3D1X3 CDC Volume 1 Ure
Settings
Read the damn title also jones.
- 1.(001) What reason for modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
- A.
Spectrum conservation
- B.
Channel allocation
- C.
Ease of radiation
- D.
Companding
- 2.(001) What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
- A.
Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.
- B.
Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.
- C.
Amplitude, frequency, and phase.
- D.
Analog, digital, and shift keying.
- 3.(002) When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains a/an
- A.
Modulating signal, upper sideband, lower sideband.
- B.
Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.
- C.
Upper sideband and modulating signal.
- D.
Carrier and modulating signal.
- 4.(002) If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal includes
- A.
1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.
- B.
1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz.
- C.
1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.99 MHz.
- D.
1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz
- 5.(002) If the modulating audio signal is 10kHz wide, what is the bandwidth of the transmitted amplitude modulated signal?
- A.
5 kHz
- B.
10 kHz
- C.
15 kHz
- D.
20 kHz
- 6.(002) The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
- A.
Two times the modulating signal.
- B.
The same as the modulating signal.
- C.
Determined by modulation index.
- D.
Defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation.
- 7.(002) The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
- A.
Percent of modulation.
- B.
Modulation index.
- C.
Bandwidth.
- D.
Deviation.
- 8.(002) Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
- A.
Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.
- B.
Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.
- C.
Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's increased amplitude.
- D.
Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output's increased amplitude.
- 9.(002) Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
- A.
More total power.
- B.
A reduction in carrier power.
- C.
No reduction in carrier power.
- D.
A reduction in carrier and sideband power.
- 10.(003) In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of oscillator frequency change is
- A.
Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
- B.
Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.
- C.
Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.
- D.
Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.
- 11.(003) In frequency modulation (FM), what is considered a significant sideband?
- A.
Sidebands containing at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.
- B.
Sidebands containing at least 3 percent of the total transmitted power.
- C.
Sidebands containing at least 10 percent of the total transmitted power.
- D.
Sidebands containing at least 0.1 percent of the total transmitted power.
- 12.(003) What is the formula to find the modulating index?
- A.
Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.
- B.
Deviation times frequency of modulation.
- C.
Sideband divided by carrier frequency.
- D.
Sideband times carrier frequency.
- 13.(004) In phase modulation (PM), the carrier's
- A.
Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.
- B.
Phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.
- C.
Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.
- D.
Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.
- 14.(004) What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
- A.
Easier detection.
- B.
Smaller bit error rate.
- C.
Better signal-to-noise ratio.
- D.
Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.
- 15.(005) What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?
- A.
Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.
- B.
A binary code number is assigned to the sample.
- C.
The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.
- D.
The analog signal is band-limited.
- 16.(005) What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
- A.
Sampling.
- B.
Rectifying.
- C.
Oscillating.
- D.
Band limiting.
- 17.(005) A type of pulse modulation (PM) that changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary according to the amplitude of the input signal is called
- A.
Pulse width modulation (PWM).
- B.
Pulse position modulation.
- C.
Pulse duration modulation.
- D.
Pulse amplitude modulation.
- 18.(006) If an error should occur, what data transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?
- A.
One character.
- B.
Block of data.
- C.
A parity bit.
- D.
Synchronization (SYNC) bit.
- 19.(007) When using vertical redundancy check (VRC), what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?
- A.
Determines parity.
- B.
Determines transmission rate.
- C.
Determines whether transmission is in American Standard code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.
- D.
Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.
- 20.(007) What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 perfent effective in detecting errors?
- A.
Checksum and cyclic redundancy check.
- B.
Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum.
- C.
Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check.
- D.
Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.
- 21.(007) What error detection method adds stacked characters, divides it by 255, and disregards the answer except for the remainder?
- A.
Checksum.
- B.
Block check character.
- C.
Cyclic redundancy check.
- D.
Vertical redundancy check.
- 22.(007) What error-correction technique sends a retransmittal request by the receiver to the sender if it finds an error in a received frame?
- A.
Error-correcting code.
- B.
Forward error control.
- C.
Redundant data transfer.
- D.
Automatic retransmit on request.
- 23.(007) When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
- A.
Receiving end.
- B.
In the oscillator.
- C.
Transmitting end.
- D.
In the primary buffers.
- 24.(008) What does an optical source do?
- A.
Terminates fober optics cable.
- B.
Converts electrical energy into optical energy.
- C.
Extend the distance and to preserve signal integrity.
- D.
Accepts optical signals and converts them into electrical signals.
- 25.(008) Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes (LED) and
- A.
Photo transistors.
