4N051 Set A Journeyman
- 1.
Which Air Force Doctrine Document (AFDD) is the primary guide used by Air Force
- A.
AFDD 1, Basic Doctrine.
- B.
AFDD 1–1, Leadership and Force Development
- C.
AFDD 2–8, Command and Control.
- D.
AFDD 4–02, Medical Operations.
Correct Answer
D. AFDD 4–02, Medical Operations. -
- 2.
Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?
- A.
Recommends step by step actions.
- B.
Directs the actions of commanders
- C.
Guides commanders in using assets.
- D.
Changes faster than Air Force guidance.
Correct Answer
C. Guides commanders in using assets.Explanation
Medical doctrine is necessary because it guides commanders in using assets effectively. In the context of healthcare, assets can refer to various resources such as medical personnel, equipment, and facilities. By following medical doctrine, commanders can make informed decisions about how to allocate and utilize these assets to provide the best possible care to patients. Medical doctrine provides a framework and set of guidelines that ensure a systematic and efficient approach to healthcare delivery, helping commanders optimize the use of available resources and ultimately improve patient outcomes.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?
- A.
Basic.
- B.
Tactical
- C.
Operational
- D.
Foundational
Correct Answer
C. OperationalExplanation
Operational doctrine guides the organization and employment of forces within distinct objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment. This type of doctrine focuses on the planning and execution of military operations and provides guidance on how to achieve strategic goals. It encompasses a wide range of activities and considerations, including tactics, logistics, intelligence, and command and control. Operational doctrine is crucial for effectively coordinating and executing military operations at the operational level.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
- A.
The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.
- B.
An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
- C.
An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
- D.
A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
D. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
Tactical doctrine refers to the specific strategies and actions taken by an entity to achieve its objectives. In this context, a car buyer can be seen as the best example of tactical doctrine because they have the ability to choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. By selecting a car based on these specific qualities, the car buyer is effectively implementing a tactical approach to meet their transportation requirements.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available?
- A.
Significantly increase
- B.
Significantly decrease
- C.
Increased by only 10%
- D.
Decreased by only 10%
Correct Answer
A. Significantly increaseExplanation
When aeromedical evacuation (AE) is available, casualty survival rates significantly increase. This means that the availability of AE plays a crucial role in improving the chances of survival for casualties. AE involves the transportation of injured individuals by air to medical facilities where they can receive specialized and timely care. This allows for faster access to medical treatment, reducing the time it takes for casualties to receive critical care. As a result, more lives can be saved, leading to a significant increase in casualty survival rates.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) increment has no inpatient beds?
- A.
EMEDS Basic
- B.
EMEDS +10
- C.
EMEDS +25
- D.
All EMEDS have inpatient beds
Correct Answer
A. EMEDS BasicExplanation
EMEDS Basic is the correct answer because it is the only option that does not have inpatient beds. The other options, EMEDS +10 and EMEDS +25, both have inpatient beds. This means that EMEDS Basic is a smaller and more basic version of the EMEDS system, which does not include the capability to accommodate inpatient care.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who is qualified to perform a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
- A.
Mental Health personnel and the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) or Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) commander.
- B.
Aerospace Medical Specialist and the AEF or EMEDS commanders.
- C.
Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training.
- D.
The AEF or EMEDS commanders and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training
Correct Answer
C. Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Med Specialist with additional training. -
- 8.
Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires both routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
- A.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 2 hours for urgent AE support
- B.
12 hours for routine AE support, and 4 hours for urgent AE support
- C.
24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE support
- D.
36 hours for routine AE support, and 24 hours for urgent AE support
Correct Answer
C. 24 hours for routine AE support, and 12 hours for urgent AE supportExplanation
Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) Basic requires routine aeromedical evacuation (AE) support to be provided within 24 hours of notification, while urgent AE support must be provided within 12 hours of notification.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
- A.
32
- B.
51
- C.
86
- D.
94
Correct Answer
C. 86Explanation
The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.Rate this question:
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- 10.
The Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) has which skill level?
- A.
4N000
- B.
4N051
- C.
N051
- D.
4N071
Correct Answer
A. 4N000Explanation
The skill level of the Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) is 4N000.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Who develops and maintains currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP)?
