioxide from the body to maintain proper pH levels and prevent respiratory acidosis.

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132. What timeframe does Delayed onset of muscular sorenesss (DOMS) take?

Explanation

Delayed onset of muscular soreness (DOMS) typically occurs 12-72 hours after exercise. This is a common phenomenon experienced by individuals after engaging in strenuous or unfamiliar physical activities. During this timeframe, individuals may feel muscle stiffness, tenderness, and discomfort. DOMS is believed to be caused by microscopic damage to muscle fibers, resulting in an inflammatory response and the release of pain-inducing substances. The delayed onset of symptoms distinguishes DOMS from immediate muscle soreness, which occurs within 30 minutes after exercise.

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133. Which statement about changes to muscle types is TRUE.

Explanation

Muscle fibers are classified into different types based on their contractile properties and metabolic characteristics. Type 1 muscle fibers are slow-twitch fibers that are resistant to fatigue and are used for endurance activities. Type 2 muscle fibers are fast-twitch fibers that generate more force and are used for explosive activities. These two types of muscle fibers have distinct structural and functional differences, and it is not possible to change one type of muscle fiber into another type. Therefore, the statement that it is NOT possible to change a muscle fiber from type 1 to type 2 or vice versa is correct.

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134. When performing a Bicep Curl exercise which one of these two muscles is  being used?

Explanation

During a Bicep Curl exercise, the muscles being used are the Biceps Brachii and the Brachialis. The Biceps Brachii is the primary muscle responsible for flexing the elbow joint, while the Brachialis assists in this movement. Both muscles work together to lift the weight during a Bicep Curl exercise.

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135. Which by-product of the energy systems can cause muscle fatigue?

Explanation

During intense exercise, the body produces energy through the breakdown of glucose. This process produces hydrogen ions as a by-product. Accumulation of hydrogen ions in the muscles leads to a decrease in pH, causing the muscles to become more acidic. This acidic environment interferes with muscle contractions and impairs their ability to generate force, leading to muscle fatigue. Therefore, hydrogen ions can cause muscle fatigue.

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136. Which one of the following valves prevents backflow of blood into the Right ventricle?

Explanation

Valve C is the pulmonary valve, which prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle. When the right ventricle contracts, the pulmonary valve opens to allow blood to flow into the pulmonary artery and towards the lungs. After the contraction, the pulmonary valve closes to prevent the blood from flowing back into the right ventricle. This ensures that the blood flows in one direction, from the right ventricle to the lungs, preventing any backflow.

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137. Which method of training does NOT use the lactic Acid System

Explanation

Long distance running does not use the lactic acid system for training. The lactic acid system is primarily used for short bursts of intense exercise, while long distance running relies more on aerobic energy production. In this type of training, the body utilizes oxygen to break down carbohydrates and fats for energy, rather than relying on the lactic acid system.

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138. Aerobic generation of ATP can only take place inside which structure?

Explanation

Aerobic generation of ATP refers to the production of ATP through the process of cellular respiration, which requires oxygen. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell and are responsible for carrying out aerobic respiration. They have specialized structures and enzymes that allow them to efficiently generate ATP through the breakdown of glucose and other molecules. Sacromere, tendons, and myoglobin are not directly involved in the aerobic generation of ATP.

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139. A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by

Explanation

Spinal flexion is more likely to aggravate a posterior disc bulge. This is because flexion involves bending the spine forward, which puts increased pressure on the posterior disc and can cause it to bulge further. On the other hand, spinal extension involves bending the spine backward, which may actually help to alleviate the pressure on the posterior disc. Planar flexion and shoulder extension are not directly related to the spine and would not have a significant impact on a posterior disc bulge.

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140. The breakdown of glycogen into pyruvic acid results in the production of how many molecules of ATP

Explanation

When glycogen is broken down into pyruvic acid, two molecules of ATP are produced. This process is known as glycolysis, which occurs in the cytoplasm of cells. During glycolysis, glucose is converted into pyruvic acid, and in the process, a net of two molecules of ATP are generated. This ATP can be used as an immediate source of energy for the cell.

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141. When performing a reverse fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a reverse fly exercise, the muscles that are primarily being used are the posterior fibres of the deltoids, trapezius, and rhomboids. The reverse fly exercise specifically targets the muscles of the upper back and shoulders. The anterior fibres of the deltoids, on the other hand, are not actively engaged in this exercise as they are responsible for flexing and internally rotating the arm, which is not the primary movement in a reverse fly.

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142. What is the function of the semi-lunar valves?

