Time Quality Management Quiz Question & Answers

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Time Quality Management Quiz Question & Answers - Quiz

Time quality management is a continuous process that detects errors. Our time quality management quiz questions and answers will test your knowledge of this process. Can you answer all the questions correctly without any issues? Let's find out! You are expected to answer all the questions, and the results will be given only after you've attempted the quiz We challenge you to get all the questions right! All the very best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    ISO 9000 and total quality are interchangeable.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 and total quality are not interchangeable. ISO 9000 is a set of standards that provide guidelines for quality management systems, while total quality is a management approach that focuses on continuous improvement and customer satisfaction. While ISO 9000 can be used as a tool to implement total quality, they are not the same thing.

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  • 2. 

    ISO 9000 is compatible with, and can be a subset of total quality.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 is a set of standards that focuses on quality management systems. It provides guidelines for organizations to ensure that their products and services consistently meet customer requirements and enhance customer satisfaction. Total quality, on the other hand, is a management approach that emphasizes the involvement of all employees in continuously improving the quality of products, services, and processes. ISO 9000 is compatible with total quality because it provides a framework for organizations to establish and maintain a quality management system, which is an essential component of total quality. Therefore, ISO 9000 can be considered a subset of total quality.

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  • 3. 

    ISO 9000 is never implemented in a non-total quality environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    B. False
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 can be implemented in a non-total quality environment. ISO 9000 is a set of international standards that provide guidelines for quality management systems. While ISO 9000 promotes the adoption of a total quality approach, it does not require a company to have a fully implemented total quality environment in order to implement the standards. Therefore, the statement that ISO 9000 is never implemented in a non-total quality environment is false.

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  • 4. 

    ISO 9000 can improve operations in a traditional environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 is a set of international standards that provide guidelines for quality management systems. Implementing ISO 9000 can help improve operations in a traditional environment by promoting a systematic approach to quality management, enhancing customer satisfaction, increasing efficiency, and reducing errors and waste. The standards focus on areas such as management commitment, customer focus, process approach, continual improvement, and evidence-based decision making. By adhering to these standards, organizations can establish effective quality management systems and improve their overall operations.

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  • 5. 

    ISO 9000 may be redundant in a mature total quality environment.

    • A.

      True

    • B.

      False

    Correct Answer
    A. True
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 is a set of international standards that provide guidelines for quality management systems. These standards are designed to ensure that organizations consistently meet customer requirements and enhance customer satisfaction. However, in a mature total quality environment, where the organization has already implemented robust quality management practices, ISO 9000 may be redundant. This is because the organization has already established effective quality processes and systems that meet or exceed the requirements of ISO 9000. Therefore, in such a scenario, ISO 9000 may not add significant value and can be considered redundant.

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  • 6. 

    All of the following are Quality Management Principles of ISO 9000:2000 EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Customer focus

    • B.

      Process approach

    • C.

      Quality system

    • D.

      Continual improvement

    Correct Answer
    D. Continual improvement
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "continual improvement" because it is not one of the Quality Management Principles of ISO 9000:2000. ISO 9000:2000 focuses on principles such as customer focus, process approach, and quality system, which aim to enhance customer satisfaction, improve efficiency, and ensure consistent quality. Continual improvement, although important in quality management, is not specifically mentioned as one of the principles in this particular ISO standard.

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  • 7. 

    All of the following are Quality Management Principles of ISO 9000:2000 EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Customer focus

    • B.

      Process approach

    • C.

      Quality system

    • D.

      Continual improvement

    Correct Answer
    D. Continual improvement
    Explanation
    ISO 9000:2000 is a set of quality management principles that organizations can use to improve their processes and overall performance. One of these principles is continual improvement, which refers to the ongoing effort to enhance processes, products, and services. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that continual improvement is not a Quality Management Principle of ISO 9000:2000.

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  • 8. 

    The largest adopter of ISO 9000:2000 is

    • A.

      Government

    • B.

      Manufacturing

    • C.

      Retail.

    • D.

