4N051 Set A Journeyman
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Why is it required for 4N0X1 personnel to complete sustainment training?
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Maintain skills
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Prevent lawsuits
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Ensure promotion
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To complete formal training course
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The 4N051 Set A Journeyman quiz assesses knowledge on Air Force Medical Operations, focusing on doctrine, tactical decisions, and aeromedical evacuation. It prepares for effective command and medical response in Air Force operations.
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- 2.
The total training program leads to
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Lower pay levels
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Higher pay levels
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Higher skill level
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Promotion
Correct Answer
A. Higher skill levelExplanation
The total training program leads to a higher skill level. This means that through the training program, individuals are able to acquire new knowledge, develop new skills, and improve their abilities. As a result, they become more competent and proficient in their respective fields. This higher skill level can lead to various benefits, such as increased job opportunities, career advancement, and potentially higher pay levels in the long run.Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is the first step trainees use to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) if a task already has a start date?
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Select a task and click the CERTIFIER button.
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Select a task and click the TRAINEE button.
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Select a task and click the TRAINER button.
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Click the UTM button.
Correct Answer
A. Select a task and click the TRAINEE button.Explanation
Trainees use the first step to sign off a task as a trainee on the Job Qualification Standard (JQS) by selecting a task and clicking the TRAINEE button. This indicates that they have completed the task and are ready to move on to the next step in their training.Rate this question:
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- 4.
When setting priorities, what category is used to assign an urgent priority?
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Category A
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Category B
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Category C
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Category D
Correct Answer
A. Category AExplanation
Category A is used to assign an urgent priority when setting priorities. This category is likely to include tasks or issues that require immediate attention and must be dealt with promptly. It signifies that the task or issue is of high importance and needs to be addressed as soon as possible.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?
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Cancel the order.
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Complain to the commander.
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Wait another 15 days and then follow up.
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Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order.
Correct Answer
A. Ask Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order.Explanation
If an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days, the best course of action would be to ask the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) personnel to check on the order. This is because they are responsible for managing medical equipment and would have the necessary information and resources to investigate the status of the order. Canceling the order may not be the best option as the item may still become available, and complaining to the commander without first seeking assistance from MEMO could be seen as skipping the proper channels of communication. Waiting another 15 days without taking any action may further delay the resolution of the issue.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Which is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient’s stress?
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Ensure pictures of family are put away to decrease loneliness
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Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient’s anxiety
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Take the patient to a room to wait 20–30 minutes before the provider
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Refrain from briefing policies on admission to decrease the patient’s fear
Correct Answer
A. Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient’s anxietyExplanation
Remaining honest and in control is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress because it creates a sense of trust and reassurance. Patients often feel anxious and stressed when they are uncertain about their condition or the treatment process. By remaining honest, healthcare providers can provide clear and accurate information, which helps to alleviate the patient's anxiety. Additionally, staying in control and maintaining a calm demeanor can help create a sense of stability and security for the patient, further reducing their stress levels.Rate this question:
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- 7.
When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient’s treatment?
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No care or treatment was accomplished.
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There is no follow up care required
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There were no complications.
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The outcome was positive.
Correct Answer
A. No care or treatment was accomplished.Explanation
If patient care is not documented, it can be assumed that no care or treatment was accomplished. Documentation is crucial in healthcare as it serves as evidence of the care provided, helps in tracking patient progress, and ensures continuity of care. Without proper documentation, it is difficult to determine what treatments or interventions were administered to the patient. Therefore, the absence of documentation suggests that no care or treatment was carried out.Rate this question:
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- 8.
What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in International Classification of Diseases (ICD–9)?
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Not elsewhere classified.
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Next event cancelled.
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Not elsewhere coded.
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New event code.
Correct Answer
A. Not elsewhere classified.Explanation
In the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9), the abbreviation NEC stands for "Not elsewhere classified." This means that the specific condition or disease being referenced does not fit into any other category or classification within the ICD-9 system. It is a catch-all category for conditions that do not have a more specific code or classification.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Pigmentation is attributed to
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Melanin.
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Dermal cells.
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Subcutaneous cells.
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Sebaceous gland secretions.
