B4N051 Vol. 3 Ure Questions; Edit Code: 05
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Questions and Answers
- 1.
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
- A.
Pharmacist
- B.
Clinical provider
- C.
Clinical pharmacist
- D.
Pharmaceutical technician
Correct Answer
C. Clinical pharmacistExplanation
A clinical pharmacist is a specialist who has advanced knowledge and training in the field of pharmacy and works closely with healthcare providers to ensure safe and effective medication use. They can guide providers in prescribing drugs by reviewing patient medical histories, assessing medication interactions and side effects, and recommending appropriate drug therapies. This role requires a deep understanding of pharmacology and the ability to collaborate with other healthcare professionals to optimize patient care.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Out of several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?
- A.
Trade name
- B.
Official name
- C.
Generic name
- D.
Chemical name
Correct Answer
A. Trade nameExplanation
The trade name of a medication is given by the manufacturer. It is the brand name under which the medication is marketed and sold. This name is usually trademarked and is unique to the manufacturer. The trade name helps to distinguish the medication from other similar drugs in the market. It is often easier to remember and pronounce compared to the generic or official names of the medication.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
- A.
Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration
- B.
A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medications
- C.
Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician
- D.
Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patient's best interst.
Correct Answer
C. Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physicianExplanation
The correct answer states that technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. This means that technicians are allowed to give medications to patients, but they must do so under the direct supervision and guidance of a nurse or physician. This ensures that the technician follows proper protocols and procedures in medication administration, and that the patient's safety is maintained. It also highlights the importance of collaboration and teamwork between technicians and healthcare professionals in providing safe and effective medication administration.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Which statement is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights?
- A.
Be informed of a drug's name
- B.
Be informed of a drug's purpose
- C.
Choose the method of administration
- D.
Receive clearly labeled medication containers
Correct Answer
C. Choose the method of administrationExplanation
The statement "Choose the method of administration" is not considered one of the patient's legal and ethical rights. While patients have the right to be informed about a drug's name, purpose, and receive clearly labeled medication containers, they do not have the right to choose the method of administration. This decision is typically made by the healthcare provider based on medical guidelines and the patient's specific needs and condition.Rate this question:
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- 5.
What form should be filled out when reporting a medication error?
- A.
AF Form 765
- B.
AF Form 786
- C.
AF Form 3066
- D.
AF Form 3069
Correct Answer
A. AF Form 765Explanation
The correct form that should be filled out when reporting a medication error is AF Form 765.Rate this question:
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- 6.
How many ways can a provider initiate a drug order?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
Correct Answer
B. TwoExplanation
There are two ways in which a provider can initiate a drug order.Rate this question:
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- 7.
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when copying a drug order?
- A.
Kardex
- B.
Medication Card
- C.
Telephone consults
- D.
Computer-generated product
Correct Answer
D. Computer-generated productExplanation
Many medical treatment facilities use computer-generated products to avoid errors when copying a drug order. This is because computer systems can accurately and efficiently generate medication orders, reducing the risk of human error in transcription. Computer-generated products also allow for easy access to patient information and medication history, ensuring that the prescribed drugs are appropriate and safe for the individual. Additionally, computer systems can provide alerts and reminders for potential drug interactions or contraindications, further enhancing patient safety.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Drug administration is controlled primarily by
- A.
State amendments
- B.
Facility mandate
- C.
Federal law
- D.
State law
Correct Answer
C. Federal lawExplanation
Drug administration is primarily controlled by federal law because the federal government has the authority to regulate and enforce laws related to drugs at a national level. Federal laws such as the Controlled Substances Act and the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act establish regulations for the manufacturing, distribution, and use of drugs. These laws ensure that drugs are safe, effective, and properly labeled. While state laws may also play a role in drug administration, federal law takes precedence and sets the overarching framework for drug regulation in the United States.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, which have potential for abuse, but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
- A.
Schedule I
- B.
Schedule II
- C.
Schedule III
- D.
Schedule IV
Correct Answer
B. Schedule IIExplanation
Narcotics such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines have acceptable medical uses but also have a potential for abuse. They are classified as Schedule II drugs. This classification indicates that they have a high potential for abuse, may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, and have limited accepted medical uses. These drugs are tightly regulated and prescriptions for them have stricter requirements compared to drugs in lower schedules.Rate this question:
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- 10.
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
- A.
