A&p Final Exam Practice Test

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A&p Final Exam Practice Test - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Epineprhene and norepinepherine are considered to be...?

    • A.

      Glucocorticoids

    • B.

      Catecoylemines

    • C.

      Mineralcorticoids

    Correct Answer
    B. Catecoylemines
    Explanation
    Epinephrine and norepinephrine are considered to be catecholamines. Catecholamines are a group of neurotransmitters and hormones that are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. They play a crucial role in the body's response to stress and are involved in regulating various physiological processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, and metabolism. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are commonly known as adrenaline and noradrenaline, respectively, and are released in response to stress or danger, preparing the body for a fight-or-flight response.

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  • 2. 

    Simple cuboidal epithelium is found...?

    • A.

      Most glands

    • B.

      Skin, esophagus, vagina

    • C.

      Stomach, Large and Small Intestine

    Correct Answer
    A. Most glands
    Explanation
    Simple cuboidal epithelium is found in most glands because this type of epithelium is specialized for secretion and absorption. Glands, such as sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands, produce and secrete substances. The cuboidal shape of the cells allows for efficient secretion and absorption processes. Additionally, the simple arrangement of cells in a single layer allows for a higher rate of diffusion and transportation of substances. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that simple cuboidal epithelium is found in most glands.

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  • 3. 

    Stratifed squamous epithelium is found...?

    • A.

      Capillary endothelium, aveoli

    • B.

      Most glands

    • C.

      Skin, esophagus, vagina

    Correct Answer
    C. Skin, esophagus, vagina
    Explanation
    Stratified squamous epithelium is a type of tissue that is composed of multiple layers of flat cells. It is found in areas of the body that experience a high degree of mechanical stress or abrasion, such as the skin, esophagus, and vagina. These areas require a strong and durable epithelial lining to protect against friction and potential damage. Therefore, the correct answer is "Skin, esophagus, vagina."

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  • 4. 

    Simple squamous epithelium is found...?

    • A.

      Capillary endothelium, aveoli

    • B.

      Bladder, ureters, proximal urethra

    • C.

      Trachea, Bronchi, Fallopian tubes, male reproductive tract

    Correct Answer
    A. Capillary endothelium, aveoli
    Explanation
    Simple squamous epithelium is found in capillary endothelium and alveoli. Capillary endothelium is a thin layer of cells that lines the walls of capillaries, allowing for the exchange of gases and nutrients between the blood and surrounding tissues. Alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs. Both capillary endothelium and alveoli require a thin and permeable epithelium to facilitate efficient diffusion of gases and nutrients.

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  • 5. 

    Transitional epithelium is found...?

    • A.

      Bladder, ureters, proximal urethra

    • B.

      Trachea, Bronchi, Fallopian tubes, male reproductive tract

    • C.

      Respiratory tract

    Correct Answer
    A. Bladder, ureters, proximal urethra
    Explanation
    Transitional epithelium is a type of tissue that is found in organs that need to stretch and accommodate changes in volume, such as the bladder, ureters, and proximal urethra. This type of epithelium is specialized to allow for expansion and contraction without tearing or losing its integrity. Therefore, it is well-suited for lining these organs, which experience changes in volume due to the storage and release of urine.

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  • 6. 

    Pseudostratified ciliated columnar is found...?

    • A.

      Trachea, Bronchi, Fallopian tubes, male reproductive tract

    • B.

      Bladder, ureters, proximal urethra

    • C.

      Most glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Trachea, Bronchi, Fallopian tubes, male reproductive tract
    Explanation
    Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium is a type of tissue that is found in the respiratory tract, including the trachea and bronchi. It is also found in the Fallopian tubes and the male reproductive tract. This type of tissue is characterized by its columnar shape and the presence of cilia, which help to move mucus and debris out of the respiratory tract. The other options, such as the bladder, ureters, proximal urethra, and most glands, do not typically contain pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

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  • 7. 

    In regards to neural stimuli of endocrine glands, most of this stimuli is under control by the ____ nervous system

    • A.

      Sympathetic

    • B.

      Parasympathetic

    Correct Answer
    A. Sympathetic
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Sympathetic." The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response, which includes the release of hormones from the endocrine glands. This system prepares the body to respond to stress or danger by increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and releasing adrenaline. Therefore, it makes sense that most neural stimuli of endocrine glands are under the control of the sympathetic nervous system.