Explanation

The function of the semi-lunar valves is to prevent the backflow of blood into the ventricles. These valves are located between the ventricles and the major arteries (aorta and pulmonary artery) and open to allow blood to be pumped out of the heart. When the ventricles relax, the semi-lunar valves close to prevent blood from flowing back into the ventricles, ensuring a one-way flow of blood through the circulatory system.

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143. What common muscle imbalance can develop, leading to insufficient core stabilisation?

Explanation

Muscle imbalance can occur when certain muscles become stronger and tighter, while others become weaker and lengthen. This can lead to insufficient core stabilization. In this scenario, the dominant muscles tighten, causing them to become stronger and more contracted, while the weaker muscles lengthen, becoming weaker and more elongated. This imbalance can disrupt the proper functioning of the core muscles, affecting stability and potentially leading to various issues such as poor posture, decreased range of motion, and increased risk of injury.

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144. ''When it is at rest, a neuron membrane is positively charged on the outside compared to the muscle'' The difference in charged is called?

Explanation

When a neuron is at rest, its membrane is positively charged on the outside compared to the inside. This difference in charge is known as the resting membrane potential. However, the question is asking for the term that describes the change in membrane potential that occurs when a neuron is stimulated and an electrical impulse is generated. This change is called the action potential.

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145. Which of the following best describes the process of motor unit recruitment? 

Explanation

Motor unit recruitment refers to the process of activating motor units in order to generate muscle contractions. In this process, an efferent nerve impulse triggers all of the fibers in the motor unit to contract. This means that when the nerve impulse is sent from the central nervous system to the muscle, all the muscle fibers within that motor unit are stimulated to contract simultaneously. This allows for a coordinated and synchronized contraction of the muscle, providing the necessary force for movement or action.

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146. What does Plantar Flexion achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Plantar flexion is the movement that occurs when the toes are pointed downwards in the sagittal plane. This movement is achieved by contracting the muscles of the calf, specifically the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles. Plantar flexion allows for actions such as standing on tiptoes, walking, and running. It is an important movement for activities that involve pushing off the ground with the toes, such as jumping or propelling the body forward during walking or running.

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147. What part of your system produces hormones that regulate your metabolism, growth and development?

Explanation

The endocrine system is responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism, growth, and development. This system includes various glands such as the thyroid, pituitary, and adrenal glands, which release hormones into the bloodstream to target specific organs or tissues. These hormones play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and coordinating various physiological processes throughout the body.

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148. When doing a Standing Hamstring Stretch which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

The muscles being worked during a Standing Hamstring Stretch are the Biceps Femoris, Semimembranosus, and Semitendinosus. These muscles are located in the back of the thigh and are responsible for flexing the knee and extending the hip. When performing the stretch, these muscles are stretched and lengthened, helping to increase flexibility and improve range of motion in the hamstrings.

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149. What is the function of the aortic valve?

Explanation

The aortic valve is responsible for preventing the backflow of blood into the left ventricle. This valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta, which is the largest artery in the body. When the left ventricle contracts and pumps oxygenated blood out into the aorta, the aortic valve opens to allow the blood to flow forward. Once the ventricle relaxes, the valve closes to prevent any blood from flowing back into the ventricle. This ensures that the blood continues to flow in the correct direction, from the heart to the rest of the body.

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150. Within the endocrine system, which of the glands is known as 'the ''master gland''

Explanation

The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" because it plays a crucial role in regulating and controlling the functions of other endocrine glands in the body. It produces and releases hormones that stimulate or inhibit the production of hormones in other glands, such as the thyroid, adrenal glands, and reproductive glands. The pituitary gland also controls growth, metabolism, reproduction, and many other important bodily functions.

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151. Where is the origin of the rectus abdominis?

Explanation

The origin of the rectus abdominis muscle is the pubis. This means that the muscle originates from the pubic bone in the pelvis.

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152.
Which of the following would speed up breathing rate?

Explanation

The sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system would speed up breathing rate. The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions, including breathing. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for action. This response includes an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate to provide more oxygen to the muscles and organs. Therefore, the sympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system would increase breathing rate.

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153. When doing a Standing Quadriceps Stretch which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

During a Standing Quadriceps Stretch, the muscles being worked are the Rectus Femoris, Vastus Medialis, Vastus Lateralis, and Vastus Intermedius. These muscles are part of the quadriceps group located in the front of the thigh. They are responsible for extending the leg at the knee joint and are targeted and stretched during this exercise.

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154. When performing a Assisted Chip ups exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During an Assisted Chip ups exercise, the tricep brachii muscle is not being used. This exercise primarily targets the biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis muscles. The tricep brachii muscle is located on the back of the upper arm and is responsible for extending the elbow joint, which is not required in this exercise.

