Professor Tate's Test 1: Ch 15- 17

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    Destruction of the hematopoietic componens of red marrow leads to a condition called:

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Questions from previous tests for Tate's A&P class: Chapters 15-17.

Professor Tates Test 1: Ch 15- 17 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    The area of sharpest visual acuity that normally contains only cones it the?

    Explanation
    The fovea centralis is the area of the retina that contains the highest concentration of cones, which are responsible for sharp and detailed vision. This region is responsible for our central vision and is crucial for tasks that require fine detail, such as reading or recognizing faces. The cones in the fovea centralis are densely packed together, allowing for a high level of visual acuity in this specific area.

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  • 3. 

    _____ are hormones synthesized from cholesterol.

    Explanation
    Steroids are hormones synthesized from cholesterol. Cholesterol serves as the precursor for the production of various steroid hormones in the body, including cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone. These hormones play important roles in regulating various physiological processes in the body, such as metabolism, immune response, reproduction, and stress response.

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  • 4. 

    _______ is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormone.

    Explanation
    Gigantism is the result of hypersecretion of growth hormone. Hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood and adolescence leads to excessive growth of bones and tissues, resulting in gigantism. This condition usually occurs due to a tumor in the pituitary gland, which stimulates the overproduction of growth hormone. As a result, individuals with gigantism experience abnormal height and body proportions. It is important to diagnose and treat gigantism early to prevent complications and manage the excessive growth.

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  • 5. 

    The _______ gland may influence our day/night cycles and even regulate the onset of sexual maturity.

    Explanation
    The pineal gland, located in the brain, is responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone that helps regulate our sleep-wake cycles. It plays a crucial role in our day/night cycles, as it releases more melatonin in the dark to promote sleep and less during the day to promote wakefulness. Additionally, the pineal gland is also involved in the regulation of sexual development and the onset of puberty.

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  • 6. 

    Another name for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is:

    Explanation
    ADH, also known as antidiuretic hormone, is commonly referred to as vasopressin. This hormone is produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in regulating the body's water balance by reducing urine production and promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys. Vasopressin also has vasoconstrictive properties, which can increase blood pressure. Therefore, the term "vasopressin" is an alternative name for ADH, accurately reflecting its physiological functions.

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  • 7. 

    Olfactory receptors are unique in that?

    Explanation
    Olfactory receptors are unique because they have a high turnover rate. This means that they are constantly being replaced and regenerated. Unlike other types of receptors in the body that have a longer lifespan, olfactory receptors have a shorter lifespan and are constantly being renewed. This allows for a more efficient detection of smells and helps maintain the sensitivity of the olfactory system.

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  • 8. 

    The rarest leukocyte is the _____

    Explanation
    Basophils are the rarest type of leukocytes, accounting for only 0.5-1% of the total white blood cell count. These cells are involved in the immune response, particularly in allergic reactions and inflammation. Basophils contain granules filled with histamine and other chemicals that are released when activated, promoting inflammation and attracting other immune cells. Due to their low numbers and specialized functions, basophils play a unique role in the immune system and are considered the rarest leukocyte.

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  • 9. 

    The _____ gland declines in size and function with age.

    Explanation
    The thymus gland is a part of the immune system and is responsible for the production and maturation of T-cells, which play a crucial role in fighting infections and diseases. As we age, the thymus gland naturally decreases in size and function, leading to a decline in immune response and increased vulnerability to infections. This decline is a normal part of the aging process and contributes to the overall decline in immune function observed in older individuals.

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  • 10. 

    _______ is an antiprostaglandin drug that inhibits thromboane A2 formation (platelet plug formation).

    Explanation
    Aspirin is an antiprostaglandin drug that inhibits thromboxane A2 formation, which is responsible for platelet plug formation. Aspirin works by irreversibly inhibiting the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), which is involved in the production of prostaglandins and thromboxane A2. By inhibiting thromboxane A2 formation, aspirin prevents platelets from aggregating and forming a plug, thereby reducing the risk of blood clot formation.

