B4N051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions; Edit Code: 05

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1. To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe

Explanation

To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier access to the ear canal and ensures that the drops are properly administered. Pulling the earlobe downward also helps to create a straight path for the drops to flow into the ear. This technique is commonly used in young children to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the ear drop administration.

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B4N051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions; Edit Code: 05 - Quiz

This quiz, titled 'B4N051 VOL. 3 URE Questions; Edit Code: 05', assesses knowledge in pharmacology and medication management. It covers roles in medication administration, drug nomenclature, and legal... see moreaspects of patient rights, crucial for healthcare professionals. see less

2. The process by which a drug in transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as

Explanation

Absorption refers to the process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry (such as the gastrointestinal tract or the skin) into the circulatory system. It involves the movement of the drug molecules across biological barriers, such as cell membranes, to reach the bloodstream and be distributed throughout the body. This process is crucial for the drug to exert its therapeutic effects. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules across a semipermeable membrane, solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent, and stimulation refers to the activation or enhancement of a physiological process.

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3. A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to

Explanation

A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This means that drugs can be absorbed differently in individuals with varying levels of body fat. Body fat can act as a storage site for drugs, leading to a slower release into the bloodstream. Therefore, patients with higher levels of body fat may experience delayed drug effects compared to those with lower levels of body fat.

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4. What type of medication would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen?

Explanation

Antihistamines would be prescribed for a patient with allergies to grass and tree pollen because they help to relieve symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and watery eyes by blocking the effects of histamine, which is released during an allergic reaction. Antineoplastics are used to treat cancer, antifungals are used to treat fungal infections, and antivirals are used to treat viral infections.

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5. Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of

Explanation

Opioid antagonists are medications that are used to treat opioid overdose. Opioids are a class of drugs that include prescription painkillers like oxycodone and hydrocodone, as well as illegal drugs like heroin. Opioid antagonists work by blocking the effects of opioids in the body, which can help reverse the effects of an overdose. They can be administered in emergency situations to help prevent respiratory depression and other dangerous symptoms associated with opioid overdose. Acetaminophen overdose, ibuprofen overdose, and vitamin C overdose are not treated with opioid antagonists.

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6. The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is

Explanation

The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is intramuscular (IM). This method is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is absorbed into the blood vessels and distributed throughout the body. This route of administration allows for a relatively rapid onset of action and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and other medications that cannot be taken orally.

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7. While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin

Explanation

While undergoing heparin treatment, Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for foods rich in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K is known to interfere with the anticoagulant effects of heparin. Heparin works by inhibiting the clotting factors in the blood, while vitamin K promotes clotting. Therefore, consuming foods rich in vitamin K can counteract the effects of heparin and increase the risk of blood clot formation. It is important for Mr. Johnson to avoid or limit foods high in vitamin K to ensure the effectiveness of his heparin treatment.

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8. What vaccines are given to individuals deploying to Africa?

Explanation

Individuals deploying to Africa are at risk of contracting diseases such as Yellow Fever and typhoid. These vaccines are recommended for travelers to Africa to protect them from these specific diseases. Yellow Fever is a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes and can cause severe symptoms, including jaundice and organ failure. Typhoid is a bacterial infection spread through contaminated food and water, causing high fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. Vaccination against these diseases helps to prevent infection and ensure the health and safety of individuals traveling to Africa.

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9. Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to

Explanation

Quinidine is a medication primarily used to maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion. Cardioversion is a procedure used to restore a normal heart rhythm in individuals with certain types of irregular heartbeats. Quinidine helps to stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent abnormal rhythms from recurring after cardioversion. It is not used to treat anemia, produce bradycardia (slow heart rate), or increase myocardial excitability.

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10. Nonopioid analgesics are available 

Explanation

Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription. This means that individuals can easily access these medications from pharmacies or stores without needing to consult a healthcare professional. This convenience allows people to manage their pain symptoms quickly and efficiently.

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11. When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to

Explanation

Administering eye medications requires positioning the patient's treated eye lower than the other to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This is important to avoid any contamination or potential adverse effects on the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to ensure that the medication stays in the intended eye and does not flow into the unaffected eye.

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12. Into what body cavity are otic medications adminstered?

