Milady Cosmetology State Board Practice Test

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Milady Cosmetology State Board Practice Test - Quiz

You need to take this Milady cosmetology state board practice test today to check your knowledge of cosmetology and its basics! Not just anyone can wake up one morning and decide to be a cosmetologist; it takes hard work and many classes to be a licensed practitioner. How ready are you to tackle the licensing exam at Miladys? Take up the practice test below to refresh your memory. Don't forget to share the quiz with your friends! All the best!


Milady Cosmetology State Board Questions and Answers

  • 1. 

    In ancient Rome hair color was used by women to indicate:

    • A.

      Personal wealth

    • B.

      Maritial status

    • C.

      Class in society

    • D.

      Education level

    Correct Answer
    C. Class in society
    Explanation
    In ancient Rome, hair color was used by women to indicate their class in society. The color of a woman's hair was seen as a reflection of her social status and was often used as a way to differentiate between the upper class and lower class. Women from higher social classes would often dye their hair blonde or wear blonde wigs, as this was considered a desirable and fashionable hair color. On the other hand, women from lower social classes would typically have darker hair colors. Therefore, hair color was an important indicator of one's social standing in ancient Roman society.

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  • 2. 

    The barber pole has its roots of origin in what profession?

    • A.

      Medicine

    • B.

      Education

    • C.

      Blacksmithing

    • D.

      Psychology

    Correct Answer
    A. Medicine
    Explanation
    The barber pole has its roots in the profession of medicine. In the past, barbers not only cut hair but also performed medical procedures such as bloodletting and tooth extractions. The red and white stripes on the barber pole represent blood and bandages, respectively, while the blue symbolizes veins. This tradition originated from the belief that barbers possessed the skills to perform minor surgeries and other medical treatments. Over time, the barber pole became a symbol associated with the medical profession.

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  • 3. 

    To achieve a look of greater intelligence during the renaissance women:

    • A.

      Wore highly colored lip preperations

    • B.

      Shaved their eyebrows and hairline

    • C.

      Wore elaborate elegant clothing

    • D.

      Dyed their hair black or dark brown

    Correct Answer
    B. Shaved their eyebrows and hairline
    Explanation
    During the Renaissance, women shaved their eyebrows and hairline to achieve a look of greater intelligence. This practice was popular because a high forehead and a prominent brow were considered signs of beauty and intelligence during that time. By removing their eyebrows and shaving their hairline, women could create the illusion of a larger forehead, which was seen as a desirable trait. This beauty trend was influenced by the ideals of the era and was believed to enhance a woman's appearance and social standing.

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  • 4. 

    A popular method of adding color to the face during the victorian age was to:

    • A.

      Pinch the cheeks to induce natural color

    • B.

      Wear pale shades of rouge

    • C.

      Apply brightly colored preparations to the lips

    • D.

      Wear beauty masks made of natural ingredients

    Correct Answer
    A. Pinch the cheeks to induce natural color
    Explanation
    During the Victorian age, one popular method of adding color to the face was to pinch the cheeks. This action would stimulate blood flow to the cheeks, resulting in a natural flush of color. This practice was considered desirable as it gave the appearance of good health and vitality. Additionally, wearing pale shades of rouge or applying brightly colored preparations to the lips were also common methods of enhancing facial color during this time. However, the specific method of pinching the cheeks was particularly favored for its simplicity and natural effect.

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  • 5. 

    In 1938 Arnold F Willatt developed a method of permanent waving that used waving lotion with no heat called a:

    • A.

      Color wave

    • B.

      Medium wave

    • C.

      Cold wave

    • D.

      Hair wave

    Correct Answer
    C. Cold wave
    Explanation
    Arnold F Willatt developed a method of permanent waving in 1938 that used waving lotion without heat. This method was called a "cold wave".

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  • 6. 

    In 1932 Charles Revson of Revlon marketed the first:

    • A.

      Nail polish

    • B.

      Commercial hair dye

    • C.

      Mascara

    • D.

      Lipstick

    Correct Answer
    A. Nail polish
    Explanation
    Charles Revson of Revlon marketed the first nail polish in 1932. This innovation revolutionized the beauty industry by providing a convenient and affordable way for individuals to enhance the appearance of their nails. Nail polish quickly gained popularity and became a staple in the cosmetic industry. Its introduction paved the way for the development of various nail polish colors, finishes, and trends that we see today.