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  • 11. 

    Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids often caused by a tumor, results in what disease?

    Explanation
    Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids, often caused by a tumor, leads to an overproduction of these hormones in the body. This excessive production can result in a condition called Addison's disease. Addison's disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone, which are essential hormones for regulating various bodily functions. Symptoms of Addison's disease include fatigue, weight loss, low blood pressure, and darkening of the skin. Therefore, the correct answer is Addison's.

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  • 12. 

    Hemoglobin is composed of _____ polypeptide chains.

    Explanation
    Hemoglobin is composed of four polypeptide chains. Each hemoglobin molecule consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains. These chains come together to form a complex protein structure that is responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells. The four polypeptide chains in hemoglobin work together to ensure efficient oxygen transport throughout the body.

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  • 13. 

    What is the natural anticoagulant contained in basophil and mast cell granules and on the surface of endothelial cells?

    Explanation
    Heparin is a natural anticoagulant that is found in basophil and mast cell granules and on the surface of endothelial cells. It helps to prevent blood clotting by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors and preventing the formation of fibrin. This allows blood to flow more freely and prevents the formation of clots that could potentially block blood vessels. Heparin is commonly used in medical settings to prevent and treat blood clots.

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  • 14. 

    The universal recipient blood type is ____.

    Explanation
    The universal recipient blood type is AB because individuals with this blood type have both A and B antigens on the surface of their red blood cells. This means that they can receive blood from any blood type (A, B, AB, or O) without their immune system reacting against the transfused blood.

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  • 15. 

    Alpha islet cells produce ______ an extremely potent hyperglycemic hormone.

    Explanation
    Alpha islet cells in the pancreas produce glucagon, which is an extremely potent hyperglycemic hormone. Glucagon works by increasing blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose and releasing it into the bloodstream. This hormone acts in opposition to insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels. Together, glucagon and insulin help maintain the balance of glucose in the body, ensuring that it remains within a normal range.

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  • 16. 

    The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, which causes the release of aldosterone is called?

    Explanation
    Renin is an enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops. It plays a crucial role in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). When blood pressure decreases, renin is released, leading to the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. This, in turn, gets converted to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. Angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone from the adrenal glands, which promotes sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, thus increasing blood volume and raising blood pressure. Therefore, renin is responsible for initiating the release of aldosterone in response to low blood pressure.

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  • 17. 

    The rocks found in one's head (calcium carbonate crystals are called):

    Explanation
    Otoliths are calcium carbonate crystals found in the inner ear of vertebrates, including humans. They play a crucial role in sensing gravity and acceleration, helping us maintain balance and perceive spatial orientation. Otoliths are responsible for detecting linear movements and changes in head position, allowing us to adjust our body accordingly. These tiny crystals are embedded in a gelatinous substance and are essential for our sense of equilibrium.

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  • 18. 

    The vestibulocochlear nerve first synapses with the:

    Explanation
    The vestibulocochlear nerve first synapses with the corti nerve. The corti nerve, also known as the spiral ganglion, is located in the cochlea of the inner ear. It receives signals from the hair cells in the cochlea and transmits them to the brain for processing. This synapse allows the vestibulocochlear nerve to relay auditory information from the cochlea to the brain, enabling us to perceive sound.

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  • 19. 

    As a result of stress the adenohypophysis releases ______ which targets the adrenal cortex to retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar and begin breaking down fats.

    Explanation
    The adenohypophysis, also known as the anterior pituitary gland, releases ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) in response to stress. ACTH then targets the adrenal cortex to stimulate the retention of sodium and water, increase blood sugar levels, and initiate the breakdown of fats. This hormone plays a crucial role in the body's response to stress and helps maintain homeostasis during stressful situations.

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  • 20. 

    Asdosterone is a type of ________ (be specific) produced by the adrenal cortex.

    Explanation
    Aldosterone is a type of mineralocorticoid produced by the adrenal cortex. It is responsible for regulating the balance of electrolytes and water in the body, particularly by promoting the reabsorption of sodium and the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Aldosterone plays a crucial role in maintaining blood pressure and fluid balance.