      Service

    Correct Answer
    B. Manufacturing
    Explanation
    Manufacturing is the largest adopter of ISO 9000:2000 because this quality management system is particularly beneficial in ensuring consistent product quality, improving customer satisfaction, and enhancing overall efficiency in manufacturing processes. ISO 9000:2000 provides a framework for implementing quality management principles, which is crucial in the manufacturing industry to meet regulatory requirements, reduce waste, and maintain a competitive edge. Additionally, manufacturing companies often have complex supply chains and multiple stakeholders, making ISO 9000:2000 an essential tool for effectively managing these aspects of their operations.

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  • 9. 

    ISO 9000:2000 recertification is required every:

    • A.

      3 years.

    • B.

      5 years.

    • C.

      7 years.

    • D.

      8 years.

    Correct Answer
    A. 3 years.
    Explanation
    ISO 9000:2000 recertification is required every 3 years because ISO 9000:2000 is an international standard for quality management systems. It sets criteria for a quality management system and requires organizations to undergo regular audits to ensure compliance. The 3-year recertification cycle ensures that organizations continue to meet the requirements of the standard and maintain their certification. This periodic review helps organizations identify areas for improvement and ensures that they are consistently delivering quality products or services to their customers.

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  • 10. 

    The following statements reflect features of ISO 9000:2000 except one. Identify the exception.

    • A.

      It requires organizations to have a planned process for improvement.

    • B.

      Its focus is on “document what you do” requirements.

    • C.

      It stresses evaluation of training effectiveness

    • D.

      It is based on the premise that certain generic characteristics of management practices can be standardized

    Correct Answer
    B. Its focus is on “document what you do” requirements.
    Explanation
    ISO 9000:2000 is a standard that focuses on the improvement of organizations through a planned process, evaluation of training effectiveness, and standardization of certain management practices. However, it does not specifically emphasize the requirement of documenting what an organization does.

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  • 11. 

    Appropriate motives for adopting ISO 9000 include which of the following?

    • A.

      To create a quality management system

    • B.

      To improve operations

    • C.

      To conform to the requirements of customers

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The appropriate motives for adopting ISO 9000 include creating a quality management system, improving operations, and conforming to the requirements of customers. By implementing ISO 9000, organizations can establish a framework for consistently delivering high-quality products or services, optimize their processes to enhance efficiency and effectiveness, and meet the expectations and demands of their customers. Therefore, all of the given options are valid reasons for adopting ISO 9000.

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  • 12. 

    Which of the following documentation are included in the quality system?

    • A.

      A quality policy

    • B.

      Customer focus

    • C.

      Commitment

    • D.

      Teamwork

    Correct Answer
    A. A quality policy
    Explanation
    A quality policy is included in the quality system because it serves as a formal statement by the organization's management regarding their commitment to providing quality products or services. It outlines the organization's objectives and principles related to quality and serves as a guide for decision-making and actions within the organization. A quality policy helps to ensure that all employees are aware of the organization's quality goals and are working towards achieving them.

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  • 13. 

    Which of the following statements outline the relationship factor?

    • A.

      ISO 9000 and total quality are not in competition

    • B.

      ISO 9000 and total quality are not interchangeable

    • C.

      ISO 9000 is compatible with total quality

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the given statements outline the relationship factor between ISO 9000 and total quality. The first statement suggests that ISO 9000 and total quality are not in competition with each other. The second statement indicates that ISO 9000 and total quality are not interchangeable, implying that they are distinct concepts. The third statement states that ISO 9000 is compatible with total quality, suggesting that they can coexist and complement each other. Therefore, all three statements highlight different aspects of the relationship factor between ISO 9000 and total quality.

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  • 14. 

    The characteristics of total quality are:

    • A.

      Scientific approach to problem solving and decision making

    • B.

      Concerned only with quality management procedures

    • C.

      Unity of purpose—all employees, all levels

    • D.

      Both A & C

    Correct Answer
    D. Both A & C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Both A & C". This means that the characteristics of total quality include both a scientific approach to problem solving and decision making, as well as unity of purpose among all employees at all levels. This suggests that total quality management is not only concerned with quality management procedures, but also emphasizes the importance of a systematic and data-driven approach to solving problems and making decisions, as well as the need for all employees to work towards a common goal.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following statements are true concerning ISO 9000?

    • A.

      The aim of ISO 9000 is to transform organizations into competitive players in the global marketplace

    • B.

