Important Questions For Cosmetologist's

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Important Questions For Cosmetologists - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What are not compatible with permanent waving?

    • A.

      Semi-permanent color

    • B.

      Permanent color

    • C.

      Temporary color

    • D.

      Metallic dye (gradual color)

    Correct Answer
    D. Metallic dye (gradual color)
    Explanation
    Metallic dye (gradual color) is not compatible with permanent waving because metallic dyes contain metallic salts that can react with the chemicals used in permanent waving solutions. This reaction can cause the hair to become damaged or break off. Therefore, it is important to avoid using metallic dyes before or after getting a permanent wave to maintain the health and integrity of the hair.

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  • 2. 

    When you have to use orange wood stick and cuticle pusher?

    • A.

      To loosen the cuticle or to clean under the free edge

    • B.

      Only to clean under the free edge

    • C.

      To nip excess cuticle at the base

    • D.

      To bevel at 45degree angle

    Correct Answer
    A. To loosen the cuticle or to clean under the free edge
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to loosen the cuticle or to clean under the free edge. The orange wood stick and cuticle pusher are commonly used in manicures and pedicures to gently push back the cuticle and remove any dirt or debris that may be trapped underneath the free edge of the nail. This helps to maintain the health and cleanliness of the nails and cuticles.

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  • 3. 

    What phase is growth phase of new hair ?

    • A.

      Catagen

    • B.

      Anagen

    • C.

      Telogen

    • D.

      Final phase

    Correct Answer
    B. Anagen
    Explanation
    The growth phase of new hair is called the anagen phase. During this phase, the hair follicles actively produce new hair cells, leading to the growth of hair. This phase can last for several years, and the length of the hair is determined by the duration of the anagen phase.

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  • 4. 

    What is characterized by dry, sulfur-yellow cup, like crusts on the scalp?

    • A.

      Tinea capitis

    • B.

      Pediculosis capitis

    • C.

      Tinea favosa (scutula)

    • D.

      Alopecia areata

    Correct Answer
    C. Tinea favosa (scutula)
    Explanation
    Tinea favosa, also known as scutula, is characterized by dry, sulfur-yellow crusts on the scalp. This condition is caused by a fungal infection and can lead to hair loss if left untreated. Tinea capitis is another fungal infection of the scalp, but it does not typically present with sulfur-yellow crusts. Pediculosis capitis refers to a lice infestation of the scalp, which does not cause crusts. Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition that causes patchy hair loss and is not associated with crusts.

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  • 5. 

    What is ringed hair?

    • A.

      Split hair

    • B.

      Knotted hair

    • C.

      Beaded hair

    • D.

      Alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair

    Correct Answer
    D. Alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair
    Explanation
    Ringed hair refers to the presence of alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair. This phenomenon occurs when the hair follicles produce melanin intermittently, resulting in sections of hair with different colors. It is a common occurrence as people age and their hair loses its pigmentation. The alternating bands of gray and pigmented hair can create a distinct ringed pattern, giving the hair a unique appearance.

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  • 6. 

    If the patron has severe scalp irritation with greasy white scales, what you will recommend to do?

    • A.

      Scalp treatment as regular scalp massage

    • B.

      Client should be referred to a physician for medical treatment

    • C.

      Using medicated shampoo

    • D.

      Daily using of antiseptic shampoo

    Correct Answer
    B. Client should be referred to a physician for medical treatment
    Explanation
    If the patron has severe scalp irritation with greasy white scales, it is recommended to refer the client to a physician for medical treatment. This is because severe scalp irritation with greasy white scales could be indicative of a more serious underlying condition that requires medical intervention. A physician would be able to diagnose the specific cause of the irritation and prescribe appropriate treatment to address the issue effectively.

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  • 7. 

    What is characterized by the sudden falling out of hair in round patches ?

    • A.

      Postpartum alopecia

    • B.

      Hair without medulla

    • C.

      Alopecia areata

    • D.

      Alopecia senilis

    Correct Answer
    C. Alopecia areata
    Explanation
    Alopecia areata is characterized by the sudden falling out of hair in round patches. This condition is an autoimmune disorder where the immune system mistakenly attacks the hair follicles, causing hair loss. It can occur on the scalp or other areas of the body and can affect people of any age. Postpartum alopecia refers to hair loss that occurs after giving birth, hair without medulla refers to a hair structure, and alopecia senilis refers to hair loss due to aging.