Explanation

Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the passage that leads from the outside of the ear to the eardrum. This is where the medication is placed in order to treat conditions such as ear infections or inflammation. Administering the medication directly into the external auditory canal allows for targeted treatment of the ear and its associated structures.

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13. LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for Nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?

Explanation

The correct answer is 0.50 because the Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. Since the ordered dose is 12.5 mg, we can calculate the amount of mLs to administer by setting up a proportion. 50 mg is to 2 mL as 12.5 mg is to x mL. Solving for x, we get x = (12.5 mg * 2 mL) / 50 mg = 0.50 mL. Therefore, 0.50 mL would be administered.

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14. A Finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a 

Explanation

A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is known as a powder. Powders are a type of medication preparation that can be ingested or applied topically. They are created by grinding the drug into a fine, dry substance. Powders are versatile and can be mixed with other substances or dissolved in liquids for consumption. They are commonly used in various medical and pharmaceutical applications due to their ease of use and flexibility in administration.

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15. Out  of several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?

Explanation

The trade name of a medication is given by the manufacturer. It is the brand name under which the medication is marketed and sold. This name is usually trademarked and is unique to the manufacturer. The trade name helps to distinguish the medication from other similar drugs in the market. It is often easier to remember and pronounce compared to the generic or official names of the medication.

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16. Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?

Explanation

The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed about a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by the healthcare provider based on medical guidelines and the patient's specific needs and condition.

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17. Drug administration is controlled primarily by

Explanation

Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to drugs at a national level. Federal laws such as the Controlled Substances Act and the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act establish regulations for the manufacturing, distribution, and use of drugs. These laws ensure that drugs are safe, effective, and properly labeled. While state laws may also play a role in drug administration, federal law takes precedence and sets the overarching framework for drug regulation in the United States.

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18. Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as 

Explanation

Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have acceptable medical uses but also have a potential for abuse. They are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, and have limited accepted medical uses. These drugs are tightly regulated and prescriptions for them have stricter requirements compared to drugs in lower schedules.

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19. Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?

Explanation

Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It works by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria in the body. The term "curative" refers to something that is intended to cure or eliminate a disease or infection. In this context, penicillin is administered specifically to treat the infection and eliminate the bacteria causing it, making it an example of a curative drug.

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20. Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?

Explanation

Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption and distribution of the medication into the bloodstream. When the stomach is empty, there is less food and other substances present that could potentially interfere with the absorption process. This allows the medication to be broken down and absorbed more efficiently, leading to faster onset of action.

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21. Which childhood disease was nearly eradicated worldwide by 1972 and in early 2000's the vaccine was reintroduced as a mobility vaccine for military personnel?

Explanation

Smallpox is the correct answer because it was a childhood disease that was almost eradicated worldwide by 1972. The smallpox vaccine was highly successful in controlling the spread of the disease, leading to a significant decline in cases. However, due to concerns about potential bioterrorism threats, the vaccine was reintroduced in the early 2000s as a mobility vaccine for military personnel. This decision was made to ensure that military personnel would be protected against smallpox in case of an intentional release of the virus.

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22. Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?

Explanation

Mosquitoes are known to transmit various diseases, and yellow fever is one of them. Yellow fever is caused by a virus that is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected mosquitoes, particularly the Aedes aegypti species. The virus can cause a range of symptoms, from mild fever and headache to severe liver damage and bleeding. Therefore, yellow fever is the correct answer as it is a viral disease transmitted by mosquitoes.

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23. What patient-education would be appropriate for a patient who has been prescribed Tessalon perles to help stop coughing?

Explanation

It is important for the patient to understand that they should not chew the capsule of Tessalon perles. Chewing the capsule may cause the medication to be released too quickly and can lead to unwanted side effects. It is necessary to swallow the capsule whole with water to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of the medication.

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24. What food or drink is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistimines and sedative-hypnotic drugs?

Explanation

Grapefruit juice is known for its high potential to change intestinal tract enzymes and interfere with the effectiveness of certain antibiotics, antifungals, antihistamines, and sedative-hypnotic drugs. It contains compounds that inhibit the activity of an enzyme called CYP3A4, which is responsible for the breakdown of many medications in the body. When this enzyme is inhibited, the medications may not be metabolized properly, leading to higher levels in the bloodstream and potentially causing harmful side effects or reducing their effectiveness. Therefore, consuming grapefruit juice while taking these medications can be problematic.