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  • 21. 

    The oval window touches the stapes and the:

    Explanation
    The oval window is a membrane that separates the middle ear from the inner ear. It is connected to the stapes, which is one of the three small bones in the middle ear that transmit sound vibrations. The scala vestibuli is one of the fluid-filled chambers in the cochlea of the inner ear. When the oval window touches the stapes, it causes vibrations to be transmitted into the scala vestibuli, initiating the process of hearing.

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  • 22. 

    The formed element _____ can kill parasitic worms.

    Explanation
    Esinophils are a type of white blood cell that play a role in the immune response against parasitic infections. They contain granules filled with toxic substances that can kill parasitic worms. When a parasitic infection occurs, esinophils are recruited to the site of infection and release these toxic substances to eliminate the parasites. Therefore, esinophils are capable of killing parasitic worms.

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  • 23. 

    Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular:

    • Deactivators

    • Second messengers

    • Nucleotides

    • Ions

    Correct Answer
    A. Second messengers
    Explanation
    Protein or amino acid-based hormones typically cannot enter cells directly, so they exert their effects through second messengers. Second messengers are molecules that transmit signals from the hormone receptor on the cell surface to the inside of the cell, where they can trigger various cellular responses. These second messengers can include molecules such as cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP), calcium ions, or inositol triphosphate (IP3). By utilizing second messengers, protein or amino acid-based hormones can efficiently and rapidly communicate signals within cells and regulate various physiological processes.

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  • 24. 

    The major targets of growth hormone are:

    • The liver

    • The blood vessels

    • Bones and skeletal muscles

    • The adrenal glands

    Correct Answer
    A. Bones and skeletal muscles
    Explanation
    Growth hormone primarily targets bones and skeletal muscles. It stimulates the growth and development of these tissues by promoting the synthesis of proteins and increasing the uptake of amino acids. Growth hormone also enhances the division and multiplication of cells in bones and muscles, leading to their overall growth and strengthening. Additionally, growth hormone stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) in the liver, which further promotes growth and development in bones and muscles.

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  • 25. 

    Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by:

    • Travel at high altitude

    • Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise

    • Vigorous exercise

    • Malaria and travel at high altitude

    Correct Answer
    A. Travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise
    Explanation
    Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise. High altitude reduces the oxygen levels in the blood, causing the red blood cells to sickle. Vigorous exercise further increases the demand for oxygen, exacerbating the sickling process. This combination of factors can lead to a higher risk of complications in individuals with sickle-cell anemia, such as pain crises and organ damage.

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  • 26. 

    Which blood type is called the universal donor?

    • O

    • B

    • AB

    • A

    Correct Answer
    A. O
    Explanation
    Blood type O is called the universal donor because it lacks the antigens A and B on the surface of its red blood cells. This means that individuals with blood type O can donate their blood to any other blood type without causing an immune reaction. However, people with blood type O can only receive blood from other type O donors.

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  • 27. 

    What is the main function of the rods in the eye?

    • Accommodation for near vision

    • Vision in dim light

    • Color vision

    • Depth perception

    Correct Answer
    A. Vision in dim light
    Explanation
    The main function of the rods in the eye is to provide vision in dim light. Rods are photoreceptor cells that are highly sensitive to light and are responsible for detecting low levels of light. They are concentrated in the peripheral areas of the retina and are essential for night vision and seeing in dark environments. Rods do not distinguish colors or provide detailed vision, but they are crucial for detecting movement and shapes in low light conditions.

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  • 28. 

    When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possible happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

    • If the child is type O positive.

    • If the father is Rh-.

    • If the father is Rh+.

    • If the child is Rh+.

    Correct Answer
    A. If the father is Rh-.
    Explanation
    Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs when the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive, and the child inherits the Rh positive trait from the father. In this case, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies against the Rh positive blood cells of the fetus, leading to complications. However, if the father is Rh negative, the child will also be Rh negative, and there will be no Rh positive blood cells to trigger an immune response in the mother. Therefore, erythroblastosis fetalis cannot occur in this scenario.