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  • 7. 

    Your clothing should always be stylish and:

    • A.

      Functional

    • B.

      Formal

    • C.

      Highly accessorized

    • D.

      Colorful

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional
    Explanation
    Functional clothing refers to garments that are designed to serve a specific purpose or function. In the context of the given statement, it implies that clothing should not only be fashionable but also practical and useful. This means that the clothes should be comfortable, durable, and suitable for the intended activities or occasions. By prioritizing functionality, individuals can ensure that their clothing choices not only look good but also serve a practical purpose in their daily lives.

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  • 8. 

    The inability to cope with a threat, real or imagined, is:

    • A.

      Relaxation

    • B.

      Personalities

    • C.

      Epidemic

    • D.

      Stress

    Correct Answer
    D. Stress
    Explanation
    Stress refers to the inability to cope with a threat, whether it is real or imagined. When individuals experience stress, they may feel overwhelmed, anxious, or unable to handle the situation at hand. This can manifest in physical symptoms such as increased heart rate, difficulty sleeping, or changes in appetite. Stress can have negative effects on mental and physical health if not managed properly. Therefore, the correct answer for this question is stress.

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  • 9. 

    The study of how a workplace can best be designed for comfort safety efficiency and productivity is:

    • A.

      Ergonomics

    • B.

      Economy

    • C.

      Fatigue

    • D.

      Exposure

    Correct Answer
    A. Ergonomics
    Explanation
    Ergonomics is the study of designing a workplace in a way that promotes comfort, safety, efficiency, and productivity. It focuses on creating an environment that is conducive to the well-being and performance of workers. By considering factors such as proper body posture, equipment design, lighting, and layout, ergonomics aims to optimize the physical and psychological well-being of employees, ultimately enhancing their productivity and reducing the risk of work-related injuries or illnesses.

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  • 10. 

    Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS's) are obtained from:

    • A.

      The EPA

    • B.

      The salon manager or owner

    • C.

      The product manufacturer

    • D.

      OSHA

    Correct Answer
    C. The product manufacturer
    Explanation
    Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS's) are obtained from the product manufacturer. MSDS's provide important information about the potential hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response measures for a specific product. It is the responsibility of the product manufacturer to provide these sheets to ensure that users have access to accurate and up-to-date safety information. The EPA and OSHA may also have regulations regarding MSDS's, but they are not the source of obtaining these sheets. Salon managers or owners may have copies of MSDS's, but they typically obtain them from the product manufacturer.

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  • 11. 

    One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are:

    • A.

      Boils

    • B.

      Bacteria

    • C.

      Decayed matter

    • D.

      Parasites

    Correct Answer
    B. Bacteria
    Explanation
    Bacteria are one-celled microorganisms that can exhibit characteristics of both plants and animals. They are classified as prokaryotes, lacking a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Bacteria can photosynthesize like plants, using sunlight to produce energy, or they can consume organic matter like animals. This dual ability to obtain energy from different sources is what gives bacteria their unique characteristics.

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  • 12. 

    In the human body, nonpathogenic bavteria help metabolize food, protect against infectious mircroorganisms and:

    • A.

      Prevent gastrointestinal disorders

    • B.

      Stimulate the immune response

    • C.

      Stimulate the useful functions

    • D.

      Stimulate useful secretions

    Correct Answer
    B. Stimulate the immune response
    Explanation
    Nonpathogenic bacteria in the human body stimulate the immune response. This means that they enhance the body's ability to defend itself against harmful pathogens and infections. These bacteria activate and strengthen the immune system, making it more effective in recognizing and eliminating foreign invaders. By stimulating the immune response, nonpathogenic bacteria contribute to overall health and wellbeing by preventing and reducing the risk of infections and diseases.

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  • 13. 

    A type of pathogenic bacteria that require living matter for growth are:

    • A.

      Phenols

    • B.

      Peroxide

    • C.

      Parasites

    • D.

