Vol2 Ure3 CDC 3D153

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Quizzes Created: 11 | Total Attempts: 1,312
| Attempts: 233
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  • 1/20 Questions

    (221) Any military action involving the use of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum to include directed energy to attack an enemy is called?

    • Electronic support (ES)
    • Electronic warfare (EW)
    • Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP)
    • Electromagnetic Interference (EMI)
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3D153 Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This is to be used as a study aid for CDC 3D153 RF transmission systems.

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  • 2. 

    (221) Which is not an example of electronic protection (EP)?

    • Frequency agility in a radio

    • Communications intelligence

    • Electronic and material shielding for systems

    • Process to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrustion

    Correct Answer
    A. Communications intelligence
    Explanation
    The given options describe various examples of electronic protection (EP), which refers to measures taken to protect electronic systems from threats such as interference, jamming, and intrusion. Frequency agility in a radio, electronic and material shielding, and processes to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion are all examples of EP. However, "communications intelligence" does not fall under the category of EP. Communications intelligence refers to the collection and analysis of information from communication systems, and is not directly related to protecting electronic systems from threats.

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  • 3. 

    (221) Which electronic warfare (EW) component responds to taskings to search for, intercept, identify, and locate intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy?

    • Electronic Attack (EA)

    • Electronic control (EC)

    • Electronic support (ES)

    • Electronic protection (EP)

    Correct Answer
    A. Electronic support (ES)
    Explanation
    Electronic support (ES) is the correct answer because it involves the tasks of searching for, intercepting, identifying, and locating intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy. This component of electronic warfare is responsible for collecting and analyzing electromagnetic emissions to provide situational awareness and support other electronic warfare operations. Electronic Attack (EA) involves using electromagnetic energy to attack enemy systems, Electronic control (EC) involves controlling friendly systems, and Electronic protection (EP) involves protecting friendly systems from electronic warfare threats.

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  • 4. 

    (222) Electromagnetic (EM) deception as it applies to electronic warfare (EW) is?

    • Controlling the information an enemy

    • The elimination of some or all of an adversary's electronic defenses

    • The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convey misleading information to an enemy

    • Degrading or interfering with the enemy's use of the EM spectrum to limit the enemy's combat capabilities

    Correct Answer
    A. The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convey misleading information to an enemy
    Explanation
    Electromagnetic (EM) deception in electronic warfare (EW) refers to the intentional emission of EM energy with the purpose of providing false or misleading information to the enemy. This tactic aims to confuse and misguide the adversary by conveying deceptive signals or information through the use of electromagnetic radiation. By doing so, EM deception disrupts the enemy's ability to accurately interpret and utilize the electromagnetic spectrum, ultimately limiting their combat capabilities.

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  • 5. 

    (223) What is the process of unscrambling encrypted information so that it is intelligible?

    • Decryption

    • Encryption

    • Cryptography

    • Cryptanalysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Decryption
    Explanation
    Decryption is the process of unscrambling encrypted information so that it becomes intelligible. It involves using a decryption key or algorithm to reverse the encryption process. By decrypting the information, it can be converted back into its original form, allowing authorized individuals to understand and access the data.

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  • 6. 

    (224) How many selectable traffic key slots does the KG–84A have?

    • 1

    • 2

    • 4

    • 8

    Correct Answer
    A. 4
    Explanation
    The KG-84A has a total of 4 selectable traffic key slots. This means that it can accommodate up to 4 different traffic keys, allowing for secure communication with multiple parties. Each key slot can be used to encrypt and decrypt messages, ensuring the confidentiality and integrity of the information being transmitted. Having multiple key slots enhances the flexibility and scalability of the KG-84A, making it suitable for various communication scenarios.

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  • 7. 

    (224) Which switch on the KY–57 VINSON zeroizes channels one through five?

    • Fill

    • Mode

    • Power

    • Volume

    Correct Answer
    A. Fill
    Explanation
    The switch on the KY-57 VINSON that zeroizes channels one through five is the "Fill" switch.

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  • 8. 

    (225) The common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called?

    • Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR)

    • Asymmetric

    • Symmetric

    • Off-line

    Correct Answer
    A. Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR)
    Explanation
    Over-the-air rekeying (OTAR) is the common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system. This method allows for the secure and efficient changing of encryption keys without the need for physical access to the radios. It ensures that the communication remains secure by regularly updating the encryption keys over the airwaves, minimizing the risk of unauthorized access or decryption of the transmitted information.

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  • 9. 

    (225) Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce?

    • Procedural problems

    • Operational problems

    • Security problems

    • Safety problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Safety problems
    Explanation
    Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce safety problems. This means that even with centralized control, safety issues related to encryption keys will still exist. Centralized control refers to the practice of managing all encryption keys in a single location, which can lead to potential vulnerabilities and risks. Safety problems may include unauthorized access to encryption keys, loss or theft of keys, or inadequate protection measures. Therefore, while centralized control may address other issues such as procedural, operational, or security problems, it does not necessarily eliminate safety problems.

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  • 10. 

    (226) In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the?

