4N051 Set A Journeyman

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1. What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?

Explanation

Trainees use the first step to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) by selecting a task and clicking the TRAINEE button. This indicates that they have completed the task and are ready to move on to the next step in their training.

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About This Quiz
4N051 Set A Journeyman - Quiz

The 4N051 Set A Journeyman quiz assesses knowledge on Air Force Medical Operations, focusing on doctrine, tactical decisions, and aeromedical evacuation. It prepares for effective command and medical response in Air Force operations.

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2. The total training program leads to

Explanation

The total training program leads to a higher skill level. This means that through the training program, individuals are able to acquire new knowledge, develop new skills, and improve their abilities. As a result, they become more competent and proficient in their respective fields. This higher skill level can lead to various benefits, such as increased job opportunities, career advancement, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.

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3. When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?

Explanation

Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely to include tasks or issues that require immediate attention and must be dealt with promptly. It signifies that the task or issue is of high importance and needs to be addressed as soon as possible.

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4. Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?

Explanation

It is required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. Sustainment training helps them stay updated with the latest techniques, procedures, and advancements in their field. This ensures that they are competent and capable of providing high-quality care to patients. By continuously honing their skills, they can effectively contribute to the healthcare team and deliver optimal outcomes for patients.

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5. When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

Explanation

If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is crucial in healthcare as it serves as evidence of the care provided, helps in tracking patient progress, and ensures continuity of care. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to determine what treatments or interventions were administered to the patient. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.

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6. Pigmentation is attributed to

Explanation

Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, which is a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced and stored in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. The amount and type of melanin in our skin determine our skin color and protect us from harmful UV radiation. Melanin production can be influenced by genetics, hormones, and exposure to sunlight.

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7. What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Explanation

If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing medical equipment and would have the necessary information and resources to investigate the status of the order. Canceling the order may not be the best option as the item may still become available, and complaining to the commander without first seeking assistance from MEMO could be seen as skipping the proper channels of communication. Waiting another 15 days without taking any action may further delay the resolution of the issue.

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8. What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?

Explanation

The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective covering for the knee joint and helps to increase the leverage of the quadriceps muscles during movements such as walking, running, and jumping.

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9. What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD–9)?

Explanation

In the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9), the abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified." This means that the specific condition or disease being referenced does not fit into any other category or classification within the ICD-9 system. It is a catch-all category for conditions that do not have a more specific code or classification.

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10. Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

Explanation

Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and reassurance. Patients often feel anxious and stressed when they are uncertain about their condition or the treatment process. By remaining honest, healthcare providers can provide clear and accurate information, which helps to alleviate the patient's anxiety. Additionally, staying in control and maintaining a calm demeanor can help create a sense of stability and security for the patient, further reducing their stress levels.

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11. What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

Team huddles within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) are intended to facilitate problem-solving and update the team's work plan on a daily basis. These huddles serve as a platform for team members to discuss any challenges, brainstorm solutions, and ensure that everyone is on the same page regarding the tasks and goals. By having daily huddles, the team can address any issues promptly, make necessary adjustments to the work plan, and maintain a proactive approach to patient care and coordination.

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12. Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of

Explanation

Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, the angle between the forearm and the upper arm is decreased as the forearm is brought closer to the head by bending the elbow.

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13. Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of

Explanation

Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow brings the forearm closer to the head, decreasing the angle between the upper arm and the forearm. This movement is commonly used in activities such as lifting objects towards the body or performing bicep curls.

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14. What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? 4N0X1

Explanation

The figure "1" in the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 4N0X1 identifies the career grouping. This means that the career grouping for this AFSC is the first category or group within the Air Force's classification system.

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15. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?

Explanation

The last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately, and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task efficiently, but also your ability to effectively communicate and teach others. It indicates a high level of proficiency and mastery in the subject matter.

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16. The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the

Explanation

The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the lunula. The lunula is a crescent-shaped area of the nail that appears white because it is the thickest part of the nail plate and blocks the underlying blood vessels. It is located near the cuticle and is often more visible on the thumb and big toe. The lunula is an important part of the nail as it provides structural support and helps protect the nail bed.

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17. What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?

Explanation

Sebum is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebaceous glands are found all over the body, except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair. It also helps to protect the skin from drying out and prevents the growth of bacteria on the skin.

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18. In which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict?

Explanation

Blood vessels constrict in the function of body temperature regulation in the integumentary system. When the body is exposed to cold temperatures, the blood vessels near the skin surface constrict, reducing blood flow and heat loss to the environment. This helps to conserve heat and maintain the body's core temperature. Conversely, in warm temperatures, the blood vessels dilate, allowing increased blood flow to the skin surface, promoting heat loss through sweating and cooling the body. This process of vasoconstriction and vasodilation helps to regulate body temperature and keep it within a normal range.

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19. By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

Explanation

By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel understand how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of accidents or mistakes that could lead to damage or harm to patients.

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20. What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?

Explanation

Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through cellular respiration. This process occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, where nutrients are broken down and converted into ATP. Therefore, the mitochondria provide the primary source of cellular energy. Ribosomes, lysosomes, and peroxisomes have other important functions within the cell but are not directly involved in energy production.

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21. What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?

Explanation

The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because training days are specifically designated for training purposes, allowing for dedicated time and focus on the training session. Conducting inservice training on training days ensures that employees are prepared and available for the training, minimizing disruptions to regular work schedules. Additionally, training days provide an opportunity for employees to fully engage in the training without distractions or competing priorities.

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22. What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?

Explanation

To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the following educational and training steps: obtaining National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, completing Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position, and fulfilling all duty position training requirements. These steps ensure that the applicant has the necessary certification, knowledge, and skills to effectively instruct and train others in technical subjects.

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23. What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?

Explanation

Rods are largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images in the eye. Rods are photoreceptor cells located in the retina that are highly sensitive to light. They are particularly effective in low-light conditions and are responsible for our ability to see in dimly lit environments. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and work best in bright light conditions. The anterior and posterior portions of the iris are not directly involved in the process of viewing dimly lit images.

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24. What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?

Explanation

Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets adhere to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They also release chemicals that help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further reinforces the plug. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not have a direct role in blood clotting.

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25. The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the

Explanation

The correct answer is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This option allows the user to create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). It is the first step in the process of creating or making changes to the DTL.

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26. What is the largest lymphatic organ?

Explanation

The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is responsible for filtering and storing blood, as well as producing and storing immune cells. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune system, helping to fight off infections and remove old or damaged red blood cells. It also helps to recycle iron from these old red blood cells. Due to its size and important functions, the spleen is considered the largest lymphatic organ.

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27. Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?

Explanation

The correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is the team-based model. PCMH focuses on providing comprehensive and coordinated care to patients, with a team of healthcare professionals working together to meet their needs. This model emphasizes collaboration between physicians, nurses, and other healthcare providers to ensure patient-centered care, improve access, and enhance the overall quality of healthcare delivery.

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28. Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?

Explanation

The correct answer is seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them. This means that odors can be categorized into seven main groups, and they can also be a combination of two or more of these groups.

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29. Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?

Explanation

Ensuring that medical abbreviations, documentation, and terminology are written accurately and legibly is important because it provides clear and concise patient information and promotes patient safety. Accurate and legible documentation helps healthcare professionals understand the patient's condition, medical history, and treatment plan, reducing the risk of errors and miscommunication. It also facilitates effective coordination of care among healthcare providers. Additionally, clear and concise documentation is crucial for accurate billing and coding, ensuring that patients receive the appropriate healthcare services and preventing potential financial issues.

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30. What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?

Explanation

The scheduler uses Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic. These references and guidance provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that need to be followed when creating the schedule. They ensure that the schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's policies and guidelines, as well as any specific instructions or requirements set by the unit or clinic. By utilizing these references and guidance, the scheduler can effectively plan and organize the duty schedule to meet the needs of the organization.

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31. What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?

Explanation

When making a schedule, it is important to keep in mind mandatory formations such as mobility exercises. These exercises are crucial for maintaining physical fitness and readiness. By including mobility exercises in the schedule, individuals can ensure that they allocate time for these activities, which are essential for staying in shape and preventing injuries.

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32. What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?