Drug Regulatory Act
- B.
Drug Control Regulation
- C.
Controlled Substance Act
- D.
Attorney General Mandate of 1974
Correct Answer
C. Controlled Substance ActExplanation
The correct answer is the Controlled Substance Act. This law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances. It was enacted to regulate the manufacture, distribution, and dispensing of drugs that have the potential for abuse and addiction. The Controlled Substance Act helps to ensure that controlled substances are properly accounted for and not being misused or diverted.Rate this question:
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- 11.
As a minimum, how often should controlled temperature drug storage areas be monitored?
- A.
Beginning of each shift
- B.
Once per day
- C.
Once per week
- D.
Once per month
Correct Answer
B. Once per dayExplanation
Controlled temperature drug storage areas should be monitored once per day to ensure that the temperature remains within the specified range. This is important to maintain the efficacy and stability of the stored drugs. Monitoring the temperature daily allows for prompt identification and correction of any deviations, minimizing the risk of compromising the quality and safety of the drugs.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
- A.
Chemotherapeutic
- B.
Substitutive
- C.
Supportive
- D.
Curative
Correct Answer
D. CurativeExplanation
Penicillin is a type of antibiotic that is commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It works by killing or inhibiting the growth of bacteria in the body. The term "curative" refers to something that is intended to cure or eliminate a disease or infection. In this context, penicillin is administered specifically to treat the infection and eliminate the bacteria causing it, making it an example of a curative drug.Rate this question:
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- 13.
The process by which a drug in transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system is known as
- A.
Osmosis
- B.
Solubility
- C.
Absorption
- D.
Stimulation
Correct Answer
C. AbsorptionExplanation
Absorption refers to the process by which a drug is transported from the site of entry (such as the gastrointestinal tract or the skin) into the circulatory system. It involves the movement of the drug molecules across biological barriers, such as cell membranes, to reach the bloodstream and be distributed throughout the body. This process is crucial for the drug to exert its therapeutic effects. Osmosis is the movement of solvent molecules across a semipermeable membrane, solubility refers to the ability of a substance to dissolve in a solvent, and stimulation refers to the activation or enhancement of a physiological process.Rate this question:
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- 14.
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to
- A.
Acid content
- B.
Water content
- C.
Enzyme production
- D.
Body fat absorption
Correct Answer
D. Body fat absorptionExplanation
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to body fat absorption. This means that drugs can be absorbed differently in individuals with varying levels of body fat. Body fat can act as a storage site for drugs, leading to a slower release into the bloodstream. Therefore, patients with higher levels of body fat may experience delayed drug effects compared to those with lower levels of body fat.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
- A.
Slower circulation level
- B.
Higher body metabolism
- C.
Lower body metabolism
- D.
Lower digestive system content
Correct Answer
D. Lower digestive system contentExplanation
Oral medications that are taken before meals are generally faster acting because the lower digestive system content allows for quicker absorption and distribution of the medication into the bloodstream. When the stomach is empty, there is less food and other substances present that could potentially interfere with the absorption process. This allows the medication to be broken down and absorbed more efficiently, leading to faster onset of action.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
- A.
Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
- B.
Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action
- C.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action
- D.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict cause rapid drug action
Correct Answer
A. Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug actionExplanation
Warmer temperatures increase circulation in the body, leading to an increase in blood flow. This increased blood flow helps drugs to be delivered more quickly to their target sites, resulting in a rapid drug action.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
- A.
Internet search
- B.
Physician Desk Reference
- C.
Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook
- D.
Technicians Pharmacy Handbook
Correct Answer
B. Physician Desk ReferenceExplanation
The Physician Desk Reference is a commonly used reference source for drugs. It provides comprehensive information about prescription drugs, including their uses, dosages, side effects, and interactions. Medical professionals often rely on the Physician Desk Reference to make informed decisions about prescribing medications to patients. It is a trusted resource that helps ensure the safe and effective use of drugs in healthcare settings.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A Finely ground drug that can be used internally or used externally describes a type of medication preparation called a
- A.
Pill
- B.
Paste
- C.
Powder
- D.
Tincture
Correct Answer
C. PowderExplanation
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally is known as a powder. Powders are a type of medication preparation that can be ingested or applied topically. They are created by grinding the drug into a fine, dry substance. Powders are versatile and can be mixed with other substances or dissolved in liquids for consumption. They are commonly used in various medical and pharmaceutical applications due to their ease of use and flexibility in administration.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
- A.