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  • 8. 

    All the following characteristics apply t the vellus hair, except:

    • A.

      Hair found on infants

    • B.

      Hair without medulla

    • C.

      Not pigmented hair

    • D.

      Hair growing under armpits

    Correct Answer
    D. Hair growing under armpits
    Explanation
    Vellus hair is fine, short, and unpigmented hair that is commonly found on infants. It does not have a medulla, which is the innermost layer of the hair shaft. However, vellus hair is not typically found in areas such as under the armpits, as these areas usually have terminal hair, which is thicker, longer, and pigmented.

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  • 9. 

    A tuft of hair that stands straight up is called:

    • A.

      A whorl

    • B.

      A shaft

    • C.

      A hair stream

    • D.

      A cowlick

    Correct Answer
    D. A cowlick
    Explanation
    A tuft of hair that stands straight up is called a cowlick. This term is commonly used to describe a section of hair that grows in a different direction than the rest, creating a noticeable and often unruly tuft. Cowlicks are usually found at the crown of the head, but can occur in other areas as well. They are caused by the natural growth pattern of the hair follicles, which can create a spiral or circular pattern.

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  • 10. 

    Healthy hair with compact cuticle layer is considered :

    • A.

      Resistant hair

    • B.

      Porous hair

    • C.

      Normal hair

    • D.

      Dry hair

    Correct Answer
    A. Resistant hair
    Explanation
    Healthy hair with a compact cuticle layer is considered resistant hair because the compact cuticle layer acts as a protective barrier, making it difficult for moisture to enter or escape the hair shaft. This means that the hair is less prone to damage from external factors such as heat, chemicals, or environmental stressors. Resistant hair is typically strong, shiny, and less likely to break or become damaged compared to other hair types.

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  • 11. 

    Hair with low porosity is considered as :

    • A.

      Normal

    • B.

      Overly porous

    • C.

      Resistant

    • D.

      Ideal

    Correct Answer
    C. Resistant
    Explanation
    Hair with low porosity is considered resistant because it has a tightly closed cuticle layer that makes it difficult for moisture and other substances to penetrate the hair shaft. This means that it is less prone to damage from external factors such as heat, chemicals, and environmental stressors. Hair with low porosity tends to repel water and products, making it more difficult to moisturize and style. It requires special care and products that can effectively penetrate the cuticle layer and provide the necessary hydration and nutrients.

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  • 12. 

    Hair with high porosity is generally result of:

    • A.

      Over processing

    • B.

      Under processing

    • C.

      Brushing hair before service

    • D.

      Giving conditioning treatment before service

    Correct Answer
    A. Over processing
    Explanation
    Hair with high porosity is generally a result of over processing. Over processing refers to excessive use of chemicals or heat on the hair, such as frequent dyeing, perming, or using hot styling tools. These processes can damage the hair cuticle, causing it to become porous and allowing moisture to easily enter and exit the hair shaft. This can result in hair that is dry, brittle, and prone to breakage.

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  • 13. 

    Process dividing bacteria into two new cells is called as:

    • A.

      Motility

    • B.

      Mitosis

    • C.

      Vegetative stage

    • D.

      Active stage

    Correct Answer
    B. Mitosis
    Explanation
    Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process by which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells. This process is commonly observed in bacteria, where it is known as binary fission. During mitosis, the genetic material of the parent cell is replicated and then divided equally between the two daughter cells. This ensures that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information. Motility refers to the ability of an organism to move, while vegetative stage and active stage are more general terms that do not specifically describe the process of cell division.

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  • 14. 

    The slender hair extension which moves bacteria is called:

    • A.

      Spores

    • B.

      Tall

    • C.

      Flagella

    • D.

      Shaft

    Correct Answer
    C. Flagella
    Explanation
    Flagella are slender, whip-like appendages that protrude from the surface of certain bacteria. They are responsible for the movement of bacteria by rotating in a propeller-like motion. This allows bacteria to swim through liquids or move across solid surfaces. Spores, on the other hand, are reproductive structures formed by some bacteria, fungi, and plants. "Tall" and "shaft" do not accurately describe the hair-like structure that moves bacteria. Therefore, the correct answer is flagella.