- B.
Hybrid photodiodes.
- C.
Semiconductor laser diodes.
- D.
Integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.
- 26.(008) What type of light is emitted from a laser?
- A.
Incoherent.
- B.
Coherent.
- C.
Ordinary.
- D.
Invisible.
- 27.(008) Laser diode power coupling is measured in which range
- A.
Megawatt.
- B.
Microwatt.
- C.
Milliwatt.
- D.
Kilowatt.
- 28.(009) A device that accepts optical signals from an optical fiber and converts them into electrical signals is called an optical
- A.
Regenerator.
- B.
Transmitter.
- C.
Amplifier.
- D.
Receiver.
- 29.(009) Small current that flows from a photodiode even with no light is called
- A.
Dark current.
- B.
Dispersion.
- C.
Distortion.
- D.
Ionization.
- 30.(009) The responsivity of a photo detector is dependent on the
- A.
Emitter rise time.
- B.
Wavelength of light.
- C.
Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).
- D.
Emitter modulation speed.
- 31.(009) What are the two main types of photodetectors?
- A.
Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode.
- B.
Light-emitting diode (LED) and avalanche photodiode.
- C.
LED and semiconductor laser.
- D.
Tunnel and zener diodes.
- 32.(009) What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
- A.
Light emitting diode (LED).
- B.
Avalanche photodiode.
- C.
Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode.
- D.
Integrated photodiode/preamplifier (IDP).
- 33.(010) What is used to extend the distance of a fiber optic communication systems link?
- A.
Receiver.
- B.
Transmitter.
- C.
Repeater.
- D.
Patch cords.
- 34.(010) Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain?
- A.
Repeaters.
- B.
Regenerators.
- C.
Optical amplifiers.
- D.
Receiver.
- 35.(011) Short sections of single fiber cables that has a connector at each end is called a
- A.
Pigtail.
- B.
Patch cord.
- C.
Jumper.
- D.
Breakout cables.
- 36.(011) Which fiber-optic connector uses a quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
- A.
Biconic.
- B.
Field connector (FC).
- C.
Straight tip (ST).
- D.
Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).
- 37.(011) Which fiber optic connector uses a push-pull engagement for mating?
- A.
Biconic.
- B.
Field connector (FC).
- C.
Subscriber (SC).
- D.
Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).
- 38.(012) What initial nuclear radiation elements generate electromagnetic pulses?
- A.
Gamma rays and neutrons.
- B.
Thermally generated x-rays.
- C.
Transient radiation effects on electronics.
- D.
Neutrons and thermally generated X-rays.
- 39.(012) High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is what type of frequency phenomenon, and involces which frequency range?
- A.
Secondary; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.
- B.
Wideband; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.
- C.
Secondary; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.
- D.
Wideband; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.
- 40.(012) A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
- A.
Susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon.
- B.
Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.
- C.
Affected by the azimuthal magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity.
- D.
Influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.
- 41.(012) Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth's atmosphere?
- A.
Secondary.
- B.
Radiated.
- C.
Plasma.
- D.
Source.
- 42.(012) What electromagnetic pulse region is the principal threat to electronic systems by cable?
- A.
Local.
- B.
Source.
- C.
Radiated.
- D.
Long-line.
- 43.(012) How does scintillation effect communications?
- A.
Large attenuation of the transmitted signal causing the received signal-to-noise (SNR) to fall below unity.
- B.
Transmitted signal fading caused by multiple path propagation through the structured plasma field.
- C.
Layers of charged electrons that are trapped and prevent transmissions through the layer.
- D.
Absorption of the transmitted signal through the contaminated area.
- 44.(012) Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect comunications by which types of effects?
- A.
Blackout.
- B.
Absorption.
- C.
Scintillation.
- D.
Attenuation.
- 45.(013) Which one of the following statements are true converning shielding?
- A.
Cables should be of unshielded construction.
- B.
Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.
- C.
Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.
- D.
All power lines supplying shielded areas does not require filters.
- 46.(013) What is the purpose of bonding?
- A.
To isolate facility from any external electrical electromagnetic propagation.
- B.
To reduce interference coupling around circuits and around interconnecting lines.
- C.
To ensure a mechanically strong, low impedance interconnection between metal objects.
- D.
To eliminate harmful differences of potential between the various telephone cables entering facility.
- 47.(013) Which types of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters?
- A.
Linear.
- B.
Alternating current (AC) line.
- C.
Direct current (DC) DC line.
- D.
Power line.
- 48.(014) If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely
- A.
Line noise.
- B.