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  • 8. 

    Catecoylemines epineprhene and norepinepherine are secreted by neural stim from the ...?

    • A.

      Adrenal medulla

    • B.

      Adrenal cortex

    • C.

      Posterior adrenals

    Correct Answer
    A. Adrenal medulla
    Explanation
    Catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine are secreted by neural stimulation from the adrenal medulla. The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing and releasing these hormones, which are involved in the body's response to stress. They play a crucial role in the fight-or-flight response, increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and energy availability to prepare the body for immediate action. The adrenal cortex, on the other hand, produces different types of hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone, which are involved in regulating metabolism and electrolyte balance. The posterior adrenals do not exist, so they cannot secrete these hormones.

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  • 9. 

    Hormone levels in the blood are maintained by positive feedback. True or false?

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    Hormone levels in the blood are actually maintained by negative feedback, not positive feedback. Negative feedback occurs when the body senses that hormone levels are too high or too low, and it sends signals to regulate and bring them back to the normal range. Positive feedback, on the other hand, amplifies a signal and promotes a response that increases hormone levels further. Since hormone levels need to be regulated and kept within a specific range, it is false to say that hormone levels in the blood are maintained by positive feedback.

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  • 10. 

    The pancreas is a mixed gland (contains both endocrine and exocrine functions). True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The pancreas is indeed a mixed gland as it performs both endocrine and exocrine functions. Exocrine functions involve the production and secretion of digestive enzymes into the small intestine, while endocrine functions involve the secretion of hormones such as insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream. Thus, the statement "The pancreas is a mixed gland (contains both endocrine and exocrine functions)" is true.

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  • 11. 

    When there is not enough sugar in the blood, ____ is released.

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Glucagon

    • C.

      Both Insulin and Glucagon

    Correct Answer
    B. Glucagon
    Explanation
    Glucagon is released when there is not enough sugar in the blood. Glucagon is a hormone that helps to increase blood sugar levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and release it into the bloodstream. This helps to maintain a stable blood sugar level and prevent hypoglycemia. Insulin, on the other hand, is released when there is too much sugar in the blood and helps to lower blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose into cells. Therefore, the correct answer is Glucagon.

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  • 12. 

    ____ is a hormone that gets sugar in the cells and out of the blood stream when there is too much sugar in the blood stream.

    • A.

      Insulin

    • B.

      Glucagon

    • C.

      Both Insulin and Glucagon

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    Insulin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. When there is an excess of sugar in the bloodstream, insulin is released by the pancreas to help transport the sugar into the cells, where it can be used for energy or stored for later use. By doing so, insulin helps to lower blood sugar levels and maintain a stable balance. Glucagon, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and raises blood sugar levels. Therefore, the correct answer is Insulin.

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  • 13. 

    Which gland secretes melatonin, which helps establish the body’s wake and sleep cycles?

    • A.

      Thyroid

    • B.

      Pituitary

    • C.

      Pineal

    Correct Answer
    C. Pineal
    Explanation
    The pineal gland secretes melatonin, which helps establish the body's wake and sleep cycles. Melatonin is a hormone that regulates the sleep-wake cycle by responding to changes in light. It is produced by the pineal gland in response to darkness and helps to promote sleep. The pineal gland is located in the brain and plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological functions, including the sleep-wake cycle.

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  • 14. 

    The pineal gland is found on the third ventricle (_______ of diencephalon) of the brain.

    • A.

      Thalamus

    • B.

      Epithalamus

    • C.

      Hypothalamus

    Correct Answer
    B. Epithalamus
    Explanation
    The pineal gland is found on the third ventricle of the brain, specifically in the epithalamus. The epithalamus is a small region located above the thalamus and contains the pineal gland, which is responsible for producing the hormone melatonin. Melatonin helps regulate sleep-wake cycles and plays a role in various physiological processes. The thalamus and hypothalamus are also parts of the diencephalon, but the pineal gland is specifically located in the epithalamus.

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  • 15. 

    The adrenal glands sit on top of the kidneys. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The adrenal glands are indeed located on top of the kidneys. These small, triangular-shaped glands are responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, adrenaline, and aldosterone, which play crucial roles in regulating metabolism, immune system function, and stress responses.