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  • 15. 

    Cocci, bacilli, spirilla are:

    • A.

      Saprophytes

    • B.

      Non pathogenic

    • C.

      Pathogenic bacteria

    • D.

      Harmless bacteria

    Correct Answer
    C. Pathogenic bacteria
    Explanation
    Cocci, bacilli, and spirilla are types of bacteria that can cause diseases in humans and other organisms. These bacteria are known as pathogenic bacteria because they have the ability to invade and harm the host's body, leading to various infections and illnesses. Unlike saprophytes, which obtain nutrients from dead organic matter, and non-pathogenic bacteria, which do not cause harm to the host, pathogenic bacteria can cause significant health issues and require medical intervention for treatment.

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  • 16. 

    Blood poisoning  are caused by:

    • A.

      Bacilli

    • B.

      Spirilla

    • C.

      Diplococci

    • D.

      Streptococci

    Correct Answer
    D. Streptococci
    Explanation
    Blood poisoning is caused by streptococci. Streptococci are a type of bacteria that can enter the bloodstream and cause a severe infection. They can produce toxins that damage blood vessels and organs, leading to symptoms such as fever, chills, rapid heartbeat, and low blood pressure. Prompt medical treatment is necessary to prevent complications and potentially life-threatening situations. Bacilli, spirilla, and diplococci are other types of bacteria, but they are not specifically associated with causing blood poisoning.

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  • 17. 

    What kind of bacteria are saprophytes ?

    • A.

      Parasites

    • B.

      Pathogenic

    • C.

      Harmfull

    • D.

      Non pathogenic

    Correct Answer
    D. Non pathogenic
    Explanation
    Saprophytes are a type of bacteria that obtain nutrients by decomposing dead organic matter. They play a crucial role in the ecosystem by breaking down dead organisms and recycling nutrients back into the environment. Unlike parasites, which rely on a host organism for their survival, saprophytes do not cause harm to living organisms and are therefore considered non pathogenic.

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  • 18. 

    When bloodstream carries to all parts of the body the bacteria is indicated as:

    • A.

      Local infection

    • B.

      Contagious disease

    • C.

      General infection

    • D.

      Objective symptom

    Correct Answer
    C. General infection
    Explanation
    When the bloodstream carries bacteria to all parts of the body, it indicates a general infection. This means that the infection has spread throughout the entire body, affecting multiple organs and systems. In contrast, a local infection would be confined to a specific area of the body, while a contagious disease refers to an illness that can be transmitted from person to person. An objective symptom is a measurable or observable sign of a disease, which is not directly related to the concept of bacteria spreading through the bloodstream.

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  • 19. 

    Give the example of local infection :

    • A.

      Syphilis

    • B.

      Scabies

    • C.

      Pimple or abscess

    • D.

      Common cold

    Correct Answer
    C. Pimple or abscess
    Explanation
    A local infection refers to an infection that is limited to a specific area of the body. Pimple or abscess is a suitable example of a local infection because it is a localized collection of pus caused by bacteria entering the skin through a hair follicle or oil gland. It is confined to a specific area and does not spread throughout the body. Syphilis, scabies, and the common cold are not considered local infections as they can affect multiple areas or systems in the body.

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  • 20. 

    All disinfectant used in the salon has to be :

    • A.

      Labeled

    • B.

      Inexpensive

    • C.

      Easy to dilute

    • D.

      Discarded

    Correct Answer
    A. Labeled
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "labeled" because it is important for all disinfectants used in the salon to be clearly labeled. This ensures that the salon staff knows what the disinfectant is and how to properly use it. Proper labeling also helps prevent any confusion or mistakes in dilution or application. Additionally, labeling allows for easy identification and organization of the disinfectants, promoting a clean and safe salon environment.

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  • 21. 

    What is the first step in procedure for disinfecting implements:

    • A.

      Rinse throughly

    • B.

      Put on gloves

    • C.

      Remove hair, fillings and other materials

    • D.

      Mix disinfectant according to the manufacturers direction

    Correct Answer
    C. Remove hair, fillings and other materials
    Explanation
    The first step in the procedure for disinfecting implements is to remove hair, fillings, and other materials. This is important because any debris or contaminants on the implements can interfere with the effectiveness of the disinfectant. By removing these materials first, the implements can be properly cleaned and disinfected, ensuring a safe and hygienic environment for their use.