      The aim of ISO 9000 was to create a universally recognized family of standards

    Correct Answer
    B. The aim of ISO 9000 was to create a universally recognized family of standards
    Explanation
    ISO 9000 was developed with the aim of creating a universally recognized family of standards. These standards were designed to provide guidelines for quality management systems in organizations. The goal was to establish a common framework that could be implemented by organizations globally, helping them to improve their overall quality management practices and enhance their competitiveness in the global marketplace.

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  • 16. 

    List six statements that summarize the competitive scope of ISO 9000 and total quality.

  • 17. 

    Explain the origins of ISO 9000 and total quality.  How are they different?

  • 18. 

    Contrast the aims of ISO 9000 and total quality.

  • 19. 

    List three appropriate reasons for implementing ISO 9000.

  • 20. 

    What is the most appropriate rationale for implementing total quality?

  • 21. 

    Describe how you would use ISO 9000 as an entry into total quality?

  • 22. 

    An organization must address certain key practices to achieve a strategic focus on performance excellence. Which of the following is not one of them?

    • A.

      Gather and analyze relevant data and information pertaining to such factors as the organizations strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

    • B.

      Develop and refine a systematic approach for conducting strategic planning and setting strategic objectives

    • C.

      Understand the competitive environment, the principal factors that determine success, the organization’s core competencies, and strategic challenges.

    • D.

      Execute mergers and acquisitions, with an aim to expand business globally and to form coalitions and cartels to achieve the same.

    Correct Answer
    D. Execute mergers and acquisitions, with an aim to expand business globally and to form coalitions and cartels to achieve the same.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Execute mergers and acquisitions, with an aim to expand business globally and to form coalitions and cartels to achieve the same." This option is not one of the key practices to achieve a strategic focus on performance excellence. The other options, such as gathering and analyzing relevant data, developing a systematic approach for strategic planning, and understanding the competitive environment, are all important practices that contribute to achieving performance excellence. However, executing mergers and acquisitions and forming coalitions and cartels are not directly related to strategic focus on performance excellence.

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  • 23. 

    The Top key competencies critical for leadership effectiveness are all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      “articulate a tangible vision, values, and strategy.”

    • B.

      “be people-friendly—approachable but assertive.”

    • C.

      “be a catalyst/manager of strategic change.”

    • D.

      “get results— manage strategy to action.”

    Correct Answer
    B. “be people-friendly—approachable but assertive.”
    Explanation
    This answer is correct because being people-friendly and approachable but assertive is actually a key competency critical for leadership effectiveness. Being able to build relationships and communicate effectively with others while also being assertive and making tough decisions is an important skill for a leader.

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  • 24. 

    “A person’s ability to anticipate, envision, maintain flexibility, think strategically, and work with others to initiate changes that will create a viable future for the organization, and its competitive advantage to the organization in this way.” This definition applies to:

    • A.

      Organizational leadership

    • B.

      Strategic planning

    • C.

      Strategic leadership

    • D.

      Long-term planning

    Correct Answer
    C. Strategic leadership
    Explanation
    This definition describes strategic leadership. Strategic leadership involves the ability to anticipate, envision, and think strategically to create a viable future for the organization. It also emphasizes the importance of maintaining flexibility and working with others to initiate changes that will contribute to the organization's competitive advantage. This definition aligns with the concept of strategic leadership rather than organizational leadership, strategic planning, or long-term planning.

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  • 25. 

    Effective strategic leaders also have the capability to create and maintain the ability for an organization to learn, which is termed:

    • A.

      Absorptive capacity

    • B.

      Daptive capacity.

    • C.

      Proactive capacity

    • D.

      Strategic learning capacity.

    Correct Answer
    A. Absorptive capacity
    Explanation
    Effective strategic leaders not only possess the skills to create and maintain an organization's ability to learn, but also have the capacity to absorb new knowledge and information. This absorptive capacity refers to their ability to recognize, assimilate, and apply new knowledge, ideas, and insights from both internal and external sources. By fostering a culture of continuous learning and adaptation, strategic leaders enable their organizations to stay ahead in a rapidly changing business environment and effectively respond to new challenges and opportunities.

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  • 26. 

    The ability of an organization to change in order to deal with increasingly hyper-turbulent environments is referred to as:

    • A.

      Proactive capacity.

    • B.

      Pliability and malleability.

    • C.

      Adaptive capacity.

    • D.