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155.
  Which action is performed by the muscle pictured below?

Explanation

The muscle pictured below is most likely the hamstring muscle group, which is responsible for flexing the knee joint. Flexion of the knee refers to the movement of bringing the lower leg towards the back of the thigh, and the hamstring muscles are the primary muscles involved in this action.

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156. Which sensor receptor is the ONLY one that's under the somatic System?

Explanation

Proprioceptors are the only sensor receptors that are under the somatic system. These receptors are responsible for providing information about the body's position, movement, and orientation. They are found in muscles, tendons, and joints, and play a crucial role in maintaining balance, coordination, and body awareness. Baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, and thermoreceptors are not specifically associated with the somatic system and are involved in other sensory functions such as detecting changes in blood pressure, chemical composition, and temperature respectively.

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157.  Which of the following areas is a primary core muscle?

Explanation

The transverse abdominis is considered a primary core muscle because it is located deep within the abdomen and plays a crucial role in stabilizing the spine and pelvis. It helps to maintain proper posture, support the internal organs, and assist in breathing. Unlike the other muscles listed, such as the trapezius, tibialis anterior, and tensor fascia latae, which are not primarily involved in core stability and have different functions in the body.

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158. To help sleep which gland releases melatonin?

Explanation

The pineal gland releases melatonin, a hormone that helps regulate sleep-wake cycles. Melatonin is produced in the pineal gland in response to darkness and helps signal the body that it is time to sleep. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining a healthy sleep pattern and promoting restful sleep.

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159. When performing The Clean which muscles are being worked?

Explanation

The correct answer includes the muscles that are worked when performing The Clean exercise. These muscles include the Biceps femoris, Semimembranosus, Semitendinosus, Gluteus maximus, Rectus Femoris, Deltoid, and Trapezius.

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160. Hyperextension can only occur in which anatomical plane?

Explanation

Hyperextension refers to the movement of a joint beyond its normal range of extension. This movement can only occur in the sagittal plane, which divides the body into left and right halves. In the sagittal plane, the joint moves forward or backward, allowing for hyperextension or flexion respectively. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, while the transverse plane divides the body into upper and lower halves. Lateral is not a plane of movement, but rather refers to the side of the body.

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161. Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor?

Explanation

Maintaining spine alignment when lifting equipment from the floor is important because it helps to reduce stress on the ligaments. When the spine is properly aligned, the weight is evenly distributed and the ligaments are not strained or overworked. This can help prevent injuries and discomfort in the back. Additionally, maintaining spine alignment can also contribute to reduced pressure on joints and nerves, as well as reduced sacral curvature.

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162. The structure of collagen fibres in a synovial joint capsule can be described as:

Explanation

The correct answer is dense, elastic, irregular. Collagen fibers in a synovial joint capsule are dense, meaning they are tightly packed together. They are also elastic, which allows the joint to stretch and recoil. The fibers are irregular in arrangement, meaning they are not organized in a specific pattern. This irregularity allows for flexibility and movement in the joint.

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163. When performing a pec fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a pec fly exercise, the muscles that are primarily being used are the pectoralis major and pectoralis minor. These muscles are responsible for the horizontal adduction of the arms. The biceps brachii muscle is not directly involved in this exercise as its primary function is elbow flexion and forearm supination. Therefore, it is not being used during a pec fly exercise.

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164.
Which exercise can help to correct a kyphotic posture?

Explanation

Strengthening the lower and middle portion of the trapezius can help to correct a kyphotic posture. The trapezius muscle is located in the upper back and plays a crucial role in maintaining proper posture. By strengthening this muscle, it can help to pull the shoulders back and improve the alignment of the spine, which can correct a kyphotic posture.

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165. What does a parasympathetic nerve NOT do.

Explanation

The parasympathetic nerve does not cause vasoconstriction of the arteries and arterioles to decrease blood pressure. The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for rest and digestion, and its activation leads to a decrease in heart rate, breathing rate, and mobilization of energy stores. However, vasoconstriction is primarily controlled by the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the fight-or-flight response and can increase blood pressure by constricting blood vessels.

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166. What is the explanation for deep (local) 

Explanation

The term "deep" in this context refers to a position that is further away from the surface. This means that it is located at a greater distance from the outermost layer or topmost part of something.

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167. If working the lactic acid system what's the intensity you should work at?

Explanation

The correct answer is 75-85%. When working in the lactic acid system, the intensity should be high, typically around 75-85% of maximum effort. This system is used for high-intensity activities lasting between 30 seconds to 3 minutes, such as sprinting or high-intensity interval training. Working at this intensity allows the body to produce lactic acid as a byproduct, which can lead to muscle fatigue. By training in this intensity range, individuals can improve their ability to tolerate and clear lactic acid, leading to improved performance in high-intensity activities.