Internal to the radio.
- C.
External to the radio.
- D.
Radio receiver trouble.
- 49.(014) What is an example of intentionally induced electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
- A.
Jamming.
- B.
Spurious responses.
- C.
Intermodulation.
- D.
Power line noise.
- 50.(014) What type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
- A.
Rusty Bolt.
- B.
Co-channel.
- C.
Brute force.
- D.
Spurious responses.
- 51.(014) What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
- A.
Slow tuning receiver.
- B.
Rapid tuning receiver.
- C.
Slow tuning transmitter.
- D.
Rapid tuning transmitter.
- 52.(014) What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
- A.
Relays.
- B.
Lighting.
- C.
Power line.
- D.
Switching equipment.
- 53.(014) How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference (EMI) noise bursts caused by sodium and mercurt vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
- A.
Change the bulb.
- B.
Ground out the light fixture.
- C.
Install a noise reject filter on the light.
- D.
Install a noise reject filter on the receiver.
- 54.(015) What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference (EMI) incident?
- A.
Mishap prevention.
- B.
Frequency management (FM).
- C.
Electrostatic discharge (ESD) control.
- D.
Spectrum interference resolution (SIR).
- 55.(015) At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference (EMI) problems resolved?
- A.
Affected unit.
- B.
Affected major command.
- C.
Electromagnetic environmental effects office.
- D.
Spectrum interference resolution office.
- 56.(015) What is the first step in the Air Force spectrum interference resolution (SIR) program?
- A.
Identify the source.
- B.
Verifying the source.
- C.
Resolving the interference.
- D.
Reporting the interference.
- 57.(015) What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference (EMI) exists?
- A.
Request engineering assistance.
- B.
Contact the base frequency manager.
- C.
Systematically gather data for analysis.
- D.
Contact the spectrum interference resolution (SIR) office.
- 58.(015) Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
- A.
The operator.
- B.
Major command (MAJCOM).
- C.
The frequency manager (FM).
- D.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- 59.(015) Which Air Force service provides on-site direction finding and interference problem analysis?
- A.
USAF Gold Flag Program.
- B.
Unit Self-Sufficiency Support.
- C.
Reliability and Maintainability Deficiency.
- D.
Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability.
- 60.(015) What program addresses persistent and recurring interferences problems in joint operations?
- A.
The reliability and maintainability.
- B.
Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution (SIR).
- C.
Air Force Spectrum Interference Resolution (AFSIR).
- D.
The Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability (QFIRC).
- 61.(015) Who is tasked to provide interference resolution support to the unified commanders?
- A.
The operator.
- B.
Joint Spectrum Center (JSC).
- C.
Installation spectrum manager (ISM).
- D.
Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
- 62.(016) Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?
- A.
Rotary switch.
- B.
Range push button.
- C.
Power-up self-test.
- D.
Touch-hold push button.
- 63.(017) Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?
- A.
Microamps direct current (DC).
- B.
Microamps AC.
- C.
Milliamps/amp DC.
- D.
Milliamps/amp AC.
- 64.(017) When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a "good" diode produces an "OL" (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
- A.
A continunous audible tone.
- B.
"SL" (short) on the display.
- C.
A wavering audible tone.
- D.
Three short beeps.
- 65.(018) How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
- A.
Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis.
- B.
Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis.
- C.
Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity.
- D.
Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.
- 66.(018) Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
- A.
Auto.
- B.
Norm.
- C.
External.
- D.
Source.
- 67.(019) Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
- A.
Current probe.
- B.
Passive 1:1 probe.
- C.
Active (FET) probe.
- D.
Passive divider, 10:1 probe.
- 68.(020) What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals?
- A.
Analog-to-digital converter.
- B.
Digital-to-analog converter.
- C.
Charged coupled device.
- D.
Cathode-ray tube.
- 69.(020) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
- A.
Sequential records.
- B.
Waveform points.
- C.
Record lengths.
- D.
Record points.
- 70.(020) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numberous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
- A.
Microprocessors.
- B.
Acquisition.
- C.
Memory.
- D.
Input.
- 71.(020) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
- A.
Sequential.
- B.
Repetitive.
- C.
Real-time.
- D.
Random.
- 72.(020) In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
- A.
Sine.
- B.
Linear.
- C.
Non-uniform.
- D.
Companding.
- 73.(020) Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode?
- A.
Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample.
- B.
Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time.
- C.
Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging.
- D.
Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect.
- 74.(020) In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
- A.
1,000
- B.
2,000
- C.
3,000
- D.