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  • 16. 

    The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines Epinephrine andNorepinephrine to deal with ____-term stress.

    • A.

      Short

    • B.

      Long

    • C.

      Mid

    Correct Answer
    A. Short
    Explanation
    The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines Epinephrine and Norepinephrine to deal with short-term stress. These hormones are released in response to a stressful situation or threat, preparing the body for a fight-or-flight response. They increase heart rate, blood pressure, and energy production, helping the body to quickly respond to the stressor. In contrast, long-term stress would require a different hormonal response involving the adrenal cortex and the release of cortisol.

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  • 17. 

    In the PNS, the sensory (afferent) division's nerve fibers carry impulses away from the central nervous system. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    The statement is false because in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), the sensory (afferent) division's nerve fibers carry impulses towards the central nervous system, not away from it.

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  • 18. 

    In the PNS, the motor (efferent) division's nerve carry impulses away from the central nervous system. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The motor (efferent) division of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) is responsible for carrying impulses away from the central nervous system. This means that it transmits signals from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles and glands, allowing for voluntary and involuntary movements as well as the regulation of bodily functions. Therefore, the statement "True" accurately describes the role of the motor division in the PNS.

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  • 19. 

    In the PNS, the sensory (afferent) division's nerve fibers carry information to the central nervous system

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The sensory (afferent) division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) is responsible for carrying information from the sensory receptors to the central nervous system (CNS). This division consists of nerve fibers that transmit signals related to touch, temperature, pain, and other sensory stimuli. Therefore, it is correct to say that the sensory division's nerve fibers carry information to the central nervous system.

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  • 20. 

    The human peripheral nervous system has ___ pairs of spinal nerves

    • A.

      30

    • B.

      31

    • C.

      32

    Correct Answer
    B. 31
    Explanation
    The human peripheral nervous system consists of spinal nerves that emerge from the spinal cord and extend out to various parts of the body. These nerves are responsible for transmitting sensory information from the body to the brain and motor signals from the brain to the muscles. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves, with each pair corresponding to a specific region of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is 31.

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  • 21. 

    How many cranial nerves does a human have?

    • A.

      11

    • B.

      12

    • C.

      13

    Correct Answer
    B. 12
    Explanation
    A human has 12 cranial nerves. These nerves originate from the brain and control various functions in the head and neck, including sensory and motor functions. Each cranial nerve has a specific role, such as controlling eye movement, facial expressions, taste, hearing, and balance. Therefore, the correct answer is 12.

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  • 22. 

    Pick the 7 correct answers.The hypothalamus is...

    • A.

      Under the thalamus

    • B.

      Above the thalamus

    • C.

      Important autonomic nervous system center

    • D.

      Regulates metabolism

    • E.

      Important somatic nervous system center

    • F.

      Controls water balance

    • G.

      Controls sleep and wake cycles

    • H.

      Helps regulate body temperature

    • I.

      The relay station for sensory impulses

    • J.

      An important part of the limbic system (emotions)

    • K.

      The pineal gland is attached to the hypothalamus

    • L.

      The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Under the thalamus
    C. Important autonomic nervous system center
    D. Regulates metabolism
    F. Controls water balance
    H. Helps regulate body temperature
    J. An important part of the limbic system (emotions)
    L. The pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus
    Explanation
    The hypothalamus is located under the thalamus in the brain. It is an important autonomic nervous system center that regulates various bodily functions such as metabolism, water balance, and body temperature. It is also involved in controlling sleep and wake cycles and is considered an important part of the limbic system, which is responsible for emotions. Additionally, the pituitary gland is attached to the hypothalamus, further emphasizing its role in hormone regulation.

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  • 23. 

    Pick the 3 correct answers.The thalamus is...

    • A.

      Includes the choroid plexus—forms cerebrospinal fluid

    • B.

      Forms the roof of the third ventricle

    • C.

      Surrounds the third ventricle

    • D.

      The relay station for motor impulses

    • E.

      An important part of the limbic system

    • F.

      Transfers impulses to the correct part of the cortex for localization and interpretation

    • G.

      Houses the pituitary gland

    • H.