Correct Answer
A. Melanin.Explanation
Pigmentation is attributed to melanin, which is a pigment produced by specialized cells called melanocytes. Melanin is responsible for the color of our skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced and stored in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin. The amount and type of melanin in our skin determine our skin color and protect us from harmful UV radiation. Melanin production can be influenced by genetics, hormones, and exposure to sunlight.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What is the name of the triangular shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint?
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Patella
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Fibula
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Femur
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Tibia
Correct Answer
A. PatellaExplanation
The correct answer is Patella. The patella, also known as the kneecap, is a triangular-shaped bone that lies over the anterior portion of the knee joint. It acts as a protective covering for the knee joint and helps to increase the leverage of the quadriceps muscles during movements such as walking, running, and jumping.Rate this question:
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- 11.
What figure in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies career grouping? 4N0X1
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First
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Second
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Third
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Fifth
Correct Answer
A. FirstExplanation
The figure "1" in the Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) 4N0X1 identifies the career grouping. This means that the career grouping for this AFSC is the first category or group within the Air Force's classification system.Rate this question:
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- 12.
What timeframe is best to conduct inservice training within your unit?
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During shift change
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On training days
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In the afternoon
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In the morning
Correct Answer
A. On training daysExplanation
The best timeframe to conduct inservice training within your unit is on training days. This is because training days are specifically designated for training purposes, allowing for dedicated time and focus on the training session. Conducting inservice training on training days ensures that employees are prepared and available for the training, minimizing disruptions to regular work schedules. Additionally, training days provide an opportunity for employees to fully engage in the training without distractions or competing priorities.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The first step when creating/editing the Duty Task List (DTL) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select the
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Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
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Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
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AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.
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AFTR Duty Position menu.
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit DTL option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu.Explanation
The correct answer is to select the "Create/Edit DTL" option from the AFTR Data/Duty Position menu. This option allows the user to create or edit the Duty Task List (DTL) in their Air Force Training Record (AFTR). It is the first step in the process of creating or making changes to the DTL.Rate this question:
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- 14.
After achieving training and knowledge, what is the last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level?
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How many people can I train?
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How many continuing education hours did I achieve?
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Can I do all parts of the task? I need only a spot check of completed work
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Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?
Correct Answer
A. Can I do the complete task quickly and accurately? Can tell or show others how to do the task?Explanation
The last question you should ask yourself to determine your proficiency level is whether you can do the complete task quickly and accurately, and if you can tell or show others how to do the task. This question assesses not only your own ability to perform the task efficiently, but also your ability to effectively communicate and teach others. It indicates a high level of proficiency and mastery in the subject matter.Rate this question:
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- 15.
What educational and training steps must be completed to apply for technical training instructor?
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Complete all duty position training requirements.
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Qualification training packages (QTP) for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements.
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Basic life support (BLS) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements.
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National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirements
Correct Answer
A. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification; QTPs for assigned position; complete all duty position training requirementsExplanation
To apply for a technical training instructor position, one must complete the following educational and training steps: obtaining National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) certification, completing Qualification Training Packages (QTPs) for the assigned position, and fulfilling all duty position training requirements. These steps ensure that the applicant has the necessary certification, knowledge, and skills to effectively instruct and train others in technical subjects.Rate this question:
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- 16.
By training new personnel on proper equipment, what is the supervisor likely to prevent?
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Equipment damage and injury to a patient
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Injury to a patient and buying new technology
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Reporting damage and buying new technology
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Reporting damage to the commander and logistics
Correct Answer
A. Equipment damage and injury to a patientExplanation
By training new personnel on proper equipment, the supervisor is likely to prevent equipment damage and injury to a patient. This is because proper training ensures that the personnel understand how to handle the equipment correctly, reducing the risk of accidents or mistakes that could lead to damage or harm to patients.Rate this question:
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- 17.
What is the purpose of Team Huddles and how often do they occur within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
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Intended for problem solving and updating the team’s work plan; daily.
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Intended for updating the team’s work plan; bi-weekly.
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Intended for updating the team’s work plan; monthly
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Provides a method to delegate responsibilities and maintain control over assets and resources
Correct Answer
A. Intended for problem solving and updating the team’s work plan; daily.Explanation
Team huddles within a Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) are intended to facilitate problem-solving and update the team's work plan on a daily basis. These huddles serve as a platform for team members to discuss any challenges, brainstorm solutions, and ensure that everyone is on the same page regarding the tasks and goals. By having daily huddles, the team can address any issues promptly, make necessary adjustments to the work plan, and maintain a proactive approach to patient care and coordination.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of
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Flexion.