      Viruses

    Correct Answer
    C. Parasites
    Explanation
    Parasites are a type of pathogenic bacteria that require living matter for growth. Unlike other options such as phenols, peroxide, and viruses, parasites cannot survive and reproduce without a host organism. They rely on the nutrients and resources provided by the host to thrive and cause harm. This dependency on living matter distinguishes parasites from other types of bacteria and pathogens.

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  • 14. 

    Pus forming bacteria arranged in curved lines that resemble a string of beads are:

    • A.

      Sterilization

    • B.

      Staphylococci

    • C.

      Superiority

    • D.

      Streptococci

    Correct Answer
    D. Streptococci
    Explanation
    Pus forming bacteria arranged in curved lines that resemble a string of beads are known as streptococci. Streptococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body and can cause various infections, including strep throat and skin infections. The arrangement of these bacteria in curved lines is a characteristic feature that helps in their identification and differentiation from other types of bacteria.

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  • 15. 

    Cocci are pathogenic bacteria that are:

    • A.

      Round shaped

    • B.

      Rod shaped

    • C.

      Flat shaped

    • D.

      Spore shaped

    Correct Answer
    A. Round shaped
    Explanation
    Cocci are pathogenic bacteria that are round shaped. This means that they have a spherical or circular shape. This shape allows them to easily attach to surfaces and evade the immune system. Cocci bacteria can cause various infections in humans and animals, such as pneumonia, skin infections, and urinary tract infections. Their round shape also helps them form clusters or chains, which aids in their survival and spread.

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  • 16. 

    Bacteria that may cause strep throat or blood poisoning are:

    • A.

      Fungi

    • B.

      Spirilla

    • C.

      Bacilli

    • D.

      Streptococci

    Correct Answer
    D. Streptococci
    Explanation
    Streptococci are bacteria that can cause strep throat or blood poisoning. They are a type of bacteria that are spherical in shape and usually form chains or pairs. Streptococci are commonly found in the throat and can cause infections such as strep throat, tonsillitis, and scarlet fever. In severe cases, they can also enter the bloodstream and cause a life-threatening condition called sepsis or blood poisoning. Streptococci are not fungi, spirilla, or bacilli, which are different types of microorganisms.

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  • 17. 

    Bacteria that grow in pairs and can cause pneumonia are:

    • A.

      Diplococci

    • B.

      Diphtheria

    • C.

      Discarded

    • D.

      Toxins

    Correct Answer
    A. Diplococci
    Explanation
    Diplococci are bacteria that grow in pairs and can cause pneumonia. This type of bacteria is commonly associated with certain types of pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia. These bacteria are spherical in shape and are typically found in pairs, which is why they are called diplococci. They can cause infections in the respiratory system, leading to symptoms such as cough, chest pain, and difficulty breathing. Treatment for pneumonia caused by diplococci typically involves antibiotics.

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  • 18. 

    Bacteria that are transmitted through the air and rarely show active motility are:

    • A.

      Cocci

    • B.

      Bacilli

    • C.

      Epidemic

    • D.

      Disease

    Correct Answer
    A. Cocci
    Explanation
    Cocci are bacteria that are often transmitted through the air and do not typically exhibit active motility. They are spherical in shape and can be found in various arrangements, such as pairs (diplococci), chains (streptococci), or clusters (staphylococci). Unlike bacilli, which are rod-shaped bacteria, cocci have a round morphology that allows them to be easily dispersed through the air and transmitted from person to person. Additionally, the term "epidemic" refers to the occurrence of a widespread disease, rather than a specific type of bacteria.

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  • 19. 

    Bacilli and spirilla bacteria are both motile and use slender hairlike extensions known as:

    • A.

      Flat

    • B.

      Flagella

    • C.

      Spores

    • D.

      Spherical

    Correct Answer
    B. Flagella
    Explanation
    Bacilli and spirilla bacteria are both motile, meaning they are capable of movement. They achieve this movement by using slender hairlike extensions known as flagella. These flagella act like tiny propellers, allowing the bacteria to swim through their environment. This enables them to actively seek out nutrients and avoid harmful substances. The other options, such as flat, spores, and spherical, do not accurately describe the structures used for motility in these bacteria.

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  • 20. 

    Bacteria generally consist of an outer wall containing liquid called:

    • A.