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  • 22. 

    What is beneficial effect to ultraviolet therapy?

    • A.

      Relax muscles

    • B.

      Improves dry, scaly skin

    • C.

      Relieves pain

    • D.

      Treat psoriasis, acne condition

    Correct Answer
    D. Treat psoriasis, acne condition
    Explanation
    Ultraviolet therapy has a beneficial effect on treating psoriasis and acne conditions. This therapy helps to reduce the symptoms of these skin conditions, such as redness, inflammation, and the formation of acne lesions. The ultraviolet light used in this therapy can penetrate the skin and target the affected areas, promoting healing and reducing the severity of the conditions.

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  • 23. 

    Resistance to infection is known as:

    • A.

      Decontamination

    • B.

      Immunization

    • C.

      Immunity

    • D.

      Inoculation

    Correct Answer
    C. Immunity
    Explanation
    Resistance to infection is known as immunity. Immunity refers to the body's ability to defend itself against harmful pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. It is a complex system involving various components such as white blood cells, antibodies, and memory cells. Immunity can be acquired through natural means, such as recovering from an infection, or through artificial means, such as vaccination. Immunity provides long-term protection against specific pathogens and plays a crucial role in maintaining overall health and well-being.

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  • 24. 

    A communicable disease is:

    • A.

      Caused by non pathogenic bacteria

    • B.

      Transmitted from one to another

    • C.

      Prevented by vaccination

    • D.

      Caused by saprophytes

    Correct Answer
    B. Transmitted from one to another
    Explanation
    A communicable disease is a disease that can be transmitted from one person to another. This means that the disease-causing agent, such as a virus or bacteria, can be passed from an infected individual to a healthy person through various means such as direct contact, airborne particles, or contaminated objects. Preventive measures like vaccination can help reduce the transmission of communicable diseases by building immunity in individuals. Non-pathogenic bacteria and saprophytes do not cause diseases, so they are not relevant to the concept of communicable diseases.

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  • 25. 

    A ridge filler is applied:

    • A.

      After nail polish

    • B.

      After base coat

    • C.

      After top coat

    • D.

      Before base coat

    Correct Answer
    D. Before base coat
    Explanation
    A ridge filler is applied before the base coat. This is because a ridge filler is used to smooth out any imperfections or unevenness on the surface of the nail. By applying it before the base coat, the ridge filler helps create a smooth and even base for the nail polish to adhere to. This ensures that the nail polish will apply more evenly and last longer.

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  • 26. 

    OSHA stands for:

    • A.

      Occupational standards of health association

    • B.

      Occupational of safety and health administration

    • C.

      Oversight of safety and health administration

    • D.

      Occupational standard and health agency

    Correct Answer
    B. Occupational of safety and health administration
    Explanation
    OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. This organization is responsible for ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for employees in the United States. They set and enforce standards, provide training and education, and conduct inspections to ensure compliance with safety regulations.

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  • 27. 

    EPA stands for:

    • A.

      Environmental protection agency

    • B.

      Environmental public agency

    • C.

      East protection agency

    • D.

      Established protection agency

    Correct Answer
    A. Environmental protection agency
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "environmental protection agency". EPA is an acronym that stands for Environmental Protection Agency. This agency is responsible for protecting human health and the environment by enforcing regulations and conducting research on environmental issues.

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  • 28. 

    What is sanitation :

    • A.

      Killing all bacteria

    • B.

      Significantly reduce the number of bacteria

    • C.

      Retarding bacteria

    • D.

      Reducing non pathogenic bacteria

    Correct Answer
    B. Significantly reduce the number of bacteria
    Explanation
    Sanitation refers to the process of significantly reducing the number of bacteria. It involves various measures and practices aimed at preventing the spread of disease-causing microorganisms and maintaining cleanliness and hygiene. While killing all bacteria may not be practical or necessary, reducing their numbers to a significant extent helps in preventing the transmission of diseases and maintaining a healthy environment.

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  • 29. 

    What is the least important cosmetologist's personal hygiene area?

    • A.

      Clean shoes

    • B.

      Styled hair

    • C.

      Attractive cologne (parfume)

    • D.