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Extension.
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Dorsiflexion.
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Hyperextension.
Correct Answer
A. Flexion.Explanation
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, bending the elbow brings the forearm closer to the head, decreasing the angle between the upper arm and the forearm. This movement is commonly used in activities such as lifting objects towards the body or performing bicep curls.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What part of the cell provides the primary source of cellular energy?
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Ribosomes
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Lysosomes
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Peroxisomes
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Mitochondria.
Correct Answer
A. Mitochondria.Explanation
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell because they are responsible for producing the majority of the cell's energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through cellular respiration. This process occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, where nutrients are broken down and converted into ATP. Therefore, the mitochondria provide the primary source of cellular energy. Ribosomes, lysosomes, and peroxisomes have other important functions within the cell but are not directly involved in energy production.Rate this question:
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- 20.
What part of the eye is largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images?
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Rods
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Cones
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Anterior portion of the iris
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Posterior portion of the iris
Correct Answer
A. RodsExplanation
Rods are largely responsible for viewing dimly lit images in the eye. Rods are photoreceptor cells located in the retina that are highly sensitive to light. They are particularly effective in low-light conditions and are responsible for our ability to see in dimly lit environments. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and work best in bright light conditions. The anterior and posterior portions of the iris are not directly involved in the process of viewing dimly lit images.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the
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Nail plate
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Lunula
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Dermis
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Nail bed
Correct Answer
A. LunulaExplanation
The white area at the base of a finger or toe nail is called the lunula. The lunula is a crescent-shaped area of the nail that appears white because it is the thickest part of the nail plate and blocks the underlying blood vessels. It is located near the cuticle and is often more visible on the thumb and big toe. The lunula is an important part of the nail as it provides structural support and helps protect the nail bed.Rate this question:
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- 22.
What substance is secreted by the sebaceous gland?
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Sebum
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Sweat
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Follicle
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Adipose
Correct Answer
A. SebumExplanation
Sebum is the substance secreted by the sebaceous gland. Sebaceous glands are found all over the body, except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Sebum is an oily, waxy substance that helps to lubricate and waterproof the skin and hair. It also helps to protect the skin from drying out and prevents the growth of bacteria on the skin.Rate this question:
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- 23.
In which function of the integumentary system would blood vessels constrict?
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Body protection
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Body temperature regulation
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External physical characteristics
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Excess internal water lost prevention
Correct Answer
A. Body temperature regulationExplanation
Blood vessels constrict in the function of body temperature regulation in the integumentary system. When the body is exposed to cold temperatures, the blood vessels near the skin surface constrict, reducing blood flow and heat loss to the environment. This helps to conserve heat and maintain the body's core temperature. Conversely, in warm temperatures, the blood vessels dilate, allowing increased blood flow to the skin surface, promoting heat loss through sweating and cooling the body. This process of vasoconstriction and vasodilation helps to regulate body temperature and keep it within a normal range.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What cells are responsible for the clotting action in blood?
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Plasma
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Platelets
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Leukocytes
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Erythrocytes
Correct Answer
A. PlateletsExplanation
Platelets are responsible for the clotting action in blood. When there is an injury or damage to a blood vessel, platelets adhere to the site and form a plug to stop bleeding. They also release chemicals that help in the formation of a fibrin clot, which further reinforces the plug. This clotting process is essential for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Plasma, leukocytes, and erythrocytes do not have a direct role in blood clotting.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of
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Flexion
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Extension
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Dorsiflexion
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Hyperextension
Correct Answer
A. FlexionExplanation
Moving the forearm toward the head by bending the elbow is an example of flexion. Flexion refers to the movement that decreases the angle between two body parts. In this case, the angle between the forearm and the upper arm is decreased as the forearm is brought closer to the head by bending the elbow.Rate this question:
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- 26.
What is the largest lymphatic organ?
