Vol2 Ure3 CDC 3D153

20 Questions | Total Attempts: 202

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3D153 Quizzes & Trivia

This is to be used as a study aid for CDC 3D153 RF transmission systems.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (221) Any military action involving the use of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum to include directed energy to attack an enemy is called?
    • A. 

      Electronic support (ES)

    • B. 

      Electronic warfare (EW)

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP)

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)

  • 2. 
    (221) Which is not an example of electronic protection (EP)?
    • A. 

      Frequency agility in a radio

    • B. 

      Communications intelligence

    • C. 

      Electronic and material shielding for systems

    • D. 

      Process to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrustion

  • 3. 
    (221) Which electronic warfare (EW) component responds to taskings to search for, intercept, identify, and locate intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy?
    • A. 

      Electronic Attack (EA)

    • B. 

      Electronic control (EC)

    • C. 

      Electronic support (ES)

    • D. 

      Electronic protection (EP)

  • 4. 
    (222) Electromagnetic (EM) deception as it applies to electronic warfare (EW) is?
    • A. 

      Controlling the information an enemy

    • B. 

      The elimination of some or all of an adversary's electronic defenses

    • C. 

      The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convey misleading information to an enemy

    • D. 

      Degrading or interfering with the enemy's use of the EM spectrum to limit the enemy's combat capabilities

  • 5. 
    (223) What is the process of unscrambling encrypted information so that it is intelligible?
    • A. 

      Decryption

    • B. 

      Encryption

    • C. 

      Cryptography

    • D. 

      Cryptanalysis

  • 6. 
    (224) How many selectable traffic key slots does the KG–84A have?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      8

  • 7. 
    (224) Which switch on the KY–57 VINSON zeroizes channels one through five?
    • A. 

      Fill

    • B. 

      Mode

    • C. 

      Power

    • D. 

      Volume

  • 8. 
    (225) The common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called?
    • A. 

      Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR)

    • B. 

      Asymmetric

    • C. 

      Symmetric

    • D. 

      Off-line

  • 9. 
    (225) Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce?
    • A. 

      Procedural problems

    • B. 

      Operational problems

    • C. 

      Security problems

    • D. 

      Safety problems

  • 10. 
    (226) In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the?
    • A. 

      Dwell time

    • B. 

      Hopping rate

    • C. 

      Frequency offset

    • D. 

      Transmitter velocity

  • 11. 
    (227) Which RT–1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal?
    • A. 

      The interleaver

    • B. 

      The modulator

    • C. 

      The demodulator

    • D. 

      The exciter power amplifier module

  • 12. 
    (227) The RT–1523 SINCGARS radio’s time sync and correlator module manipulates control signal outputs during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to?
    • A. 

      Stop frequency shifts during receive operations

    • B. 

      Shut down reception only during frequency shifts

    • C. 

      Shut down transmission only during frequency shifts

    • D. 

      Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts

  • 13. 
    (228) Concerning HAVE QUICK II communications (MWOD), how long can each word of day (WOD) be used?
    • A. 

      Each WOD is used until it is manually changed

    • B. 

      For a total of 3 days

    • C. 

      For 48 hours

    • D. 

      For 24 hours

  • 14. 
    (229) Which one of the following statement is not a characteristic of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver?
    • A. 

      It operates from 116MHz to 149.975 MHz

    • B. 

      It provides antijam communications in amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM)

    • C. 

      It contatins both HAVE QUICK and HAVE QUICK II

    • D. 

      It can communicate on any one of 7,000 available channels

  • 15. 
    (229) What does the low-pass filter of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver perform?
    • A. 

      Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit

    • B. 

      Image frequency rejection in transmit and harmonic attenuation in receive

    • C. 

      RF decoupling in transmit and harmonic suppression in receive

    • D. 

      RF decoupling in receive and harmonic suppression in transmit

  • 16. 
    (229) The output power of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver is?
    • A. 

      25 Watts in both amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM)

    • B. 

      20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM

    • C. 

      20 Watts in AM, 20 Watts in FM

    • D. 

      50 Watts in narrowband, 25 watts in wideband

  • 17. 
    (230) The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as?
    • A. 

      Link 4A

    • B. 

      Link 11

    • C. 

      Link 16

    • D. 

      Link 22

  • 18. 
    (231) Which service uses the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft?
    • A. 

      Army

    • B. 

      Navy

    • C. 

      Air Force

    • D. 

      Marines

  • 19. 
    (231) What type of network radio does the Air Force use for close air support?
    • A. 

      Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio system (SINCGARS)

    • B. 

      Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS)

    • C. 

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)

    • D. 

      Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL)

  • 20. 
    (232) How many programmable devices can the multiband inter/intra team radio hold?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10