Explanation

The correct answer is pulmonary because the pulmonary vein is the only vein in the body that carries oxygenated blood. After receiving oxygen from the lungs, the blood is transported back to the heart through the pulmonary veins and then pumped out to the rest of the body through the arteries. The other options mentioned, such as the aorta, superior vena cava, and inferior vena cava, carry deoxygenated blood.

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33. What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?

Explanation

Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached. It refers to the onset of menstruation in girls, marking the beginning of their reproductive years. This is a significant milestone in a girl's life as it signifies the maturation of the reproductive system. The other options, ova, menses, and estrogen, are not specifically related to the first menstrual cycle but rather refer to eggs, the menstrual flow, and a hormone, respectively.

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34. Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Explanation

Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being of their patients and ensure that their actions do not result in any harm or injury. This principle is closely related to the Hippocratic Oath, which includes the commitment to "do no harm." Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "The duty to do no harm."

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35. Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select withi option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?

Explanation

To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit MTP" option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to either create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By choosing this option, the user can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify the MTP according to their requirements.

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36. Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Explanation

Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient. This third party is commonly referred to as a chaperone. A chaperone is present to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient during the examination or treatment. They may also serve as a witness in case of any disputes or allegations. Therefore, the correct answer is "Chaperone."

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37. The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the

Explanation

The correct answer is the "career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed." This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure a balanced distribution of personnel within each AFSC, based on the needs and requirements of the Air Force. By retraining individuals and moving them to different AFSCs as needed, the Air Force can maintain a well-rounded and appropriately staffed workforce in each specialty area.

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38. During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move

Explanation

During inhalation, the intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and slightly upward. This movement creates more space in the chest cavity, allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. The contraction of the intercostal muscles also helps to lift the ribcage, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This upward and forward movement of the ribs is essential for proper breathing and the intake of oxygen.

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39. Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?

Explanation

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone who handles patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves. HIPAA regulations are in place to protect the privacy and security of patients' health information, and anyone who comes into contact with this information must adhere to these regulations.

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40. For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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41. Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the

Explanation

The correct answer is "thoracic to the lumbar spinal region." The kidneys are located in the posterior abdominal cavity, which means they are positioned towards the back of the body. They extend from the thoracic region, which refers to the upper part of the back, down to the lumbar region, which is the lower part of the back. This explanation indicates the correct range of the kidney's location in the spinal region.

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42. The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions is the

Explanation

The diastolic blood pressure refers to the pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between contractions. This is the lowest pressure exerted on the walls of the blood vessels and represents the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle. It is an important indicator of the health of the cardiovascular system and is typically measured along with the systolic blood pressure to determine an individual's overall blood pressure reading.

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43. What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?

Explanation

The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.

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44. What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?

Explanation

Bile is the correct answer because it is a liquid produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder. Bile plays a crucial role in digestion by helping to break down fats in the small intestine. It is released into the small intestine when needed to aid in the digestion and absorption of fats.

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45. To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?

Explanation

To fully understand task knowledge, the step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This involves identifying and recognizing the different components, tools, and basic information related to the task at hand. By being able to name these elements, it indicates a level of understanding and familiarity with the task, which is crucial for fully comprehending and executing it effectively.

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46. Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the workcenter?

Explanation

Supervisors are responsible for leading their teams and establishing clear standards for the workcenter. They are in charge of overseeing the day-to-day operations, providing guidance and direction to their subordinates, and ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. Supervisors play a crucial role in maintaining discipline, enforcing policies and procedures, and fostering a positive work environment. They are accountable for the performance and development of their team members, and they are the primary point of contact for addressing any issues or concerns within the workcenter.

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47. What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations?

Explanation

The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood to remove waste and regulate water and electrolyte concentrations. It is composed of a glomerulus, which filters blood, and a tubule, which reabsorbs useful substances and excretes waste products. The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and removing toxins from the bloodstream.

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48. You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?Patient complains of blurred vision-OD.

Explanation

The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This is the correct way to document the information because it specifically states that the patient is experiencing blurred vision in the right eye. The abbreviation "OD" stands for "oculus dexter," which means right eye, so it is the appropriate term to use in this case. The other options either use incorrect terminology or do not provide enough detail about the location of the blurred vision.

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49. Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?

Explanation

Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly maintained and protected. This responsibility is not limited to specific ranks or positions, but applies to everyone within the organization. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force ensures that there is a collective effort to protect public property and prevent any misuse or damage.

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50. What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body?

Explanation

The tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior of the body is called the urethra. It is responsible for transporting urine from the bladder to be excreted out of the body. The other options, such as epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and seminal vesicles, are not involved in the transport of urine and are instead related to the male reproductive system.

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51. What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Explanation

The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This is the appropriate action to take in order to prevent the unnecessary receipt and payment for an item that is not needed.

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52. You would not find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?

Explanation

The question is asking which component would not be found in the cytoplasm of a cell. The cytoplasm is the fluid inside the cell that surrounds the nucleus. The correct answer is "Nucleus" because the nucleus is a distinct organelle that is separate from the cytoplasm. The nucleus is typically located in the center of the cell and contains the cell's DNA. The other options, centrosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum, are all organelles that are found within the cytoplasm of a cell.

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53. Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?

Explanation

A biomedical equipment repair technician is the most appropriate person to contact in order to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge and expertise regarding the equipment and its procedures. District sales and maintenance representatives may have information on purchasing and general maintenance, but they may not have the specific knowledge needed for equipment problems. Base supply and equipment maintenance would likely handle general maintenance and supply, but may not have the specialized knowledge for equipment problems. The original equipment manufacturer may have information, but a biomedical equipment repair technician would be more readily available and have more specific knowledge.

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54. Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?

Explanation

The lymph from the right lymphatic duct empties into the right subclavian vein. The lymphatic system is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products from tissues and returning them to the bloodstream. The right lymphatic duct receives lymph from the right side of the head, neck, and upper extremities. It then empties into the right subclavian vein, which is a major blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body back to the heart. This connection allows the lymph to reenter the bloodstream and be transported throughout the body.

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55. Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as

Explanation

When excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries, it is known as lymph. The lymphatic system is responsible for collecting and transporting this fluid, called lymph, throughout the body. Lymph contains waste products, toxins, and pathogens that are filtered and eliminated by lymph nodes. It also plays a crucial role in immune response, as lymphocytes are present in the lymph and help fight against infections and diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is lymph.

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56. Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Explanation

Tactical doctrine refers to the specific strategies and actions taken by an entity to achieve its objectives. In this context, a car buyer can be seen as the best example of tactical doctrine because they have the ability to choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. By selecting a car based on these specific qualities, the car buyer is effectively implementing a tactical approach to meet their transportation requirements.

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57. Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the

Explanation

The kidneys are located in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the thoracic to the lumbar spinal region. This means that the kidneys are positioned between the thoracic vertebrae (in the upper back) and the lumbar vertebrae (in the lower back). They do not extend all the way to the coccyx (tailbone) or the sacrum (the triangular bone at the base of the spine).

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58. The lower third of the uterus is called the

Explanation

The lower third of the uterus is called the cervix. The cervix is the narrow, lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina. It acts as a passageway for menstrual blood to leave the uterus and for sperm to enter during intercourse. During childbirth, the cervix dilates and allows the baby to pass through the birth canal.

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59. The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?

Explanation

The skill level of the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is 4N000.

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60. Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?

Explanation

The Air Force career field manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field and ensure that the plan is up to date and aligned with the needs of the field. They work closely with subject matter experts and other stakeholders to ensure that the CFETP accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed for success in the career field.

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61. Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?

Explanation

Performance can be evaluated based on two types of criteria: qualitative and quantitative. Qualitative criteria refer to subjective factors that cannot be easily measured, such as customer satisfaction or employee morale. On the other hand, quantitative criteria involve objective and measurable factors, such as sales figures or production output. By considering both qualitative and quantitative criteria, a comprehensive assessment of performance can be made, taking into account both tangible and intangible aspects of an organization or individual's performance.

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62. What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?

Explanation

The term for the thick muscular portion of the heart is myocardium. The myocardium is responsible for the contraction and pumping of blood throughout the body. It is composed of specialized cardiac muscle cells that are capable of generating and conducting electrical impulses, allowing for coordinated and efficient heart function. The myocardium is the middle layer of the heart wall, sandwiched between the inner endocardium and the outer epicardium.