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Heart
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Spleen
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Thymus
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Right lumphatic duct
Correct Answer
A. SpleenExplanation
The spleen is the largest lymphatic organ in the body. It is responsible for filtering and storing blood, as well as producing and storing immune cells. The spleen plays a crucial role in the immune system, helping to fight off infections and remove old or damaged red blood cells. It also helps to recycle iron from these old red blood cells. Due to its size and important functions, the spleen is considered the largest lymphatic organ.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Your first step for creating and editing an Master Training Plan (MTP) in your Air Force Training Record (AFTR) is to select withi option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu?
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Edit MTP
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View MTP
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Delete MTP.
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Create/Edit MTP
Correct Answer
A. Create/Edit MTPExplanation
To create and edit a Master Training Plan (MTP) in the Air Force Training Record (AFTR), the first step is to select the "Create/Edit MTP" option from the AFTR Data/MTP menu. This option allows the user to either create a new MTP or make changes to an existing one. By choosing this option, the user can access the necessary tools and features to develop and modify the MTP according to their requirements.Rate this question:
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- 28.
The overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to balance the
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Career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed.
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Base force of each AF special experience identifier (SEI) as needed.
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Unit force of each AF shredout as needed.
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Career force of the AF squadron.
Correct Answer
A. Career force of each Air Force speciality code (AFSC) as needed.Explanation
The correct answer is the "career force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) as needed." This means that the overall objective of taking advantage of retraining opportunities is to ensure a balanced distribution of personnel within each AFSC, based on the needs and requirements of the Air Force. By retraining individuals and moving them to different AFSCs as needed, the Air Force can maintain a well-rounded and appropriately staffed workforce in each specialty area.Rate this question:
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- 29.
What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic?
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Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance.
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OI’s and local guidance.
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Local guidance.
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AFI 36–3003.
Correct Answer
A. Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance.Explanation
The scheduler uses Air Force instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance to prepare a duty schedule for the unit or clinic. These references and guidance provide the necessary rules, regulations, and procedures that need to be followed when creating the schedule. They ensure that the schedule is in compliance with the Air Force's policies and guidelines, as well as any specific instructions or requirements set by the unit or clinic. By utilizing these references and guidance, the scheduler can effectively plan and organize the duty schedule to meet the needs of the organization.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What mandatory formations do you keep in mind when making a schedule?
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Mobility exercises.
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Off-duty employments.
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Volunteer charity events.
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Dependent spouse conferences.
Correct Answer
A. Mobility exercises.Explanation
When making a schedule, it is important to keep in mind mandatory formations such as mobility exercises. These exercises are crucial for maintaining physical fitness and readiness. By including mobility exercises in the schedule, individuals can ensure that they allocate time for these activities, which are essential for staying in shape and preventing injuries.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?
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Telling the truth.
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Respect for others.
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The duty to do no harm.
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Being faithful to do good.
Correct Answer
A. The duty to do no harm.Explanation
Nonmaleficence is a principle in medical ethics that emphasizes the obligation to avoid causing harm to patients. It is the duty of healthcare professionals to prioritize the well-being of their patients and ensure that their actions do not result in any harm or injury. This principle is closely related to the Hippocratic Oath, which includes the commitment to "do no harm." Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "The duty to do no harm."Rate this question:
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- 32.
Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?
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Administrative.
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Chaperone.
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Supervisory.
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Appointing.
Correct Answer
A. Chaperone.Explanation
Each medical treatment facility (MTF) must develop a local policy that includes circumstances requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the provider or patient. This third party is commonly referred to as a chaperone. A chaperone is present to ensure the safety, comfort, and privacy of the patient during the examination or treatment. They may also serve as a witness in case of any disputes or allegations. Therefore, the correct answer is "Chaperone."Rate this question:
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- 33.
Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affect?
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Patients handling their information.
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Anyone handling patient information
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Medical staff handling patient information.
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Administrative staff handling patient information.
Correct Answer
A. Anyone handling patient informationExplanation
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects anyone who handles patient information. This includes not only medical staff and administrative staff, but also patients themselves. HIPAA regulations are in place to protect the privacy and security of patients' health information, and anyone who comes into contact with this information must adhere to these regulations.Rate this question:
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- 34.
For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) use
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DOD Regulation 6025.18-R
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AFJI 44–17.
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AFI 41–210
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AFI 33–332.
Correct Answer
A. DOD Regulation 6025.18-R -
- 35.
Which model is the correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH)?
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Physician-led model.