- A.
Group superintendent
- B.
Surgeon general
- C.
Air Force career field manager
- D.
Career development course writer
Correct Answer
C. Air Force career field managerExplanation
The Air Force career field manager is responsible for developing and maintaining the currency of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). They oversee the training and education requirements for individuals in the career field and ensure that the plan is up to date and aligned with the needs of the field. They work closely with subject matter experts and other stakeholders to ensure that the CFETP accurately reflects the skills and knowledge needed for success in the career field.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? 4N0X1
- A.
First
- B.
Second
- C.
Third
- D.
Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure "1" in the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 4N0X1 identifies the career grouping. This means that the career grouping for this AFSC is the first category or group within the Air Force's classification system.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?
- A.
Chief nurse
- B.
Command chief
- C.
Career field manager
- D.
Medical Group commander
Correct Answer
C. Career field managerExplanation
A 4N0X1 Job Inventory is a specific request related to the 4N0X1 career field, which is the Aerospace Medical Service career field in the United States Air Force. The career field manager is responsible for overseeing and managing all aspects of this particular career field, including job assignments and inventory management. Therefore, it is logical to conclude that the career field manager would be the one to request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory.Rate this question:
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- 14.
How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?
- A.
Every 6 months
- B.
Annually
- C.
Every 3 years
- D.
Every 6 years
Correct Answer
C. Every 3 yearsExplanation
The 4N0XX Job Inventory is normally completed every 3 years. This suggests that the inventory process is not conducted frequently, but rather at longer intervals. By completing the inventory every 3 years, the organization can assess and update the job inventory information, ensuring that it remains accurate and up-to-date. This timeframe allows for sufficient time to gather comprehensive data on job roles and responsibilities within the organization. Completing the inventory less frequently also reduces the administrative burden of conducting the process more frequently.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS)?
- A.
Commander
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
3-level
- D.
5-level
Correct Answer
B. SupervisorExplanation
The supervisor is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey (GAS). This implies that the supervisor has the authority and accountability to ensure that the survey is completed. The commander, 3-level, and 5-level are not mentioned in relation to the responsibility for completing the survey, suggesting that they do not have this specific role.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
- A.
Maintain skills
- B.
Prevent lawsuits
- C.
Ensure promotion
- D.
To complete formal training course
Correct Answer
A. Maintain skillsExplanation
It is required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training in order to maintain their skills. Sustainment training helps them stay updated with the latest techniques, procedures, and advancements in their field. This ensures that they are competent and capable of providing high-quality care to patients. By continuously honing their skills, they can effectively contribute to the healthcare team and deliver optimal outcomes for patients.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in what location?
- A.
Stateside base
- B.
Deployed setting
- C.
Reserve duty station
- D.
Air National Guard
Correct Answer
B. Deployed settingExplanation
The Required Specialty Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to sustain Air Force specialty code (AFSC) training in a deployed setting. This means that the program is specifically created to ensure that AFSC training can continue even in a location where the Air Force is deployed, such as in a combat zone or during a military operation abroad. The program is likely to focus on providing the necessary resources and support for AFSC training in these challenging and often unpredictable environments.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
- A.
During shift change
- B.
On training days
- C.
In the afternoon
- D.
In the morning
Correct Answer
B. On training daysExplanation
The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because training days are specifically designated for training purposes, allowing for dedicated time and focus on the training session. Conducting inservice training on training days ensures that employees are prepared and available for the training, minimizing disruptions to regular work schedules. Additionally, training days provide an opportunity for employees to fully engage in the training without distractions or competing priorities.Rate this question:
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- 19.
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is used to outline
- A.
Patient treatment plans.
- B.
Patient treatment milestones
- C.
Training milestones for enlisted within the assigned area
- D.
Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.
Correct Answer
D. Training goals and milestones for enlisted within the assigned area.Explanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is a document that is used to outline the training goals and milestones for enlisted personnel within a specific assigned area. It provides a comprehensive plan that helps guide the training process and ensures that all enlisted personnel receive the necessary training to meet their goals and milestones. The MTP helps to track progress, identify areas that need improvement, and ensure that all enlisted personnel are on track to achieve their training goals within the assigned area.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Duty section job description and the upgrade training plan is kept in the
- A.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- B.