      Absorptive capacity

    Correct Answer
    C. Adaptive capacity.
    Explanation
    Adaptive capacity refers to an organization's ability to change and adapt in response to the constantly changing and unpredictable nature of hyper-turbulent environments. It involves being flexible, resilient, and able to quickly adjust strategies, processes, and structures to meet new challenges and opportunities. This includes being open to new ideas, learning from past experiences, and being proactive in anticipating and responding to changes in the external environment.

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  • 27. 

    Strategic leadership can be viewed from three levels. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

    • A.

      Senior

    • B.

      Entry-level

    • C.

      Mid-level

    • D.

      Supervisory

    Correct Answer
    B. Entry-level
    Explanation
    Strategic leadership can be viewed from three levels: senior, mid-level, and supervisory. Entry-level is not one of the levels of strategic leadership. Entry-level positions typically do not involve making strategic decisions or having a significant impact on the overall strategy of an organization. Instead, entry-level positions are focused on learning and gaining experience in order to progress to higher levels within the organization.

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  • 28. 

    Characteristics of effective strategic leadership include all of the following EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Serving as both leaders and team members

    • B.

      Demonstrating the importance of integrity through actions rather than simply articulating it.

    • C.

      Thinking in terms of processes rather than outcomes.

    • D.

      Viewing employees as resources.

    Correct Answer
    D. Viewing employees as resources.
    Explanation
    Effective strategic leadership involves several characteristics that contribute to its success. One of these characteristics is viewing employees as more than just resources. Instead, effective leaders recognize the value and potential of their employees as individuals and as key contributors to the organization's success. They understand the importance of building strong relationships with employees, empowering them, and fostering a positive work environment. By valuing employees as more than just resources, leaders can inspire and motivate them to achieve their full potential and contribute to the organization's strategic goals.

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  • 29. 

    _____ leaders ensure that action plans are deployed throughout the organization so that essential tasks and projects may be accomplished in support of the strategic vision.

    • A.

      Strategic

    • B.

      Senior

    • C.

      Mid-level

    • D.

      Supervisory

    Correct Answer
    D. Supervisory
    Explanation
    Supervisory leaders ensure that action plans are deployed throughout the organization so that essential tasks and projects may be accomplished in support of the strategic vision. They are responsible for overseeing and guiding the work of their subordinates, ensuring that they are effectively executing the action plans and achieving the desired outcomes. Supervisory leaders play a crucial role in translating the strategic vision into actionable steps and ensuring their implementation at the operational level.

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  • 30. 

    The first set of questions in the Organizational Profile helps to provide a clear understanding of the essence of the organization, why it exists, and where senior leaders want to take the organization in the future. This comes under the heading:

    • A.

      Why-Where Map

    • B.

      Leadership Vision

    • C.

      Mission and Values

    • D.

      Organizational Environment

    Correct Answer
    D. Organizational Environment
    Explanation
    The first set of questions in the Organizational Profile helps to provide a clear understanding of the essence of the organization, why it exists, and where senior leaders want to take the organization in the future. This indicates that the questions in the first set focus on the external factors that impact the organization, such as the industry, market trends, competition, and regulatory environment. Therefore, the heading that best aligns with this focus is "Organizational Environment."

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  • 31. 

    A _____ might include a definition of products and services the organization provides, technologies used to provide these products and services, types of markets, important customer needs, and distinctive competencies or the expertise that sets the firm apart from others.

    • A.

      Mission statement

    • B.

      Strategy roadmap

    • C.

      Value statement

    • D.

      Leadership statement

    Correct Answer
    A. Mission statement
    Explanation
    A mission statement is a statement that outlines the purpose and goals of an organization. It typically includes information about the products and services provided by the organization, the technologies used, the target markets, important customer needs, and the unique competencies or expertise that differentiate the organization from others. It serves as a guiding principle for the organization and helps to define its overall direction and priorities.

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  • 32. 

    A firm’s _____ guides the development of strategies by different groups within the firm, establishes the context within which daily operating decisions are made, and sets limits on available strategic options.

    • A.

      Values

    • B.

      Mission

    • C.

      Vision

    • D.

