State Board Cosmetology 2

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State Board Cosmetology 2 - Quiz

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Tinea is the medical term for this problem:

    • A.

      Scabies

    • B.

      Lice

    • C.

      Itch mite

    • D.

      Ringworm

    Correct Answer
    D. Ringworm
    Explanation
    Tinea is the medical term for ringworm, which is a fungal infection of the skin. It is characterized by a red, circular rash that may be itchy and can appear on various parts of the body. Despite its name, ringworm is not caused by a worm but by different types of fungi. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication to eliminate the infection.

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  • 2. 

    Tinea capitis is the medical term for this problem:

    • A.

      Ringworm

    • B.

      Ringworm of the feet

    • C.

      Athlete's feet

    • D.

      Ringworm of the head

    Correct Answer
    D. Ringworm of the head
    Explanation
    Tinea capitis is the medical term for ringworm of the head. Ringworm is a fungal infection that can affect various parts of the body, including the scalp. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that may cause hair loss in the affected area. Tinea capitis is more common in children and can be transmitted through direct contact with an infected person or contaminated objects. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications, both oral and topical, to eliminate the infection and promote healing.

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  • 3. 

    Common disorder of the sebaceous glands resulting in extremely oily skin, often characterized by the excessive secretion of sebum, and may result in a red itchy rash whit white flakes - on the scalp, it is sometimes referred to as dandruff:

    • A.

      Rossacea

    • B.

      Sebaccous cyst

    • C.

      Psoriasis

    • D.

      Seborrhea/ seborrheic dermatitus

    Correct Answer
    D. Seborrhea/ seborrheic dermatitus
    Explanation
    Seborrhea, also known as seborrheic dermatitis, is a common disorder of the sebaceous glands that leads to extremely oily skin. It is characterized by the excessive secretion of sebum, which can result in a red, itchy rash with white flakes. This condition is often seen on the scalp and is commonly referred to as dandruff.

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  • 4. 

    The study of the functions of the human body is known as:

    • A.

      Anatomy

    • B.

      Physiology

    • C.

      Histology

    • D.

      Pathology

    Correct Answer
    B. Physiology
    Explanation
    Physiology is the study of the functions of the human body. It focuses on how different organs and systems work together to maintain homeostasis and carry out various processes. This field of study involves understanding the mechanisms behind bodily functions such as digestion, respiration, circulation, and reproduction. By studying physiology, researchers and healthcare professionals gain insights into how the body functions normally and how it can be affected by diseases or injuries.

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  • 5. 

    The study of the structures of the human body that can bee see whit the naked eyes is known as:

    • A.

      Anatomy

    • B.

      Kinesiology

    • C.

      Histology

    • D.

      Physiology

    Correct Answer
    A. Anatomy
    Explanation
    Anatomy is the study of the structures of the human body that can be seen with the naked eye. It involves examining the organs, tissues, bones, and other visible structures to understand their form and organization. This field of study is essential for medical professionals, as it provides a foundation for understanding the body's structure and how its different parts work together. Kinesiology is the study of human movement, histology is the study of tissues under a microscope, and physiology is the study of how the body functions.

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  • 6. 

    The study of the structures of the human body that cannot be seem whit the naked eyes is known as:

    • A.

      Anatomy

    • B.

      Physiology

    • C.

      Histology

    • D.

      Pathology

    Correct Answer
    C. Histology
    Explanation
    Histology is the study of the structures of the human body that cannot be seen with the naked eye. It involves the examination of tissues and cells under a microscope to understand their organization, composition, and functions. Anatomy focuses on the overall structure and organization of the body, while physiology deals with the functions and processes of the body's systems. Pathology, on the other hand, is the study of diseases and their effects on the body.

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  • 7. 

    Often referred to as microscopic anatomy:

    • A.

      Anatomy

    • B.

      Physiology

    • C.

      Histology

    • D.

      Pathology

    Correct Answer
    C. Histology
    Explanation
    Histology is the correct answer because it is the branch of biology that involves the study of the microscopic structure of tissues and cells. It focuses on the examination of tissues using a microscope to understand their organization, composition, and function. Histology plays a crucial role in understanding the structure and function of organs and body systems, providing insights into how they work at a cellular level.

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  • 8. 

    Before tweezing the brows, apply a/ an _________ to open the pores:

    • A.

      Mild alkaline cleanser

    • B.