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168. Complete the sentence  ''The pubis symphysis has a normal seperation of 3-4mm can increase up to as much........ during pregnancy due to the hormone relaxin''

Explanation

During pregnancy, the hormone relaxin is released, which causes the ligaments and connective tissues in the pubic area to soften and stretch. This allows for easier passage of the baby during childbirth. As a result, the normal separation of the pubis symphysis, which is usually around 3-4mm, can increase up to 9mm.

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169. What joint action is required to move the thumb to the fingers?

Explanation

Opposition is the correct answer because it refers to the movement of the thumb towards the fingers. This movement is essential for tasks such as grasping objects or holding onto things. Opposition allows the thumb to touch and oppose the other fingers, enabling a strong grip and fine motor control. It involves the joint action of the thumb's carpometacarpal joint and the thumb's interphalangeal joint.

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170. Which plane of movement does shoulder shrugs use?

Explanation

Shoulder shrugs involve lifting the shoulders up and down, which primarily occurs in the frontal plane of movement. The frontal plane divides the body into front and back halves, and movements in this plane involve side-to-side or lateral movements. In the case of shoulder shrugs, the shoulders are elevated and depressed in a vertical direction, which aligns with the frontal plane.

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171. During the eccentric phase of a press up, what movement occurs at the scapula? 

Explanation

During the eccentric phase of a press up, the scapula undergoes retraction. Retraction refers to the movement of the scapula towards the spine or midline of the body. This movement helps to stabilize the shoulder joint and engage the muscles of the upper back, such as the rhomboids and trapezius. By retracting the scapula during the eccentric phase of a press up, it allows for better control and positioning of the shoulder blades, resulting in a more effective and efficient exercise.

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172. Which anterior abdominal muscles joint action includes flexion of the vertebral column and tilts the pelvis backwards?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis muscle is responsible for flexing the vertebral column and tilting the pelvis backwards. This muscle runs vertically along the front of the abdomen and is commonly referred to as the "six-pack" muscle. When contracted, it pulls the ribcage downwards and brings the pelvis upwards, causing flexion of the spine and posterior pelvic tilt.

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173. What does Supination achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Supination achieves the action of turning the palm of the hands upwards using the transverse plane. This movement involves rotating the forearm so that the palm faces upwards or forwards. It is the opposite movement of pronation, which turns the palm downwards or backwards. Supination is important for activities such as holding a cup, throwing a ball, or performing a bicep curl.

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174. The level of blood glucose is lowered after a meal by the action of

Explanation

Insulin is responsible for lowering the level of blood glucose after a meal. It is a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps regulate blood sugar levels. After eating, the body breaks down carbohydrates into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. Insulin helps transport this glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy or stored for later use. By facilitating the uptake of glucose, insulin helps to decrease the concentration of glucose in the blood, thus lowering blood glucose levels.

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175. Which of the following could be a catalyst of postural deviation hyper-lordosis?

Explanation

Imbalance of hip flexors and trunk muscles could be a catalyst of postural deviation hyper-lordosis. Hyper-lordosis refers to an excessive inward curvature of the lower back, causing an exaggerated arch. The hip flexors and trunk muscles play a crucial role in maintaining proper posture and alignment of the spine. If there is an imbalance between these muscles, with the hip flexors being tight and the trunk muscles being weak, it can lead to an increased curvature of the lower back, resulting in hyper-lordosis.

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176. When performing a Seated Row exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

The Teres Major muscle is not being used during a Seated Row exercise. The Seated Row primarily targets the muscles of the back, including the Trapezius, Rhomboids, and Lattisimus Dorsi. The Teres Major muscle is located in the upper back and is not directly involved in the pulling motion of the Seated Row.

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177. When performing a Lat Pulldown exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a Lat Pulldown exercise, the muscles primarily involved are the Latissimus Dorsi, Rhomboids, and the Posterior Fibres of deltoids. The Latissimus Dorsi is the main muscle targeted in this exercise, responsible for the pulling motion. The Rhomboids assist in retracting the scapulae. The Posterior Fibres of deltoids also contribute to the pulling motion. However, the Anterior Fibres of deltoids are not actively involved in the Lat Pulldown exercise. They are responsible for flexion and internal rotation of the shoulder, which are not required in this particular exercise.

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178. Which fascia is key in the passive system of core stability?