      Oral hygiene

    Correct Answer
    C. Attractive cologne (parfume)
    Explanation
    The least important cosmetologist's personal hygiene area is attractive cologne (parfume). While it is important for a cosmetologist to maintain good personal hygiene, including clean shoes, styled hair, and oral hygiene, wearing attractive cologne is not essential to their job. Cosmetologists primarily focus on enhancing the appearance of their clients through various beauty treatments and services, and the scent of their cologne is not a crucial factor in achieving this goal.

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  • 30. 

    When is trimmer used for?

    • A.

      For outlining

    • B.

      Creating designs

    • C.

      For shaving facial hair

    • D.

      For each haircutting

    Correct Answer
    A. For outlining
    Explanation
    A trimmer is used for outlining the hair. It is commonly used by barbers and hairstylists to create clean and precise lines around the edges of the hairline and beard. Trimmers are designed with a narrow blade and are perfect for detailing and shaping the hair. They are not typically used for shaving the entire face or for general haircutting purposes, but rather for adding definition and finishing touches to a hairstyle.

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  • 31. 

    How can you determine which type of shampoo you have to use on client?

    • A.

      By hair color

    • B.

      By learning background of the client's hair

    • C.

      By learning composition of shampoo

    • D.

      By condition hair and scalp

    Correct Answer
    D. By condition hair and scalp
    Explanation
    To determine which type of shampoo to use on a client, it is important to assess the condition of their hair and scalp. This involves examining factors such as dryness, oiliness, dandruff, and sensitivity. By understanding the specific needs of the client's hair and scalp, such as whether it is damaged, oily, or prone to dandruff, the appropriate shampoo can be selected. Hair color, learning the background of the client's hair, and learning the composition of the shampoo may provide additional information, but they are not the primary factors in determining the suitable shampoo for the client.

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  • 32. 

    When is color filler used ?

    • A.

      Equalize porosity

    • B.

      Equalize texture

    • C.

      Equalize tone

    • D.

      Equalize condition

    Correct Answer
    A. Equalize porosity
    Explanation
    Color filler is used to equalize porosity. Porosity refers to the ability of the hair to absorb and retain moisture and color. When the hair is unevenly porous, color filler is applied to create a more uniform porosity, ensuring that the color is absorbed evenly and resulting in a more consistent and vibrant final color. By equalizing the porosity, the color filler helps to achieve a more balanced and professional-looking result.

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  • 33. 

    When is finger test used?

    • A.

      Before a hair color

    • B.

      Before toner

    • C.

      Before relaxer

    • D.

      Before perm

    Correct Answer
    C. Before relaxer
    Explanation
    The finger test is used before a relaxer treatment. This test involves applying the relaxer product to a small section of hair and checking the hair's texture and elasticity. By performing this test, the hairstylist can determine the appropriate processing time for the relaxer and ensure that the hair does not become over-processed or damaged.

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  • 34. 

    What is a hard press?

    • A.

      Comb once on each side

    • B.

      Comb twice on each side

    • C.

      Comb once on each side with more pressure

    • D.

      Comb with thermal comb, then with curling iron

    Correct Answer
    B. Comb twice on each side
    Explanation
    A hard press refers to the act of combing the hair twice on each side. This technique is often used in hairstyling to create a sleek and polished look. By combing the hair twice on each side, it helps to smooth out any tangles or knots and ensure that the hair is evenly distributed. This can result in a neater and more refined appearance.

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  • 35. 

    How does advanced nail infection can be identified ?

    • A.

      By yellow-green spots

    • B.

      By softening/smelling bad nail

    • C.

      By brown-black spots

    • D.

      By nail mold

    Correct Answer
    B. By softening/smelling bad nail
    Explanation
    Advanced nail infection can be identified by the softening and bad smell of the nail. This is because as the infection progresses, the nail becomes weaker and starts to emit a foul odor. This is a clear indication that the infection has reached an advanced stage and requires immediate attention and treatment. Yellow-green spots, brown-black spots, and nail mold may also be signs of infection, but the softening and bad smell of the nail are more specific to advanced stages.

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  • 36. 

    Why eyebrows arched?

    • A.

      For high fashion

    • B.

      Make eyes larger

    • C.

      Improve appearance of eyes

    • D.