      The relay station for sensory impulses

    Correct Answer(s)
    C. Surrounds the third ventricle
    F. Transfers impulses to the correct part of the cortex for localization and interpretation
    H. The relay station for sensory impulses
    Explanation
    The thalamus surrounds the third ventricle, which is a fluid-filled cavity in the brain. It also transfers impulses to the correct part of the cortex for localization and interpretation, playing a crucial role in sensory processing. Additionally, the thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory impulses, receiving information from various sensory pathways and sending them to the appropriate areas of the brain for further processing. Therefore, the three correct answers are: surrounds the third ventricle, transfers impulses to the correct part of the cortex for localization and interpretation, and the relay station for sensory impulses.

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  • 24. 

    Pick the 3 correct answers. The epithalamus is...

    • A.

      Includes the choroid plexus—forms cerebrospinal fluid

    • B.

      Surrounds the third ventricle

    • C.

      The relay station for motor impulses

    • D.

      Houses the pineal body (an endocrine gland)

    • E.

      Houses the pituitary (an endocrine gland)

    • F.

      Forms the roof of the third ventricle

    • G.

      An important part of the limbic system

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Includes the choroid plexus—forms cerebrospinal fluid
    D. Houses the pineal body (an endocrine gland)
    F. Forms the roof of the third ventricle
    Explanation
    The epithalamus is a part of the brain that includes the choroid plexus, which is responsible for forming cerebrospinal fluid. It also houses the pineal body, which is an endocrine gland. Additionally, it forms the roof of the third ventricle, a structure in the brain. These three characteristics are all true statements about the epithalamus.

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  • 25. 

    The midbrain has four rounded protrusions called corpora quadrigeminathat are reflex centers for vision and hearing. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The midbrain is a portion of the brain that contains four rounded protrusions called corpora quadrigemina. These structures serve as reflex centers for vision and hearing. Therefore, the statement is true.

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  • 26. 

    The midbrain has two bulging fiber tracts called cerebral peduncles. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The midbrain does indeed have two bulging fiber tracts called cerebral peduncles. These structures are responsible for connecting the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord and other parts of the brain. They play a crucial role in transmitting motor and sensory information, making the statement true.

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  • 27. 

    The pons includes nuclei that are involved in the control of breathing. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The pons is a region in the brainstem that plays a crucial role in regulating breathing. It contains several nuclei, including the pneumotaxic and apneustic centers, which help control the rate and depth of respiration. Additionally, the pons connects the medulla oblongata (another brainstem region involved in breathing control) to the higher centers in the brain, allowing for coordinated breathing. Therefore, it is correct to say that the pons includes nuclei that are involved in the control of breathing.

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  • 28. 

    The medulla oblongata merges with the spinal cord. True or false.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    The medulla oblongata is a part of the brainstem that connects to the spinal cord. It is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. Therefore, it is accurate to say that the medulla oblongata merges with the spinal cord, making the statement true.

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  • 29. 

    Neuroglia are support cells in the ____.

    • A.

      CNS

    • B.

      PNS

    • C.

      Both CNS and PNS

    Correct Answer
    A. CNS
    Explanation
    Neuroglia are support cells in the CNS (central nervous system). The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord, where neuroglia play a crucial role in supporting and protecting the neurons. They provide structural support, regulate the extracellular environment, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier. Neuroglia also participate in the repair process after injury or disease. In contrast, the PNS (peripheral nervous system) consists of nerves and ganglia outside the CNS, where different types of support cells are present.

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  • 30. 

    Plasma is ___% of blood, while formed elements are ___%.

    • A.

      45; 55

    • B.

      55; 45

    • C.

      60;40

    Correct Answer
    B. 55; 45
    Explanation
    Plasma is the liquid component of blood, constituting approximately 55% of the total blood volume. It is a yellowish fluid that carries various substances such as nutrients, hormones, and waste products throughout the body. On the other hand, formed elements, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, make up approximately 45% of the blood volume. These formed elements have different functions, such as oxygen transport, immune response, and blood clotting.

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  • 31. 

    The main function of erythrocytes is to ____________

    • A.

      Carry water

    • B.

      Carry oxygen

    • C.

      Carry vitamins

    Correct Answer
    B. Carry oxygen
    Explanation
    Erythrocytes, also known as red blood cells, are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. They contain a protein called hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it to the tissues. This oxygen transport is crucial for the functioning of various organs and systems in the body. Therefore, the main function of erythrocytes is to carry oxygen.