      Photographic

    • B.

      Photosynthesis

    • C.

      Protoplasm

    • D.

      Protons

    Correct Answer
    C. Protoplasm
    Explanation
    Bacteria generally consist of an outer wall containing liquid called protoplasm. Protoplasm is the living substance within a cell that contains all the necessary components for cellular function. It includes the cytoplasm, which is a jelly-like substance that fills the cell and contains various organelles, as well as the cell membrane. The outer wall of bacteria, known as the cell wall, provides structure and protection to the cell and is composed of peptidoglycan or other substances depending on the type of bacteria.

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  • 21. 

    The life cycle or bacteria has two distinct phases the active stage and:

    • A.

      Inactive or spore forming stage

    • B.

      Inactive and infectious stage

    • C.

      Inverted and growth stage

    • D.

      Inactive and revoked stage

    Correct Answer
    A. Inactive or spore forming stage
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "inactive or spore forming stage." The life cycle of bacteria consists of two distinct phases: the active stage and the inactive or spore forming stage. During the inactive or spore forming stage, bacteria form spores as a survival mechanism when conditions become unfavorable. These spores are highly resistant to environmental stresses such as heat, radiation, and chemicals. This allows the bacteria to remain dormant until conditions become favorable again, at which point they can germinate and reenter the active stage.

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  • 22. 

    The process whereby bacteria grow, reproduce, and divide into two new cells is:

    • A.

      Mitosis

    • B.

      Membranes

    • C.

      Memory

    • D.

      Marriage

    Correct Answer
    A. Mitosis
    Explanation
    Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process by which bacteria grow, reproduce, and divide into two new cells. During mitosis, the genetic material of the bacteria is duplicated and then divided equally between the two new cells. This process ensures that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic material and allows for the growth and reproduction of bacteria.

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  • 23. 

    Bacteria that pose little or no risk to a client in the salon setting but are dangerous in the medical setting are:

    • A.

      Daughter cells

    • B.

      Anthrax and tetanus bacilli

    • C.

      Tuberculosis and thorax

    • D.

      Acquired immunity

    Correct Answer
    B. Anthrax and tetanus bacilli
    Explanation
    Anthrax and tetanus bacilli are bacteria that pose little or no risk to a client in the salon setting but are dangerous in the medical setting. These bacteria can cause severe infections and diseases if they enter the body through open wounds or contaminated materials. In a salon setting, the risk of exposure to these bacteria is minimal, as proper hygiene practices and sterilization techniques are usually followed. However, in a medical setting where patients may have compromised immune systems or open wounds, these bacteria can cause serious health complications.

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  • 24. 

    Common human bacteria transferred through skin to skin contact or by using unclean implements are:

    • A.

      Saprophytes

    • B.

      Spores

    • C.

      Tetanus

    • D.

      Staphylococci

    Correct Answer
    D. Staphylococci
    Explanation
    Staphylococci are common bacteria that can be transferred from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact or by using unclean implements. These bacteria are typically found on the skin and mucous membranes of humans and can cause various infections, including skin infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections. Staphylococci can easily spread in environments where personal hygiene is lacking or where there is close contact between individuals. Therefore, it is important to maintain good hygiene practices to prevent the transmission of staphylococci and other harmful bacteria.

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  • 25. 

    A virus can live and reproduce only by:

    • A.

      Improper use of sharp implements

    • B.

      Penetrating other cells and becoming part of them

    • C.

      Attaching to a blood-borne virus and becoming part of it

    • D.

      Poor personal hygiene

    Correct Answer
    B. Penetrating other cells and becoming part of them
    Explanation
    A virus can live and reproduce only by penetrating other cells and becoming part of them. Viruses are unable to survive and replicate on their own, so they rely on infecting host cells to carry out their life cycle. Once inside a host cell, the virus uses the cell's machinery to replicate its genetic material and produce more virus particles. This process eventually leads to the destruction of the host cell and the release of new viruses, which can go on to infect other cells.

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  • 26. 

    Disease-causing bacteria or viruses that are carried through the body in the blood or body fluids are:

    • A.

      Bloodborne pathogens

    • B.

      Bloodborne capitis

    • C.