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63. What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?

Explanation

The cranial nerve responsible for the sensation of sight is the optic nerve. This nerve transmits visual information from the eyes to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. The other options listed, facial, trigeminal, and oculomotor, are not directly involved in the sensation of sight. The facial nerve is responsible for facial expressions, the trigeminal nerve is responsible for sensation in the face, and the oculomotor nerve controls eye movement.

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64. Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items?

Explanation

AF Form 797 is the correct answer because it is the form used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS) continuation items. The other forms listed (AF Form 794, AF Form 795, and AF Form 796) are not specifically designated for accessing JQS continuation items.

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65. What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum?

Explanation

The correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to the sternum is posterior. This means that the spine is located behind or towards the back of the sternum.

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66. Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

Explanation

The Major command (MAJCOM) approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request.

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67. Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?

Explanation

The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This implies that the supervisor has the authority and accountability to ensure that the survey is completed. The commander, 3-level, and 5-level are not mentioned in relation to the responsibility for completing the survey, suggesting that they do not have this specific role.

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68. What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility?

Explanation

A cyclical duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount of flexibility. In this type of schedule, employees work in a predetermined pattern that repeats over a specific period of time, such as weeks or months. This means that employees have less control over their work hours and may have to work during different shifts or days of the week. Unlike flextime schedules, which offer more flexibility in terms of when employees can start and end their workday, cyclical schedules follow a fixed rotation that may not align with employees' personal preferences or commitments.

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69. Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?

Explanation

The Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in a deployed setting. This means that the program is specifically created to ensure that AFSC training can continue even in a location where the Air Force is deployed, such as in a combat zone or during a military operation abroad. The program is likely to focus on providing the necessary resources and support for AFSC training in these challenging and often unpredictable environments.

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70. If training is effective, what should trainees remember?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The requirements to successfully complete the job." When training is effective, trainees should remember the essential knowledge and skills needed to perform their job successfully. This includes understanding and being able to meet the requirements and expectations of the job role. Remembering 50% or 80% of the training information may be helpful, but the most important outcome is retaining the necessary requirements for job completion.

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71. What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?

Explanation

One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This method helps assess the level of engagement and involvement of all participants, which is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the training. By analyzing if everyone actively participated, trainers can identify any gaps or areas of improvement in the training program and make necessary adjustments to enhance its effectiveness.

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72. How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually conducted?

Explanation

Medical and nonmedical equipment inspections are usually conducted on a daily basis. This frequency ensures that any potential issues or malfunctions with the equipment can be identified and addressed promptly. Daily inspections help maintain the safety and functionality of the equipment, reducing the risk of accidents or failures. Regular inspections also allow for early detection of any wear and tear, allowing for timely repairs or replacements.

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73. What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied?

Explanation

Sesamoid bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is frequently applied. These small, round bones are embedded within tendons, typically near joints, and act as pulleys to help reduce friction and increase the efficiency of muscle movement. They are found in areas such as the hands, feet, and knees, where tendons are subjected to high levels of pressure and stress.

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74. What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?

Explanation

Before applying for retraining, you must meet the eligibility requirements. These requirements could include factors such as having a certain amount of experience or education in the field you wish to retrain in, meeting any specific qualifications or certifications, or fulfilling any other criteria set by the organization or program offering the retraining opportunity. Meeting these eligibility requirements ensures that you are qualified and suitable for the retraining program.

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75. What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?

Explanation

The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board ranks Airmen applying for retraining based on their last three EPRs. The EPRs, or Enlisted Performance Reports, provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their job knowledge, leadership abilities, and overall performance. By considering the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's consistent performance over a period of time and make informed decisions regarding their suitability for retraining opportunities. This criterion allows the board to prioritize Airmen who have consistently demonstrated high levels of performance and potential for success in their new career field.

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76. What is the process that forms blood cells called?

Explanation

Hematopoiesis is the process by which new blood cells are formed in the body. It takes place in the bone marrow, where stem cells differentiate and mature into various types of blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This process is essential for maintaining a healthy blood supply and ensuring the proper functioning of the immune system. Hemoptosis refers to the coughing up of blood, erythrocytes are red blood cells, and thrombocytes are platelets.

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77. What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?

Explanation

When aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This means that the availability of AE plays a crucial role in improving the chances of survival for casualties. AE involves the transportation of injured individuals by air to medical facilities where they can receive specialized and timely care. This allows for faster access to medical treatment, reducing the time it takes for casualties to receive critical care. As a result, more lives can be saved, leading to a significant increase in casualty survival rates.

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78. What nerve is the pathway to vision?

Explanation

The optic nerve is the pathway to vision. It carries visual information from the eye to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interpret visual stimuli. This nerve is responsible for transmitting signals related to light, color, shape, and movement from the retina to the visual cortex in the brain. Without the optic nerve, our ability to see and process visual information would be severely impaired or non-existent.

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79. Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?

Explanation

Each kidney contains approximately 1 million nephrons. Nephrons are the functional units of the kidneys responsible for filtering waste and excess fluid from the blood. They play a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and regulating blood pressure. The large number of nephrons in each kidney ensures efficient filtration and waste removal from the bloodstream.

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80. Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?

Explanation

The correct answer is that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements that play a role in determining the training needs. These factors could include the specific skills and knowledge needed for a particular deployment, as well as any other factors that may impact the training requirements.

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81. In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the

Explanation

The cochlea is a spiral-shaped structure in the inner ear that is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. When the stapes, one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear, moves, it causes the fluid within the cochlea to vibrate. These vibrations then stimulate the hair cells in the organ of Corti, which is located within the cochlea. Therefore, the movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within the cochlea, leading to the correct answer being cochlea.

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82. The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the

Explanation

The medulla oblongata is the correct answer because it is the part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord. The medulla oblongata is responsible for controlling vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure. It also plays a role in relaying sensory and motor information between the brain and the spinal cord. The pons, midbrain, and cerebrum are also parts of the brain, but they do not directly connect to the spinal cord like the medulla oblongata does.

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83. Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?

Explanation

Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support to be provided within 24 hours of notification, while urgent AE support must be provided within 12 hours of notification.

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84. What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Explanation

Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This type of doctrine focuses on the planning and execution of military operations and provides guidance on how to achieve strategic goals. It encompasses a wide range of activities and considerations, including tactics, logistics, intelligence, and command and control. Operational doctrine is crucial for effectively coordinating and executing military operations at the operational level.

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85. What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma and one dendrite extending from the other?

Explanation

A bipolar neuron is a type of neuron that has one axon extending from one end of the soma (cell body) and one dendrite extending from the other end. This type of neuron is commonly found in sensory organs such as the retina of the eye and the olfactory epithelium in the nose. The bipolar structure allows these neurons to transmit signals from sensory receptors to the central nervous system in a specialized and efficient manner.

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86. What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for involuntary body functions?

Explanation

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary body functions. It regulates activities such as heart rate, digestion, breathing, and glandular secretion. Unlike the somatic nervous system, which controls voluntary movements, the autonomic nervous system functions automatically and without conscious effort. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, while the spinal cord serves as a pathway for transmitting signals between the brain and the rest of the body.

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87. Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?

Explanation

EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that does not have inpatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25, both have inpatient beds. This means that EMEDS Basic is a smaller and more basic version of the EMEDS system, which does not include the capability to accommodate inpatient care.

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88. What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File?

Explanation

To add new file information to the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) User File, you would click on the "ADD FILE" button. This button allows the user to upload and input new file information into the system. The other options, such as "UPLOAD USER FILE," "READ FILE," and "MENU," do not specifically indicate the action of adding new file information to the AFTR User File.

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89. Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by

Explanation

The backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by a flap of mucous membrane. This flap, known as the ureterovesical valve or the vesicoureteral valve, is located at the junction of the ureters and the bladder. When urine flows into the bladder, the pressure causes the flap to close, preventing urine from flowing back into the ureters. This valve acts as a one-way valve, ensuring that urine only flows from the kidneys to the bladder and not in the opposite direction.

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90. The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately how many milliliters of urine?

Explanation

The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder contains approximately 250 milliliters of urine. At this point, the bladder is becoming moderately full and starts sending signals to the brain indicating the need to empty it. This sensation is a normal physiological response and varies from person to person.