Air Force Training Record (AFTR).
- C.
Specialty Training Standard (STS).
- D.
Master Training Plan (MTP).
Correct Answer
D. Master Training Plan (MTP).Explanation
The Master Training Plan (MTP) is the correct answer because it is a document that contains the duty section job description and the upgrade training plan. The MTP outlines the specific training requirements and career progression for individuals in a particular career field. It serves as a comprehensive guide for training and development, ensuring that personnel receive the necessary education and training to excel in their roles. The MTP is an important tool for career planning and professional growth within the Air Force.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select withi option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
- A.
Edit MTP
- B.
View MTP
- C.
Delete MTP.
- D.
Create/Edit MTP
Correct Answer
D. Create/Edit MTPExplanation
To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit MTP" option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to either create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By choosing this option, the user can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify the MTP according to their requirements.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What is the fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks?
- A.
The user must enter in a Start Month, End Month, Training Days, Training Method, Evaluation Method, and Training Aid.
- B.
The user must enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information.
- C.
The user selects what method will be used for the training on the task
- D.
After confirmation, the user is redirected to the Edit MTP Tasks page
Correct Answer
B. The user must enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information.Explanation
The fourth step in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) for editing an specialty training standard (STS) Master Training Plan (MTP) tasks is to enter in all the fields to complete the MTP information. This step is necessary to ensure that all the required information is provided for the MTP.Rate this question:
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- 23.
What two parts divide the Master Training List (MTL) section?
- A.
MTP on the left and STS on the right.
- B.
STS on the left and MTL on the right
- C.
797 on the right and 1098 on the left
- D.
UTL on the right and MAJCOM on the left
Correct Answer
B. STS on the left and MTL on the rightExplanation
The correct answer is STS on the left and MTL on the right. This means that the Master Training List (MTL) section is divided into two parts: STS on the left and MTL on the right.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows which certification level requirement to be edited?
- A.
MTP tasks 5 and 7
- B.
MTL tasks 5 and 7.
- C.
STS tasks 7 and 5.
- D.
UTL tasks 7 and 5
Correct Answer
B. MTL tasks 5 and 7.Explanation
The Edit Master Training List (MTL) menu option allows the editing of certification level requirements for tasks 5 and 7.Rate this question:
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- 25.
The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
- A.
Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
- B.
Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
- C.
AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
- D.
AFTR Duty Position menu.
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.Explanation
The correct answer is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This option allows the user to create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). It is the first step in the process of creating or making changes to the DTL.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Some additional factors must be considered when determining training requirements. What are they?
- A.
Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) tasks.
- B.
No other factors are considered.
- C.
AEF tasks and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements.
- D.
Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements.
Correct Answer
D. Deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements.Explanation
The correct answer is that deployment requirements, AEF tasks, and other factors driving the training need must also be considered when determining training requirements. This means that in addition to AEF tasks, there are other factors such as deployment requirements that play a role in determining the training needs. These factors could include the specific skills and knowledge needed for a particular deployment, as well as any other factors that may impact the training requirements.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Who or whom do you contact, if there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier?
- A.
Commander.
- B.
First Sergeant
- C.
Base Training Office
- D.
Unit Training Office
Correct Answer
C. Base Training OfficeExplanation
If there is a training requirement for which you have no trainer or certifier, you should contact the Base Training Office. They are responsible for coordinating and organizing training within the base. They will be able to assist you in finding a suitable trainer or certifier for the specific requirement.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The total training program leads to
- A.
Lower pay levels
- B.
Higher pay levels
- C.
Higher skill level
- D.
Promotion
Correct Answer
C. Higher skill levelExplanation
The total training program leads to a higher skill level. This means that through the training program, individuals are able to acquire new knowledge, develop new skills, and improve their abilities. As a result, they become more competent and proficient in their respective fields. This higher skill level can lead to various benefits, such as increased job opportunities, career advancement, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.Rate this question:
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- 29.
The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1’s competency on a task involve reviewing the
- A.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task.
- B.
Behavior exhibited while completing the task; and the conditions where the task was performed.
- C.
