Prizma Online Quiz May 2018

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| By Narayanan
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Narayanan
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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 81
Questions: 20 | Attempts: 81

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Prizma Online Quiz May 2018 - Quiz


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    How much Rxions of Gabapentin+Nortryptyline Neuros prescribe?

    • A.

      24%

    • B.

      34%

    • C.

      42%

    • D.

      38%

    Correct Answer
    D. 38%
  • 2. 

    Combination of Gabantin AT?

    • A.

      Gabapentin 400mg + Nortryp 10mg

    • B.

      Gabapentin 300mg + Nortryp 5mg

    • C.

      Gabapentin 300mg + Nortryp 10mg

    • D.

      Gabapentin 300mg + Nortryp 20mg

    Correct Answer
    C. Gabapentin 300mg + Nortryp 10mg
    Explanation
    The correct combination of Gabapentin AT is Gabapentin 300mg + Nortryp 10mg. This is because the question asks for the combination of Gabapentin AT, and this option includes both Gabapentin and Nortryp in the specified dosages. The other options either have different dosages or do not include both medications.

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  • 3. 

    In CPs, which competitor brand we focus for Pentanerv NT?

    • A.

      Gabantin AT

    • B.

      Gabapin NT

    • C.

      Gabacent AT

    • D.

      Gabaneuron NT

    Correct Answer
    D. Gabaneuron NT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Gabaneuron NT. This is the competitor brand that is focused on for Pentanerv NT in CPs.

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  • 4. 

    Identify the right customer set for Pentanerv NT issue 1 & 2 distribution:

    • A.

      10 CPs & 15 Neuros

    • B.

      10 Neuros & 15 CPs

    • C.

      15 Neuros & 15 CPs

    • D.

      15 CPs & 20 Neuros

    Correct Answer
    A. 10 CPs & 15 Neuros
    Explanation
    The right customer set for Pentanerv NT issue 1 & 2 distribution is 10 CPs & 15 Neuros. This is because the product is being distributed to both CPs (presumably referring to medical professionals such as doctors or clinics) and Neuros (presumably referring to neurologists or specialists in the nervous system). By distributing to both CPs and Neuros, the product can reach a wider range of potential customers and maximize its market reach.

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  • 5. 

    Identify the right side effect of Amitriptyline 

    • A.

      Illusion

    • B.

      Hallucination

    • C.

      Delusion

    • D.

      Cardiac arrhythmia

    Correct Answer
    D. Cardiac arrhythmia
    Explanation
    Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can have various side effects. One of the potential side effects of this medication is cardiac arrhythmia, which refers to abnormal heart rhythms. This can manifest as irregular heartbeats, palpitations, or a fluttering sensation in the chest. It is important to monitor patients taking Amitriptyline for any signs of cardiac arrhythmia, as it can be potentially dangerous and may require medical intervention.

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  • 6. 

    PMPM expected for Depaxil CR plus

    • A.

      0.20K

    • B.

      0.25K

    • C.

      0.35K

    • D.

      0.40K

    Correct Answer
    B. 0.25K
    Explanation
    The expected PMPM for Depaxil CR plus is 0.25K.

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  • 7. 

    Maximum dosage of Joykem ODT is 

    • A.

      1200 gm/day

    • B.

      1000 mg/day

    • C.

      1200 mg/day

    • D.

      1000 g/day

    Correct Answer
    C. 1200 mg/day
    Explanation
    The maximum dosage of Joykem ODT is 1200 mg/day. This means that the highest amount of this medication that can be taken in a day is 1200 milligrams. It is important to follow this dosage limit to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. Taking more than the recommended dosage can lead to potential side effects or complications.

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  • 8. 

    Conclusion of Pentanerv NT issue 1 lbl is ___________

    • A.

      Anti-depressants are safer

    • B.

      Gabapentin combination has better efficacy

    • C.

      Opioids are the best in reduction of pain

    • D.

      Topical gels are best in efficacy

    Correct Answer
    B. Gabapentin combination has better efficacy
    Explanation
    The conclusion of the Pentanerv NT issue 1 lbl is that the Gabapentin combination has better efficacy. This means that when compared to the other options mentioned (anti-depressants, opioids, and topical gels), the combination of Gabapentin is more effective in achieving the desired outcome.

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  • 9. 

    POS(Partial onset of seizure) is defined as __________

    • A.

      Partial portion of nerves gets affected

    • B.

      Partial portion of lung gets affected

    • C.

      Partial portion of muscular system gets affected

    • D.

      Partial portion of brain gets affected

    Correct Answer
    D. Partial portion of brain gets affected
    Explanation
    POS (Partial onset of seizure) is defined as when only a partial portion of the brain is affected. Seizures can occur when there is abnormal electrical activity in the brain, and when this activity is limited to only a specific area or region of the brain, it is referred to as a partial onset seizure. This means that the seizure activity and its effects are localized to a specific part of the brain, rather than involving the entire brain.

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  • 10. 

    Greater improvement in  _________ was observed after treating patients with spastic hypertonia with Tolkem 450mg SR for a period of 12 weeks

    • A.

      Muscle pain

    • B.

      Self care

    • C.

      Muscle power

    • D.