      Bloodborne elements

    • D.

      Bloodborne scabies

    Correct Answer
    A. Bloodborne pathogens
    Explanation
    Bloodborne pathogens are disease-causing bacteria or viruses that are transmitted through contact with infected blood or body fluids. These pathogens can be present in the blood of individuals infected with certain diseases such as HIV, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C. They can be transmitted through direct contact with infected blood, needlestick injuries, or contact with other body fluids such as semen, vaginal secretions, or saliva. It is important to take precautions and follow proper safety protocols to prevent the transmission of bloodborne pathogens in healthcare settings and other environments where there is a risk of exposure.

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  • 27. 

    A disease caused by an infestation of head lice is:

    • A.

      Perpendicular

    • B.

      Scabies

    • C.

      Pediculosis

    • D.

      Peroxide

    Correct Answer
    C. Pediculosis
    Explanation
    Pediculosis is the correct answer because it refers to a disease caused by an infestation of head lice. Scabies is a different skin condition caused by mites, while perpendicular and peroxide are unrelated terms that do not relate to head lice infestation.

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  • 28. 

    Decontamination is a process that involves the use of:

    • A.

      Physical and sensory means to remove or destroy pathogens

    • B.

      Sanitation and the use of closed containers

    • C.

      Physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogens

    • D.

      Antiseptic practice and autoclaves

    Correct Answer
    C. Physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogens
    Explanation
    Decontamination is a process that involves the use of physical or chemical means to remove or destroy pathogens. This can include methods such as heat, radiation, disinfectants, or sterilization techniques. These physical or chemical means are used to eliminate or reduce the presence of harmful microorganisms and ensure the safety and cleanliness of the environment or equipment being decontaminated.

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  • 29. 

    Disinfectants must have a registration number and to be approved by the:

    • A.

      Environmental protection agency (EPA)

    • B.

      Occupation protection agency (OPA)

    • C.

      U.S Department of labor (DOL)

    • D.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental protection agency (EPA)
    Explanation
    Disinfectants must have a registration number and be approved by the environmental protection agency (EPA) because the EPA is responsible for regulating and ensuring the safety and effectiveness of disinfectants. The EPA evaluates disinfectants to determine their ability to kill pathogens and their potential impact on human health and the environment. By requiring registration and approval from the EPA, it ensures that disinfectants meet the necessary standards and can be trusted to effectively disinfect surfaces without causing harm.

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  • 30. 

    A manufacturer must supply pertinent safety and storage information by providing:

    • A.

      Material storage sheets

    • B.

      Occupational safety and health

    • C.

      Material safety data sheets

    • D.

      Material forms and invoices

    Correct Answer
    C. Material safety data sheets
    Explanation
    A manufacturer must supply pertinent safety and storage information by providing material safety data sheets. These sheets contain detailed information about the properties, hazards, and safe handling procedures of the materials being used. They are essential for ensuring the safety of workers and providing necessary information for proper storage and handling of materials. Material storage sheets, occupational safety and health, and material forms and invoices may be important for other purposes, but they do not specifically provide the required safety and storage information.

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  • 31. 

    A disinfectant that meets regulatory agency requirements for destroying bacteria, fungi, and viruses is:

    • A.

      Bacterial, pathogenic and virucidal

    • B.

      Bacterial fungicidal and virucidal

    • C.

      Bacterial solvent and disinfection

    • D.

      Hiv fungicidal and sporicidal

    Correct Answer
    B. Bacterial fungicidal and virucidal
    Explanation
    A disinfectant that meets regulatory agency requirements for destroying bacteria, fungi, and viruses must be able to kill bacteria (bacterial), fungi (fungicidal), and viruses (virucidal). This ensures that it is effective against a wide range of microorganisms and can provide thorough disinfection. The other options, such as "bacterial, pathogenic and virucidal" or "hiv fungicidal and sporicidal," do not cover the full spectrum of microorganisms that need to be destroyed.

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  • 32. 

    Common very safe, and useful types of disinfectants that contain sophisticated blends that work to disinfect implements in 10-15 minutes are:

    • A.

      Quaternary ammonium compounds

    • B.

      Quaternary peroxide antiseptics

    • C.