    • Dwell time

    • Hopping rate

    • Frequency offset

    • Transmitter velocity

    Correct Answer
    A. Dwell time
    Explanation
    In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the dwell time. This refers to the duration for which the transmitter stays on a particular frequency before switching to another frequency in the hopping sequence. It determines the amount of time the transmitter spends on each frequency and is an essential parameter in FH systems.

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  • 11. 

    (227) Which RT–1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal?

    • The interleaver

    • The modulator

    • The demodulator

    • The exciter power amplifier module

    Correct Answer
    A. The demodulator
    Explanation
    The demodulator is responsible for removing synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal. It extracts the original information from the modulated signal by reversing the modulation process.

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  • 12. 

    (227) The RT–1523 SINCGARS radio’s time sync and correlator module manipulates control signal outputs during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to?

    • Stop frequency shifts during receive operations

    • Shut down reception only during frequency shifts

    • Shut down transmission only during frequency shifts

    • Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts

    Correct Answer
    A. Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts
    Explanation
    The RT-1523 SINCGARS radio's time sync and correlator module manipulates control signals during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts. This means that when the radio is changing frequencies, it temporarily stops both receiving and transmitting signals to ensure a smooth transition and prevent interference or loss of data.

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  • 13. 

    (228) Concerning HAVE QUICK II communications (MWOD), how long can each word of day (WOD) be used?

    • Each WOD is used until it is manually changed

    • For a total of 3 days

    • For 48 hours

    • For 24 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. For 24 hours
    Explanation
    Each word of the day (WOD) in HAVE QUICK II communications can be used for a period of 24 hours before it is manually changed.

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  • 14. 

    (229) Which one of the following statement is not a characteristic of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver?

    • It operates from 116MHz to 149.975 MHz

    • It provides antijam communications in amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM)

    • It contatins both HAVE QUICK and HAVE QUICK II

    • It can communicate on any one of 7,000 available channels

    Correct Answer
    A. It operates from 116MHz to 149.975 MHz
    Explanation
    The AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver does not operate from 116MHz to 149.975 MHz.

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  • 15. 

    (229) What does the low-pass filter of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver perform?

    • Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit

    • Image frequency rejection in transmit and harmonic attenuation in receive

    • RF decoupling in transmit and harmonic suppression in receive

    • RF decoupling in receive and harmonic suppression in transmit

    Correct Answer
    A. Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit
    Explanation
    The low-pass filter of the AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver performs image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit. This means that it filters out unwanted frequencies that could interfere with the receiver's ability to receive signals, specifically targeting image frequencies. Additionally, it helps to reduce the presence of harmonics in the transmitted signals, ensuring that the transmitted signals are clean and free from unwanted harmonic distortions.

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  • 16. 

    (229) The output power of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver is?

    • 25 Watts in both amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM)

    • 20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM

    • 20 Watts in AM, 20 Watts in FM

    • 50 Watts in narrowband, 25 watts in wideband

    Correct Answer
    A. 20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM
    Explanation
    The AN/GRC-171B(V)4 transceiver has an output power of 20 Watts in amplitude modulation (AM) and 50 Watts in frequency modulation (FM). This means that when using AM, the transceiver can transmit at a power of 20 Watts, while when using FM, it can transmit at a higher power of 50 Watts. The transceiver is capable of operating at different power levels depending on the modulation technique being used.

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  • 17. 

    (230) The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as?

    • Link 4A

    • Link 11

    • Link 16

    • Link 22

    Correct Answer
    A. Link 16
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Link 16. The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as Link 16. Link 16 is a secure, jam-resistant, high-speed digital data link used by military forces to exchange tactical information, such as location, identification, and mission data, in real-time. It enables efficient and effective communication and coordination between different platforms, such as aircraft, ships, and ground forces, enhancing situational awareness and command and control capabilities.

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  • 18. 

    (231) Which service uses the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft?

    • Army

    • Navy

    • Air Force

    • Marines

    Correct Answer
    A. Navy
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Navy because they use the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft. This system is specifically designed for the Navy's use in monitoring and managing their amphibious operations. The Army, Air Force, and Marines may have their own systems for tracking and locating their respective assets, but in this case, it is the Navy that utilizes EPLRS for this purpose.

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  • 19. 

    (231) What type of network radio does the Air Force use for close air support?

    • Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio system (SINCGARS)

    • Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS)

    • Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS)

    • Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL)

    Correct Answer
    A. Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL)
    Explanation
    The Air Force uses the Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL) for close air support. SADL is a network radio system that allows for the exchange of real-time situational awareness information between aircraft and ground forces. It enables the sharing of critical data such as target locations, friendly positions, and threat information, enhancing coordination and effectiveness in close air support operations.

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  • 20. 

    (232) How many programmable devices can the multiband inter/intra team radio hold?

    • 3

    • 5

    • 7

    • 10

    Correct Answer
    A. 7
    Explanation
    The multiband inter/intra team radio can hold a total of 7 programmable devices.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 20, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Aug 20, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Jayhuiz23

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