      Mild acid cleanser

    • C.

      Mild astringent

    • D.

      None af above

    Correct Answer
    A. Mild alkaline cleanser
    Explanation
    Before tweezing the brows, it is recommended to apply a mild alkaline cleanser to open the pores. This is because alkaline cleansers have a higher pH level, which helps to break down oils and dirt on the skin's surface, allowing the pores to open up more easily. By opening the pores, it becomes easier to remove unwanted hair and reduce the chances of irritation or ingrown hairs.

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  • 9. 

    What is the purpose of applying of a non-irritating antiseptic after tweezing:

    • A.

      Kill bacteria

    • B.

      Helps prevent infection

    • C.

      Contracts the skin/ pores

    • D.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. B and C
    Explanation
    After tweezing, applying a non-irritating antiseptic serves two purposes. Firstly, it helps prevent infection by killing bacteria that may be present on the skin or introduced during the tweezing process. Secondly, it contracts the skin and pores, reducing the chances of dirt, oil, or other contaminants entering the open hair follicles and causing infection. Therefore, the correct answer is B and C, as both options explain the purpose of applying a non-irritating antiseptic after tweezing.

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  • 10. 

    BEFORE TWEEZING THE BROWS, YOU SHOULD APPLY:

    • A.

      An acid product to open the pores

    • B.

      A mild acid to close the pores

    • C.

      A mild alkaline product to close the pores

    • D.

      A mils alkaline product to open the pores

    Correct Answer
    D. A mils alkaline product to open the pores
    Explanation
    Before tweezing the brows, it is recommended to apply a mild alkaline product to open the pores. This is because alkaline products have a higher pH level, which helps to soften the skin and open up the pores. By opening the pores, it becomes easier to remove the hair follicles without causing too much pain or discomfort. Applying an alkaline product also helps to prevent any potential infections or irritations that may occur during the tweezing process.

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  • 11. 

    Immediately after tweezing the brows, alcohol is often applied because:

    • A.

      It is acid and will close the pores

    • B.

      It is acid will open the pores

    • C.

      It is alkaline and will close the pores

    • D.

      It is alkaline and will open the pores

    Correct Answer
    A. It is acid and will close the pores
    Explanation
    Alcohol is often applied immediately after tweezing the brows because it is acidic and will close the pores. Applying alcohol helps to disinfect the area and prevent any potential infections. Additionally, the acidic nature of alcohol helps to tighten the skin and minimize any redness or inflammation caused by the tweezing process. By closing the pores, alcohol also helps to prevent any dirt or bacteria from entering the open follicles, reducing the chances of breakouts or ingrown hairs.

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  • 12. 

    What stage of hair growth is known as the growth/ active stage:

    • A.

      Anagen

    • B.

      Catagen

    • C.

      Halogen

    • D.

      Telagen

    Correct Answer
    A. Anagen
    Explanation
    Anagen is the stage of hair growth that is known as the growth/active stage. During this phase, the hair follicle is actively producing new cells and the hair is growing. This stage can last for several years, and the length of the hair during this stage determines the maximum length it can reach.

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  • 13. 

    If two or more products cannot be mixed together they are said to be:

    • A.

      Miscible

    • B.

      Amphoteric

    • C.

      Immiscible

    • D.

      Nitrazenes

    Correct Answer
    C. Immiscible
    Explanation
    When two or more products cannot be mixed together, they are said to be "immiscible." This means that the substances do not form a homogeneous mixture and instead separate into distinct phases when combined. Immiscible substances typically have different polarities or chemical properties that prevent them from effectively mixing or dissolving into each other.

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  • 14. 

    The stage of hair growth in which hair  is falling out is referred to as:

    • A.

      Anagen/ growth

    • B.

      Telagen /resting

    • C.

      Catagen/ transitional

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. Catagen/ transitional
    Explanation
    Catagen is the correct answer because it refers to the stage of hair growth in which the hair is falling out. During this stage, the hair follicle shrinks and detaches from the dermal papilla, causing the hair to stop growing and eventually fall out. This transitional phase is followed by the telogen or resting phase, where the hair follicle remains dormant before entering the anagen or growth phase again. Therefore, catagen is the specific stage that corresponds to hair loss.

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  • 15. 

    Noticeably thin, white nail plate, much more flexible than normal:

    • A.

      Agnail

    • B.