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  • 29. 

    What is the most abundant blood protein?

    • Tranferrin.

    • Albumin.

    • Fibringen.

    • Prothrombin.

    Correct Answer
    A. Albumin.
    Explanation
    Albumin is the most abundant blood protein. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood, transporting various substances such as hormones, fatty acids, and drugs throughout the body. It also helps in regulating blood pH and acts as a buffer. Additionally, albumin contributes to the maintenance of fluid balance between blood vessels and tissues. Due to its multiple functions and high concentration in the blood, albumin is considered the most abundant blood protein.

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  • 30. 

    _________ is a pivotal molecule associated with the external surfaces of aggregated platelets and is involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms of blood clotting.

    • Thromboplastin (prothrombin activator)

    • PF3

    • Thrombin

    • PGI2

    Correct Answer
    A. PF3
    Explanation
    PF3, also known as platelet factor 3, is a pivotal molecule associated with the external surfaces of aggregated platelets and is involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms of blood clotting. It plays a crucial role in the activation of prothrombin, leading to the formation of thrombin, which is essential for the clotting process. PF3 acts as a catalyst for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, which then promotes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a stable blood clot.

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  • 31. 

    Leptin is secreted by:

    • Lymphocytes

    • Adipocytes

    • Fibroblasts

    • Goblet cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Adipocytes
    Explanation
    Leptin is a hormone that is primarily secreted by adipocytes, which are fat cells. This hormone plays a crucial role in regulating energy balance and appetite by signaling to the brain about the body's fat stores. Leptin levels increase as the amount of body fat increases, and it helps to suppress hunger and increase energy expenditure. Therefore, the correct answer is adipocytes, as they are the main source of leptin secretion in the body.

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  • 32. 

    Which of the following is not a formed element

    • Leucocyte

    • Platelet

    • Plasma

    • Erythrocyte

    Correct Answer
    A. Plasma
    Explanation
    Plasma is not a formed element because it is a component of blood that is not a cell. It is the liquid portion of blood that carries various substances, such as nutrients, hormones, and waste products. Formed elements, on the other hand, are the cellular components of blood, including red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leucocytes), and platelets.

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  • 33. 

    The special type of hemoglobin preent in fetal red blood cells is:

    • Hemoglobin F

    • Hemoglobin S

    • Hemoglobin A

    • Hemoglobin B

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemoglobin F
    Explanation
    Hemoglobin F is the correct answer because it is the special type of hemoglobin found in fetal red blood cells. This type of hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin, allowing the fetus to efficiently extract oxygen from the mother's blood through the placenta. Hemoglobin S is associated with sickle cell disease, hemoglobin A is the predominant type in adult red blood cells, and hemoglobin B is not a recognized type of hemoglobin.

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  • 34. 

    Olfactory cells an taste buds are normally stimulated by:

    • Stretching of the receptor cell

    • Movement of a cupula

    • The movement of otoliths

    • Substances in solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Substances in solution
    Explanation
    Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by substances in solution. This is because both the olfactory cells in the nose and the taste buds on the tongue detect and respond to different chemicals present in the substances we smell or taste. When these chemicals dissolve in a solution, they interact with the receptors in the olfactory cells and taste buds, triggering nerve signals that are then transmitted to the brain, allowing us to perceive different smells and tastes. Therefore, substances in solution play a crucial role in stimulating olfactory cells and taste buds.

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  • 35. 

    What is the average normal Ph of blood?

    • 4.7

    • 7.8

    • 7.4

    • 8.4

    Correct Answer
    A. 7.4
    Explanation
    The average normal pH of blood is 7.4. pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, with a pH of 7 considered neutral. Since blood is slightly alkaline, a pH of 7.4 is within the normal range. Any significant deviation from this pH can indicate an imbalance in the body's acid-base balance and may be a sign of underlying health conditions.

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  • 36. 