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Nurse-led model.
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Air Force-led model.
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Team-based model.
Correct Answer
A. Team-based model.Explanation
The correct type for Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is the team-based model. PCMH focuses on providing comprehensive and coordinated care to patients, with a team of healthcare professionals working together to meet their needs. This model emphasizes collaboration between physicians, nurses, and other healthcare providers to ensure patient-centered care, improve access, and enhance the overall quality of healthcare delivery.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Why is it important to ensure medical abbreviations, documentation and terminology are written accurately and legibly?
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Avoid ambiguity and prevent expensive lawsuits.
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Avoid the need to re-write notes in a patient’s medical chart.
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Provide inspectors a document that is easy for them to critique.
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Provide clear and concise patient information and patient safety.
Correct Answer
A. Provide clear and concise patient information and patient safety.Explanation
Ensuring that medical abbreviations, documentation, and terminology are written accurately and legibly is important because it provides clear and concise patient information and promotes patient safety. Accurate and legible documentation helps healthcare professionals understand the patient's condition, medical history, and treatment plan, reducing the risk of errors and miscommunication. It also facilitates effective coordination of care among healthcare providers. Additionally, clear and concise documentation is crucial for accurate billing and coding, ensuring that patients receive the appropriate healthcare services and preventing potential financial issues.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Odors are described as belonging to which of these groups?
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Seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.
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Six primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.
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Five primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.
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Four primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.
Correct Answer
A. Seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them.Explanation
The correct answer is seven primary odors, or a combination of at least two of them. This means that odors can be categorized into seven main groups, and they can also be a combination of two or more of these groups.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What is the only vein that carries oxygenated blood?
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Aorta
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Pulmonary
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Superior vena cava
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Inferior vena cava
Correct Answer
A. PulmonaryExplanation
The correct answer is pulmonary because the pulmonary vein is the only vein in the body that carries oxygenated blood. After receiving oxygen from the lungs, the blood is transported back to the heart through the pulmonary veins and then pumped out to the rest of the body through the arteries. The other options mentioned, such as the aorta, superior vena cava, and inferior vena cava, carry deoxygenated blood.Rate this question:
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- 39.
During inhalation, the intercostal muscular contraction permits the ribs to move
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Back and slightly upward.
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Back and slightly downward
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Forward and slightly upward.
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Forward and slightly downward.
Correct Answer
A. Forward and slightly upward.Explanation
During inhalation, the intercostal muscles contract, causing the ribs to move forward and slightly upward. This movement creates more space in the chest cavity, allowing the lungs to expand and fill with air. The contraction of the intercostal muscles also helps to lift the ribcage, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This upward and forward movement of the ribs is essential for proper breathing and the intake of oxygen.Rate this question:
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- 40.
What is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached?
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Ova
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Menses
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Estrogen
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Menarche
Correct Answer
A. MenarcheExplanation
Menarche is the term used to describe the first menstrual cycle that occurs once puberty is reached. It refers to the onset of menstruation in girls, marking the beginning of their reproductive years. This is a significant milestone in a girl's life as it signifies the maturation of the reproductive system. The other options, ova, menses, and estrogen, are not specifically related to the first menstrual cycle but rather refer to eggs, the menstrual flow, and a hormone, respectively.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Tactical doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?
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The Environmental Protection Agency because they establish rules and regulation such as fuel economy.
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An automobile manufacturer such as Ford or Dodge because they design vehicles with broad functions and capabilities in mind.
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An automotive designer because they use historical data such as size and gas mileage to develop vehicle structure
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A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factors
Correct Answer
A. A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed or safety factorsExplanation
Tactical doctrine refers to the specific strategies and actions taken by an entity to achieve its objectives. In this context, a car buyer can be seen as the best example of tactical doctrine because they have the ability to choose specific qualities in a vehicle that align with their individual needs and preferences, such as speed or safety factors. By selecting a car based on these specific qualities, the car buyer is effectively implementing a tactical approach to meet their transportation requirements.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is the total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25?
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32
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51
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86
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94
Correct Answer
A. 86Explanation
The total number of personnel assigned to the Expeditionary Medical Support (EMEDS) +25 is 86.Rate this question:
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- 43.
To fully understand task knowledge, what step is used to assess your ability?
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Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.