Antarrhythmics
- B.
Antemetics
- C.
Chathartics
- D.
Antacids
Correct Answer
C. ChatharticsExplanation
Cathartics are a type of medication that have a cleansing action on the intestines, causing watery evacuation of intestinal content. They are commonly used to relieve constipation and promote bowel movements. These medications work by stimulating the muscles of the intestines, increasing the movement of stool through the digestive tract.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Which element is not required on a medication order?
- A.
Patient's age
- B.
Patient's name
- C.
Specified time
- D.
Provider's signature
Correct Answer
A. Patient's ageExplanation
The patient's age is not required on a medication order because the medication prescribed is based on the patient's condition and medical history, not their age. The patient's name is necessary to ensure that the medication is given to the correct individual. The specified time is important to indicate when the medication should be taken. The provider's signature is required to validate the order and ensure accountability.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except
- A.
For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
- B.
Performing all steps in the six medication rights
- C.
Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medications
- D.
Verifying any possible interactions against current medications
Correct Answer
A. For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day -
- 22.
How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?
- A.
130
- B.
143
- C.
152
- D.
170
Correct Answer
B. 143Explanation
The correct answer is 143. To convert kilograms to pounds, you multiply the number of kilograms by 2.20462. In this case, 65 kg multiplied by 2.20462 equals 143 pounds.Rate this question:
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- 23.
LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscularly to A1C Jones for Nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. How many mLs would you administer?
- A.
0.25
- B.
0.50
- C.
2.5
- D.
5.0
Correct Answer
B. 0.50Explanation
The correct answer is 0.50 because the Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2mL pre-filled syringes. Since the ordered dose is 12.5 mg, we can calculate the amount of mLs to administer by setting up a proportion. 50 mg is to 2 mL as 12.5 mg is to x mL. Solving for x, we get x = (12.5 mg * 2 mL) / 50 mg = 0.50 mL. Therefore, 0.50 mL would be administered.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
- A.
Intravenous (IV) push
- B.
Intramuscular (IM)
- C.
Subcutaneous (sc)
- D.
IV drip
Correct Answer
B. Intramuscular (IM)Explanation
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is intramuscular (IM). This method is commonly used for medications that need to be absorbed slowly and steadily into the bloodstream. The drug is injected into the muscle tissue, where it is absorbed into the blood vessels and distributed throughout the body. This route of administration allows for a relatively rapid onset of action and is often used for vaccines, antibiotics, and other medications that cannot be taken orally.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mLs of the Ancef will be given for each does?
- A.
5.0
- B.
0.6
- C.
6.5
- D.
65
Correct Answer
C. 6.5Explanation
To calculate the mLs of Ancef needed for each dose, we need to find the total dosage required for each dose and then convert it into mL. Mrs. Green weighs 65kg and the prescribed dosage is 5mg/kg. Therefore, the total dosage required for each dose is 5mg/kg * 65kg = 325mg. The medication is supplied in vials of 50mg/mL, so to find the mLs needed, we divide the total dosage by the concentration of the medication: 325mg / 50mg/mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, 6.5 mLs of Ancef will be given for each dose.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Name the parts of a needle
- A.
Hub, shaft, and bevel
- B.
Cylinder, shank, and tip
- C.
Barrel, bevel, and gauges
- D.
Hub, tip, and calibrations
Correct Answer
A. Hub, shaft, and bevelExplanation
The parts of a needle are the hub, shaft, and bevel. The hub is the part that attaches to the syringe or other device, the shaft is the long slender portion of the needle, and the bevel is the slanted tip that allows for easier insertion into the skin or other material.Rate this question:
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- 27.
What administration method delivers medication directly intoa patienet's digestive system?
- A.
Oral
- B.
Buccal
- C.
Inhalation
- D.
Sublingual (SL)
Correct Answer
A. OralExplanation
The administration method that delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system is oral. This method involves swallowing the medication, which then passes through the esophagus and into the stomach. From the stomach, the medication is absorbed into the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body. This is a common and convenient method of medication administration, as it can be easily done by the patient themselves.Rate this question:
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- 28.
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?
- A.
In the pharmacy
- B.
At a work station
- C.
At the nurses' station
- D.