      Ammonium phenols and bleach

    • D.

      70% isopropyl alcohol

    Correct Answer
    A. Quaternary ammonium compounds
    Explanation
    Quaternary ammonium compounds are a common, very safe, and useful type of disinfectant. They work by disrupting the cell membranes of microorganisms, ultimately killing them. These compounds are effective against a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and fungi. They are often used in healthcare settings, food processing facilities, and household cleaning products. Quaternary ammonium compounds have a quick disinfection time of 10-15 minutes, making them efficient for use in various applications.

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  • 33. 

    To be effective in  disinfecting, ethyl alcohol must be no less than:

    • A.

      20 percent

    • B.

      70 percent

    • C.

      75 percent

    • D.

      85 percent

    Correct Answer
    B. 70 percent
    Explanation
    In order for ethyl alcohol to be effective in disinfecting, it must have a concentration of at least 70 percent. This is because a concentration of 70 percent or higher is required to effectively kill bacteria, viruses, and other microorganisms. Lower concentrations may not be as effective in disinfection and may not provide the desired level of protection against harmful pathogens.

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  • 34. 

    A dense active protoplasm found in the center of the cell is:

    • A.

      Density

    • B.

      Growth

    • C.

      Nucleus

    • D.

      Structure

    Correct Answer
    C. Nucleus
    Explanation
    The correct answer is nucleus. The nucleus is a dense active protoplasm found in the center of the cell. It is often referred to as the control center of the cell as it contains the genetic material, DNA, and regulates the cell's activities. The nucleus plays a crucial role in cell growth, division, and overall cell function.

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  • 35. 

    The chemical process of cell nourishment has two phases which are:

    • A.

      Anabolism and catabolism

    • B.

      Reproduction and anabolism

    • C.

      Anabolism and repair

    • D.

      Plasma and myology

    Correct Answer
    A. Anabolism and catabolism
    Explanation
    The correct answer is anabolism and catabolism. Anabolism refers to the process of building up complex molecules from simpler ones, while catabolism refers to the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones. These two processes are essential for cell nourishment as they provide the necessary energy and building blocks for cellular functions.

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  • 36. 

    The broad muscle that covers the top of the head is the:

    • A.

      Temporal

    • B.

      Epicranius

    • C.

      Deltoid

    • D.

      Occipital

    Correct Answer
    B. Epicranius
    Explanation
    The epicranius is the correct answer because it is a broad muscle that covers the top of the head. It consists of two parts, the frontalis muscle and the occipitalis muscle, which are connected by a tendon called the galea aponeurotica. The epicranius is responsible for raising the eyebrows and wrinkling the forehead. The temporal muscle is located on the side of the head, the deltoid muscle is found in the shoulder region, and the occipital muscle is located at the back of the head. Therefore, these options are not correct.

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  • 37. 

    The front portion of the epicranius that raises the eyebrows, draws the scalp forward and causes wrinkles across the forehead is the:

    • A.

      Frontalis

    • B.

      Occipitalis

    • C.

      Ligament

    • D.

      Temporalis

    Correct Answer
    A. Frontalis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is frontalis. The frontalis muscle is located in the front portion of the epicranius and is responsible for raising the eyebrows, drawing the scalp forward, and causing wrinkles across the forehead. It is one of the muscles involved in facial expressions and is important for showing emotions such as surprise or concern. The occipitalis muscle is located at the back of the head and is not involved in raising the eyebrows or causing wrinkles on the forehead. Ligament and temporalis are also not muscles involved in these actions.

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  • 38. 

    The sternocleidomastoid muscle is the muscle of the neck that is responsible for:

    • A.

      Raising and lowering eyes

    • B.

      Raising and lowering arms

    • C.

      Lowering and rotating the head

    • D.

      Raising the mouth

    Correct Answer
    C. Lowering and rotating the head
    Explanation
    The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for lowering and rotating the head. It is a large muscle located in the front of the neck, and it connects the sternum and clavicle to the mastoid process of the skull. When both sides of the muscle contract together, they flex the neck forward and downward. When only one side contracts, it rotates the head to the opposite side. Therefore, the correct answer is "lowering and rotating the head."

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  • 39. 