      Operating directions

    Correct Answer
    B. Mission
    Explanation
    A firm's mission statement serves as a guiding principle for different groups within the firm, helping them develop strategies. It provides a clear direction and purpose for the organization, establishing the context within which daily operating decisions are made. The mission statement also sets limits on available strategic options by defining the overall goals and objectives of the firm.

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  • 33. 

    The _____ statement articulates the basic characteristics that shape the organization’s view of the future and its strategy.

    • A.

      Value

    • B.

      Mission

    • C.

      Vision

    • D.

      Leadership

    Correct Answer
    C. Vision
    Explanation
    The vision statement articulates the basic characteristics that shape the organization's view of the future and its strategy. It outlines the organization's aspirations and goals, providing a clear direction for the company to follow. The vision statement helps guide decision-making and aligns the actions of employees towards a common purpose. It serves as a roadmap for the organization's future growth and success.

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  • 34. 

    _____ set an organization’s longer-term directions and guide resource allocation decisions.

    • A.

      Management values

    • B.

      Strategic objectives

    • C.

      Core competencies

    • D.

      Workforce management principles

    Correct Answer
    B. Strategic objectives
    Explanation
    Strategic objectives set an organization's longer-term directions and guide resource allocation decisions. Strategic objectives are specific goals and targets that an organization sets for itself in order to achieve its overall mission and vision. These objectives help to define the desired outcomes and provide a roadmap for the organization's future actions and decisions. By setting strategic objectives, organizations can prioritize their resources and efforts towards achieving their long-term goals and staying competitive in the market.

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  • 35. 

    Under which heading in the Organizational Profile do the following questions appear? What is your competitive position? What is your relative size and growth in your industry or markets served? What are the numbers and types of competitors for your organization?

    • A.

      Organizational Description

    • B.

      Organizational Situation

    • C.

      Organizational Relationships

    • D.

      Organizational Environment

    Correct Answer
    B. Organizational Situation
    Explanation
    The questions "What is your competitive position? What is your relative size and growth in your industry or markets served? What are the numbers and types of competitors for your organization?" appear under the heading "Organizational Situation" in the Organizational Profile. This section typically provides an overview of the organization's current situation, including its competitive position, market share, and the competitive landscape it operates in.

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  • 36. 

    Which of the following is NOT a question that appears under the heading of Organizational Environment in the Organizational Profile?

    • A.

      What are your organization’s main product offerings?

    • B.

      What are the key characteristics of your organizational culture?

    • C.

      What is your workforce profile?

    • D.

      What are your organizational structure and governance system?

    Correct Answer
    D. What are your organizational structure and governance system?
    Explanation
    The question "What are your organizational structure and governance system?" is not a question that appears under the heading of Organizational Environment in the Organizational Profile. The other three questions - "What are your organization’s main product offerings?", "What are the key characteristics of your organizational culture?", and "What is your workforce profile?" - all pertain to different aspects of the organizational environment.

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  • 37. 

    Strategy development requires an environmental assessment of key factors which typically include all of the following EXCEPT:  

    • A.

      Career development paths of maturing workforce.

    • B.

      Early indications of major shifts in technology, markets, customer preferences.

    • C.

      Competition, or the regulatory environment.

    • D.

      Long-term organizational sustainability.

    Correct Answer
    A. Career development paths of maturing workforce.
    Explanation
    Strategy development requires an environmental assessment of key factors that can impact the organization's long-term sustainability. This includes analyzing early indications of major shifts in technology, markets, customer preferences, competition, and the regulatory environment. However, the career development paths of the maturing workforce are not directly related to the external factors that can influence the organization's strategy. Therefore, it is not typically included in the environmental assessment for strategy development.

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  • 38. 

    Effective implementation of a strategy is achieved through action plans. This is called:

    • A.

      Proactive implementation.

    • B.

      Installation

    • C.

      Deployment

    • D.

      Strategic implementation

    Correct Answer
    C. Deployment
    Explanation
    Deployment refers to the process of effectively implementing a strategy through action plans. It involves the actual execution and implementation of the strategy, ensuring that the necessary resources, systems, and processes are in place to achieve the desired outcomes. This term is commonly used in project management and technology implementation to describe the act of putting a plan into action and making it operational.

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  • 39. 

    Action plans may include all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors.
    2. details of resource commitments and time horizons for accomplishment.
    3. the design of efficient processes.
    4. creation of an accounting system that tracks activity-level costs.