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  • 32. 

    The most abundant white blood cell is the ________

    • A.

      Basophils

    • B.

      Eosinophils

    • C.

      T-Lympocytes

    • D.

      B-Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Neutrophils

    • F.

      Monocytes

    Correct Answer
    E. Neutrophils
    Explanation
    Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cells in the body. They are part of the innate immune system and are responsible for fighting off bacterial infections. Neutrophils are highly mobile and can quickly migrate to sites of infection or inflammation. They engulf and destroy bacteria through a process called phagocytosis. Neutrophils also release toxic substances that help kill bacteria. Their abundance and efficiency in fighting off bacterial infections make them a crucial component of the immune system.

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  • 33. 

    ______ cells are found in response to allergies and parasitic worms

    • A.

      Basophils

    • B.

      Monocytes

    • C.

      Eosinophils

    Correct Answer
    C. Eosinophils
    Explanation
    Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell that are found in response to allergies and parasitic worms. They play a crucial role in the immune response against these invaders. Eosinophils release toxic substances that help to kill parasites, and they also release inflammatory substances that contribute to the allergic response. Therefore, eosinophils are an important component of the immune system's defense against allergies and parasitic infections.

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  • 34. 

    ____ cells turn into mast cells, have histamine-containing granules, and initiate inflammation

    • A.

      Eosinophils

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Monocytes

    • D.

      Basophils

    • E.

      Lymphocytes

    Correct Answer
    D. Basophils
    Explanation
    Basophils are a type of white blood cells that can transform into mast cells, which are known for containing histamine-containing granules. Histamine is released by mast cells during an allergic reaction or inflammation, causing blood vessels to dilate and promoting the recruitment of other immune cells to the site of inflammation. Therefore, basophils play a crucial role in initiating and regulating the inflammatory response in the body.

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  • 35. 

    ______ are the largest of the white blood cells, function as macrophages, and are important in fighting chronic infection

    • A.

      Basophils

    • B.

      Neutrophils

    • C.

      Monocytes

    • D.

      Lymphocytes

    • E.

      Eosinophils

    Correct Answer
    C. Monocytes
    Explanation
    Monocytes are the largest of the white blood cells and function as macrophages, which means they play a crucial role in engulfing and digesting pathogens and cellular debris. They are particularly important in fighting chronic infections, as they can persist in tissues for extended periods of time and continuously remove harmful substances. Monocytes also play a role in activating the immune response by presenting antigens to other immune cells.

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  • 36. 

    Macrophages arrive at the site of injury _______ days after the event

    • A.

      1-2 days

    • B.

      2-3 days

    • C.

      3-4 days

    Correct Answer
    C. 3-4 days
    Explanation
    Macrophages, which are immune cells responsible for engulfing and destroying pathogens and cellular debris, typically arrive at the site of injury 3-4 days after the event. This delay is due to the time it takes for the immune response to be triggered and for the macrophages to be recruited and migrate to the injured area. Once at the site, macrophages play a crucial role in the inflammatory response and tissue repair process by removing dead cells and promoting healing.

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  • 37. 

    What is pulmonary ventilation?

    • A.

      Gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli

    • B.

      Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the bloodstream

    • C.

      Moving air in and out of the lungs

    • D.

      Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in systemic capillaries

    Correct Answer
    C. Moving air in and out of the lungs
    Explanation
    Pulmonary ventilation refers to the process of moving air in and out of the lungs. It involves the inhalation of oxygen-rich air and the exhalation of carbon dioxide. This process is essential for gas exchange to occur in the alveoli, where oxygen is taken up by the blood and carbon dioxide is released from the bloodstream. The other options mentioned in the question, such as gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli or between blood and tissue cells, are not accurate definitions of pulmonary ventilation.

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  • 38. 

    What is Internal respiration?

    • A.

      Moving air in and out of the lungs

    • B.

      Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in systemic capillaries

    • C.

      Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the bloodstream

    • D.

      Gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli

    Correct Answer
    B. Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in systemic capillaries
    Explanation
    Internal respiration refers to the process of gas exchange between the blood and tissue cells in the systemic capillaries. During internal respiration, oxygen from the blood is released into the tissues, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, is taken up by the blood to be transported back to the lungs for elimination. This process occurs in the systemic capillaries throughout the body, allowing for the exchange of gases between the blood and the cells.