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Follow sequence in the proficiency task listing
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Determine the final step needed to complete the the task
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Review the CFETP and identify task in the Part I specialty training standard
Correct Answer
A. Name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task.Explanation
To fully understand task knowledge, the step used to assess your ability is to name parts, tools, and simple facts about the task. This involves identifying and recognizing the different components, tools, and basic information related to the task at hand. By being able to name these elements, it indicates a level of understanding and familiarity with the task, which is crucial for fully comprehending and executing it effectively.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Who is responsible to lead their teams and establish clear standards for the workcenter?
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Commander
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Supervisors
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First Sergeant
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Superintendent
Correct Answer
A. SupervisorsExplanation
Supervisors are responsible for leading their teams and establishing clear standards for the workcenter. They are in charge of overseeing the day-to-day operations, providing guidance and direction to their subordinates, and ensuring that tasks are completed efficiently and effectively. Supervisors play a crucial role in maintaining discipline, enforcing policies and procedures, and fostering a positive work environment. They are accountable for the performance and development of their team members, and they are the primary point of contact for addressing any issues or concerns within the workcenter.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Who is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under control of the Air Force?
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Each individual.
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Unit supervisor
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Group commander
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Account custodian
Correct Answer
A. Each individual.Explanation
Each individual is responsible for the control, care, use, and safeguarding of public property under the control of the Air Force. This means that every person within the Air Force has a duty to ensure that public property is properly maintained and protected. This responsibility is not limited to specific ranks or positions, but applies to everyone within the organization. By holding each individual accountable, the Air Force ensures that there is a collective effort to protect public property and prevent any misuse or damage.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?
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Accept the item; once an item is ordered you must receive it when it arrives.
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Build extra supply inventory; it is always better to have extra supplies on hand.
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Tell the Medical Equipment Management Office (MEMO) you did not order the item and that you will not pay for it.
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Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.
Correct Answer
A. Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.Explanation
The property custodian should attempt to cancel the order through MEMO if a backorder item is no longer needed. This is the appropriate action to take in order to prevent the unnecessary receipt and payment for an item that is not needed.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns?
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District sales and maintenance representative.
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Base supply and equipment maintenance.
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Biomedical equipment repair technician.
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Original equipment manufacturer.
Correct Answer
A. Biomedical equipment repair technician.Explanation
A biomedical equipment repair technician is the most appropriate person to contact in order to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for medical or nonmedical equipment problems or concerns. These technicians specialize in repairing and maintaining medical equipment, so they would have the most up-to-date knowledge and expertise regarding the equipment and its procedures. District sales and maintenance representatives may have information on purchasing and general maintenance, but they may not have the specific knowledge needed for equipment problems. Base supply and equipment maintenance would likely handle general maintenance and supply, but may not have the specialized knowledge for equipment problems. The original equipment manufacturer may have information, but a biomedical equipment repair technician would be more readily available and have more specific knowledge.Rate this question:
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- 48.
You have just completed screening a patient with an appointment for blurred vision in the right eye. How should you document this information correctly?Patient complains of blurred vision-OD.
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Patient complains of blurred vision-OD.
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Patient complains of blurred vision-AD.
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Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye.
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The technician informs the provider, but does not document
Correct Answer
A. Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye.Explanation
The correct answer is "Patient complains of blurred vision-right eye." This is the correct way to document the information because it specifically states that the patient is experiencing blurred vision in the right eye. The abbreviation "OD" stands for "oculus dexter," which means right eye, so it is the appropriate term to use in this case. The other options either use incorrect terminology or do not provide enough detail about the location of the blurred vision.Rate this question:
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- 49.
You would not find which component in the cytoplasm of a cell?
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Nucleus
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Centrosomes.
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Golgi apparatus
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Endoplasmic reticulum.
Correct Answer
A. NucleusExplanation
The question is asking which component would not be found in the cytoplasm of a cell. The cytoplasm is the fluid inside the cell that surrounds the nucleus. The correct answer is "Nucleus" because the nucleus is a distinct organelle that is separate from the cytoplasm. The nucleus is typically located in the center of the cell and contains the cell's DNA. The other options, centrosomes, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum, are all organelles that are found within the cytoplasm of a cell.Rate this question:
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Mar 21, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jun 12, 2020Quiz Created by
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