    • A.

      Description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors.

    • B.

      Details of resource commitments and time horizons for accomplishment.

    • C.

      The design of efficient processes.

    • D.

      Creation of an accounting system that tracks activity-level costs.

    Correct Answer
    A. Description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors.
    Explanation
    An action plan is a detailed outline of the steps and strategies that an organization will take to achieve its goals. It includes information about resource commitments, time horizons, and the design of efficient processes. However, it does not typically include a description of the competitive position of the firm vis-à-vis competitors. This information is usually part of a competitive analysis or a marketing strategy, rather than an action plan.

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  • 40. 

    Essentially, strategy deployment links the _____, who focus on “doing the right thing”, with the _____, whose focus is on “doing things right”.
    1. management; employees
    2. leadership; supervisors
    3. thinkers; actors
    4. planners; doers

    • A.

      Management; employees a.management; employees

    • B.

      Leadership; supervisors

    • C.

      Thinkers; actors

    • D.

      Planners; doers

    Correct Answer
    D. Planners; doers
    Explanation
    Strategy deployment is the process of aligning the strategic goals of an organization with the actions and tasks carried out by employees. In this context, "planners" refer to the individuals responsible for developing and setting the strategic goals and plans, while "doers" refer to the employees who are responsible for executing those plans and tasks. Therefore, the correct answer is "planners; doers".

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  • 41. 

    ____ represents the critical stage in planning when strategic objectives and goals are made specific so that effective, organization-wide understanding and deployment are possible.

    • A.

      Mission statement development

    • B.

      Vision statement development

    • C.

      Action plan development

    • D.

      Operations planning and scheduling

    Correct Answer
    C. Action plan development
    Explanation
    Action plan development represents the critical stage in planning when strategic objectives and goals are made specific so that effective, organization-wide understanding and deployment are possible. During this stage, the broad strategic objectives and goals are broken down into specific actions and tasks that need to be executed in order to achieve those objectives. This involves identifying the resources, timelines, responsibilities, and milestones for each action, ensuring that there is a clear plan in place to guide the organization towards its strategic goals.

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  • 42. 

    Poor deployment of action plans often results from any of the following reasons EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Improperly defined organizational objectives.

    • B.

      Lack of alignment across the organization.

    • C.

      Misallocation of resources.

    • D.

      Insufficient operational measures

    Correct Answer
    A. Improperly defined organizational objectives.
    Explanation
    Poor deployment of action plans can often result from various reasons such as lack of alignment across the organization, misallocation of resources, and insufficient operational measures. However, one reason that is not mentioned in the given options is improperly defined organizational objectives. When organizational objectives are not properly defined, it becomes difficult to create effective action plans and align them with the overall goals of the organization. This can lead to confusion, lack of focus, and ultimately poor deployment of action plans.

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  • 43. 

    Poor deployment of action plans often results from any of the following reasons EXCEPT:

    • A.

      Improperly defined organizational objectives.

    • B.

      Lack of alignment across the organization.

    • C.

      Misallocation of resources.

    • D.

      Insufficient operational measures

    Correct Answer
    A. Improperly defined organizational objectives.
    Explanation
    Poor deployment of action plans can result from various reasons such as lack of alignment across the organization, misallocation of resources, and insufficient operational measures. However, improperly defined organizational objectives are not mentioned as one of the reasons for poor deployment of action plans. This suggests that properly defined organizational objectives are crucial for effective deployment of action plans.

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  • 44. 

    One of the reasons for poor deployment of action plans is insufficient operational measures. Which of the following does NOT feature under this aspect?

    • A.

      Projections into the future based on accomplishment of action plans.

    • B.

      Dedicating resources to make improvements or changes in those areas that are critical.

    • C.

      Changes resulting from new ventures.

    • D.

      Comparisons with competitors, benchmarks, and past performance

    Correct Answer
    B. Dedicating resources to make improvements or changes in those areas that are critical.
    Explanation
    This option does not feature under the aspect of insufficient operational measures because dedicating resources to make improvements or changes in critical areas is actually a recommended action to ensure successful deployment of action plans. It is important to allocate resources strategically to address the areas that need improvement or change in order to achieve desired outcomes.

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  • 45. 