Explanation

The thoracolumbar fascia is key in the passive system of core stability. It is a strong connective tissue that spans the lower back and connects the muscles of the trunk, pelvis, and spine. It plays a crucial role in stabilizing the spine and transferring forces between the upper and lower body during movement. By providing support and tension to the muscles and ligaments of the core, the thoracolumbar fascia helps maintain proper alignment and stability of the spine, contributing to overall core strength and stability.

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179. When performing a decline bench exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a decline bench exercise, the muscles primarily used are the pectoralis minor, triceps, and anterior deltoid. The pectoralis minor is responsible for adducting and stabilizing the shoulder, while the triceps are engaged in extending the elbow. The anterior deltoid assists in shoulder flexion. However, the biceps are not actively involved in the decline bench exercise as they are not responsible for any of the movements performed during this exercise.

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180. Which of the following is the smallest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle?

Explanation

The endomysium is the smallest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle. It surrounds individual muscle fibers and provides support and protection to the muscle cells. The other options listed are not the smallest layer of connective tissue within skeletal muscle. Epimysium is the outermost layer that surrounds the entire muscle, periosteum is a connective tissue that covers the outer surface of bones, and perimysium is a layer that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles.

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181. Which muscle in the arm joint action allows the extension of the elbow to take place?

Explanation

The tricep brachii is the correct answer because it is the primary muscle responsible for the extension of the elbow joint. It is located on the back of the upper arm and consists of three heads that work together to straighten the arm. When the tricep brachii contracts, it pulls the forearm away from the upper arm, allowing the elbow to extend and the arm to straighten. The other muscles listed, such as the biceps brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis, are involved in different movements of the arm but not specifically in the extension of the elbow.

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182. Which muscle is involved in hip abduction?

Explanation

The piriformis muscle is involved in hip abduction. Hip abduction refers to the movement of the leg away from the midline of the body. The piriformis muscle is located deep within the gluteal region and plays a key role in stabilizing the hip joint and assisting in the abduction of the hip.

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183.
Which statement describes dendrites?

Explanation

Dendrites are tree-like extensions that receive information. They are part of a neuron and their main function is to receive signals from other neurons and transmit them towards the cell body. Dendrites play a crucial role in the communication between neurons, as they receive incoming signals and integrate them to determine whether or not the neuron should generate an electrical impulse. These tree-like structures increase the surface area of the neuron, allowing for a greater number of connections and information processing.

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184. Decreased heart rate during exercise is brought about by which of the following?

Explanation

During exercise, the heart rate typically increases to meet the increased demand for oxygen and nutrients in the body. However, in some cases, the heart rate may decrease. This is due to the parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system. The parasympathetic nervous system helps regulate the body's rest and digest functions, and it slows down the heart rate. This allows the body to conserve energy and maintain a steady heart rate during exercise. Therefore, the correct answer is parasympathetic action of the autonomic nervous system.

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185. When performing a supine leg raise, what muscle is the prime mover? 

Explanation

The supine leg raise is a movement that involves lifting the legs while lying on the back. The prime mover muscle responsible for this action is the Psoas major. The Psoas major is a deep muscle located in the lower back and connects the spine to the thigh bone. It plays a crucial role in hip flexion, which is the movement required to lift the legs during a supine leg raise. The Gluteus maximus, Vastus medialis, and Rectus abdominis are not directly involved in hip flexion and therefore not the prime movers in this exercise.

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186. What does lateral extension achieve anatomically?

Explanation

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187. Which muscle in the lower leg crosses two joints?

Explanation

The gastrocnemius muscle is located in the lower leg and crosses two joints, the knee joint and the ankle joint. It is one of the main muscles responsible for plantarflexion of the foot, which is the movement of pointing the toes downward. The gastrocnemius muscle is easily visible and forms the bulk of the calf muscle. It is commonly involved in activities such as walking, running, and jumping.

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188. Which anterior abdominal wall muscle joint action allows the pelvis to tilt backwards?

Explanation

The rectus abdominis muscle is responsible for flexing the trunk and compressing the abdomen. When this muscle contracts, it pulls the ribcage towards the pelvis, causing the pelvis to tilt backwards. Therefore, the rectus abdominis muscle allows the pelvis to tilt backwards.

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189. When performing a bench press exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

During a bench press exercise, all of the mentioned muscles are actively involved except for the Biceps Brachii. The bench press primarily targets the chest muscles (Pectoralis Minor), triceps (Triceps Brachii), and the front part of the shoulder (Anterior Fibres of deltoid). The Biceps Brachii, located in the upper arm, is not directly involved in the pressing movement of the bench press. Instead, it is more engaged in pulling movements such as bicep curls or chin-ups.

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190. Which structure has the appearance of a Double sided golf club?