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
- D.
Master Task List (MTL).
Correct Answer
A. Behavior exhibited while completing the task; the conditions where the task was performed; and the standards that fall under each task.Explanation
The steps to evaluate a 4N0X1's competency on a task involve reviewing the behavior exhibited while completing the task, the conditions where the task was performed, and the standards that fall under each task. This means that in order to assess the competency of a 4N0X1, one must consider how they behaved while completing the task, the environment in which the task was carried out, and the specific standards that apply to that task. This comprehensive evaluation allows for a thorough assessment of the individual's competence in performing the task.Rate this question:
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- 30.
Which personnel provide specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge?
- A.
Certifier
- B.
Supervisor
- C.
On-the-job training (OJT) trainer
- D.
Your OJT trainer or supervisor
Correct Answer
D. Your OJT trainer or supervisorExplanation
The correct answer is "Your OJT trainer or supervisor". OJT trainers or supervisors are responsible for providing specific training information for particular tasks or knowledge. They guide and mentor individuals during on-the-job training, ensuring that trainees acquire the necessary skills and knowledge required for their specific job roles.Rate this question:
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- 31.
What does task knowledge identify?
- A.
RN orders.
- B.
Physician orders.
- C.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze
- D.
Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subject
Correct Answer
D. Your ability to identify facts, state principles, analyze or evaluate the subjectExplanation
Task knowledge refers to the understanding and proficiency in a particular task or subject. In this context, it identifies the ability to identify facts, state principles, and analyze or evaluate the subject matter. This means that task knowledge involves being able to recognize and comprehend relevant information, articulate underlying principles or concepts, and critically assess or make judgments about the subject at hand. It encompasses a range of cognitive abilities necessary for effective problem-solving and decision-making in a given task or field.Rate this question:
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- 32.
To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
- A.
Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.
- B.
Follow sequence in the proficiency task listing
- C.
Determine the final step needed to complete the the task
- D.
Review the CFETP and identify task in the Part I specialty training standard
Correct Answer
A. Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.Explanation
To fully understand task knowledge, the step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This involves identifying and recognizing the different components, tools, and basic information related to the task at hand. By being able to name these elements, it indicates a level of understanding and familiarity with the task, which is crucial for fully comprehending and executing it effectively.Rate this question:
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- 33.
To fully understand subject knowledge, the steps to assess your ability include
- A.
Analyzing task knowledge with another Aimen in upgrade training.
- B.
Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subject
- C.
Reviewing manufucturer’s material on subject knowledge
- D.
Identifing detailed facts and acronyms about the subject.
Correct Answer
B. Analyzing facts and principles and draw conclusions about the subjectExplanation
The correct answer is analyzing facts and principles and drawing conclusions about the subject. This step involves examining the information and concepts related to the subject, identifying key facts and principles, and using them to draw logical conclusions. It helps in gaining a deeper understanding of the subject and being able to apply the knowledge effectively. The other options mentioned in the question, such as analyzing task knowledge with another Aimen in upgrade training, reviewing manufacturer's material on subject knowledge, and identifying detailed facts and acronyms about the subject, may be important steps in the learning process but do not specifically address the ability to assess one's subject knowledge.Rate this question:
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- 34.
What information is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force training record (AFTR)?
- A.
Job qualification standard training start and complete date.
- B.
AF Form 623 II, On the Job Training Record Continuation Sheet
- C.
Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable).
- D.
AF Form 1098, Special Task Certification and Recurring Training Qualification Training Packages
Correct Answer
C. Start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable).Explanation
The information that is updated when each task is successfully learned and demonstrated by the trainee in Air Force training record (AFTR) is the start and complete date with trainee, trainer, and certifier initials (if applicable). This information helps to track the progress of the trainee and ensure that they have successfully completed the required tasks.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Each time an Airman changes duty positions (transfers from another base or work center), the supervisor must perform
- A.
A re-evaluation.
- B.
An initial evaluation
- C.
An Enlisted Progress Report (EPR).
- D.
An Annual Progress Report (APR).