At the patient's bedside
Correct Answer
D. At the patient's bedsideExplanation
Liquid medications are typically poured at the patient's bedside to prevent contamination and accidental spills. This practice ensures that the medication is administered directly to the patient without any risk of contamination during transportation. Pouring the medication at the patient's bedside also allows for accurate dosing and immediate administration, minimizing the risk of errors or delays. Additionally, pouring the medication at the patient's bedside allows the healthcare provider to observe the patient's condition and response to the medication, ensuring proper care and monitoring.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Which statement is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?
- A.
Unconscious patients cannot be treated
- B.
Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used
- C.
Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult
- D.
Respiratory distress is no relieved through the use of an inhalation
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficultExplanation
Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult when using inhalation medication. This is a disadvantage because it can lead to underdosing or overdosing of the medication, which may result in ineffective treatment or potential harm to the patient. It is important to have accurate dosing in order to achieve the desired therapeutic effect and minimize any adverse effects.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When administering eye medications, ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other in order to
- A.
Maintain patient comfort
- B.
Keep the medication off the patient's face
- C.
Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye
- D.
Allow the solution to pool in the affected eye, filling the conjunctival sac
Correct Answer
C. Prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eyeExplanation
Administering eye medications requires positioning the patient's treated eye lower than the other to prevent the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye. This is important to avoid any contamination or potential adverse effects on the unaffected eye. By keeping the treated eye lower, gravity helps to ensure that the medication stays in the intended eye and does not flow into the unaffected eye.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Into what body cavity are otic medications adminstered?
- A.
External auditory canal
- B.
Internal auditory canal
- C.
Lower conjunctival
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. External auditory canalExplanation
Otic medications are administered into the external auditory canal. The external auditory canal is the passage that leads from the outside of the ear to the eardrum. This is where the medication is placed in order to treat conditions such as ear infections or inflammation. Administering the medication directly into the external auditory canal allows for targeted treatment of the ear and its associated structures.Rate this question:
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- 32.
To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, you gently pull the earlobe
- A.
Down to straighten the canal
- B.
Outward to expose the canal
- C.
Inward to confine the canal
- D.
Up to shorten the canal
Correct Answer
A. Down to straighten the canalExplanation
To administer ear drops in a patient under three years of age, gently pulling the earlobe down helps to straighten the canal. This allows for easier access to the ear canal and ensures that the drops are properly administered. Pulling the earlobe downward also helps to create a straight path for the drops to flow into the ear. This technique is commonly used in young children to ensure the effectiveness and safety of the ear drop administration.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Vaginal suppositories are
- A.
Cooled before administration
- B.
Useful for cleansing purposes
- C.
Administered to combat infection
- D.
Administered along the anterior wall of the vagina
Correct Answer
C. Administered to combat infectionExplanation
Vaginal suppositories are administered to combat infection. This is because suppositories are a common form of medication that can be inserted into the vagina to treat various types of vaginal infections, such as yeast infections or bacterial vaginosis. The suppositories contain active ingredients that help to kill or inhibit the growth of infectious organisms, providing relief from symptoms and promoting healing. Cooling the suppositories before administration may provide additional comfort to the patient, but it is not the primary purpose of their use. Cleansing purposes and administration along the anterior wall of the vagina are not accurate explanations for the use of vaginal suppositories.Rate this question:
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- 34.
When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag?
- A.
4 to 8 inches
- B.
6 to 10 inches
- C.
12 to 18 inches
- D.
24 to 36 inches
Correct Answer
C. 12 to 18 inchesExplanation
When administering a vaginal douche, the bag should be hung 12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina. This height allows for a gentle flow of the solution into the vaginal canal without causing discomfort or excessive pressure. Hanging the bag too low may result in a slow or incomplete administration, while hanging it too high may cause the solution to flow too quickly or forcefully, potentially causing discomfort or injury to the patient.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Which medication's primary action is pain relief?
- A.
Endorphins, hypnotics, and sedatives
- B.
Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics
- C.
Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics
- D.
Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo
Correct Answer
B. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnoticsExplanation
The primary action of analgesics is pain relief, making them the medication that best fits the description. Sedatives and hypnotics may also have some pain-relieving properties, but they are not primarily used for that purpose. The other options listed do not include analgesics as a primary action.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Opioids are contraindicated with
- A.
The treatment of extremity injuries
- B.
Phenergan combination
- C.