      Leuconychia

    • C.

      Beau's lines

    • D.

      Eggshell nails

    Correct Answer
    D. Eggshell nails
    Explanation
    Eggshell nails are characterized by a noticeably thin, white nail plate that is much more flexible than normal. This condition is called eggshell nails because the nails become fragile and brittle, resembling the thin shell of an egg. This can be caused by various factors such as nutritional deficiencies, trauma, or certain medical conditions.

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  • 16. 

    Visible depressions across the width of the nail, often the result of illness: 

    • A.

      Beau's lines

    • B.

      Eggshell nails

    • C.

      Agnail

    • D.

      Leuconychia

    Correct Answer
    A. Beau's lines
    Explanation
    Beau's lines are visible depressions across the width of the nail and are often the result of illness. These lines occur when there is a disruption in the growth of the nail plate, usually due to a temporary interruption in the nail's matrix. This interruption can be caused by various factors such as severe illness, trauma, malnutrition, or certain medications. Therefore, Beau's lines are the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 17. 

    Condition where the skin around the nail splits, usually causes by dry skin:

    • A.

      Agnail

    • B.

      Leuconychia

    • C.

      Beau's lines

    • D.

      Eggshell nails

    Correct Answer
    A. Agnail
    Explanation
    Agnail refers to a condition where the skin around the nail splits. This condition is typically caused by dry skin.

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  • 18. 

    Condition where the skin the nail splits, usually cause by dry skin condition, is  best treated whit:"

    • A.

      Pumice powder

    • B.

      Hot oil manicure

    • C.

      Weekly manicures

    • D.

      Visit to a physician

    Correct Answer
    B. Hot oil manicure
    Explanation
    The condition described in the question is when the skin around the nail splits, which is usually caused by dry skin. The best treatment for this condition is a hot oil manicure. This treatment helps to moisturize and nourish the skin, preventing it from drying out and splitting further. Pumice powder would not be effective in treating this condition as it is used for exfoliation, not moisturization. Weekly manicures may help maintain the health of the nails, but they would not specifically target the dry skin issue. Visiting a physician may be necessary in severe cases, but a hot oil manicure is a suitable treatment option for mild cases.

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  • 19. 

    Whir spots on the nail- usually the result of injury or trauma to the nail:

    • A.

      Leucoderma

    • B.

      Leuconychia

    • C.

      Beau's lines

    • D.

      Psudomanas aeroginosa

    Correct Answer
    B. Leuconychia
    Explanation
    Leuconychia refers to white spots on the nail, which are typically caused by injury or trauma to the nail. Leucoderma is a condition characterized by white patches on the skin, not specifically related to the nails. Beau's lines are horizontal depressions on the nails, often caused by severe illness or malnutrition. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that can cause nail infections, but it is not directly related to white spots on the nail. Therefore, the correct answer is leuconychia.

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  • 20. 

    Yellow/ green spots on the nail- the result of a bacterial infection:

    • A.

      Agnail

    • B.

      Leuconychia

    • C.

      Beau's lines

    • D.

      Pseudomonas aeroginosa

    Correct Answer
    D. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
    Explanation
    The presence of yellow/green spots on the nail is indicative of a bacterial infection, specifically caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This bacterium is known to cause nail infections, leading to discoloration and the appearance of spots on the nails. Agnail refers to a torn piece of skin near the nail, leuconychia is the medical term for white spots on the nails, and Beau's lines are horizontal depressions on the nails. None of these options explain the specific yellow/green spots caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

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  • 21. 

    Part of nail assembly richly supplied whit blood vessels & endings:

    • A.

      Nail bed

    • B.

      Nail plate

    • C.

      Nail body

    • D.

      Free edge

    Correct Answer
    A. Nail bed
    Explanation
    The nail bed is the correct answer because it is the part of the nail assembly that is richly supplied with blood vessels and nerve endings. The nail bed is located beneath the nail plate and extends from the lunula to the free edge of the nail. It provides nourishment to the nail and contributes to its growth.

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  • 22. 

    Ringworm of the nail, usually indicated by either long yellow streaks whit the nail plate itself, or white patches on the nail body:

    • A.

      Tinea

    • B.

      Tinea manus

    • C.

      Tinea pedis

    • D.

      Tines urgium

    Correct Answer
    D. Tines urgium
  • 23. 