Correct Answer
B. An initial evaluationExplanation
When an Airman changes duty positions, the supervisor needs to conduct an initial evaluation. This evaluation is necessary to assess the Airman's performance and capabilities in their new role. It helps the supervisor understand the Airman's strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement. This evaluation is crucial in determining the Airman's suitability for the new position and identifying any additional training or support they may require. It sets the foundation for the Airman's performance expectations and goals in their new role.Rate this question:
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- 36.
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the 1st question you should ask yourself to determine proficiency level?
- A.
Can I do simple parts of the task?
- B.
Can I do most parts of the task?
- C.
How many supplies are needed?
- D.
How much equipment is needed?
Correct Answer
A. Can I do simple parts of the task?Explanation
The correct answer is "Can I do simple parts of the task?" because when determining proficiency level, it is important to assess if one can perform the basic or simple aspects of the task. This question helps in understanding the foundational skills and knowledge required for the task and indicates the initial level of proficiency.Rate this question:
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- 37.
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?
- A.
How many people can I train?
- B.
How many continuing education hours did I achieve?
- C.
Can I do all parts of the task? I need only a spot check of completed work
- D.
Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?
Correct Answer
D. Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?Explanation
The last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately, and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task efficiently, but also your ability to effectively communicate and teach others. It indicates a high level of proficiency and mastery in the subject matter.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document
- A.
Weekly training procedures.
- B.
Objective effectiveness.
- C.
Quarterly training steps.
- D.
Training effectiveness.
Correct Answer
D. Training effectiveness.Explanation
The Air Force training record (AFTR), AF Form 623, AF Form 803, and training critiques or surveys are used to document training effectiveness. These documents are used to assess the effectiveness of the training programs and methods employed by the Air Force. They provide a record of the training activities and allow for evaluation and improvement of the training processes.Rate this question:
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- 39.
If training is effective, what should trainees remember?
- A.
The requirements to successfully complete the job.
- B.
Advanced requirements to complete the job.
- C.
50% of their training information.
- D.
80% of their training information
Correct Answer
A. The requirements to successfully complete the job.Explanation
The correct answer is "The requirements to successfully complete the job." When training is effective, trainees should remember the essential knowledge and skills needed to perform their job successfully. This includes understanding and being able to meet the requirements and expectations of the job role. Remembering 50% or 80% of the training information may be helpful, but the most important outcome is retaining the necessary requirements for job completion.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is one of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness?
- A.
Review test questions.
- B.
Review class survey.
- C.
Analyze if 90 percent actively participated in training process.
- D.
Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process.
Correct Answer
D. Analyze if everyone actively participated in training process.Explanation
One of the methods used to develop and evaluate training effectiveness is to analyze if everyone actively participated in the training process. This method helps assess the level of engagement and involvement of all participants, which is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the training. By analyzing if everyone actively participated, trainers can identify any gaps or areas of improvement in the training program and make necessary adjustments to enhance its effectiveness.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Name one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field.
- A.
Allergy/Immunization technician.
- B.
Emergency room technician.
- C.
Neurology technician.
- D.
Vascular technician.
Correct Answer
C. Neurology technician.Explanation
The question asks for one of the three shredouts of the 4N0X1 career field. The given options are Allergy/Immunization technician, Emergency room technician, Neurology technician, and Vascular technician. The correct answer is Neurology technician, as it is one of the three possible shredouts in the 4N0X1 career field.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Your first step in successful recommendation for formal training begins
- A.
With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626.
- B.
With meeting the requirements in the Officer Classification Directory and ETCA.
- C.
By submitting your last Enlisted Progress Report (EPR) and fitness test score
- D.
By submitting your last achievement medal and quarterly award
Correct Answer
A. With meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626.Explanation
The correct answer is with meeting the requirements in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626. This answer suggests that the first step in successful recommendation for formal training is to ensure that you meet the requirements outlined in the Enlisted Classification Directory, Education and Training Course Announcements (ETCA), and AFI 36–2626. These resources provide the necessary information and guidelines for enlisting in formal training programs.Rate this question:
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- 43.
What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
- A.
Complete all duty position training requirements.
- B.
Qualification training packages (QTP) for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements.
- C.
Basic life support (BLS) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements.
- D.