Explanation

Myosin is a protein found in muscle cells that plays a key role in muscle contraction. Its structure consists of two long strands twisted together, resembling the shape of a double-sided golf club. This unique structure allows myosin to interact with actin, another protein involved in muscle contraction, and generate the force necessary for muscle movement. Therefore, myosin is the correct answer as it best describes the structure resembling a double-sided golf club.

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191. What joint action does the brachialis achieve?

Explanation

The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the elbow joint. When the brachialis contracts, it pulls the forearm towards the upper arm, resulting in the bending of the elbow. This action allows for movements such as lifting objects towards the body or performing bicep curls.

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192. What does Pronation achieve anatomically?

Explanation

Pronation is a rotational movement of the forearm and hand that results in the palm facing downwards or backwards. This movement occurs in the transverse plane around the axis of the radius and ulna, causing the palm to turn from facing upwards (supination) to facing downwards.

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193.
 What is an alternative term for the semi-lunar valve?

Explanation

The alternative term for the semi-lunar valve is the Aortic valve. This valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta, and it allows blood to flow from the heart to the rest of the body. It consists of three cusps or leaflets, which open and close to regulate the blood flow. The Aortic valve prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle when the heart relaxes and ensures that blood flows in one direction only.

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194. When performing a assisted dips exercise which one of these two muscles is being used?

Explanation

During an assisted dips exercise, the triceps brachii and pectoralis major muscles are being used. The triceps brachii is the primary muscle responsible for extending the elbow joint, while the pectoralis major is the primary muscle responsible for adducting and flexing the shoulder joint. Both of these muscles are actively engaged during the dipping motion, making them the correct answer.

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195. Which of the following is a 'Local' stabilising muscle of the spine?

Explanation

The multifidus is considered a "local" stabilizing muscle of the spine because it is located deep within the back and plays a crucial role in providing stability and support to the spine. It helps to control small movements between individual vertebrae and is important for maintaining proper alignment and posture. The external obliques, rectus abdominis, and erector spinae are all larger, more superficial muscles that are involved in generating movement rather than providing direct stabilization to the spine.

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196. What is vital capacity?

Explanation

Vital capacity refers to the maximum amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled and exhaled in one breath. It represents the total volume of air that the lungs can hold and is an important measure of lung function. This measurement is often used in medical assessments to evaluate respiratory health and diagnose conditions such as asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). By determining the vital capacity, healthcare professionals can assess the efficiency and capacity of the lungs to exchange gases during breathing.

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197. Which hormone controls calcium levels within oxygenated blood?

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is responsible for controlling calcium levels within oxygenated blood. It is secreted by the parathyroid glands, which are located in the neck. Parathyroid hormone acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to regulate the levels of calcium in the blood. It increases calcium absorption from the intestines, enhances calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, and stimulates the release of calcium from the bones when needed. This hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of calcium in the body, which is essential for various physiological processes, including muscle contraction, nerve function, and bone health.

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198. Which does sympathetic nerves does NOT do?

Explanation

Sympathetic nerves are responsible for the fight or flight response in the body. They increase heart rate, breathing rate, and mobilization of energy stores to prepare the body for action. However, they do not cause vasodilation of the arteries and arterioles to increase blood pressure. Instead, sympathetic nerves cause vasoconstriction, narrowing the blood vessels and increasing blood pressure.

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199. Which statement about the movements of the shoulder joint is true?

Explanation

The correct answer is Flexion/Extension/Rotation/Circumduction. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of movements. Flexion refers to bending the arm forward, while extension refers to straightening the arm backward. Rotation involves turning the arm inward or outward, and circumduction is a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction in a circular motion. These movements allow for a great deal of mobility and flexibility in the shoulder joint.

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200. When performing a knee curl exercise which one of these muscles is NOT being used?

Explanation

The rectus femoris is not being used during a knee curl exercise. The knee curl exercise primarily targets the hamstring muscles, which include the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, and semitendinosus. The rectus femoris is one of the four quadriceps muscles located in the front of the thigh and is responsible for knee extension rather than knee flexion, which is the movement involved in a knee curl exercise.

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Stephen Reinbold |PhD (Biological Sciences) |
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Stephen Reinbold has a PhD in Biological Sciences and a strong passion for teaching. He taught various subjects including General Biology, Environmental Science, Zoology, Genetics, and Anatomy & Physiology at Metropolitan Community College in Kansas City, Missouri, for nearly thirty years. He focused on scientific methodology and student research projects. Now retired, he works part-time as an editor and engages in online activities.