    Congenital hipo-pigmentation, or absence of melanin pigment in the body ; including the hair, skin, and eyes:

    • A.

      Vitiligo

    • B.

      Lentigines

    • C.

      Leukoderma

    • D.

      Albinism

    Correct Answer
    D. Albinism
    Explanation
    Albinism is a condition characterized by the absence or decrease in melanin pigment in the body, including the hair, skin, and eyes. This genetic disorder results in a lack of pigmentation, causing individuals with albinism to have very light or white hair, skin, and eyes. It is a congenital condition, meaning it is present from birth. Vitiligo is a different condition characterized by patches of depigmented skin, while lentigines refers to small dark spots on the skin. Leukoderma is a general term for any condition that causes white patches on the skin.

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  • 24. 

    A hereditary condition that cause hypo-pigmented spots and blotches on the skin that be related to thyroid condition:

    • A.

      Vitiligo

    • B.

      Chloasma

    • C.

      Leukoderma

    • D.

      Albinism

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitiligo
    Explanation
    Vitiligo is a hereditary condition that causes hypo-pigmented spots and blotches on the skin. It is related to the thyroid condition. Chloasma is a condition characterized by hyperpigmented patches on the skin, not hypo-pigmented. Leukoderma is a condition where the skin loses its pigmentation, but it is not necessarily hereditary or related to thyroid conditions. Albinism is a genetic condition that affects the production of melanin, resulting in very light or white hair, skin, and eyes, but it is not specifically related to thyroid conditions.

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  • 25. 

    Type of bacteria that lives on dead matter and does not produce disease: 

    • A.

      Parasites/ pathogenic bacteria

    • B.

      Saprophyte/ non- pathogenic

    • C.

      Fungi

    • D.

      MRSA/ methicillin resistant staphylococcus

    Correct Answer
    B. Saprophyte/ non- pathogenic
    Explanation
    Saprophytes are a type of bacteria that live on dead matter and do not produce disease. They obtain their nutrients from decaying organic material, such as dead plants or animals. Non-pathogenic bacteria refers to bacteria that do not cause disease in humans or other organisms. Therefore, the correct answer is saprophyte/ non-pathogenic.

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  • 26. 

    Type of bacteria that live matter and does produce disease:

    • A.

      Parasites/ pathogenic bacteria

    • B.

      Saprophytes/ non-pathogenic

    • C.

      Fungi

    • D.

      MRSA

    Correct Answer
    A. Parasites/ pathogenic bacteria
    Explanation
    The correct answer is parasites/ pathogenic bacteria. Parasites are organisms that live in or on another organism and obtain nutrients from it, often causing harm or disease. Pathogenic bacteria are bacteria that can cause disease in humans or animals. Both parasites and pathogenic bacteria can live on or inside living matter and are capable of producing disease. The other options, saprophytes and fungi, do not necessarily cause disease in the same way that parasites and pathogenic bacteria do. MRSA, or methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a specific strain of bacteria that is resistant to certain antibiotics, but it is not necessarily always pathogenic.

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  • 27. 

    A type of infectious staph bacteria highly resistant to conventional treatments such as antibiotics:

    • A.

      Parasites/ pathogenic bacteria

    • B.

      Saprophyte/ non- pathogenic

    • C.

      MRSA/ methicillin resistant staphylococcus

    • D.

      Fugi

    Correct Answer
    C. MRSA/ methicillin resistant staphylococcus
    Explanation
    MRSA, or methicillin resistant staphylococcus, is a type of staph bacteria that is highly resistant to conventional treatments such as antibiotics. This means that MRSA is able to survive and continue to cause infections even when exposed to commonly used antibiotics. This resistance is a result of genetic changes in the bacteria that make it difficult for antibiotics to kill them. MRSA infections can be particularly dangerous and difficult to treat, often requiring alternative and more aggressive treatment options.

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  • 28. 

    Pus forming bacteria that cause abscesses, pustule, and boils they grow in cluster like of grapes:

    • A.

      Streptococci

    • B.

      Bacilli

    • C.

      Staphylococci

    • D.

      Diplococci

    Correct Answer
    C. Staphylococci
    Explanation
    Staphylococci are pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters resembling grapes. They are responsible for causing abscesses, pustules, and boils.

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  • 29. 

    Emulsions are held together by addition of:

    • A.

      Binders

    • B.

      Emulsifiers

    • C.