    _____ is essentially a quality-based approach to executing a strategy by ensuring that all employees understand the business direction and are working according to a plan to make the vision a reality.
    1. Mis

    • A.

      Mission deployment

    • B.

      Policy deployment

    • C.

      Value development

    • D.

      Quality orientation

    Correct Answer
    B. Policy deployment
    Explanation
    Policy deployment is essentially a quality-based approach to executing a strategy by ensuring that all employees understand the business direction and are working according to a plan to make the vision a reality. It involves the systematic translation of high-level strategic goals into specific actions and targets at all levels of the organization. It aims to align individual and team objectives with the overall business strategy, ensuring that everyone is working towards the same goals and objectives. By implementing policy deployment, organizations can effectively execute their strategies and achieve their desired outcomes.

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  • 46. 

    With _____, top management is responsible for developing and communicating a vision, then building organization-wide commitment to its achievement.

    • A.

      Policy deployment

    • B.

      Value development

    • C.

      Mission development

    • D.

      Quality deployment

    Correct Answer
    A. Policy deployment
    Explanation
    Policy deployment is a process in which top management takes responsibility for developing and communicating a vision for the organization. They then work towards building organization-wide commitment to achieving this vision. This involves setting clear goals and objectives, aligning resources and strategies, and ensuring that everyone in the organization understands and supports the vision. Policy deployment helps to ensure that the entire organization is working towards a common purpose and that everyone is on the same page in terms of goals and priorities.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is NOT part of the policy deployment process?  

    • A.

      All levels of employees actively participate in generating strategy and action plans to attain the vision.

    • B.

      At each level, progressively more detailed and concrete means to accomplish the objectives are determined.

    • C.

      Middle management negotiates with senior management regarding the objectives that will achieve the strategies.

    • D.

      Employees then negotiate the final short-term objectives with the implementation teams.

    Correct Answer
    D. Employees then negotiate the final short-term objectives with the implementation teams.
    Explanation
    The given answer is not part of the policy deployment process because in the policy deployment process, all levels of employees actively participate in generating strategy and action plans to attain the vision, progressively more detailed and concrete means to accomplish the objectives are determined at each level, and middle management negotiates with senior management regarding the objectives that will achieve the strategies. However, employees negotiating the final short-term objectives with the implementation teams is not part of the policy deployment process.

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  • 48. 

    As per the policy deployment process diagram, a catchball situation occurs between the _____ stage and _____ stage.

    • A.

      Corporate vision; long-term objectives

    • B.

      Long-term objectives; mid-term objectives

    • C.

      Short-term objectives; policy deployment plan

    • D.

      Policy deployment plan; plan approval

    Correct Answer
    C. Short-term objectives; policy deployment plan
    Explanation
    In the policy deployment process diagram, a catchball situation occurs between the short-term objectives stage and the policy deployment plan stage. This means that there is a communication and negotiation process between the team responsible for setting the short-term objectives and the team responsible for creating the policy deployment plan. This catchball situation allows for alignment and agreement on the objectives and strategies before finalizing the plan.

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  • 49. 

    In policy deployment, the _____ process is called catchball.
    1. negotiation
    2. implementation
    3. review
    4. communication

    • A.

      Negotiation

    • B.

      Implementation

    • C.

      Review

    • D.

      Communication

    Correct Answer
    A. Negotiation
    Explanation
    In policy deployment, the catchball process refers to the back-and-forth negotiation and exchange of ideas between different levels of management and employees. This process involves discussing and aligning goals, objectives, and strategies to ensure everyone is on the same page and committed to the implementation of the policy. Through negotiation, ideas are shared, feedback is received, and consensus is reached, leading to a more effective and collaborative policy deployment process.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following is a tool for organizing a large number of ideas, opinions, and facts relating to a broad problem or subject area?

    • A.

      Affinity diagram

    • B.

      Interrelationship diagraph

    • C.

      Matrix diagram

    • D.

      Process decision program chart

    Correct Answer
    A. Affinity diagram
    Explanation
    An affinity diagram is a tool used to organize a large number of ideas, opinions, and facts relating to a broad problem or subject area. It allows for the grouping and categorization of these ideas into logical clusters, helping to identify patterns and relationships among them. This tool is particularly useful in brainstorming sessions or when dealing with complex and diverse information.

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