    The ring muscle of the eye socket that enables the eyes to close is the:

    • A.

      Orbicularis minor

    • B.

      Posterior muscle

    • C.

      Orbicularis oculi

    • D.

      Serratus anterior

    Correct Answer
    C. Orbicularis oculi
    Explanation
    The correct answer is orbicularis oculi. The orbicularis oculi is a ring muscle that surrounds the eye socket and enables the eyes to close. It consists of two parts, the orbital part which closes the eye gently and the palpebral part which closes the eye tightly. This muscle is responsible for blinking and protecting the eyes from foreign objects. The orbicularis minor, posterior muscle, and serratus anterior are not involved in the closing of the eyes.

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  • 40. 

    A muscle covering the back of the neck and the upper and middle region of the back that rotates and controls the swinging of the arms is the:

    • A.

      Deltoid

    • B.

      Trapezius

    • C.

      Platysma

    • D.

      Zygomaticus

    Correct Answer
    B. Trapezius
    Explanation
    The trapezius muscle is located on the back of the neck and upper and middle region of the back. It is responsible for rotating and controlling the swinging of the arms. The deltoid muscle, on the other hand, is located in the shoulder and is responsible for lifting the arm. The platysma muscle is located in the neck and is responsible for various facial expressions. The zygomaticus muscle is located in the cheek and is responsible for smiling. Therefore, the trapezius muscle is the correct answer for the given question.

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  • 41. 

    The muscles at the base of the fingers that draw fingers together are the:

    • A.

      Tendons

    • B.

      Adductors

    • C.

      Extensors

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    B. Adductors
    Explanation
    The correct answer is adductors. Adductors are the muscles responsible for moving the fingers away from the midline of the hand, which means they draw the fingers apart or spread them out. Tendons are the fibrous tissues that connect muscles to bones. Extensors are the muscles that straighten or extend the fingers, while adductors are the muscles that bring the fingers towards the midline of the hand.

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  • 42. 

    The nervous system that controls the brain, spinal cord, spinal nerves , and cranial nerves is the:

    • A.

      Central nervous system

    • B.

      Voluntary nervous system

    • C.

      Peripheral nervous system

    • D.

      Spinal nervous system

    Correct Answer
    A. Central nervous system
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the central nervous system. The central nervous system consists of the brain, spinal cord, spinal nerves, and cranial nerves. It is responsible for coordinating and controlling the activities of the body. The central nervous system receives and processes sensory information from the peripheral nervous system and sends out motor commands to the muscles and organs. It plays a crucial role in regulating bodily functions and maintaining homeostasis.

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  • 43. 

    The system of nerves that carries impulses or messages to and from the central nervous system is the :

    • A.

      Involuntary nervous system

    • B.

      Respiratory nervous system

    • C.

      Mental nerve systems

    • D.

      Peripheral nervous system

    Correct Answer
    D. Peripheral nervous system
    Explanation
    The peripheral nervous system is responsible for carrying impulses or messages to and from the central nervous system. It consists of nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. These nerves transmit sensory information from the body to the central nervous system and relay motor commands from the central nervous system to the muscles and organs. Therefore, the peripheral nervous system is the correct answer for the system of nerves that carries impulses to and from the central nervous system.

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  • 44. 

    Nerves that carry impulses from the brain to the muscles and produce movements are:

    • A.

      Median nerves

    • B.

      Motor cells

    • C.

      Spinal nerves

    • D.

      Motor nerves

    Correct Answer
    D. Motor nerves
    Explanation
    Motor nerves are responsible for carrying impulses from the brain to the muscles and producing movements. These nerves transmit signals that control voluntary muscle contractions and enable us to perform various physical actions. The other options, such as median nerves, motor cells, and spinal nerves, do not specifically refer to the nerves involved in transmitting signals from the brain to the muscles for movement.

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  • 45. 

    The largest of the cranial nerves also known as the trifacial nerve or the trigeminal nerve is the:

    • A.

      Fourth cranial nerve

    • B.

      Fifth cranial nerve

    • C.

      Supraorbital nerve

    • D.