      Gums

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Emulsions are mixtures of two immiscible liquids, such as oil and water. Binders, emulsifiers, and gums are all substances that can help hold emulsions together. Binders are often used to provide strength and stability to the emulsion, while emulsifiers help to reduce the surface tension between the two liquids, allowing them to mix more easily. Gums, on the other hand, can act as thickeners and stabilizers in the emulsion. Therefore, all of these substances play a role in holding emulsions together.

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  • 30. 

    What is the least common skin type:

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Oily

    • C.

      Dry

    • D.

      Combination

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal
    Explanation
    The least common skin type is normal. This is because normal skin is characterized by balanced oil production, few blemishes, and a smooth texture. In contrast, oily skin produces excess oil, dry skin lacks moisture, and combination skin has both oily and dry areas. Normal skin is considered less common because most individuals tend to have either oily, dry, or combination skin types.

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  • 31. 

    What is the most common skin type

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Oily

    • C.

      Dry

    • D.

      Combination

    Correct Answer
    D. Combination
    Explanation
    Combination skin is the most common skin type because it is a combination of both oily and dry skin. People with combination skin usually have an oily T-zone (forehead, nose, and chin) while the rest of the face is dry. This skin type can be characterized by enlarged pores, occasional breakouts, and dry patches.

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  • 32. 

    What is the color of tesla current that should be used on acneac skin:

    • A.

      Green

    • B.

      Orange

    • C.

      Violet

    • D.

      Blue

    Correct Answer
    C. Violet
    Explanation
    Violet light is the correct answer for the color of Tesla current that should be used on acneic skin. Violet light has been found to have antibacterial properties and can help in reducing the growth of acne-causing bacteria. It also has anti-inflammatory effects and can help in soothing the skin. Therefore, using violet light in Tesla current therapy can be beneficial for treating acneic skin.

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  • 33. 

    Tesla current is often referred to as:

    • A.

      Actinic ray

    • B.

      Violer ray

    • C.

      Blue ray

    • D.

      Cold ray

    Correct Answer
    B. Violer ray
    Explanation
    Tesla current is often referred to as "violer ray" because it was named after Nikola Tesla, a Serbian-American inventor and electrical engineer who conducted experiments with high-frequency alternating current (AC) electricity. The term "violer ray" is a play on words, combining Tesla's last name with the word "violet," which is a color associated with high frequencies in the electromagnetic spectrum.

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  • 34. 

    The largest artery of the human body:

    • A.

      Carotid

    • B.

      Vagus

    • C.

      Jugular

    • D.

      Aorta

    Correct Answer
    D. Aorta
    Explanation
    The aorta is the largest artery in the human body. It originates from the left ventricle of the heart and carries oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. It branches out into smaller arteries that supply blood to different organs and tissues. Due to its size and function, the aorta is considered the main highway for blood circulation, making it the correct answer.

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  • 35. 

    In a process known as_______, the sebaceous glans produce sebum/oil to lubricate the skin; thus keeping it sift &pliable:

    • A.

      Secretion

    • B.

      Tewl

    • C.

      Excretion

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Secretion
    Explanation
    In a process known as secretion, the sebaceous glands produce sebum/oil to lubricate the skin, thus keeping it soft and pliable.

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  • 36. 

    In a process known as _______, the sudoriferous gland produce H20; the water lost through perspiration take salt and other chemicals whit it and helps to regulate body temperature:

    • A.

      Absorption

    • B.

      Excretion

    • C.

      Secretion

    • D.

      Protection

    Correct Answer
    B. Excretion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is excretion. Excretion refers to the process of eliminating waste products from the body. In this case, the sudoriferous glands produce water (H2O) through the process of excretion. The water lost through perspiration also carries salt and other chemicals with it, aiding in the regulation of body temperature.

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  • 37. 

    The term alopecia refers to:

    • A.

      Athlestes feet

    • B.

      Lice

    • C.

      Excessive sweating

    • D.

      Baldness/ hair-loss

    Correct Answer
    D. Baldness/ hair-loss
    Explanation
    The term "alopecia" refers to baldness or hair-loss. This condition is characterized by the partial or complete absence of hair from areas of the body where it normally grows. Alopecia can occur due to various factors, including genetics, hormonal changes, autoimmune disorders, and certain medical treatments. It can affect both men and women and can lead to significant emotional and psychological distress. Treatment options for alopecia include medications, topical treatments, hair transplants, and lifestyle changes.