Head injury treatment
- D.
Caffeine use
Correct Answer
C. Head injury treatmentExplanation
Opioids are contraindicated with head injury treatment because they can depress the central nervous system and mask the symptoms of a worsening head injury. Opioids can also increase intracranial pressure, which can be dangerous for someone with a head injury. Therefore, it is important to avoid using opioids in the treatment of head injuries.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Opioid antagonists are used in the treatment of
- A.
Acetaminophen overdose
- B.
Ibuprofen overdose
- C.
Vitamin C overdose
- D.
Opioid overdose
Correct Answer
D. Opioid overdoseExplanation
Opioid antagonists are medications that are used to treat opioid overdose. Opioids are a class of drugs that include prescription painkillers like oxycodone and hydrocodone, as well as illegal drugs like heroin. Opioid antagonists work by blocking the effects of opioids in the body, which can help reverse the effects of an overdose. They can be administered in emergency situations to help prevent respiratory depression and other dangerous symptoms associated with opioid overdose. Acetaminophen overdose, ibuprofen overdose, and vitamin C overdose are not treated with opioid antagonists.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Nonopioid analgesics are available
- A.
Through product sampling
- B.
During clinical trials
- C.
By prescription only
- D.
Over the counter
Correct Answer
D. Over the counterExplanation
Nonopioid analgesics are available over the counter, meaning they can be purchased without a prescription. This means that individuals can easily access these medications from pharmacies or stores without needing to consult a healthcare professional. This convenience allows people to manage their pain symptoms quickly and efficiently.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
- A.
Preventing the formation of prostaglandins
- B.
The recovery of alcohol abuse
- C.
Increased kidney functions
- D.
Curing joint dysfunctions
Correct Answer
A. Preventing the formation of prostaglandinsExplanation
Prostaglandins are hormone-like substances that play a role in inflammation. They are produced by the body in response to injury or infection and can cause pain, swelling, and redness. By preventing the formation of prostaglandins, anti-inflammatory actions can help reduce these symptoms and decrease inflammation in the body. This can be beneficial for managing conditions such as arthritis, muscle sprains, and certain types of pain.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A common side effect of sedatives and hypnotic medications is
- A.
A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep
- B.
An increased risk for developing cardiovascular disease
- C.
The constant stimulation to the central nervous system
- D.
The high level of red blood cell production
Correct Answer
A. A depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleepExplanation
Sedatives and hypnotic medications can cause a depressed state of rapid eye movement (REM) phase of sleep. REM sleep is a crucial stage of the sleep cycle where dreaming occurs and is important for cognitive function and emotional well-being. Sedatives and hypnotics can disrupt the normal sleep pattern by suppressing REM sleep, leading to a decrease in the quality of sleep and potential negative effects on overall health.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which over the counter central nervous system stimulant is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
- A.
Dexadrine
- B.
Concerta
- C.
Caffeine
- D.
Ritalin
Correct Answer
C. CaffeineExplanation
Caffeine is an over-the-counter central nervous system stimulant that is frequently taken in prolonged high doses. It can lead to habituation and psychological dependence. Caffeine is commonly found in beverages like coffee, tea, and energy drinks, as well as in some medications and supplements. Its stimulant effects can increase alertness and improve focus, but prolonged and excessive use can lead to dependence and withdrawal symptoms when consumption is reduced or stopped.Rate this question:
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- 42.
What is not a side effect of tricyclics
- A.
Urinary retention
- B.
Pupil constriction
- C.
Cardiac arrhythmias
- D.
Postural hypotension
Correct Answer
B. Pupil constrictionExplanation
Pupil constriction is not a side effect of tricyclics. Tricyclic antidepressants typically cause dilated pupils, not constriction. These medications can affect the autonomic nervous system, leading to various side effects such as dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention. However, pupil constriction is not one of the commonly observed side effects of tricyclic antidepressant use.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Antianxiety medications are prescribed for
- A.
Suicidal tendencies treatment
- B.
The treatment of withdrawals
- C.
Prolonged treatment
- D.
To treatment of insomnia
Correct Answer
D. To treatment of insomniaExplanation
Antianxiety medications are prescribed to treat insomnia. These medications help to reduce anxiety and promote relaxation, which can help individuals with insomnia fall asleep and stay asleep. By addressing the underlying anxiety that may be contributing to sleep difficulties, antianxiety medications can be an effective treatment option for insomnia.Rate this question:
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- 44.