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A benefit of core stability training is:
For clients with mild hypertension, what type of training can lead to...
Which excerise is not used to improve core stability?
Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint?
Which factor does NOT contribute to spinal abnormalities or poor...
What is arteriosclerosis?
When performing a Plank which muscles are being worked?
What term means: 'maintaining balance or returning a system to...
Which one of these fascia is NOT part of a muscle fibre
Which of the following is a health risk associated with...
Plaque deposits on the walls of blood vessels may be decreased by:
What effect will long-term strength training have on type 2 muscle...
What structures within skeletal muscle tissue bring about contraction?
What is the function of Spinal cord?
Complete the sentence? The anaerobic threshold is described as...
Which sensory receptor detects changes in temperature?
Which statement best describes the endocrine system?
What type of stretching has the lowest risk of injury?
What statement describes a short term effect of exercise?
Which muscle does NOT belong to the muscles of the arm
Which gland can only produce thyroxine?
Digestive reproductive, respiratory, urinary tracts and blood vessels...
Which of the following can cause the valsalva effect?
What is the anterior groove  in the wrist and palm called?
Which of the following happen during a cardiovascular training...
Which of the following best describes onset of blood lactate...
Which muscle is NOT part of the lower leg​ 
Which activity will predominantly recruit 'slow oxidative'...
What is the equation for cardiac output?
What is the role of a motor unit?
Improved neuromuscular efficiency can lead to which of the following...
Which of the following is a neuromuscular adaptation associated with...
What structure does myosin form when interacting with Actin in the...
Optimal systolic blood pressure is considered to be
Which exercise uses movement in the transverse plane?
Which joint at the knee allows movement of flexion and extension in...
Which statement about the ability to maintain a neutral spine is...
When performing a calf raise which are the two muscles are being used?
What happens during someone who is under the Valsalva effect?
Which of the following developmental postural adaptations has the...
Which joint movement is responsible for turning the soles of your feet...
Which exercise occurs in the Sagittal plane?
Where is the heart located?
What is Hyperplasia?
What does abduction movement achieve anatomically?
Arteriosclerosis can be defined as:
What is the explanation of Medial?
What is residual volume?
Which of the following is an anterior skeletal muscle/muscle group?
Which risk  is a Non-Lifestyle factor that can affect an...
What is pyruvic acid converted to when there is inadequate oxygen?
What is the contractile unit of a muscle fibre?
The myocardium is formed from what type of muscle?
Which anatomical movement can't occur at the shoulder...
Which of the following lists only contains endocrine glands?
What is the explanation for superficial (global)
Which of the following training methods is most effective for...
What does adduction movement achieve anatomically?
Which of the following describes the articulation at the pubis...
Which part of a long bone is the diaphysis?
A reading of <90 systolic over <60 diastolic is a classification...
As the agonist contracts, the antagonist muscle relaxes to allow...
Which system is NOT used in core stability
Which spinal disorder may also be known as the term...
Excessive abdominal adiposity is most associated with what type of...
Which of the following statements about type 1 muscle fibres is true?
Which of the following hormones helps to maintain basal metabolic...
What is the function of muscle spindle cells?
What is the explanation for Proximal?
What does the Pancreas control?
What is the muscle that is longest in the leg?
If a client with moderate hypertension began regular cardiovascular...
'''Threshold reaction'' of a particular nerve cell...
Which hormone causes the conversion of glycogen to glucose to raise...
What effect does atherosclerosis have on blood flow through arteries?
Where is the biceps brachii muscles located
Which sensory organs register changes in blood pressure?
Which one of these functions is NOT part of the nervous system?
When performing a crunch machine exercise which is the Only muscle...
When a muscle assists another muscle to allow movement to occur it is...
Which statement describes the systolic blood pressure response during...
During the downward phase of a squat which movement occurs at the hip?
Which part of the female pelvis is false 
What are peptides made from?
Which excerises is NOT done in the frontal plane
Which one of these two muscles is used when performing a back...
What does Rotation achieve anatomically?
Which method is NOT used in training using the ATP-PC System
What does the myelin sheath do?
What is the systolic and diastolic reading needed to classify a cilent...
Which quadricep muscle crosses two joints?
Which reaction is caused by the release of epinephrine?
How many Adeonsine triphosphate molecules are used up every time a...
A Cell Body does?
Which sentence about pelvic floor benefits is FALSE.
Which anatomical plane does Lordosis occur?
How can the vascular system increase blood flow to a specific area of...
Which hormone is NOT produced by the Adrenals
Which hormone is NOT produced by the Male/female reproductive system?
Complete the sentence: The............................stimulates...
In which anatomical plane does lordosis occur?
Which muscle is NOT contained in the hamstring group?
Which exercise occurs in the frontal plane?
