Quality Management System Awareness - 4

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| By Anuragnechcl
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Anuragnechcl
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  • 1/14 Questions

    DAR Stands for

    • Define Analysis & Resolution
    • Design Approval Record
    • Decision Analysis & Resolution
    • None of the above
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About This Quiz

Enhance your understanding of risk and project management with the 'Quality Management System Awareness - 4' quiz. This assessment covers key topics like risk identification, contingency plans, and evaluation methods, essential for effective project management.

Quality Management System Awareness - 4 - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    SEPG stands for

    • Software Engineering Practice Group

    • Software Engineering Process Group

    • Software Engineering Professional Group

    • Software Engineering Practitional Group

    Correct Answer
    A. Software Engineering Process Group
    Explanation
    SEPG stands for Software Engineering Process Group. This group is responsible for defining, implementing, and maintaining the software engineering processes within an organization. They provide guidance, support, and training to the software development team to ensure that the processes are followed effectively. The SEPG also monitors and evaluates the processes to identify areas of improvement and make necessary adjustments. Overall, the SEPG plays a crucial role in enhancing the software development practices and ensuring high-quality deliverables.

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  • 3. 

    DAR is used for

    • Evaluation of alternatives

    • Defect Prediction

    • Causal Analysis

    • Cost Benefit Analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Evaluation of alternatives
    Explanation
    DAR, or Decision Analysis and Resolution, is a technique used in project management to evaluate and compare different alternatives. It helps in making informed decisions by considering various factors such as risks, costs, benefits, and constraints associated with each alternative. This process involves identifying and analyzing the available options, assessing their strengths and weaknesses, and selecting the most suitable alternative based on the evaluation criteria. Therefore, DAR is primarily used for the evaluation of alternatives.

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  • 4. 

    Risks can be broadly classified into

    • Cost & Schedule

    • Technology & People

    • Hardware & Software

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The given question asks about the broad classification of risks. The options provided include cost & schedule, technology & people, and hardware & software. Each of these options represents a different aspect of risk. Cost & schedule refers to the potential risks associated with the project's budget and timeline. Technology & people represent the risks related to the use of technology and the involvement of individuals in the project. Hardware & software indicate the risks associated with the physical components and software systems used in the project. Therefore, all of the options mentioned encompass different types of risks, making "All of the above" the correct answer.

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  • 5. 

    ________________can be referred to identify risks in the Project.

    • Organization Best Practices

    • Organization Risk Database

    • Work Environment

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Organization Risk Database
    Explanation
    An organization risk database can be referred to identify risks in the project. This database contains information about past projects, their risks, and the mitigation strategies used. By referring to this database, project managers can identify potential risks that may arise during the project and develop appropriate strategies to mitigate them. This helps in ensuring that the project is well-prepared for any potential risks and can minimize their impact on the project's success.

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  • 6. 

    SoW stands for

    • Size of Work

    • Scope of Work

    • Sample of Work

    • Statement of Work

    Correct Answer
    A. Statement of Work
    Explanation
    SoW stands for Statement of Work, which is a document that outlines the specific tasks, deliverables, and timeline for a project. It provides a clear and detailed description of the work to be performed, including the objectives, requirements, and expectations. The Statement of Work serves as a contract between the client and the contractor, ensuring that both parties have a shared understanding of the project scope and deliverables. It helps to prevent misunderstandings and disputes by clearly defining the project's goals and requirements.

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  • 7. 

    SMR stands for

    • Senior Management Report

    • Status Meeting Review

    • Systematic Management Report

    • Senior Management Review

    Correct Answer
    A. Senior Management Review
    Explanation
    SMR stands for Senior Management Review. This term refers to a comprehensive evaluation and analysis of the performance and progress of senior management within an organization. It involves assessing their strategic decision-making, leadership effectiveness, and overall contribution to the company's goals and objectives. The Senior Management Review helps identify areas of improvement, address any issues or challenges, and ensure that the senior management team is aligned with the organization's vision and mission.

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  • 8. 