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  • 38. 

    Alopecia resulting from constant tension on the hair (ex:extension)

    • A.

      Post-partum

    • B.

      Androgenic

    • C.

      Traction

    • D.

      Areata

    Correct Answer
    C. Traction
    Explanation
    Traction alopecia is a type of hair loss that occurs due to constant tension on the hair, such as from wearing hair extensions. This can lead to hair breakage and eventually hair loss. Post-partum alopecia refers to hair loss that occurs after giving birth, which is a common occurrence due to hormonal changes. Androgenic alopecia, also known as male or female pattern baldness, is a genetic condition that causes hair thinning and loss. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune disease that leads to patchy hair loss. The correct answer, traction, refers to hair loss caused by constant tension on the hair.

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  • 39. 

    This type of alopecia often occurs after the completion of a pregnancy :

    • A.

      Post-partum

    • B.

      Androgenic

    • C.

      Traction

    • D.

      Areate

    Correct Answer
    A. Post-partum
    Explanation
    Post-partum alopecia refers to hair loss that occurs after the completion of a pregnancy. It is a common condition that is believed to be caused by hormonal changes during pregnancy. During pregnancy, increased levels of estrogen prolong the growth phase of the hair, resulting in thicker and fuller hair. However, after giving birth, the hormone levels drop, causing the hair to enter a resting phase and eventually fall out. This type of alopecia is temporary and the hair typically regrows within a few months.

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  • 40. 

    Genetic type of alopecia most often occurring in men:

    • A.

      Post-partum

    • B.

      Androgenic

    • C.

      Traction

    • D.

      Senilis

    Correct Answer
    B. Androgenic
    Explanation
    Androgenic alopecia is the genetic type of hair loss that is most commonly seen in men. It is caused by a combination of genetic factors and the presence of androgens (male hormones) in the body. This type of alopecia typically follows a specific pattern of hair loss, starting with thinning at the temples and crown of the head. It is also known as male pattern baldness, as it is more prevalent in men than in women.

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  • 41. 

    Type of alopecia whit unknown cause, thought to be genetic, and usually resulting in total hair loss over the entire body:

    • A.

      Androgenic

    • B.

      Universalis

    • C.

      Senilis

    • D.

      Traction

    Correct Answer
    B. Universalis
    Explanation
    Universalis is the correct answer because it refers to a type of alopecia that is characterized by total hair loss over the entire body. This type of alopecia is thought to be genetic and its cause is unknown. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is a type of hair loss that is caused by hormonal factors. Senilis alopecia refers to hair loss that occurs with age, and traction alopecia is hair loss caused by excessive pulling or tension on the hair.

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  • 42. 

    Body scrubs are contra-indicated for facial use because:

    • A.

      They are costly

    • B.

      Their abrasive base is to smooth

    • C.

      They are rough &abrasive

    • D.

      They are rough, abrasive, and the particles are too large

    Correct Answer
    D. They are rough, abrasive, and the particles are too large
    Explanation
    Body scrubs are not recommended for facial use because they are rough, abrasive, and the particles in the scrub are too large. The skin on the face is more delicate and sensitive compared to the rest of the body, so using a body scrub on the face can cause irritation, redness, and even micro-tears in the skin. It is important to use gentler exfoliating products specifically formulated for the face to avoid any damage to the skin.

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  • 43. 

    Cellur division is referred to as________, the new cells are as______:

    • A.

      Mitosis, daughter cells

    • B.

      Asexual reproduction, langerhans cells

    • C.

      Desquamation, spiny cells

    • D.

      Mitosis, langerhans cells

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitosis, daughter cells
    Explanation
    Mitosis is the process of cell division where a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process is crucial for growth, repair, and maintenance of cells in multicellular organisms. The correct answer, "mitosis, daughter cells," accurately describes the term for cell division and the resulting cells. It is important to note that the other options, asexual reproduction, langerhans cells, and desquamation, spiny cells, do not accurately describe the process of cell division and the resulting cells.

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  • 44. 

    When waxing, in what direction should the wax be applied:

    • A.

      In the direction of hair-growth

    • B.

      Opposite the dereliction of hair growth

    • C.

      Whit hard wax it does not matter, whit soft wax it should be applied in the direction of hair-growth

    • D.