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25. When a patient is receiving penicillin for the treatment of severe strep throat, what further patient-education is appropriate if the patient is also taking oral contraceptives for birth control?

Explanation

When a patient is taking penicillin for severe strep throat and also using oral contraceptives, it is important to educate the patient about the potential interaction between the two medications. Penicillin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, increasing the risk of unintended pregnancy. Therefore, it is necessary to use a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, while taking penicillin to ensure contraception is maintained.

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26. With type I diabetes, the pancreas

Explanation

Type I diabetes is a condition where the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. In type I diabetes, the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas, leading to a deficiency of insulin. Without enough insulin, blood sugar levels can become dangerously high, causing various symptoms and complications. Therefore, the correct answer is that the pancreas is unable to produce enough insulin to control blood sugar.

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27. Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with

Explanation

Insulin is a medication used to lower blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. When taken together with alcohol or salicylates, insulin can enhance their hypoglycemic effect, meaning it can further lower blood sugar levels. This can be dangerous and lead to hypoglycemia, a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. Therefore, it is important for individuals taking insulin to be cautious when consuming alcohol or using medications containing salicylates.

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28. Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with

Explanation

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are usually combined with diuretics because diuretics help to reduce fluid buildup in the body by increasing urine production and promoting the excretion of excess salt and water. This can be beneficial in conditions such as hypertension, where fluid retention can contribute to elevated blood pressure. By combining central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors with diuretics, the effectiveness of the medication in reducing blood pressure can be enhanced.

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29. Antianxiety medications are prescribed for 

Explanation

Antianxiety medications are prescribed to treat insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can help individuals with insomnia fall asleep and stay asleep. By addressing the underlying anxiety that may be contributing to sleep difficulties, antianxiety medications can be an effective treatment option for insomnia.

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30. Vaginal suppositories are

Explanation

Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This is because suppositories are a common form of medication that can be inserted into the vagina to treat various types of vaginal infections, such as yeast infections or bacterial vaginosis. The suppositories contain active ingredients that help to kill or inhibit the growth of infectious organisms, providing relief from symptoms and promoting healing. Cooling the suppositories before administration may provide additional comfort to the patient, but it is not the primary purpose of their use. Cleansing purposes and administration along the anterior wall of the vagina are not accurate explanations for the use of vaginal suppositories.

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31. Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of

Explanation

Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are commonly seen with typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medications. These side effects occur as a result of blocking dopamine receptors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in motor control. Blocking dopamine receptors can disrupt the normal functioning of the basal ganglia, leading to EPS symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. By blocking dopamine receptors, these medications can interfere with the delicate balance of neurotransmitters in the brain, resulting in these unwanted side effects.

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32. Calcium channel blocker should not be taken with

Explanation

Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit the enzyme responsible for breaking down the medication, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause harmful interactions. It is important to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers to ensure the medication is effective and safe.

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33. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by

Explanation

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by decreasing vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, which leads to an increase in blood pressure. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors prevent the constriction of blood vessels, resulting in a decrease in blood pressure.

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34. What is the most common side effect of antihypertensives?

Explanation

Postural hypotension is the most common side effect of antihypertensives. This condition occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up or changing positions. It can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Antihypertensives work by lowering blood pressure, and sometimes they can lower it too much, leading to postural hypotension. This side effect is particularly common in older adults and can be managed by slowly changing positions and avoiding sudden movements.

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35. Cathartics are categorized as

Explanation

Cathartics are categorized as laxatives because they are substances that promote bowel movements and help relieve constipation. Laxatives work by either increasing the frequency of bowel movements or softening the stool, making it easier to pass. Cathartics, such as stimulant laxatives or osmotic laxatives, are commonly used to treat constipation and promote regularity in bowel movements. They are not antidiarrheal medications, antiemetics (used to prevent or treat nausea and vomiting), or emetics (used to induce vomiting).

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36. Which medication's primary action is pain relief?

Explanation

The primary action of analgesics is pain relief, making them the medication that best fits the description. Sedatives and hypnotics may also have some pain-relieving properties, but they are not primarily used for that purpose. The other options listed do not include analgesics as a primary action.