      It is part of effective make-up application

    Correct Answer
    D. It is part of effective make-up application
    Explanation
    Eyebrows are arched as part of effective make-up application. This is because arched eyebrows can help to define and frame the eyes, creating a more polished and balanced look. By shaping the eyebrows in an arched shape, it can enhance the overall appearance of the eyes and contribute to a more aesthetically pleasing makeup look.

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  • 37. 

    What is mixed melanin?

    • A.

      Combination of pheomelanin and eumelanin

    • B.

      Combination of contributing melanin

    • C.

      Combination of only pheomelanin

    • D.

      Combination of only eumelanin

    Correct Answer
    A. Combination of pheomelanin and eumelanin
    Explanation
    Mixed melanin refers to the combination of both pheomelanin and eumelanin. Pheomelanin is responsible for producing yellow to red pigments, while eumelanin produces brown to black pigments. The presence of both types of melanin in varying proportions determines the color of an individual's hair, skin, and eyes. Therefore, mixed melanin refers to the combination of these two types of melanin, resulting in a range of colors observed in different individuals.

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  • 38. 

    Permanent waving make physical and chemical changes in what kind of bonds?

    • A.

      Peptide

    • B.

      Disulfide

    • C.

      Salt

    • D.

      Hydrogen

    Correct Answer
    B. Disulfide
    Explanation
    Permanent waving involves the process of breaking and reforming disulfide bonds in the hair. Disulfide bonds are strong chemical bonds that hold together the protein structure of the hair. By breaking these bonds and reforming them in a new shape, the hair can be permanently curled or waved. Therefore, the correct answer is disulfide bonds.

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  • 39. 

    Where we have to start application for retouch relaxer?

    • A.

      Only the new growth

    • B.

      Only the hairline

    • C.

      1.1/4 from scalp

    • D.

      1/4 to 1/2 inch away from scalp

    Correct Answer
    A. Only the new growth
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "only the new growth." When applying a retouch relaxer, it is important to only apply the product to the new growth of the hair, which is the area where the natural hair has grown out from the scalp. Applying the relaxer to any other part of the hair, such as the hairline or away from the scalp, can lead to overlapping and potential damage to previously relaxed hair. Focusing on the new growth ensures that the relaxer is applied only to the area that needs it, promoting healthy and even results.

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  • 40. 

    What should you do after removing cleanser from face ?

    • A.

      Apply treatment mask

    • B.

      Apply massage cream

    • C.

      Apply toner

    • D.

      Analyze the skin

    Correct Answer
    D. Analyze the skin
    Explanation
    After removing cleanser from the face, it is important to analyze the skin. This is necessary to determine the current condition of the skin and identify any specific concerns or issues that may need to be addressed. Analyzing the skin helps in selecting the appropriate skincare products and treatments that will be most beneficial for the individual's skin type and needs. It also helps in tracking any changes or improvements in the skin over time.

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  • 41. 

    Beautician with license of cosmetologist can perform on client following procedure 

    • A.

      Friction movement on the lower back

    • B.

      Percussion movement on the neck

    • C.

      Hacking movement on the back

    • D.

      Pinching (kneading) movement on the shoulders

    Correct Answer
    D. Pinching (kneading) movement on the shoulders
    Explanation
    A beautician with a license of a cosmetologist is qualified to perform various procedures on clients. Among the given options, the pinching (kneading) movement on the shoulders is a procedure that can be performed by a beautician with a cosmetologist license. This movement involves using the fingers and hands to gently pinch and knead the muscles of the shoulders, which can help relieve tension and promote relaxation.

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  • 42. 

    Before quick application of acrylic nails you have to apply:

    • A.

      Base coat

    • B.

      Liquid nail wrap

    • C.

      Primer

    • D.

      Nail forms

    Correct Answer
    C. Primer
    Explanation
    Before applying acrylic nails, it is necessary to apply a primer. A primer helps in preparing the natural nails for the application of acrylic nails. It removes any oils or moisture from the nails, ensuring better adhesion of the acrylic. The primer also helps in preventing lifting or peeling of the acrylic nails. Therefore, applying a primer is an important step in the process of applying acrylic nails.

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  • 43. 

    When we have to perform patch test prior application of bonded extensions ?

    • A.

      Never

    • B.

      Sometimes

    • C.

      Always

    • D.