If picking up a pen to do handwriting how many muscle fibres need to...
Which description of the male pelvis is false?
Which element is most important for the process muscle contraction for...
Which two muscles are being worked when performing crunches?
Which one of these is can lead to Ballistic stretching if...
Which part of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is responsible for...
How many bones make up the Entire Spinal Column
Strengthening which muscles can help to correct lordosis? 
Which anatomical plane does Kyphosis occur?
Which statement describes a motor unit?
When performing a shoulder shrug exercise which one of these muscles...
Complete the following sentence ''The transport of Sodium and...
Which term is used to describe the middle layer of a muscle?
Where are catecholamines produced?
What does lateral flexion achieve anatomically?
What does Dorsiflexion achieve anatomically?
What is the name of the valve that is located between the...
A reading of 120-140 systolic over 80-90 diastolic is classifed as...
Which one of these muscles is not part of the hamstring group?
Which joint action can only be done in the sagittal plane?
A single motor unit 
Which of the following best describes coronary circulation?
Which statement about muscles is FALSE
Which gland labelled below releases hormones that stimulate promotes...
What is the explanation for distal?
The ovaries release hormones which can 
When performing a chest press exercise which one of these muscles is...
What is the main By product of using the aerobic system
What timeframe does Delayed onset of muscular sorenesss (DOMS) take?
Which statement about changes to muscle types is TRUE.
When performing a Bicep Curl exercise which one of these two muscles...
Which by-product of the energy systems can cause muscle fatigue?
Which one of the following valves prevents backflow of blood into the...
Which method of training does NOT use the lactic Acid System
Aerobic generation of ATP can only take place inside which structure?
A posterior disc bulge is more likely to be aggravated by
The breakdown of glycogen into pyruvic acid results in the production...
When performing a reverse fly exercise which one of these muscles is...
What is the function of the semi-lunar valves?
What common muscle imbalance can develop, leading to insufficient core...
''When it is at rest, a neuron membrane is positively charged...
Which of the following best describes the process of motor unit...
What does Plantar Flexion achieve anatomically?
What part of your system produces hormones that regulate your...
When doing a Standing Hamstring Stretch which muscles are...
What is the function of the aortic valve?
Within the endocrine system, which of the glands is known as 'the...
Where is the origin of the rectus abdominis?
Which of the following would speed up breathing rate?
When doing a Standing Quadriceps Stretch which muscles are...
When performing a Assisted Chip ups exercise which one of these...
  Which action is performed by the muscle pictured below?
Which sensor receptor is the ONLY one that's under the somatic...
 Which of the following areas is a primary core muscle?
To help sleep which gland releases melatonin?
When performing The Clean which muscles are being worked?
Hyperextension can only occur in which anatomical plane?
Why is it important to maintain spine alignment when lifting equipment...
The structure of collagen fibres in a synovial joint capsule can be...
When performing a pec fly exercise which one of these muscles is NOT...
Which exercise can help to correct a kyphotic posture?
What does a parasympathetic nerve NOT do.
What is the explanation for deep (local) 
If working the lactic acid system what's the intensity you should...
Complete the sentence  ''The pubis symphysis has a normal...
What joint action is required to move the thumb to the fingers?
Which plane of movement does shoulder shrugs use?
During the eccentric phase of a press up, what movement occurs at the...
Which anterior abdominal muscles joint action includes flexion of the...
What does Supination achieve anatomically?
The level of blood glucose is lowered after a meal by the action of
Which of the following could be a catalyst of postural deviation...
When performing a Seated Row exercise which one of these muscles is...
When performing a Lat Pulldown exercise which one of these muscles is...
Which fascia is key in the passive system of core stability?
When performing a decline bench exercise which one of these muscles is...
Which of the following is the smallest layer of connective tissue...
Which muscle in the arm joint action allows the extension of the elbow...
Which muscle is involved in hip abduction?
Which statement describes dendrites?
Decreased heart rate during exercise is brought about by which of the...
When performing a supine leg raise, what muscle is the prime...
What does lateral extension achieve anatomically?
Which muscle in the lower leg crosses two joints?
Which anterior abdominal wall muscle joint action allows the pelvis to...
When performing a bench press exercise which one of these muscles is...
Which structure has the appearance of a Double sided golf club?
What joint action does the brachialis achieve?
What does Pronation achieve anatomically?
 What is an alternative term for the semi-lunar valve?
When performing a assisted dips exercise which one of these two...
Which of the following is a 'Local' stabilising muscle of the spine?
What is vital capacity?
Which hormone controls calcium levels within oxygenated blood?
Which does sympathetic nerves does NOT do?
Which statement about the movements of the shoulder joint is true?
When performing a knee curl exercise which one of these muscles is NOT...
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