      Whit soft wax it does not matter, whit hard wax it should be applied in the direction of hair-growth

    Correct Answer
    A. In the direction of hair-growth
    Explanation
    When waxing, it is recommended to apply the wax in the direction of hair growth. This helps to ensure that the wax adheres to the hair properly, making it easier to remove. It also helps to minimize the chances of breakage or irritation to the skin. Applying the wax in the opposite direction of hair growth can lead to ineffective hair removal and may cause discomfort or pain. The answer states that the wax should be applied in the direction of hair growth, which is the correct approach for waxing.

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  • 45. 

    When waxing, the removal strips should be applied:

    • A.

      In direction of hair-cgrowth

    • B.

      Opposite the direction of hair growth

    • C.

      Whit hard wax it does not matter

    • D.

      Whit soft wax it does not matter

    Correct Answer
    A. In direction of hair-cgrowth
    Explanation
    When waxing, the removal strips should be applied in the direction of hair growth. This is because applying the strips in the opposite direction can cause the hair to break or not be fully removed from the root. By applying the strips in the direction of hair growth, it allows for a more effective and less painful hair removal process.

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  • 46. 

    When waxing, in what direction should the material strips be removed:

    • A.

      The direction of hair-growth

    • B.

      Opposite the direction of hair growth

    • C.

      Whit hard wax it does not matter

    • D.

      Whit soft wax it does not matter

    Correct Answer
    B. Opposite the direction of hair growth
    Explanation
    When waxing, it is recommended to remove the material strips in the opposite direction of hair growth. This helps to ensure that the hair is pulled out from the root, resulting in a smoother and longer-lasting result. Removing the strips in the direction of hair growth may not effectively remove the hair and could lead to a less satisfactory outcome. Using hard or soft wax does not affect the direction in which the material strips should be removed.

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  • 47. 

    When tweezing, in what direction should the hair/s be removed:

    • A.

      In the direction of hair-growth

    • B.

      Opposite the direction of hair growth

    • C.

      Parallel to the skin and in the direction of hair growth

    • D.

      Perpendicular to the skin and in the direction of hair-growth

    Correct Answer
    C. Parallel to the skin and in the direction of hair growth
    Explanation
    When tweezing, it is important to remove the hair parallel to the skin and in the direction of hair growth. This ensures that the hair is removed from the root without causing any damage to the surrounding skin. Removing the hair in the opposite direction of hair growth or perpendicular to the skin can cause pain, discomfort, and potential skin irritation.

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  • 48. 

    Any substance, although usually a caustic alkali preparation used for the temporary remove of superfluous body hair by dissolving it at the surface level of the skin:

    • A.

      Epilation

    • B.

      Depilatory

    • C.

      Depilation

    • D.

      All of above

    Correct Answer
    B. Depilatory
    Explanation
    A depilatory is a substance, usually a caustic alkali preparation, that is used to temporarily remove unwanted body hair by dissolving it at the surface level of the skin. It is different from epilation, which involves removing hair from the root, and depilation, which refers to the removal of hair above the skin's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is depilatory.

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  • 49. 

    Anything used to remove the hair from the bottom of the hair follicle:

    • A.

      Epilation

    • B.

      Depilatory

    • C.

      Depilation

    • D.

      Epilator

    Correct Answer
    D. Epilator
    Explanation
    An epilator is a device used to remove hair from the bottom of the hair follicle. It works by mechanically grasping multiple hairs simultaneously and pulling them out. Unlike depilatories, which remove hair above the surface of the skin, an epilator provides longer-lasting results as it targets the hair at the root. Depilation, on the other hand, refers to the removal of hair above the skin's surface, while a depilatory is a product used for this purpose. Therefore, an epilator is the most suitable choice for a device used to remove hair from the bottom of the hair follicle.

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  • 50. 

    Depilation is a process used to:

    • A.

      Remove the hair from below the surface of the skin

    • B.

      Remove the hair from the surface of the skin

    • C.

      Remove the hair from the bottom of the follicle

    • D.

      Hair removal is yucky, I'm going to skip that part of the exa- the will understand won't they ?

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove the hair from the surface of the skin
    Explanation
    Depilation is a process used to remove the hair from the surface of the skin. This involves removing the hair that is visible above the skin's surface, without targeting the hair follicle or root. It is a temporary method of hair removal, as the hair will eventually grow back.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Dec 31, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Brayanzamago
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