Antipsychotics medications are categorized as
- A.
Hypnotics
- B.
Major tranquilizers
- C.
Seizure medication
- D.
Antisynovial producers
Correct Answer
B. Major tranquilizersExplanation
Antipsychotic medications are categorized as major tranquilizers because they are primarily used to treat severe mental illnesses such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These medications work by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps to reduce hallucinations, delusions, and other psychotic symptoms. The term "major tranquilizers" is often used to describe these medications because they have a calming effect on individuals with these conditions, helping to stabilize their mood and behavior.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) common to typical phenothiazines antipsychotic medications is a result of
- A.
Increasing body secretion function
- B.
Decreasing norepinephrine relay
- C.
Increasing serotonin reuptake
- D.
Blocking dopamine receptors
Correct Answer
D. Blocking dopamine receptorsExplanation
Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) are commonly seen with typical phenothiazine antipsychotic medications. These side effects occur as a result of blocking dopamine receptors. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that plays a crucial role in motor control. Blocking dopamine receptors can disrupt the normal functioning of the basal ganglia, leading to EPS symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. By blocking dopamine receptors, these medications can interfere with the delicate balance of neurotransmitters in the brain, resulting in these unwanted side effects.Rate this question:
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- 46.
Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
- A.
Certigo
- B.
Diplopia
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Bradycardia
Correct Answer
C. TachycardiaExplanation
Digitalis is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can also have toxic side effects. Certigo and diplopia are not side effects commonly associated with digitalis toxicity. Tachycardia refers to a rapid heart rate, which is a known side effect of digitalis. However, bradycardia, a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is tachycardia.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which pulse point should be checked before the administration of digitalis?
- A.
Brachial
- B.
Apical
- C.
Radial
- D.
Pedal
Correct Answer
B. ApicalExplanation
Before the administration of digitalis, the apical pulse point should be checked. The apical pulse is the heartbeat that can be felt by placing a stethoscope on the chest, specifically over the apex of the heart. Digitalis is a medication used to treat certain heart conditions, so it is important to check the apical pulse to assess the heart rate and rhythm before administering the medication. This helps ensure that the medication is given safely and appropriately. Checking the brachial, radial, or pedal pulse points would not provide the same information about the heart's function.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
- A.
Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
- B.
Heart block and congestive heart failure
- C.
Option 3
- D.
Option 4
Correct Answer
A. Lung conditions that cause bronchospasmExplanation
Adrenergic blockers are medications that block the effects of adrenaline in the body. In low doses, they can be used to treat patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm. Bronchospasm is a condition characterized by the constriction of the airways in the lungs, leading to difficulty in breathing. By blocking the effects of adrenaline, adrenergic blockers can help relax the muscles in the airways and improve airflow, making it easier for patients to breathe. This is why they are used in low doses for patients with lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.Rate this question:
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- 49.
Calcium channel blocker should not be taken with
- A.
Grapefruit juice
- B.
Soy products
- C.
Water
- D.
Milk
Correct Answer
A. Grapefruit juiceExplanation
Grapefruit juice should not be taken with calcium channel blockers because it can interfere with the way the medication is metabolized in the body. Grapefruit juice contains compounds that inhibit the enzyme responsible for breaking down the medication, leading to higher levels of the drug in the bloodstream. This can increase the risk of side effects and potentially cause harmful interactions. It is important to avoid consuming grapefruit juice while taking calcium channel blockers to ensure the medication is effective and safe.Rate this question:
-
- 50.
The drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with myocardial infarction is
- A.
Epinephrine
- B.
Lidocaine
- C.
Tonocard
- D.
Ultram
Correct Answer
B. LidocaineExplanation
Lidocaine is the drug of choice when treating premature ventricular contractions associated with myocardial infarction. Lidocaine is a class Ib antiarrhythmic medication that works by blocking sodium channels in the heart, which helps to stabilize the heart's rhythm. It is commonly used in emergency situations, such as during a myocardial infarction, to prevent and treat life-threatening arrhythmias. Epinephrine is not typically used for this purpose, as it primarily acts as a vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator. Tonocard and Ultram are not indicated for the treatment of premature ventricular contractions.Rate this question:
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Nov 29, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Oct 03, 2020Quiz Created by
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