    An individual who is blood type AB-:

    • Can donate to types A, B and AB, but not to type O.

    • Can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen.

    • Can receive types A, B and AB, but not type O.

    • Can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts.

    Correct Answer
    A. Can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen.
    Explanation
    An individual with blood type AB- can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except for the blood type that contains the Rh antigen. This is because individuals with AB- blood type do not have the Rh antigen on their red blood cells, so receiving blood with the Rh antigen can cause an immune reaction. However, they can receive blood from types A, B, and AB because their blood type already contains the A and B antigens. They cannot donate blood to type O because type O blood does not have either the A or B antigens, which are necessary for compatibility.

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  • 37. 

    Information from balance receptors goes directly to the:

    • Motor cortex.

    • Back muscles.

    • Brain stem reflex centers.

    • Visual cortex.

    Correct Answer
    A. Brain stem reflex centers.
    Explanation
    Balance receptors in the body provide information about the position and movement of the body to maintain balance. This information is crucial for reflexes that help in maintaining balance, such as adjusting posture or making quick movements to prevent falls. The brain stem reflex centers receive this information directly from the balance receptors and coordinate the appropriate reflex responses. These reflex centers are responsible for integrating and processing the balance information before sending signals to the muscles and other parts of the body to maintain balance.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?

    • Second-messenger systems.

    • An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP.

    • A hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA.

    • Extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone.

    Correct Answer
    A. A hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA.
    Explanation
    Steroids are lipophilic molecules that can easily pass through the cell membrane. Once inside the cell, they bind to specific hormone receptors, forming a hormone-receptor complex. This complex can then enter the nucleus and directly interact with the cell's DNA, regulating gene expression. This mechanism allows steroids to have a direct effect on cellular processes and gene transcription.

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  • 39. 

    Motion sickness seems to:

    • Respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins.

    • Results from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs.

    • Result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem.

    • Respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Results from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs.
    Explanation
    Motion sickness occurs when there is a mismatch between the visual information received by the eyes and the vestibular (inner ear) inputs. The brain relies on both of these inputs to determine the body's position and movement. When there is a discrepancy between what the eyes see and what the inner ear senses, it can cause dizziness, nausea, and other symptoms associated with motion sickness. Therefore, the correct answer is that motion sickness results from a mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?

    • Delivery of oxygen to body cells

    • Maintenance of normal pH in body tissues

    • Transport of metabolic wastes from cells

    • Prevention of blood loss

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance of normal pH in body tissues
    Explanation
    Blood plays a regulatory role in maintaining the normal pH in body tissues. It does so by buffering the acids and bases present in the body. This is important because even slight changes in pH can disrupt various physiological processes. Blood contains bicarbonate ions that can accept or donate hydrogen ions to maintain the pH within a narrow range. This regulatory function of blood ensures that the body's cells and tissues can function optimally and maintain homeostasis.

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  • 41. 

    Light passes through the following structures in which order?

    • Aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor.

    • Vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea.

    • Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor.

    • Cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor.
  • 42. 

    Platelets:

    • Are the precursors of leukocytes.

    • Have multiple nuclei.

    • Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break.

    • Have a life span of about 120 days.

    Correct Answer
    A. Stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break.
    Explanation
    Platelets are small, disk-shaped cell fragments that play a crucial role in blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the site of injury and form a plug, which helps to seal the break and prevent further bleeding. This process, known as hemostasis, is essential for maintaining the integrity of the blood vessel and preventing excessive blood loss. The other options mentioned in the question, such as being the precursors of leukocytes or having multiple nuclei, are incorrect and do not accurately describe the function or characteristics of platelets.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

    • Thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets

    • A defect in the clotting cascade

    • Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

    • Vitamin K deficiency

    Correct Answer
    A. Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
    Explanation
    Excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) is not a cause of bleeding disorders. Bleeding disorders can be caused by thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in circulating platelets, a defect in the clotting cascade, and vitamin K deficiency. PDGF is a protein that plays a role in cell growth and division, but it is not directly involved in the clotting process or platelet function. Therefore, excess secretion of PDGF does not contribute to bleeding disorders.