    DAR Process can be applied in

    • Risk Management

    • Design

    • Process Improvement

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    The DAR (Define, Analyze, Respond) process can be applied in risk management, design, and process improvement. In risk management, the process helps in identifying and analyzing potential risks, developing strategies to mitigate them, and implementing appropriate responses. In design, it aids in defining design objectives, analyzing various design options, and responding with the most suitable solution. In process improvement, the DAR process assists in defining the current process, analyzing its flaws and areas for improvement, and responding with effective changes. Therefore, the correct answer is "All of the above."

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  • 9. 

    In NHST, Configuration Audit is a part of

    • PQI

    • PMP

    • SCM Plan

    • MPP

    Correct Answer
    A. PQI
    Explanation
    Configuration Audit is a part of the Process and Quality Improvement (PQI) in NHST. This audit helps to ensure that the configuration of the system or software being developed or maintained is in compliance with the established standards and requirements. It helps to identify any discrepancies or deviations from the intended configuration and allows for corrective actions to be taken. Therefore, Configuration Audit falls under the PQI category in NHST.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is the  phase of waterfall lifecycle?

    • Acceptance

    • Bug Fixing

    • Optimization

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Acceptance
    Explanation
    Acceptance is a phase in the waterfall lifecycle where the software is tested by the end users or stakeholders to ensure that it meets their requirements and expectations. This phase typically involves user acceptance testing (UAT), where the software is evaluated for its functionality, usability, and overall performance. It is an important phase as it allows the stakeholders to provide feedback and approve the software before it is deployed. Bug fixing and optimization are activities that may occur during various phases of the waterfall lifecycle, but they are not specific phases themselves.

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  • 11. 

    Weighted Average,Cost Benefit Analysis & Hypothesis Testing are

    • Causal Analysis Method

    • Alternative Evaluation Methods

    • Both of the above

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Alternative Evaluation Methods
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Alternative Evaluation Methods." Weighted Average, Cost Benefit Analysis, and Hypothesis Testing are all methods used to evaluate alternatives and make decisions. Causal Analysis, on the other hand, is a method used to determine cause-and-effect relationships between variables. Therefore, the correct answer is that these methods are alternative evaluation methods.

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  • 12. 

    If a risk has occured, what comes into play?

    • Invoke Mitigation Plan

    • Invoke Contingency Plan

    • Prioritize Risk

    • Invoke both Mitigation & Contingency Plan

    Correct Answer
    A. Invoke Contingency Plan
    Explanation
    When a risk has occurred, the contingency plan is invoked. A contingency plan is a predefined set of actions that are put into motion to address and mitigate the impact of a risk event. It outlines the steps to be taken in order to minimize the negative consequences of the risk and ensure business continuity. Therefore, in the given scenario, invoking the contingency plan is the appropriate response to deal with the occurred risk.

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  • 13. 

    Schedule Variance Actual (SVA) is a core metrics for

    • Maintenance Projects

    • Testing Projects

    • Enhancement Projects

    • Waterfall Projects

    Correct Answer
    A. Enhancement Projects
    Explanation
    Schedule Variance Actual (SVA) is a core metric used to measure the deviation between the actual progress of a project and the planned schedule. It helps to determine if a project is ahead or behind schedule. In the context of enhancement projects, SVA is particularly important as it allows project managers to assess whether the project is meeting the scheduled deadlines for implementing new features or improvements. By comparing the planned schedule with the actual progress, project managers can identify any delays or accelerations in the project timeline and take appropriate actions to keep the project on track.

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  • 14. 

    A Record is a CI that

    • Requires version control, but does not undergo formal change

    • Requires version control and undergoes formal

    • Does not require version control

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Does not require version control
    Explanation
    A Record is a CI that does not require version control. This means that the Record does not need to undergo any formal changes or revisions. Unlike other CIs that may require version control to track and manage changes, a Record is typically a static piece of information that does not need to be updated or modified over time. Therefore, it does not require version control.

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 07, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Feb 01, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Anuragnechcl
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