      When needed

    Correct Answer
    C. Always
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "always." Patch testing is a crucial step before applying bonded extensions to ensure that the client does not have an adverse reaction or allergy to the adhesive used. It helps to identify any potential allergic reactions and allows for adjustments to be made before the full application. Performing a patch test always before application ensures the safety and well-being of the client.

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  • 44. 

    The stationary part of pin curl is:

    • A.

      Circle

    • B.

      Base

    • C.

      Curl

    • D.

      Stem

    Correct Answer
    B. Base
    Explanation
    The stationary part of a pin curl is called the base. The base is the foundation of the curl and is secured to the scalp with a bobby pin or clip. It provides stability and ensures that the curl stays in place. The other options mentioned - circle, curl, and stem - are not the correct terms for the stationary part of a pin curl.

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  • 45. 

    Condition filler are used for :

    • A.

      Deposit color to faded ends

    • B.

      Recondition damaged, overly porous hair

    • C.

      Prevent streaking/dull appearance

    • D.

      Produce uniform color

    Correct Answer
    B. Recondition damaged, overly porous hair
    Explanation
    Condition fillers are used to recondition damaged, overly porous hair. Damaged hair often lacks moisture and essential nutrients, making it weak and prone to breakage. Condition fillers help to restore and repair the hair by filling in the gaps and holes in the hair shaft, improving its strength and elasticity. Additionally, condition fillers can help to seal the cuticle, preventing further damage and reducing frizz. By reconditioning damaged, overly porous hair, condition fillers can help to improve the overall health and appearance of the hair.

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  • 46. 

    Do not perm hair, if:

    • A.

      Metallic color used on the hair previously

    • B.

      Client used permanent waving lotion at home

    • C.

      Client used permanent hair color previously

    • D.

      Client under 21 years old

    Correct Answer
    A. Metallic color used on the hair previously
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "metallic color used on the hair previously." This is because metallic hair color contains metallic salts that can react negatively with certain chemicals used in perming solutions. Applying a perm to hair that has previously been colored with metallic color can result in damage to the hair, such as breakage or discoloration. Therefore, it is not recommended to perm hair if metallic color has been used on it before.

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  • 47. 

    What is terminal hair?

    • A.

      Short, fine, downy hair

    • B.

      Hair without medulla

    • C.

      Not pigmented hair

    • D.

      Long, dark color hair

    Correct Answer
    D. Long, dark color hair
    Explanation
    Terminal hair refers to the long, dark-colored hair that is typically found on the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes. It is thicker, coarser, and more pigmented compared to other types of hair, such as vellus hair. Terminal hair is the type of hair that most people desire and is often associated with maturity and adulthood.

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  • 48. 

    Where coiled hair has low elasticity and breaks easily 

    • A.

      On the ends

    • B.

      On the whole strands

    • C.

      On the middle of strands

    • D.

      On the new growth

    Correct Answer
    A. On the ends
    Explanation
    Coiled hair tends to have low elasticity and is prone to breaking easily on the ends. This is because the ends of the hair are the oldest part and have been exposed to more damage from environmental factors, styling tools, and chemical treatments. Over time, the ends become weaker and more susceptible to breakage. Therefore, it is important to take extra care of the ends of coiled hair to prevent further damage and breakage.

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  • 49. 

    What phase is a signal of the end of growth phase ?

    • A.

      Anagen

    • B.

      Telogen

    • C.

      Catagen

    • D.

      Resting phase

    Correct Answer
    B. Telogen
    Explanation
    Telogen is the correct answer because it is the phase in the hair growth cycle where the hair follicle is in a resting state and there is no active growth. This phase typically lasts for a few months before the hair falls out and new hair starts to grow. Anagen is the phase of active hair growth, catagen is the transitional phase, and resting phase is not a specific phase in the hair growth cycle.

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  • 50. 

    What is mean resting phase ?

    • A.

      Final phase in the hair cycle 

    • B.

      Transition period between growth and resting phase

    • C.

      Growth phase

    • D.

      Resting phase

    Correct Answer
    A. Final phase in the hair cycle 
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "final phase in the hair cycle". This refers to the last stage in the cycle of hair growth, where the hair follicle is no longer actively producing new hair. During this phase, the hair follicle remains dormant and does not grow, until it eventually sheds and a new hair follicle begins to grow in its place.

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