4,000
- 75.(021) What test equipment provides a bit error detection system that can determine the received data quality after traveling over a communications link?
- A.
Megger.
- B.
Multimeter.
- C.
Oscilloscope.
- D.
Bit error rate (BER).
- 76.(021) What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 480bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
- A.
480bit transmitter only.
- B.
Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.
- C.
Pseudo random noise (PRN) comparator.
- D.
48-bit register and 8-bit word display.
- 77.(021) What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the non-return zero-level (NRZ-L) data into the desired coding, such as non-return zero-mark (NRZ-M)?
- A.
Data drivers.
- B.
Code converter.
- C.
External data comparator.
- D.
Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.
- 78.(021) What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/clock receivers?
- A.
48-bit transmitter.
- B.
48-bit synchronizer/comparator.
- C.
External data pattern synchronizer/comparator.
- D.
Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.
- 79.(022) Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit?
- A.
511 bps.
- B.
9,600 bps.
- C.
64 Kbps.
- D.
1.544 Mbps.
- 80.(022) On the bit error rate test (BER) set, the 25-pin connector are designed to operate with data modems to
- A.
Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern.
- B.
Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.
- C.
Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern.
- D.
Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.
- 81.(023) System grounds must continually be tested
- A.
Randomly.
- B.
Periodically.
- C.
Every 10 years.
- D.
Just one time only.
- 82.(024) A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
- A.
Grounding point.
- B.
Inner earth stake Y.
- C.
Auxiliary current probe.
- D.
Auxiliary potential probe.
- 83.(024) Where is voltage potential measured in the fall of potential ground testing method?
- A.
Between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth ground electrode.
- B.
Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode.
- C.
Between the auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes.
- D.
Between the earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.
- 84.(024) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) have recommended a ground resistance value of
- A.
5 ohms or less.
- B.
10 ohms or less.
- C.
20 ohms or less.
- D.
25 ohms or less.
- 85.(025) What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?
- A.
Counter.
- B.
Buffer.
- C.
Central processing unit (CPU).
- D.
Filter.
- 86.(025) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 87.(025) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
- A.
Media access control (MAC) node statistics.
- B.
Connection statistics.
- C.
Protocol statistics.
- D.
Node discovery.
- 88.(025) What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip?
- A.
Packet Internetwork Groper (PING)
- B.
Trace Route.
- C.
Traffic Generator.
- D.
Route Generator.
- 89.(026) Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency (RF) generator?
- A.
Verifying transmitter frequencies.
- B.
Troubleshooting receivers.
- C.
Checking antenna systems.
- D.
Aligning telemetry receivers.
- 90.(027) A power reading that uses the abbreviation dBm indicates the
- A.
Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard.
- B.
Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard.
- C.
Actual power level expressed in milliwatts.
- D.
Actual power level expressed in megawatts.
- 91.(028) During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
- A.
While in WATT mode operation.
- B.
While in REMOTE mode operation.
- C.
During the automatic zeroing operation.
- D.
During calibration adjustment operation.
- 92.(029) Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the
- A.
Selection of the autorange function.
- B.
Frequency and power to be measured.
- C.
1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels.
- D.
Absolute and relative power levels to be measured.
- 93.(029) The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter is to correstpond to the
- A.
Power range of the reverse element.
- B.
Power range of the forward element.
- C.
Frequency range of the forward element.
- D.
Frequency range of the reverse element.
- 94.(029) When reading forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right facing arrow head mean?
- A.
Equipment malfunction.
- B.
Calculating forward power.
- C.
No power is applied for reading.
- D.
Power exceeds 120 percent of the range.
- 95.(029) What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures?
- A.
Peaking aid.
- B.
Minimum reading.
- C.
Maximum reading.
- D.
Standing wave ratio.
- 96.(030) Which measurements are not made with a spectrum analyzer?
- A.
Frequency stability.
- B.
Peak-peak voltage.
- C.
Amplitude modulation.
- D.
Subcarrier oscillator outputs.
- 97.(031) Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
- A.
Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- B.
Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- C.
Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.
- D.
Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.
- 98.(032) What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments in a single compact unit?
- A.
Volt meter.
- B.
Oscilloscope.
- C.
Impedance meter.
- D.
Communication service monitor.
- 99.(032) What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
- A.
Radio frequency generator.
- B.
Analog multimeter.
- C.
Oscilloscope.
- D.
Receiver.
- 100.(033) What operational capability of the communication service monitor produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms?
- A.
Scope.
- B.
Duplex.
- C.
Receiver.
- D.
Function generator.
Back to top