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  • 39. 

    What is Respiratory gas transport?

    • A.

      Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the bloodstream

    • B.

      Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in systemic capillaries

    • C.

      Moving air in and out of the lungs

    • D.

      Gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli

    Correct Answer
    A. Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the bloodstream
    Explanation
    Respiratory gas transport refers to the process of transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide through the bloodstream. This occurs when oxygen is picked up by red blood cells in the lungs and carried to the body's tissues, while carbon dioxide is picked up from the tissues and transported back to the lungs to be exhaled. This mechanism ensures that oxygen is delivered to the cells and carbon dioxide is removed from the body efficiently.

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  • 40. 

    What is external respiration?

    • A.

      Moving air in and out of the lungs

    • B.

      Gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli

    • C.

      Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells in systemic capillaries

    • D.

      Transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide via the bloodstream

    Correct Answer
    B. Gas exchange between pulmonary blood and alveoli
    Explanation
    External respiration refers to the process of gas exchange between the pulmonary blood and alveoli. During external respiration, oxygen from the alveoli diffuses into the bloodstream, while carbon dioxide, a waste product, moves from the bloodstream into the alveoli to be exhaled. This exchange of gases occurs in the lungs, specifically in the tiny air sacs called alveoli, where the respiratory surface is located. This process ensures that oxygen is taken up by the bloodstream and carbon dioxide is removed, allowing for proper oxygenation of the blood and removal of waste gases.

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  • 41. 

    The pulmonary semilunar valve separates _______ and ____________

    • A.

      Right ventricle; left pulmonary artery

    • B.

      Right atrium; right ventricle

    • C.

      Left ventricle; aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. Right ventricle; left pulmonary artery
    Explanation
    The pulmonary semilunar valve separates the right ventricle and the left pulmonary artery. This valve ensures that blood flows in one direction, preventing backflow from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle. When the right ventricle contracts, the valve opens, allowing blood to be pumped into the pulmonary artery and then to the lungs for oxygenation. When the right ventricle relaxes, the valve closes, preventing blood from flowing back into the ventricle. This separation of the right ventricle and the left pulmonary artery ensures efficient blood flow and oxygenation in the body.

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  • 42. 

    The aortic semilunar valve separates _______ and _________.

    • A.

      Right ventricle; left pulmonary artery

    • B.

      Left ventricle; aorta

    • C.

      Right atrium; right ventricle

    Correct Answer
    B. Left ventricle; aorta
    Explanation
    The aortic semilunar valve separates the left ventricle and the aorta.

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  • 43. 

    The (mitral) Bicuspid valve separates ______ and __________

    • A.

      Left atrium; left ventricle

    • B.

      Right atrium; right ventricle

    • C.

      Left ventricle; aorta

    Correct Answer
    A. Left atrium; left ventricle
    Explanation
    The bicuspid valve, also known as the mitral valve, is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart. It prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle back into the left atrium during contraction of the heart. The valve opens to allow blood to flow from the left atrium into the left ventricle and closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium. This ensures proper blood flow through the heart and prevents the mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

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  • 44. 

    The tricuspid valve separates ______ and _________.

    • A.

      Left atrium; left ventricle

    • B.

      Right atrium; right ventricle

    • C.

      Right ventricle; left pulmonary artery

    Correct Answer
    B. Right atrium; right ventricle
    Explanation
    The tricuspid valve separates the right atrium and right ventricle.

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  • 45. 

    Write the correct order of the passage of food through the alimentary canal.Put in order: Transverse colon, Small intestine, Duodenum, Rectum, Ileum, Ascending colon, Mouth, Sigmoid Colon, Anus, Esophagus, Jejunum, Stomach, Descending colon, Cecum, Large intestine

    Correct Answer
    Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Small intestine, Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Large intestine, Cecum, Ascending colon, Transverse colon, Descending colon, Sigmoid Colon, Rectum, Anus
    Explanation
    The correct order of the passage of food through the alimentary canal starts with the food entering the mouth, then moving to the esophagus, where it is transported to the stomach. From the stomach, the food enters the small intestine, specifically the duodenum, followed by the jejunum and ileum. After the small intestine, the food enters the large intestine, starting with the cecum, then moving to the ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and finally the rectum. The passage ends with the elimination of waste through the anus.

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