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37. Opioids are contraindicated with

Explanation

Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can depress the central nervous system and mask the symptoms of a worsening head injury. Opioids can also increase intracranial pressure, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury. Therefore, it is important to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries.

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38. When should Dramamine be taken when orally administered?

Explanation

Dramamine should be taken 30 minutes before expected motion when orally administered. This is because Dramamine is an over-the-counter medication commonly used to prevent and treat motion sickness. It works by blocking the effects of a certain natural substance in the body that causes nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. Taking it 30 minutes before expected motion allows the medication to be absorbed and start working in the body, providing relief from motion sickness symptoms.

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39. Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with

Explanation

Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in inflammation. They are produced by the body in response to injury or infection and can cause pain, swelling, and redness. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help reduce these symptoms and decrease inflammation in the body. This can be beneficial for managing conditions such as arthritis, muscle sprains, and certain types of pain.

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40. Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except

Explanation

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41. Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?

Explanation

The correct answer states that technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians are allowed to give medications to patients, but they must do so under the direct supervision and guidance of a nurse or physician. This ensures that the technician follows proper protocols and procedures in medication administration, and that the patient's safety is maintained. It also highlights the importance of collaboration and teamwork between technicians and healthcare professionals in providing safe and effective medication administration.

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42. How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?

Explanation

There are two ways in which a provider can initiate a drug order.

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43. What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?

Explanation

The correct answer is the Controlled Substance Act. This law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. It was enacted to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse and addiction. The Controlled Substance Act helps to ensure that controlled substances are properly accounted for and not being misused or diverted.

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44. To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?

Explanation

Liquid medications are typically poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This practice ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosing and immediate administration, minimizing the risk of errors or delays. Additionally, pouring the medication at the patient's bedside allows the healthcare provider to observe the patient's condition and response to the medication, ensuring proper care and monitoring.

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45. Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?

Explanation

Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult when using inhalation medication. This is a disadvantage because it can lead to underdosing or overdosing of the medication, which may result in ineffective treatment or potential harm to the patient. It is important to have accurate dosing in order to achieve the desired therapeutic effect and minimize any adverse effects.

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46. Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?

Explanation

Warmer temperatures increase circulation in the body, leading to an increase in blood flow. This increased blood flow helps drugs to be delivered more quickly to their target sites, resulting in a rapid drug action.

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47. Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?

Explanation

The Physician Desk Reference is a commonly used reference source for drugs. It provides comprehensive information about prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. Medical professionals often rely on the Physician Desk Reference to make informed decisions about prescribing medications to patients. It is a trusted resource that helps ensure the safe and effective use of drugs in healthcare settings.

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48. How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?

Explanation

The correct answer is 143. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the number of kilograms by 2.20462. In this case, 65 kg multiplied by 2.20462 equals 143 pounds.

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49. Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of

Explanation

Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of contaminated food or water. This means that the virus can be ingested through consuming food or water that has been contaminated with the virus. This mode of transmission is common in areas with poor sanitation and hygiene practices, where the virus can easily spread through contaminated food or water sources. It is important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands thoroughly and consuming safe and clean food and water, to prevent the transmission of Hepatitis A.

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50. Which medication can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?

Explanation

Theophylline is known to interact with quinolones and can potentiate cardiac arrest. Quinolones are a class of antibiotics that can cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Theophylline is a medication used to treat asthma and other respiratory conditions, and it can also cause QT interval prolongation. When taken together, theophylline and quinolones can have a synergistic effect on QT interval prolongation, increasing the risk of cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is important to be cautious when prescribing both medications to a patient and closely monitor their cardiac function.

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51. Which one do you like?If after five days of the penicillin treatment the patient develops diarrhea, what advice would be appropriate?

Explanation

If a patient develops diarrhea after five days of penicillin treatment, adding yogurt or buttermilk to their diet and monitoring the number of episodes would be appropriate advice. This is because diarrhea is a common side effect of antibiotics, including penicillin, as they can disrupt the natural balance of bacteria in the gut. Yogurt or buttermilk contain probiotics, which can help restore the balance of good bacteria in the gut and alleviate diarrhea symptoms. Monitoring the number of episodes is important to ensure that the diarrhea does not worsen or persist, in which case further medical attention may be necessary.

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52. What are the actions of sulfonylurea medications?