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91. Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform

Explanation

When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor needs to conduct an initial evaluation. This evaluation is necessary to assess the Airman's performance and capabilities in their new role. It helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. This evaluation is crucial in determining the Airman's suitability for the new position and identifying any additional training or support they may require. It sets the foundation for the Airman's performance expectations and goals in their new role.

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92. The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document

Explanation

The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents are used to assess the effectiveness of the training programs and methods employed by the Air Force. They provide a record of the training activities and allow for evaluation and improvement of the training processes.

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93. Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.

Explanation

The question asks for one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field. The given options are Allergy/Immunization technician, Emergency room technician, Neurology technician, and Vascular technician. The correct answer is Neurology technician, as it is one of the three possible shredouts in the 4N0X1 career field.

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94. Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to skeletal muscle tissue?

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle tissue because of its striated appearance. Both cardiac and skeletal muscles have a striped or striated appearance due to the arrangement of contractile proteins within the muscle fibers. This striated appearance indicates the presence of organized sarcomeres, which are the basic units of muscle contraction. However, unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is found only in the heart and is responsible for the involuntary contraction of the heart, allowing it to pump blood throughout the body.

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95. What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?

Explanation

Skeletal muscle is classified as voluntary because it is under conscious control. This means that we can choose to contract or relax these muscles at will. Additionally, skeletal muscle is striated, meaning it has a striped appearance due to the arrangement of its contractile proteins. This distinguishes it from smooth muscle, which is nonstriated.

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96. What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?

Explanation

The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts: STS on the left and MTL on the right.

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97. The auditory ossicles are located in the

Explanation

The auditory ossicles are a group of three small bones (malleus, incus, and stapes) located in the middle ear. These bones play a crucial role in transmitting sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear. They amplify and transmit these vibrations to the cochlea, a spiral-shaped structure in the inner ear responsible for converting sound waves into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain. Therefore, the correct answer is middle ear.

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98. What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?

Explanation

The trainee would first click on the "USER" button to sign off 623a entries in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR).

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99. When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what items may be overdue?

Explanation

The PHA status turns red and items may be overdue when the member needs to complete immunizations, PHAs, dental exams, and deployment health assessments (DHAs). The red status occurs on day 456, indicating that these requirements have not been completed within the specified timeframe.

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100. Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) at least

Explanation

Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) is sent to the medical treatment facility (MTF) on a quarterly basis. This means that the information is updated and sent every three months. This regular update ensures that the MTF has the most recent and accurate enrollment information for each individual, allowing them to provide appropriate medical treatment and services.

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101. What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?

Explanation

The inferior vena cava is the correct answer because it is the largest vein in the body that returns deoxygenated blood from the lower body back to the heart. It carries blood from the lower extremities, pelvis, and abdomen, and delivers it to the right atrium of the heart.

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102. The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the

Explanation

The pituitary gland, also known as the "master gland," is divided into two sections called the anterior lobe and the posterior lobe. The anterior lobe is responsible for producing and releasing several hormones, such as growth hormone, prolactin, and thyroid-stimulating hormone. The posterior lobe, on the other hand, stores and releases hormones produced by the hypothalamus, such as oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone. This division allows for the pituitary gland to effectively regulate and control various bodily functions.

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103. How many lobes does the right lung have?

Explanation

The right lung has three lobes. The lungs are divided into lobes, and the right lung consists of three lobes: the upper, middle, and lower lobes. Each lobe is responsible for different functions in the respiratory system, such as oxygen exchange and removal of carbon dioxide.

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104. What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?

Explanation

Tendons attach skeletal muscles to the bone. They are strong, fibrous connective tissues that transmit the force generated by muscles to the bones, allowing movement and providing stability to the joints. Ligaments, on the other hand, connect bones to other bones, providing stability and preventing excessive movement. Aponeuroses are flat, sheet-like tendons that attach muscles to each other or to bones. Visceral muscles are found in the internal organs and are not directly involved in attaching skeletal muscles to bones.

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105. What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage?

Explanation

Air travels to and from the lungs through a cylindrical tube composed of cartilage called the trachea. The trachea, also known as the windpipe, connects the larynx (voice box) to the bronchi in the lungs. It serves as a passage for air to enter and exit the respiratory system, allowing for breathing and gas exchange in the lungs.

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106. What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint?

Explanation

Synovial fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for cartilage within the joint. It helps reduce friction between the bones, allowing them to move smoothly. Additionally, synovial fluid provides essential nutrients to the cartilage, which lacks its own blood supply. This fluid is produced by the synovial membrane, which lines the joint cavity and helps maintain joint health and function.

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107. The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited?

Explanation

The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows the editing of certification level requirements for tasks 5 and 7.

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108. When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow in Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS)?

Explanation

In the Aeromedical Services Information Management System (ASIMS), a member's status turns yellow when their Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) is due within 3 months. This indicates that the member needs to schedule and complete their PHA within the next three months to maintain their health assessment requirements.

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109. What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number of permanent teeth a person will develop?

Explanation

A person will develop 20 primary teeth, also known as baby teeth, and 32 permanent teeth. The difference between the number of primary teeth and permanent teeth is 12.

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110. How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

Explanation

The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This suggests that the inventory process is not conducted frequently, but rather at longer intervals. By completing the inventory every 3 years, the organization can assess and update the job inventory information, ensuring that it remains accurate and up-to-date. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather comprehensive data on job roles and responsibilities within the organization. Completing the inventory less frequently also reduces the administrative burden of conducting the process more frequently.

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111. The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is the

Explanation

The tricuspid valve is the correct answer because it is the valve that separates the right atrium from the right ventricle. This valve has three leaflets or cusps, hence the name "tricuspid." It opens to allow blood to flow from the right atrium into the right ventricle during diastole (relaxation phase), and then closes to prevent backflow of blood into the atrium during systole (contraction phase). The aortic valve, mitral valve, and pulmonary valve are all located in different areas of the heart and perform different functions.

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112. What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Explanation

The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is called the mitral valve. It is also known as the bicuspid valve due to its two leaflets. This valve ensures that blood flows in one direction, preventing backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium. It opens to allow oxygenated blood from the left atrium to enter the left ventricle, and then closes tightly to prevent blood from flowing back into the atrium when the ventricle contracts to pump blood out to the rest of the body.

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113. The small spaces between neurons are called the

Explanation

The small spaces between neurons are called synapses. Synapses are specialized junctions where the electrical signals from one neuron are transmitted to another neuron or to an effector cell, such as a muscle or gland. They play a crucial role in the communication and transmission of information within the nervous system. Axons, nerve cells, and trigger zones are all components of neurons, but they do not specifically refer to the small spaces between neurons.

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114. Where are sperm cells produced?

Explanation

Sperm cells are produced in the testes. The testes are a pair of male reproductive organs located in the scrotum. They are responsible for the production of sperm cells through a process called spermatogenesis. The testes contain tiny coiled tubes called seminiferous tubules, where the sperm cells are formed. These sperm cells then mature and are stored in the epididymis before being ejaculated through the ejaculatory duct.

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115. Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm through the

Explanation

The fluid secreted from the seminal vesicles plays a crucial role in carrying sperm through the male reproductive system. This fluid contains nutrients and substances that nourish and protect the sperm. After leaving the seminal vesicles, the fluid enters the ejaculatory duct, which is responsible for propelling the sperm and fluid mixture towards the urethra for ejaculation. Therefore, the correct answer is ejaculatory duct.

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116. Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the

Explanation

Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the pulmonary vein. The pulmonary vein is responsible for carrying oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart. This blood is then pumped into the left ventricle and eventually distributed to the rest of the body through the aorta. The aorta carries oxygenated blood to various organs and tissues, while the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs for oxygenation. The right subclavian vein is not involved in carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart.

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117. What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Frenulum." The frenulum is a mucous membrane that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth. It helps to stabilize and control the movement of the tongue during speech and swallowing.

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118. After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" because when determining proficiency level, it is important to assess if one can perform the basic or simple aspects of the task. This question helps in understanding the foundational skills and knowledge required for the task and indicates the initial level of proficiency.