      Maxillary nerve

    Correct Answer
    B. Fifth cranial nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the fifth cranial nerve. The fifth cranial nerve, also known as the trigeminal nerve or the trifacial nerve, is the largest of the cranial nerves. It is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain, as well as controlling the muscles involved in chewing. The supraorbital nerve and the maxillary nerve are branches of the fifth cranial nerve, but they are not the largest cranial nerve themselves. The fourth cranial nerve is the trochlear nerve, which is responsible for controlling the movement of the eye.

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  • 46. 

    The chief motor nerve of the face that emerges near the lower part of the ear and extends to the muscles of the neck is the:

    • A.

      Digital cranial nerve

    • B.

      Efferent cranial nerve

    • C.

      Radial cranial nerve

    • D.

      Seventh cranial nerve

    Correct Answer
    D. Seventh cranial nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the seventh cranial nerve. The seventh cranial nerve, also known as the facial nerve, is responsible for controlling the muscles of the face and neck. It emerges near the lower part of the ear and extends to innervate the muscles that control facial expressions, as well as some of the muscles in the neck. This nerve plays a crucial role in facial movement, such as smiling, frowning, and blinking.

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  • 47. 

    The nerve and branches that supply the thumb side of the arm and back of the hand is the:

    • A.

      Buccal nerve

    • B.

      Radial nerve

    • C.

      Skeletal nerve

    • D.

      Posterior nerve

    Correct Answer
    B. Radial nerve
    Explanation
    The radial nerve is responsible for supplying the thumb side of the arm and the back of the hand. It is a major nerve that originates from the brachial plexus in the upper arm and runs down the arm, providing sensory and motor functions to the muscles and skin in this area. The buccal nerve is not related to the arm or hand, the skeletal nerve is not a specific nerve, and there is no specific nerve called the posterior nerve, making the radial nerve the correct answer.

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  • 48. 

    The anterior tibial nerve extends to the front of the leg, behind the muscles and is also referred to as:

    • A.

      Dorsal nerve

    • B.

      Deep peroneal nerve

    • C.

      Saphenous nerve

    • D.

      Posterior auricular nerve

    Correct Answer
    B. Deep peroneal nerve
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the deep peroneal nerve. The deep peroneal nerve is a branch of the common peroneal nerve and runs along the front of the leg, supplying motor innervation to the muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg. It is responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot and extension of the toes. The other options listed are incorrect because they refer to different nerves or are not located in the front of the leg.

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  • 49. 

    A clear yellowish fluid that circulates in the lymphatics of the body and carries waste and impurities away from the cells is:

    • A.

      Pericardium

    • B.

      Leukocytes

    • C.

      Lymph

    • D.

      Blood

    Correct Answer
    C. Lymph
    Explanation
    Lymph is a clear yellowish fluid that circulates in the lymphatics of the body and carries waste and impurities away from the cells. It is a vital part of the immune system and helps in fighting infections and diseases. Unlike blood, lymph does not contain red blood cells or platelets but does contain lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell. The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in maintaining the body's fluid balance and defending against pathogens.

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  • 50. 

    The blood circulatory system that sends blood from the heart to the lungs to be purified is the:

    • A.

      Ventricle circulation

    • B.

      Pulmonary circulation

    • C.

      Carotid system

    • D.

      Lymphatic drainage system

    Correct Answer
    B. Pulmonary circulation
    Explanation
    The correct answer is pulmonary circulation. This is because the pulmonary circulation is responsible for sending blood from the heart to the lungs to be purified. In this process, deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs, where it picks up oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide. The oxygenated blood is then returned to the left atrium of the heart to be pumped to the rest of the body.

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Amanda Nwachukwu |Pharm(D) |
Medical Expert
Amanda, holding a Doctorate in Pharmacy from Texas Tech University Health Sciences Center, adeptly simplifies complex medical concepts into accessible content. With clinical proficiency, she ensures optimal patient care, while her adept medical writing skills facilitate comprehension and accessibility of healthcare information. Utilizing her education and expertise, Amanda meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and clarity. Her commitment to excellence in healthcare education drives her passion for delivering quality content, ultimately benefiting both healthcare professionals and patients alike.

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  • Current Version
  • Apr 08, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team

    Expert Reviewed by
    Amanda Nwachukwu
  • Oct 19, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Awellner
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