Explanation

Sulfonylurea medications work by increasing the production of insulin in the pancreas and improving the activity of insulin in the peripheral cells. This helps to lower blood sugar levels by increasing the amount of insulin available to regulate glucose metabolism in the body.

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53. Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

Explanation

Caffeine is an over-the-counter central nervous system stimulant that is frequently taken in prolonged high doses. It can lead to habituation and psychological dependence. Caffeine is commonly found in beverages like coffee, tea, and energy drinks, as well as in some medications and supplements. Its stimulant effects can increase alertness and improve focus, but prolonged and excessive use can lead to dependence and withdrawal symptoms when consumption is reduced or stopped.

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54. What antidote is administered for serious bleeding complications while under the coumarin (Coumadin) therapy?

Explanation

Vitamin K is the correct answer because it is the antidote administered for serious bleeding complications while under the coumarin (Coumadin) therapy. Coumadin is a medication that belongs to the class of drugs known as coumarin anticoagulants, which work by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Therefore, if serious bleeding occurs while on Coumadin therapy, administering vitamin K can help reverse the anticoagulant effects and promote clotting.

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55. When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag? 

Explanation

When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for a gentle flow of the solution into the vaginal canal without causing discomfort or excessive pressure. Hanging the bag too low may result in a slow or incomplete administration, while hanging it too high may cause the solution to flow too quickly or forcefully, potentially causing discomfort or injury to the patient.

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56. A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a 

Explanation

A clinical pharmacist is a specialist who has advanced knowledge and training in the field of pharmacy and works closely with healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication use. They can guide providers in prescribing drugs by reviewing patient medical histories, assessing medication interactions and side effects, and recommending appropriate drug therapies. This role requires a deep understanding of pharmacology and the ability to collaborate with other healthcare professionals to optimize patient care.

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57. Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis?

Explanation

Before the administration of digitalis, the apical pulse point should be checked. The apical pulse is the heartbeat that can be felt by placing a stethoscope on the chest, specifically over the apex of the heart. Digitalis is a medication used to treat certain heart conditions, so it is important to check the apical pulse to assess the heart rate and rhythm before administering the medication. This helps ensure that the medication is given safely and appropriately. Checking the brachial, radial, or pedal pulse points would not provide the same information about the heart's function.

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58. Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with

Explanation

Adrenergic blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline in the body. In low doses, they can be used to treat patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. Bronchospasm is a condition characterized by the constriction of the airways in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. By blocking the effects of adrenaline, adrenergic blockers can help relax the muscles in the airways and improve airflow, making it easier for patients to breathe. This is why they are used in low doses for patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.

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59. The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with myocardial infarction is 

Explanation

Lidocaine is the drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with myocardial infarction. Lidocaine is a class Ib antiarrhythmic medication that works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the heart's rhythm. It is commonly used in emergency situations, such as during a myocardial infarction, to prevent and treat life-threatening arrhythmias. Epinephrine is not typically used for this purpose, as it primarily acts as a vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator. Tonocard and Ultram are not indicated for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions.

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60. What is a potential side effect when antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives?

Explanation

When antacids are taken concurrently with coumarin derivatives, there is a potential side effect of increasing bleeding time. Coumarin derivatives are anticoagulant medications that help prevent blood clots. Antacids, on the other hand, can interfere with the absorption of coumarin derivatives, leading to reduced effectiveness. This can result in an increased risk of bleeding as the anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives is diminished. Therefore, taking antacids with coumarin derivatives can potentially prolong bleeding time.

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61. Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?

Explanation

Corticosteroids are used to prevent organ transplant rejection because they have immunosuppressive properties. These drugs help to suppress the immune system and reduce inflammation, which helps to prevent the body from rejecting the transplanted organ. Insulin, Tapazole, and thyroid agents are not endocrine therapy drugs used for preventing organ transplant rejection.

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62. Which medication acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect to the gastrointestinal tract?

Explanation

Kaopectate is the correct answer because it acts as an absorbent and protectant to achieve a drying effect on the gastrointestinal tract. It contains kaolin and pectin, which work together to absorb excess fluid in the intestines and form a protective coating on the stomach lining. This helps to reduce diarrhea and soothe the symptoms of an upset stomach. Tums, Riopan, and Maalox do not have the same absorbent and drying effect on the gastrointestinal tract as Kaopectate.