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119. What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) and lists information pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Explanation

The correct answer is Activity issue/turn-in summary. This report generated through the Defense Medical Logistics Support System (DMLSS) lists information about all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section. It provides a summary of the activity's issue and turn-in transactions, allowing for better tracking and management of supplies and equipment.

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120. The EMEDS +10 is composed of how many personnel?

Explanation

The correct answer is 56. This means that the EMEDS +10 is composed of 56 personnel.

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121. Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?

Explanation

The medullary cavity is the correct answer because it is the central cavity within the bone where nerves and blood vessels are contained. It is filled with bone marrow and is surrounded by compact bone. The medullary cavity is responsible for producing and storing red and yellow bone marrow, which is essential for the production of blood cells and the storage of fat.

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122. Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's base pay of

Explanation

The correct answer is "an individual who, through negligence or willful misconduct, damaged assigned living quarters." This is because the question is asking about the pecuniary liability, which refers to the financial responsibility or compensation for the damage caused. The other options mention specific scenarios where the liability may arise, such as damaging property or assigned living quarters, but the correct answer includes both negligence and willful misconduct as the reasons for the liability.

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123. The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline

Explanation

The Master Training Plan (MTP) is a document that is used to outline the training goals and milestones for enlisted personnel within a specific assigned area. It provides a comprehensive plan that helps guide the training process and ensures that all enlisted personnel receive the necessary training to meet their goals and milestones. The MTP helps to track progress, identify areas that need improvement, and ensure that all enlisted personnel are on track to achieve their training goals within the assigned area.

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124. Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?

Explanation

Thyroxine is the correct answer because it is the main hormone produced by the thyroid gland. It is responsible for regulating metabolism, growth, and development in the body. Triiodothyronine is also a thyroid hormone, but it is produced in smaller amounts and is more potent than thyroxine. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands and is involved in regulating salt and water balance in the body. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine and triiodothyronine.

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125. Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the

Explanation

The aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the iris. The iris is the colored part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil, allowing light to enter the eye. The aqueous humor is a clear fluid that provides nutrients to the cornea and lens, helps maintain the shape of the eye, and contributes to the overall pressure within the eye.

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126. Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

Explanation

Medical doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets effectively. In the context of healthcare, assets can refer to various resources such as medical personnel, equipment, and facilities. By following medical doctrine, commanders can make informed decisions about how to allocate and utilize these assets to provide the best possible care to patients. Medical doctrine provides a framework and set of guidelines that ensure a systematic and efficient approach to healthcare delivery, helping commanders optimize the use of available resources and ultimately improve patient outcomes.

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127. What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic to make sure all shifts are adequately covered?

Explanation

The scheduler within a unit or clinic is responsible for ensuring that all shifts are adequately covered. To fulfill this responsibility, they should refer to all Air Force instructions, OIs (Operating Instructions), and local guidance when preparing a duty schedule. This comprehensive approach ensures that all relevant guidelines and regulations are taken into account, promoting efficient and effective scheduling practices.

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128. The larynx is composed of how many cartilages?

Explanation

The larynx, also known as the voice box, is composed of three single cartilages (cricoid, thyroid, and epiglottis) and three paired cartilages (arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform). These cartilages work together to control the opening and closing of the vocal cords, enabling speech and vocalization.

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129. The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the

Explanation

The "fight-or-flight" reaction is a physiological response to a perceived threat or stressor. It involves the activation of various bodily systems to prepare the individual for either fighting the threat or fleeing from it. The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for initiating this response by releasing stress hormones such as adrenaline, increasing heart rate, dilating blood vessels, and redirecting blood flow to the muscles. The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions, while the meninges are protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The parasympathetic nervous system, on the other hand, is responsible for promoting relaxation and restoring the body to a resting state after the threat has passed.

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130. What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?

Explanation

After a sperm fertilizes the ovum, it travels to the uterus and attaches to the endometrium. This is the process of implantation, where the fertilized egg embeds itself into the lining of the uterus. The endometrium provides a nourishing environment for the developing embryo to grow and receive nutrients from the mother's body. This attachment is essential for the continuation of pregnancy.

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131. A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best describes which of the following body movements?

Explanation

The term "axis of joint rotation" refers to a line that is perpendicular to the plane of motion. This line represents the axis around which a joint rotates during movement. It is an important concept in understanding the mechanics of joint movement and is commonly used in biomechanics and anatomy. The other options, such as circumduction and range of motion, do not specifically describe a line perpendicular to the plane of motion.

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132. To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include

Explanation

The correct answer is analyzing facts and principles and drawing conclusions about the subject. This step involves examining the information and concepts related to the subject, identifying key facts and principles, and using them to draw logical conclusions. It helps in gaining a deeper understanding of the subject and being able to apply the knowledge effectively. The other options mentioned in the question, such as analyzing task knowledge with another Aimen in upgrade training, reviewing manufacturer's material on subject knowledge, and identifying detailed facts and acronyms about the subject, may be important steps in the learning process but do not specifically address the ability to assess one's subject knowledge.

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133. Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing?

Explanation

Anaphase is the phase of mitosis where the sister chromatids are separated and pulled towards opposite ends of the cell. This signifies that the nucleus of the cell is actually dividing because the genetic material is being evenly distributed to form two separate nuclei. In prophase, the chromosomes condense but the nucleus is still intact. In telophase, the chromosomes reach the opposite poles of the cell but the nucleus is not yet divided. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the center of the cell but the nucleus is still intact. Therefore, anaphase is the phase that indicates the actual division of the nucleus.

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134. What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the lymph nodes?

Explanation

Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the immune system, acting as filters for harmful substances and producing immune cells. Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell that plays a key role in the body's immune response, recognizing and attacking foreign invaders. Macrophages, on the other hand, are specialized immune cells that engulf and destroy pathogens and other harmful substances. Both lymphocytes and macrophages work together in the lymph nodes to fight off infections and protect the body from disease.

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135. What type of tissue can change its shape?

Explanation

Muscle tissue can change its shape. This is because muscle cells have the ability to contract and relax, allowing them to change their shape and length. This property of muscle tissue enables it to perform various functions such as movement, maintaining posture, and generating heat. Nervous tissue, epithelial tissue, and connective tissue do not have the same capacity to change shape as muscle tissue does.

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136. Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?

Explanation

The Islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells located in the pancreas that are responsible for producing and secreting hormones. Insulin is one of the main hormones produced by these islets. It is essential for regulating blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. Insulin also plays a role in storing excess glucose as glycogen in the liver. Therefore, it is expected that the Islets of Langerhans would secrete insulin.

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137. What specific position can be held as a 4N071

Explanation

The correct answer is NCOIC. NCOIC stands for Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge, and it is a specific position that can be held by someone with the 4N071 designation. This position typically involves being in charge of a specific unit or section within the military, and the individual in this role is responsible for overseeing the day-to-day operations and ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively.

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138. What is a primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating muscular movements?

Explanation

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating muscular movements, but it also plays a role in controlling the activity of the brain itself. It helps regulate and fine-tune the timing and intensity of neural signals, ensuring efficient and coordinated brain function. This includes modulating the activity of other brain regions and influencing cognitive processes such as attention, language, and memory. Therefore, the cerebellum not only coordinates muscular movements but also contributes to the control and regulation of various brain activities.

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139. What are the principles of population health management?

Explanation

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140. Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic?

Explanation

Nurse managers and NCOICs are responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule within a unit or clinic. This means that both the nurse managers and the NCOICs have the authority to review and approve the duty schedule, ensuring that it is accurate and meets the needs of the unit or clinic. The inclusion of both nurse managers and NCOICs in the answer suggests that they share this responsibility and work together to make the final approval decision.

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141. The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell characteristics is known as

Explanation

Cell differentiation refers to the process by which cells acquire specialized functions and characteristics. During this process, cells undergo changes in gene expression and morphology, allowing them to perform specific tasks in the body. This process is crucial for the development and maintenance of multicellular organisms, as it allows for the formation of different cell types with distinct functions. Interphase, metaphase, and cytoplasmic division are not directly related to the process of cell differentiation.

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142. What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?

Explanation

The lymph nodes act as the filter in the lymph system. Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that contain specialized immune cells. They are responsible for filtering lymph fluid and removing harmful substances, such as bacteria and viruses. Lymph nodes play a crucial role in the body's immune response by trapping and destroying pathogens, as well as producing immune cells to fight infection. Therefore, the correct answer is nodes.