National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
Correct Answer
D. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirementsExplanation
To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the following educational and training steps: obtaining National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, completing Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position, and fulfilling all duty position training requirements. These steps ensure that the applicant has the necessary certification, knowledge, and skills to effectively instruct and train others in technical subjects.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What must you meet prior to applying for retraining?
- A.
Retainability requirements.
- B.
Eligibility requirements.
- C.
PCS requirements.
- D.
PCA requirements.
Correct Answer
B. Eligibility requirements.Explanation
Before applying for retraining, you must meet the eligibility requirements. These requirements could include factors such as having a certain amount of experience or education in the field you wish to retrain in, meeting any specific qualifications or certifications, or fulfilling any other criteria set by the organization or program offering the retraining opportunity. Meeting these eligibility requirements ensures that you are qualified and suitable for the retraining program.Rate this question:
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- 45.
What is one criterion used by the Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board to rank Airmen applying for retraining?
- A.
Technical training school grade point average.
- B.
Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery scores.
- C.
Number of achievement medals.
- D.
Last three EPRs.
Correct Answer
D. Last three EPRs.Explanation
The Quality Retraining Program (QRP) board ranks Airmen applying for retraining based on their last three EPRs. The EPRs, or Enlisted Performance Reports, provide a comprehensive evaluation of an Airman's performance, including their job knowledge, leadership abilities, and overall performance. By considering the last three EPRs, the QRP board can assess an Airman's consistent performance over a period of time and make informed decisions regarding their suitability for retraining opportunities. This criterion allows the board to prioritize Airmen who have consistently demonstrated high levels of performance and potential for success in their new career field.Rate this question:
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- 46.
The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
- A.
Career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed.
- B.
Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed.
- C.
Unit force of each AF shredout as needed.
- D.
Career force of the AF squadron.
Correct Answer
A. Career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed.Explanation
The correct answer is the "career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed." This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure a balanced distribution of personnel within each AFSC, based on the needs and requirements of the Air Force. By retraining individuals and moving them to different AFSCs as needed, the Air Force can maintain a well-rounded and appropriately staffed workforce in each specialty area.Rate this question:
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- 47.
To access your electronic training record in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), log into the Advanced Distributive Learning System (ADLS), then click on
- A.
Course List.
- B.
My Profile
- C.
Administration
- D.
Training Records
Correct Answer
D. Training RecordsExplanation
The correct answer is "Training Records" because the question asks about accessing your electronic training record in AFTR. The options provided are different sections within ADLS, and "Training Records" is the most relevant option as it directly relates to accessing the training record.Rate this question:
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- 48.
The procedures to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Workcenter is performed by clicking
- A.
My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations.
- B.
Administration and editing Organizations.
- C.
Root and Sub Organizations.
- D.
Sub Organizations.
Correct Answer
A. My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations.Explanation
The correct answer is "My Profile and editing Root and Sub Organizations." This answer suggests that in order to update the User Location section for MAJCOM, Base, Unit, or Workcenter, one must go to their profile and make changes to the Root and Sub Organizations. This implies that the User Location section is a part of the profile settings and can be modified by editing the organizational details.Rate this question:
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- 49.
If training status code changes, whom do you contact to update the code in the user training information?
- A.
Base Training Manager
- B.
Unit Training Manager
- C.
Unit deployment manager
- D.
Curriculum development manager
Correct Answer
B. Unit Training ManagerExplanation
The correct answer is the Unit Training Manager. The Unit Training Manager is responsible for overseeing and coordinating all training activities within a unit. They are the point of contact for any updates or changes to the training code in the user training information. They ensure that all personnel are properly trained and maintain accurate training records.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What section is used in Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates?
- A.
Master Training List (MTL).
- B.
Master Training Plan (MTP).
- C.
AF 623 Part I.
- D.
AF 623 Part II.
Correct Answer
D. AF 623 Part II.Explanation
AF 623 Part II is the correct answer because it is the section used in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR) to update career development course (CDC) start and complete dates. The AF 623 Part II is specifically dedicated to documenting and tracking an individual's training and education history, including CDCs. The other options, Master Training List (MTL) and Master Training Plan (MTP), do not pertain to updating CDC start and complete dates in the AFTR.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 12, 2020Quiz Created by
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