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  • 44. 

    Mineralocorticoid is to aldoterone as glucocorticoid is to:

    • Cortisol.

    • Testosterone.

    • Estrogen.

    • Epinephrine.

    Correct Answer
    A. Cortisol.
    Explanation
    Mineralocorticoids are a class of hormones that regulate electrolyte and fluid balance in the body, with aldosterone being the primary mineralocorticoid. Similarly, glucocorticoids are a class of hormones that play a role in metabolism, immune response, and stress response, with cortisol being the primary glucocorticoid. Therefore, the correct answer is cortisol as it is the main hormone in the glucocorticoid class, just like aldosterone is the main hormone in the mineralocorticoid class.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following might trigger erythropoieses?

    • Decreased tissue demand for oxygen.

    • Increased tissue demand for oxygen.

    • Moving from a high altitude to a low altitude.

    • An increased number of RBCs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Increased tissue demand for oxygen.
    Explanation
    Increased tissue demand for oxygen can trigger erythropoiesis, the process of producing red blood cells. When tissues require more oxygen, the body responds by increasing the production of red blood cells to carry more oxygen to those tissues. This is a mechanism to ensure that enough oxygen is delivered to meet the increased demand.

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  • 46. 

    The highly contagious infection known as "pinkeye" is caused by bacterial or viral irritation of the:

    • Conjunctiva.

    • Choroid.

    • Cornea.

    • Retina.

    • Sclera.

    Correct Answer
    A. Conjunctiva.
    Explanation
    Pinkeye, also known as conjunctivitis, is a highly contagious infection that causes inflammation of the conjunctiva, which is the clear tissue that lines the inside of the eyelid and covers the white part of the eye. It can be caused by either bacterial or viral irritation. The other options, such as choroid, cornea, retina, and sclera, are not involved in the development of pinkeye.

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  • 47. 

    The blind spot of the eye is:

    • Where the macula lutea is located.

    • Where the optic nerve leaves the eye.

    • Where more rods than cones are found.

    • Where only cones occur.

    Correct Answer
    A. Where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
    Explanation
    The blind spot of the eye refers to the area in the retina where the optic nerve exits the eye. This is the point where there are no photoreceptor cells (rods or cones) present, resulting in a lack of visual perception. The optic nerve carries visual information from the retina to the brain for processing, and its presence in this area creates a blind spot in our field of vision.

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  • 48. 

    Accommodation is:

    • Contraction of the pupil adjusting to bright light

    • Dilation of the pupil adjusting to dim light

    • Adjustment of the thickness of the lens during vision of close objects

    • Stimulation of the retina by light rays

    • Adjustment of the lens during vision of distant objects

    Correct Answer
    A. Adjustment of the thickness of the lens during vision of close objects
    Explanation
    Accommodation refers to the adjustment of the thickness of the lens in the eye, specifically when focusing on close objects. When we look at something up close, the ciliary muscles in the eye contract, causing the lens to become thicker and rounder. This change in lens shape allows the eye to focus the incoming light rays onto the retina, resulting in clear vision of nearby objects. Therefore, the correct answer is "adjustment of the thickness of the lens during vision of close objects."

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  • 49. 

    Thromboembolytic disorders:

    • Include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

    • Are caused by vitamin K deficiency

    • Result in uncontrolled bleeding

    • Include thrombus formation, a clot in a broken blood vessel

    Correct Answer
    A. Include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system
    Explanation
    Thromboembolytic disorders involve the formation of an embolus, which is a clot that moves within the circulatory system. This means that a blood clot forms and then breaks free, traveling through the blood vessels. This can be dangerous as the clot can block blood flow to vital organs or get lodged in a smaller blood vessel, causing a blockage. Vitamin K deficiency is not a cause of thromboembolytic disorders. Uncontrolled bleeding is not a result of these disorders. Thrombus formation refers to the formation of a clot within a broken blood vessel, which is not specifically mentioned in the given description of thromboembolytic disorders.

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