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143. Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online?

Explanation

The procedure of not taking any precautions while off-duty is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their families are communicating online. It is important to differentiate between opinion and official information, obey applicable laws, and stay in your lane while using social media platforms. However, not taking any precautions while off-duty can lead to the sharing of sensitive or inappropriate information that could compromise security or privacy. It is essential to maintain a professional and responsible approach to social media usage at all times, even when off-duty.

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144. The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of

Explanation

The correct answer is connective tissue seminiferous muscle. The testes are not made of adipose tissue or seminal muscle. Adipose tissue refers to fat tissue, which is not present in the testes. Seminal muscle is also not a component of the testes. The seminiferous muscle, on the other hand, is a type of connective tissue found in the testes. It is responsible for producing sperm cells through a process called spermatogenesis.

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145. What type of tissue is the major component of glands?

Explanation

Epithelial tissue is the major component of glands. Epithelial tissue is a type of tissue that lines the surfaces of organs and forms glands. Glands are specialized structures that produce and secrete substances such as hormones, enzymes, and sweat. Epithelial tissue is responsible for the secretion and absorption of these substances. Therefore, it is the correct answer to the question.

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146. A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review when

Explanation

When a report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review, it is because financial responsibility needs to be assessed. This means that there is a need to determine who is responsible for the financial costs associated with the lost or damaged property. This assessment is necessary when there is a need to allocate financial responsibility and potentially seek reimbursement or take appropriate action to address the financial impact of the incident.

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147. What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?

Explanation

DD Form 1131 is the correct answer because it is the form used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment. This form is specifically designed for individuals to acknowledge their financial responsibility and make a payment in cash. The other forms mentioned, AF Form 106, AF Form 198, and DD Form 362, do not pertain to admitting pecuniary liability or making cash payments.

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148. Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins

Explanation

The correct answer is with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626. This answer suggests that the first step in successful recommendation for formal training is to ensure that you meet the requirements outlined in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626. These resources provide the necessary information and guidelines for enlisting in formal training programs.

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149. Growth of body hair on a male is a

Explanation

The growth of body hair on a male is considered a secondary sex characteristic. Secondary sex characteristics are physical features that develop during puberty and differentiate between males and females but are not directly involved in reproduction. Body hair growth, along with other characteristics like deepening of the voice and increased muscle mass, are examples of secondary sex characteristics that typically develop in males during puberty due to the influence of hormones such as testosterone.

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150. Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?

Explanation

If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you should contact the Base Training Office. They are responsible for coordinating and organizing training within the base. They will be able to assist you in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.

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151. What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity?

Explanation

Olfactory bulbs are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal cavity. They are responsible for detecting and processing odors. The olfactory bulbs receive signals from the cilia, which are tiny hair-like structures in the nasal cavity that trap odor molecules. The olfactory bulbs then transmit these signals to the brain, allowing us to perceive and recognize different smells.

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152. What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Explanation

The Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important resource allocation decisions for medical personnel. This system allows for tracking and reporting of medical expenses, as well as evaluating the performance of medical personnel. It provides valuable data and information that helps in making informed decisions regarding the allocation of resources for medical personnel.

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153. Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Your OJT trainer or supervisor". OJT trainers or supervisors are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They guide and mentor individuals during on-the-job training, ensuring that trainees acquire the necessary skills and knowledge required for their specific job roles.

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154. What is the difference between the PAFSC and DAFSC?

Explanation

The PASFSC represents the highest skill level attained by the member, while the DAFSC indicates the specific position the individual is currently filling within their organization.

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155. The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes is the

Explanation

The correct answer is nasopharynx. The nasopharynx is the superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes. It is located behind the nasal cavity and above the oropharynx and laryngopharynx. The adenoid is a lymphoid tissue located in the nasopharynx, but it is not the correct answer as it is only a part of the nasopharynx. The oropharynx and laryngopharynx are not the correct answers as they are located below the nasopharynx.

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156. The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Entire Training Record and

Explanation

The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Qualification Training. This suggests that the drop down menu provides options for selecting different types of training records, and one of those options is specifically for qualification training. This implies that the system or platform being referred to categorizes training records based on different types, and one of those types is qualification training.

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157. Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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158. What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?

Explanation

The updates that are completed nightly by CarePoint include lab and screening tests. These updates are made to both the action lists and patient counts. This means that any new lab and screening test results are recorded and incorporated into the action lists, which may include follow-up actions or treatments for patients. Additionally, the patient counts are updated to reflect the new test results, ensuring that the information is accurate and up-to-date.

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159. Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?

Explanation

The colon, also known as the large intestine, absorbs water from the undigested food material that passes through it. This absorption process helps to reabsorb water and electrolytes, ensuring that the body retains the necessary fluids for proper functioning. Therefore, the colon is responsible for absorbing beneficial water for use by the body.

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160. Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

Explanation

A 4N0X1 Job Inventory is a specific request related to the 4N0X1 career field, which is the Aerospace Medical Service career field in the United States Air Force. The career field manager is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of this particular career field, including job assignments and inventory management. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that the career field manager would be the one to request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory.

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161. What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?

Explanation

Microfilaments are responsible for cell contraction. Microfilaments, also known as actin filaments, are thin protein fibers that are involved in various cellular processes, including cell contraction. They play a crucial role in muscle contraction, cell division, and cell movement. Lysosomes are responsible for the breakdown of cellular waste, microtubules provide structural support and participate in cell division, and mitochondria are responsible for energy production. However, in the context of cell contraction, it is microfilaments that are primarily involved.

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162. The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation is known as

Explanation

Residual air refers to the amount of air that remains in the lungs after the strongest possible exhalation. This residual air is necessary to keep the lungs inflated and prevent them from collapsing completely. It acts as a cushion and helps maintain the structure and function of the respiratory system. Tidal air, on the other hand, refers to the normal amount of air that is inhaled and exhaled during regular breathing. Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation. Expiratory reserve is the additional amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal exhalation.

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163. How many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30-year old male?

Explanation

The ureter is a tube that connects the kidneys to the bladder, allowing urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder. In a 30-year old male, the ureter is typically expected to be around ten inches long. This length allows for efficient transport of urine from the kidneys to the bladder.

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164. Where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?

Explanation

After leaving the ileum, undigested chyme will go to the cecum. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine, located in the lower right abdomen. It receives the chyme from the small intestine and begins the process of absorbing water and electrolytes from it. From the cecum, the chyme will continue through the rest of the large intestine, where further absorption and formation of feces occur before it is eliminated through the anus.

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165. What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?

Explanation

The interior of the cerebrum is responsible for storing knowledge. It is the largest part of the brain and is involved in various cognitive functions such as memory, learning, and decision-making. The cerebrum contains different regions, including the hippocampus, which is crucial for the formation and retrieval of memories. This function allows us to store and recall information, experiences, and skills, contributing to our overall knowledge and understanding of the world.

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166. What is the outermost portion of a bone called?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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167. What type of movement dooes the somatic nervous system control?

Explanation

The somatic nervous system controls voluntary movements. This means that it is responsible for the conscious control of skeletal muscles, allowing us to perform purposeful actions such as walking, talking, and writing. The somatic nervous system receives information from sensory receptors and sends signals to the muscles to initiate movement. In contrast, involuntary movements are controlled by the autonomic nervous system, which regulates functions such as heart rate, digestion, and breathing.

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168. What is the purpose of case management?

Explanation

Case management is a process that aims to promote quality, safe, and cost-effective care. It involves coordinating and managing the care of individuals, ensuring that they receive the appropriate services and resources to meet their healthcare needs. By promoting quality, safe, and cost-effective care, case management helps to improve patient outcomes, enhance patient satisfaction, and reduce healthcare costs. It also plays a crucial role in ensuring effective communication and collaboration among healthcare professionals, promoting teamwork, and ultimately improving the overall quality of care provided to patients.

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169. The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the

Explanation

The stratum spinosum is the layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer, known as the stratum basale. This layer is characterized by its spiny appearance due to the presence of desmosomes, which are cell junctions that provide strength and support to the epidermis. The stratum spinosum is responsible for providing structural integrity to the skin and plays a role in the production of keratinocytes, which are cells that produce the protein keratin.