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63. What type of laxative is sorbitol?

Explanation

Sorbitol is classified as a hyperosmotic laxative. Hyperosmotic laxatives work by drawing water into the intestines, which softens the stool and helps to promote bowel movements. Sorbitol is commonly used as a laxative due to its ability to increase the osmotic pressure in the intestines, leading to increased water retention and ultimately facilitating the passage of stool.

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64. Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each does?

Explanation

To calculate the mLs of Ancef needed for each dose, we need to find the total dosage required for each dose and then convert it into mL. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg and the prescribed dosage is 5mg/kg. Therefore, the total dosage required for each dose is 5mg/kg * 65kg = 325mg. The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL, so to find the mLs needed, we divide the total dosage by the concentration of the medication: 325mg / 50mg/mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, 6.5 mLs of Ancef will be given for each dose.

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65. Which element is not required on a medication order?

Explanation

The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the medication prescribed is based on the patient's condition and medical history, not their age. The patient's name is necessary to ensure that the medication is given to the correct individual. The specified time is important to indicate when the medication should be taken. The provider's signature is required to validate the order and ensure accountability.

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66. Name the parts of a needle

Explanation

The parts of a needle are the hub, shaft, and bevel. The hub is the part that attaches to the syringe or other device, the shaft is the long slender portion of the needle, and the bevel is the slanted tip that allows for easier insertion into the skin or other material.

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67. What administration method delivers medication directly intoa patienet's digestive system?

Explanation

The administration method that delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system is oral. This method involves swallowing the medication, which then passes through the esophagus and into the stomach. From the stomach, the medication is absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body. This is a common and convenient method of medication administration, as it can be easily done by the patient themselves.

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68. What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error?

Explanation

The correct form that should be filled out when reporting a medication error is AF Form 765.

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69. What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?

Explanation

Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. This is because computer systems can accurately and efficiently generate medication orders, reducing the risk of human error in transcription. Computer-generated products also allow for easy access to patient information and medication history, ensuring that the prescribed drugs are appropriate and safe for the individual. Additionally, computer systems can provide alerts and reminders for potential drug interactions or contraindications, further enhancing patient safety.

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70. Aminoglycosides are used for

Explanation

Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that are commonly used for short term treatment. These antibiotics are known for their effectiveness in treating severe bacterial infections, particularly those caused by gram-negative bacteria. However, aminoglycosides can have serious side effects, including kidney and ear damage, which limit their long-term use. Therefore, they are typically prescribed for short periods of time to minimize the risk of these adverse effects.

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71. Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to

Explanation

Patients who are allergic to penicillin are also most likely to be allergic to cephlosporins. This is because penicillin and cephlosporins belong to the same class of antibiotics called beta-lactams, which have a similar chemical structure. Allergic reactions to penicillin are often due to the beta-lactam ring in the antibiotic, and since cephlosporins also contain this ring, there is a higher chance of cross-reactivity and allergic reactions in individuals who are allergic to penicillin.

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72. What is the primary side effect of central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors?

Explanation

Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors work by blocking the alpha receptors in the central nervous system, leading to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. One of the primary side effects of these medications is sodium and water retention. This occurs because the inhibition of alpha receptors can disrupt the normal regulation of fluid balance in the body, leading to an increase in fluid retention. This can result in edema and increased blood volume, which can have implications for patients with conditions such as heart failure or hypertension.

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73. A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is

Explanation

Sedatives and hypnotic medications can cause a depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. REM sleep is a crucial stage of the sleep cycle where dreaming occurs and is important for cognitive function and emotional well-being. Sedatives and hypnotics can disrupt the normal sleep pattern by suppressing REM sleep, leading to a decrease in the quality of sleep and potential negative effects on overall health.

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74. What is not a side effect of tricyclics

Explanation

Pupil constriction is not a side effect of tricyclics. Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause dilated pupils, not constriction. These medications can affect the autonomic nervous system, leading to various side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. However, pupil constriction is not one of the commonly observed side effects of tricyclic antidepressant use.

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75. Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson's daughter has received education from the nurse at the hospital regarding the heparin treatment. What patient education instructions would Mr. Johnson's daughter receive in regards to the site of the heparin injection?