      Spasm

    Correct Answer
    B. Self care
    Explanation
    Greater improvement in self care was observed after treating patients with spastic hypertonia with Tolkem 450mg SR for a period of 12 weeks. This suggests that the medication had a positive effect on the patients' ability to take care of themselves, possibly indicating an improvement in their overall well-being and quality of life.

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  • 11. 

    What is the other name for POS

    • A.

      Absent seizures

    • B.

      Myoclonic seizures

    • C.

      Focal Seizures

    • D.

      Status epilepsy

    Correct Answer
    C. Focal Seizures
    Explanation
    The other name for POS (Partial Onset Seizures) is Focal Seizures. Focal seizures are a type of seizure that begins in a specific area of the brain. They can cause a wide range of symptoms, depending on the part of the brain affected. Absent seizures, myoclonic seizures, and status epilepsy are different types of seizures and are not alternative names for POS.

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  • 12. 

    MRP of Amisant 200mg is ______

    • A.

      15.79/tab

    • B.

      9.70/tab

    • C.

      12.70/tab

    • D.

      13.20/tab

    Correct Answer
    A. 15.79/tab
    Explanation
    The MRP of Amisant 200mg is 15.79 per tablet.

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  • 13. 

    USFDA has approved the use of Levetracetum syrup for POS either monotherapy/adjuvant in _____ age group of patients:

    • A.

      From one year of age

    • B.

      From one month of age

    • C.

      From one week of age

    • D.

      From six month of age

    Correct Answer
    B. From one month of age
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "From one month of age." This means that the USFDA has approved the use of Levetracetum syrup for POS (Pediatric Onset Epileptic Syndrome) either as monotherapy or as an adjuvant in patients who are at least one month old.

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  • 14. 

    What do you mean by the word “Response” in medical terms

    • A.

      A) Contraindication of the drug

    • B.

      B) Side effect of the drug

    • C.

      C) Twenty percent of symptoms reduction

    • D.

      D) Fifty percent of symptoms reduction

    Correct Answer
    D. D) Fifty percent of symptoms reduction
    Explanation
    In medical terms, the word "response" refers to a fifty percent reduction in symptoms. This means that when a patient is said to have a positive response to a treatment or medication, it indicates that their symptoms have been reduced by fifty percent. This measurement is often used to assess the effectiveness of a treatment or medication in improving the patient's condition.

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  • 15. 

    Schizo Affective disorder means

    • A.

      A) Symptoms of bipolar + symptoms of Anxiety

    • B.

      B) Symptoms of Schizophrenia + symptoms of psychosis

    • C.

      C) Symptoms of bipolar + symptoms of schizophrenia

    • D.

      C) Symptoms of bipolar + symptoms of depression

    Correct Answer
    C. C) Symptoms of bipolar + symptoms of schizophrenia
    Explanation
    Schizo Affective disorder refers to a mental health condition characterized by a combination of symptoms of bipolar disorder, such as mood swings and mania, along with symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. This disorder involves a mix of both mood and psychotic symptoms, making it distinct from other mental health conditions.

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  • 16. 

    Identify the right indications for Alkepin ODT

    • A.

      A) Treatment resistant schizophrenia

    • B.

      B) Schizophrenia

    • C.

      C) Reducing the risk of suicidal behaviour in patients with schizophrenia

    • D.

      D) All of the above

    • E.

      E) None of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. D) All of the above
    Explanation
    Alkepin ODT is indicated for the treatment of schizophrenia, including treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It is also indicated for reducing the risk of suicidal behavior in patients with schizophrenia. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for Alkepin ODT.

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  • 17. 

    Identify the side effects of Baclofen

    • A.

      Sedation

    • B.

      Dizziness

    • C.

      Weakness

    • D.

      Weight gain

    • E.

      Option A,B,C

    • F.

      Option B,C,D

    Correct Answer
    E. Option A,B,C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Option A,B,C. Baclofen is a muscle relaxant medication commonly used to treat muscle spasms. It can cause sedation, dizziness, and weakness as side effects. These side effects are common and may occur in individuals taking Baclofen. Weight gain is not listed as a side effect of Baclofen, so Option B,C,D is not correct.

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  • 18. 

    Identify the right indication for Clobakem with Neuros

    • A.

      LGS

    • B.

      Acute & chronic anxiety states

    • C.

      Febrile seizures

    • D.

      Refractory epilepsy

    • E.

      Option A,B,C

    • F.

      Option A,C,D

    Correct Answer
    F. Option A,C,D
    Explanation
    The correct indications for Clobakem with Neuros are LGS (Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome), febrile seizures, and refractory epilepsy. This means that Clobakem with Neuros is suitable for treating these conditions. Option A includes LGS, option C includes febrile seizures, and option D includes refractory epilepsy, making option A,C,D the correct answer as it includes all the appropriate indications for Clobakem with Neuros.

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  • 19. 

    What is the discontinuation rate with Clobakem

    • A.

      5.2%

    • B.

      3.6%

    • C.

      4.7%

    • D.

      6.3%

    Correct Answer
    B. 3.6%
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 3.6%. This means that the discontinuation rate with Clobakem is 3.6%. It indicates the percentage of people who stopped using Clobakem after starting it. This could be due to various reasons such as side effects, lack of effectiveness, or other personal factors. A lower discontinuation rate suggests that Clobakem is well-tolerated and effective for most users.

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