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170. Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?

Explanation

Bone ends would have very little compact bone because they are primarily composed of spongy bone. Spongy bone is less dense and has a more porous structure compared to compact bone, which makes it more suitable for providing support and flexibility at the ends of bones. Compact bone, on the other hand, is found in the shafts of long bones and provides strength and protection. Therefore, the bone ends would have a smaller amount of compact bone compared to other areas of the skeletal system.

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171. Which organization is responsible for conducting AFSC JI surverys?

Explanation

AFOMS is responsible for conducting AFSC JI surveys.

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172. What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?

Explanation

The vitreous humor is a gel-like substance that fills the space between the lens and the retina in the eyeball. It helps to maintain the round shape of the eyeball by exerting a gentle pressure on the walls of the eye. This pressure counteracts the force exerted by the surrounding structures, such as the cornea and the lens, which tend to flatten the eyeball. Without the vitreous humor, the eyeball would lose its shape and become distorted. Tears, ciliary muscles, and aqueous humor do not play a direct role in maintaining the round shape of the eyeball.

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173. What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair?

Explanation

The primary source for recording medical or nonmedical equipment repair is AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or custodian actions/custodial report listing. This form is used to document the temporary issue of equipment and any actions taken by the custodian or custodial report listing. It serves as a record of repairs and maintenance performed on the equipment.

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174. What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?

Explanation

The majority of the adrenal gland is made up of the adrenal cortex. The adrenal cortex is the outer layer of the gland and is responsible for producing hormones such as cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones. The adrenal medulla, on the other hand, is the inner layer of the gland and is responsible for producing adrenaline and noradrenaline. While the pituitary gland and parathyroid glands are also located in the vicinity of the adrenal gland, they do not make up the majority of its structure.

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175. Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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176. What controls the action of the diaphragm?

Explanation

The phrenic nerves control the action of the diaphragm. These nerves originate from the spinal cord and travel down to the diaphragm, providing the necessary signals for its contraction and relaxation. When the phrenic nerves are stimulated, the diaphragm contracts, causing inhalation. Conversely, when the stimulation stops, the diaphragm relaxes, leading to exhalation. Therefore, the phrenic nerves play a crucial role in regulating the movement of the diaphragm and, consequently, the process of breathing.

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177. If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Unit Training Manager. The Unit Training Manager is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all training activities within a unit. They are the point of contact for any updates or changes to the training code in the user training information. They ensure that all personnel are properly trained and maintain accurate training records.

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178. What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves?

Explanation

A plexus is a large intersection of interlaced spinal nerves. It is a network of nerves that come together and then branch out to supply different areas of the body. The other options, trigeminal, autonomic, and brachial, do not refer to large intersections of interlaced spinal nerves.

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179. What does task knowledge identify?

Explanation

Task knowledge refers to the understanding and proficiency in a particular task or subject. In this context, it identifies the ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate the subject matter. This means that task knowledge involves being able to recognize and comprehend relevant information, articulate underlying principles or concepts, and critically assess or make judgments about the subject at hand. It encompasses a range of cognitive abilities necessary for effective problem-solving and decision-making in a given task or field.

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180. Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called

Explanation

The vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called efferent lymphatic vessels. These vessels carry lymph away from the lymph nodes and towards other parts of the body. The lymph nodes act as filters, removing waste, toxins, and foreign substances from the lymph fluid. Once the lymph fluid has been filtered in the lymph nodes, it exits through the efferent lymphatic vessels and continues its circulation throughout the body.

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181. What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?

Explanation

A syndesmosis joint is a type of joint that joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula. In a syndesmosis joint, the bones are connected by a fibrous ligament, allowing for limited movement between the two bones. This type of joint provides stability to the lower leg and allows for slight rotation between the tibia and fibula. Condyloid, gomphosis, and synchondrosis are different types of joints that do not specifically join the distal end of the tibia and fibula.

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182. The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when

Explanation

The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when an ovum is released from one of the ovaries. This phase is known as the ovulatory phase and typically occurs around day 14 of a 28-day menstrual cycle. During this phase, the ovary releases a mature egg, or ovum, which then travels through the fallopian tube towards the uterus. If fertilization occurs during this phase, the ovum may be fertilized by sperm and implant in the uterus, leading to pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the ovum disintegrates and the menstrual cycle continues.

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183. If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization?

Explanation

The Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) is the system that should be used to determine the deployment status of a unit. AHLTA supports Force Health Protection, Population Health, and Military Health System (MHS) optimization. It is a comprehensive electronic health record system used by the Armed Forces to manage and track the health and medical information of military personnel. AHLTA allows for efficient and effective healthcare delivery, ensuring the well-being of service members during deployments and optimizing the overall health system.

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184. How many muscles are in the body?

Explanation

The human body has more than 500 muscles. Muscles are responsible for movement and play a crucial role in various bodily functions. They are found throughout the body, including the arms, legs, abdomen, chest, and face. With such a large number of muscles, the body is able to perform a wide range of movements and activities, from simple tasks like walking and talking to complex actions like running and lifting heavy objects.

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185. The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the

Explanation

The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This means that in order to assess the competency of a 4N0X1, one must consider how they behaved while completing the task, the environment in which the task was carried out, and the specific standards that apply to that task. This comprehensive evaluation allows for a thorough assessment of the individual's competence in performing the task.

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186. The EMEDS +25 increment provides prevention, acute intervention, and primary care to support deployment of how many personnel?

Explanation

The EMEDS +25 increment provides prevention, acute intervention, and primary care to support the deployment of 3000-5000 personnel. This means that this medical system is designed to cater to the healthcare needs of a group of individuals within this range. It is capable of providing the necessary medical support and services to ensure the well-being and health of this number of personnel during deployment.

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187. The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the

Explanation

The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the cecum. The ileocecal valve is a one-way valve that separates the small intestine from the large intestine. It prevents the backflow of fecal matter from the large intestine into the small intestine. The cecum is the first part of the large intestine and is located in the lower right abdomen. It receives the digested food from the small intestine through the ileocecal valve and begins the process of absorption of water and electrolytes before the remaining waste material moves further into the colon.

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188. What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force training record (AFTR)?

Explanation

The information that is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force training record (AFTR) is the start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). This information helps to track the progress of the trainee and ensure that they have successfully completed the required tasks.

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189. To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on

Explanation

The correct answer is "Training Records" because the question asks about accessing your electronic training record in AFTR. The options provided are different sections within ADLS, and "Training Records" is the most relevant option as it directly relates to accessing the training record.

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190. What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?

Explanation

The cranial nerve that controls the lateral rectus eye muscle is the abducent nerve. This nerve is responsible for the abduction of the eye, which means it moves the eye laterally away from the midline. The other options, vagus, facial, and trochlear, are not involved in the control of the lateral rectus muscle.

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191. Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?

Explanation

The middle meatus is a nasal air passageway located in the middle part of the nasal cavity. It is one of the three meatuses, along with the superior and inferior meatuses, that help to regulate the flow of air in the nasal passages. The middle meatus is responsible for draining the frontal, maxillary, and anterior ethmoid sinuses, and it also contains the openings of the middle ethmoidal air cells.

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192. The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the

Explanation

The perimysium is the correct answer because it is the muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium. The epimysium is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle, and the perimysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual bundles of muscle fibers called fascicles. The fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscles, but it is not specifically located just below the epimysium. The tendon is a tough band of connective tissue that connects muscle to bone, and the endomysium is the connective tissue layer that surrounds individual muscle fibers within the fascicles.

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193. The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Workcenter is performed by clicking

Explanation

The correct answer is "My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations." This answer suggests that in order to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Workcenter, one must go to their profile and make changes to the Root and Sub Organizations. This implies that the User Location section is a part of the profile settings and can be modified by editing the organizational details.

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194. What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to update the Air Force Form 1098?

Explanation

The correct answer is to click the SEARCH RECORD button. This is because trainees need to search for the 1098 items in order to update the Air Force Form 1098. Clicking the SEARCH RECORD button will allow them to begin the search process and find the items they need to update the form.

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195. What type of joint is a suture?