Explanation

The correct answer is "Do not aspirate." Aspiration refers to the process of pulling back on the syringe plunger to check for blood return before injecting medication. In the case of heparin injections, it is not necessary to aspirate because it can increase the risk of bleeding and bruising at the injection site. Therefore, the daughter would be instructed to not aspirate when administering the heparin injections to her father.

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76. Antipsychotics medications are categorized as

Explanation

Antipsychotic medications are categorized as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat severe mental illnesses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps to reduce hallucinations, delusions, and other psychotic symptoms. The term "major tranquilizers" is often used to describe these medications because they have a calming effect on individuals with these conditions, helping to stabilize their mood and behavior.

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77. The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is

Explanation

Thrombolytic therapy involves the use of medications to dissolve blood clots. While it can be effective in treating conditions such as heart attacks or strokes, the most serious complication of this therapy is bleeding. Thrombolytic medications work by breaking down blood clots, which can increase the risk of bleeding. This can manifest as internal bleeding, such as in the gastrointestinal tract or brain, or external bleeding from various sites. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully monitor patients receiving thrombolytic therapy for signs of bleeding and take appropriate measures to manage and prevent further complications.

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78. Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of? 

Explanation

Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate can cause constipation as a common side effect. These substances can slow down the movement of the digestive system, leading to difficulty in passing stools. This can result in infrequent bowel movements and a feeling of bloating or discomfort.

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79. Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within? 

Explanation

Adrenal corticosteroids fall within the drug action category of supportive. Adrenal corticosteroids are medications that mimic the effects of the hormones produced by the adrenal glands. They are used to support the normal function of the adrenal glands and help regulate various physiological processes in the body. These medications are commonly prescribed to treat conditions such as adrenal insufficiency, inflammation, and immune disorders. They do not cure the underlying condition but provide support by supplementing the deficient hormones or reducing inflammation. Therefore, the correct answer is supportive.

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80. When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect in produces?

Explanation

When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, they can potentiate hypertension. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the production of angiotensin II, a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow, while diuretics and vasodilators work to lower blood pressure. When used together, the effects of these medications can be enhanced, leading to an increased risk of hypertension.

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81. What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?

Explanation

Cathartics are a type of medication that have a cleansing action on the intestines, causing watery evacuation of intestinal content. They are commonly used to relieve constipation and promote bowel movements. These medications work by stimulating the muscles of the intestines, increasing the movement of stool through the digestive tract.

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82. Which vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

Explanation

Influenza vaccine should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products because most influenza vaccines are produced using eggs. The virus used to make the vaccine is grown inside eggs, which can lead to a potential allergic reaction in individuals with egg allergies. Therefore, it is important for individuals with egg allergies to consult with their healthcare provider before receiving the influenza vaccine to determine the best course of action.

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83. As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored?

Explanation

Controlled temperature drug storage areas should be monitored once per day to ensure that the temperature remains within the specified range. This is important to maintain the efficacy and stability of the stored drugs. Monitoring the temperature daily allows for prompt identification and correction of any deviations, minimizing the risk of compromising the quality and safety of the drugs.

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84. Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?

Explanation

Upon entering the Air Force, all recruits receive a booster for tetanus vaccine. This is because tetanus is caused by a bacteria found in soil, dust, and manure, which can enter the body through cuts or wounds. Since recruits may be exposed to these conditions during their training, it is important to ensure they are protected against tetanus. A booster shot helps to strengthen their immunity and provide long-lasting protection against the disease.

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85. Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except

Explanation

Digitalis is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can also have toxic side effects. Certigo and diplopia are not side effects commonly associated with digitalis toxicity. Tachycardia refers to a rapid heart rate, which is a known side effect of digitalis. However, bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is tachycardia.

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86. A major contributor of young children developing type II diabetes is

Explanation

Increased obesity is a major contributor to young children developing type II diabetes. Obesity is a condition characterized by excessive body fat, and it is closely linked to the development of diabetes. When children are overweight or obese, their bodies become less sensitive to insulin, a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels. This can lead to a condition called insulin resistance, which is a precursor to type II diabetes. Therefore, the increased obesity in young children can significantly increase their risk of developing type II diabetes.

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Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by
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Aminoglycosides are used for
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A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is
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Antipsychotics medications are categorized as
The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side...
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