Explanation

A suture is a type of joint that is classified as fibrous. Fibrous joints are immovable or slightly movable joints where the bones are connected by fibrous connective tissue. Sutures specifically refer to the fibrous joints found in the skull, where the bones are held together by thin layers of connective tissue. These joints provide stability and protection to the brain.

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196. Approximately how many hair cells are located in the organ of Corti?

Explanation

The organ of Corti is located in the cochlea of the inner ear and is responsible for converting sound vibrations into electrical signals. It contains hair cells that are essential for hearing. The correct answer is 16,000, indicating that approximately 16,000 hair cells are located in the organ of Corti. These hair cells are specialized sensory cells that detect sound waves and transmit information to the brain for interpretation.

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197. What form is used to document an individual's training progression?

Explanation

AF Form 623a is the correct answer because it is the form used to document an individual's training progression. This form is commonly used in the Air Force to track and record training activities and accomplishments. It allows supervisors and trainees to monitor and evaluate the progress made in various training programs.

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198. How many hormones are secreted by the islets of Langergans? 

Explanation

The islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that secrete hormones involved in regulating blood sugar levels. These hormones include insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin. Insulin helps lower blood sugar levels, glucagon raises blood sugar levels, and somatostatin regulates the release of both insulin and glucagon. Therefore, the correct answer is three hormones.

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199. What type of information can you provide all new personnel on preparation of duty schedules?

Explanation

The correct answer provides information on various aspects of duty schedules that can be provided to new personnel. It includes information on authority, responsibility, and delegation, which are important for understanding the roles and expectations in preparing duty schedules. It also includes information on the length of cycle rotation and its direction, which helps in understanding the schedule pattern. Additionally, it provides information on deadlines for posting, guidelines for changes and exchanging hours, and reporting schedule changes, which are important for maintaining an organized and efficient schedule system.

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200. What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?

Explanation

AF 623 Part II is the correct answer because it is the section used in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates. The AF 623 Part II is specifically dedicated to documenting and tracking an individual's training and education history, including CDCs. The other options, Master Training List (MTL) and Master Training Plan (MTP), do not pertain to updating CDC start and complete dates in the AFTR.

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What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on...
The total training program leads to
When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent...
Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment...
When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the...
Pigmentation is attributed to
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30...
What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the...
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International...
Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?
What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within...
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example...
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example...
What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career...
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you...
The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the
What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
In which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels...
By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor...
What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?
What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for...
What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit...
What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?
The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your...
What is the largest lymphatic organ?
Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home...
Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and...
What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty...
What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?
What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?
What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that...
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP)...
Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that...
The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities...
During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the...
Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and...
For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and...
Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
The pressure in the blood vessels when the heart is at rest between...
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary...
What liquid is produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder?
To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your...
Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards...
What part of the kidney filters blood to remove waste and regulate...
You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for...
Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of...
What is the tubule that leads from the urinary bladder to the exterior...
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is...
You would not find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local...
Where does lymph from the right lymphatic duct empty?
Once excess fluid from the body tissue enters lymphatic capillaries,...
Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following...
Kidneys are in the posterior abdominal cavity and extend from the
The lower third of the uterus is called the
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and...
Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria?
What is the term for the thick muscular portion of the heart?
What cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of sight?
Which form is used to access Job Qualification Standard (JQS)...
What is the correct anatomical position of the spine as it relates to...
Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey...
What duty schedule provides a continual rotation, but the least amount...
Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain...
If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training...
How often are medical and nonmedical equipment inspections usually...
What bones are usually located within tendons where pressure is...
What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP)...
What is the process that forms blood cells called?
What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical...
What nerve is the pathway to vision?
Approximately how many nephrons are within each kidney?
Some additional factors must be considered when determining training...
In the ear, movement of the stapes causes stimulation of fluid within...
The part of the brain stem that connects to the spinal cord is the
Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine...
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces...
What type of neuron has one axon extending from one end of the soma...
What part of the peripheral nervous system is responsible for...
Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient...
What button do you click to add new file information to the Air Force...
Backflow of urine into the ureters is prevented by
The urge to urinate is usually first experienced when the bladder...
Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another...
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and...
Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.
Because of its striated appearance, which tissue is similar to...
What type of muscle is skeletal muscle?
What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
The auditory ossicles are located in the
What's the first button trainee's click to sign off 623a entries in...
When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) status turns red and what...
Enrollment information from the Defense Enrollment and Eligibility...
What vein returns blood back to the heart from the lower body?
The pituitary gland is divided into two sections called the
How many lobes does the right lung have?
What attaches skeletal muscles to the bone?
What part of the lower respiratory system does air travel to and from...
What fluid acts as a joint lubricant and a nutrient supplier for...
The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which...
When do Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) member's status turn yellow...
What is the difference in the number of primary teeth and the number...
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
The valve that leads from the right atrium to the right ventricle is...
What is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle?
The small spaces between neurons are called the
Where are sperm cells produced?
Fluid is secreted from the seminal vesicles to help carry sperm...
Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs back to the heart through the
What is the mucous membrane that attaches the tongue to the floor of...
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you...
What is the name of the product that is generated through the Defense...
The EMEDS +10 is composed of how many personnel?
Where are nerves and blood vessels contained in the bone?
Pecuniary liability is generally limited to a maximum of one-month's...
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline
Which hormone accounts for the majority of the thyroid hormones?
Aqueous humor fills the space between the cornea and the
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
What are the responsibilities of the scheduler within a unit or clinic...
The larynx is composed of how many cartilages?
The "fight-or-flight" reaction is controlled by the
What happens to the ovum after a sperm fertilizes it?
A line projecting at right angles to the plane of motion best...
To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your...
Which phase of mitosis would signify that the nucleus of the cell is...
What are the two infection-fighting organisms associated with the...
What type of tissue can change its shape?
Which hormone would you expect the Islets of Langerhans to secrete?
What specific position can be held as a 4N071
What is a primary function of the cerebellum other than coordinating...
What are the principles of population health management?
Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule...
The complicated process responsible for the distinction of cell...
What part of the lymph system acts as the filter?
Which procedure is not a useful social media tip when Airmen and their...
The testes are two oval-shaped structures that are made of
What type of tissue is the major component of glands?
A report of survey (ROS) is referred to the legal office for review...
What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and...
Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training...
Growth of body hair on a male is a
Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for...
What are the enlarged smell receptors that extend into the nasal...
What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and...
Which personnel provide specific training information for particular...
What is the difference between the PAFSC and DAFSC?
The superior portion of the pharynx that contains the eustachian tubes...
The Training Type drop down menu is used to view the Entire Training...
Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing...
What updates are completed nightly by CarePoint?
Which organ absorbs beneficial water for use by the body?
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
What cytoplasm components are responsible for cell contraction?
The amount of air remaining in the lungs after the strongest possible...
How many inches long would you expect the ureter to be in a 30-year...
Where will undigested chyme go after leaving the ileum?
What is one of the functions of the interior of the cerebrum?
What is the outermost portion of a bone called?
What type of movement dooes the somatic nervous system control?
What is the purpose of case management?
The layer of the epidermis that is next to the deepest layer is the
Where would you find very little compact bone in the skeletal system?
Which organization is responsible for conducting AFSC JI surverys?
What substance ensures the eyeball maintains its round shape?
What is the primary source for recording medical or nonmedical...
What makes up the majority of the adrenal gland?
Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by...
What controls the action of the diaphragm?
If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the...
What is the name of the large intersection of interlaced spinal...
What does task knowledge identify?
Vessels that lead out of the lymph nodes are called
What type of joint joins the distal end of the tibia and fibula?
The second phase of the menstrual cycle begins when
If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what...
How many muscles are in the body?
The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing...
The EMEDS +25 increment provides prevention, acute intervention, and...
The ileocecal valve in the small intestine connects to the
What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and...
To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training...
What cranial nerve controls the lateral rectus eye muscle?
Which of the following is a nasal air passageway?
The muscle layer that lies just below the epimysium is the
The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base,...
What is the first step trainees make in searching for 1098 items to...
What type of joint is a suture?
Approximately how many hair cells are located in the organ of Corti?
What form is used to document an individual's training...
How many hormones are secreted by the islets of Langergans? 
What type of information can you provide all new personnel on...
What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update...
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