Doh Exam

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  • 1/100 Questions

    ..... is used as an antidote for paracetamol poisoning

    • Charcoal
    • Methionine
    • Acetylcysteine
    • Naloxone
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Disease Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

The DOH exam quiz assesses knowledge in pharmacology, focusing on antidotes, treatments for specific conditions, and drug mechanisms. It is designed for healthcare professionals and students preparing for medical licensure exams.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is used in treatment of  cytomegalovirus in retinitis in AIDS?

    • Toremifene

    • Tamoxifen

    • Calcium folinate

    • Foscarnet sodium

    Correct Answer
    A. Foscarnet sodium
    Explanation
    Foscarnet sodium is used in the treatment of cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis in AIDS. CMV retinitis is a viral infection that affects the retina of the eye, and it is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS. Foscarnet sodium is an antiviral medication that works by inhibiting the replication of CMV. It is administered intravenously and is considered a second-line treatment option for CMV retinitis when other antiviral drugs are not effective or cannot be used. Toremifene, tamoxifen, and calcium folinate are not used in the treatment of CMV retinitis.

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  • 3. 

    ....... is peptide hormone released from posterior pituitarty ?

    • Estrogen

    • Tamoxifen

    • Oxytocin

    • Ethinylestradiol

    • Prostaglandin

    Correct Answer
    A. Oxytocin
    Explanation
    Oxytocin is a peptide hormone released from the posterior pituitary. It plays a crucial role in various reproductive functions, including uterine contractions during childbirth and milk ejection during breastfeeding. Oxytocin also influences social bonding and maternal behavior.

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  • 4. 

    ...... increase cyclic AMP levels by inhibiting its breakdown by the enzyme phosphodiesterase > it also acts on adenosine antagonist at several adinose receptor sites

    • Fluticasone

    • Mometasone

    • Theophylline

    • Cromolyn sodium

    • Triamcinolone acetonide

    Correct Answer
    A. Theophylline
    Explanation
    Theophylline increases cyclic AMP levels by inhibiting its breakdown by the enzyme phosphodiesterase. It also acts as an adenosine antagonist at several adenosine receptor sites.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is 5HT1 agonist used for the treatment of migraine

    • Ergotamine

    • Methysergide

    • Zolmitriptan

    • Isometheptene mucate

    • Clonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Zolmitriptan
    Explanation
    Zolmitriptan is a 5HT1 agonist that is used for the treatment of migraine. It works by binding to specific serotonin receptors in the brain, causing vasoconstriction and reducing inflammation. This helps to relieve the symptoms of migraine, such as headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound. Zolmitriptan is commonly used in the acute treatment of migraine attacks and has been found to be effective in relieving pain and associated symptoms.

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  • 6. 

    ...... is antimalarial agent used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthitis

    • Mefloquine

    • Hydroxychloroquine

    • Quinine

    • Chloroquine

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydroxychloroquine
    Explanation
    Hydroxychloroquine is an antimalarial agent that is also used in the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis. It is commonly prescribed to reduce pain and inflammation in the joints caused by this autoimmune disease. Hydroxychloroquine works by suppressing the immune system and reducing the production of certain chemicals that cause inflammation. It is often used in combination with other medications to manage the symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis and improve the overall quality of life for patients.

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  • 7. 

    Which vitamin overdose toxicity cause increased anticoagulant action of warfarine

    • Vitmin A

    • Folic acid

    • Vitamin E

    • Vitamin K

    • Vitamin C

    Correct Answer
    A. Vitamin E
    Explanation
    Vitamin E overdose can cause increased anticoagulant action of warfarin. Warfarin is a medication used as a blood thinner to prevent blood clots. Vitamin E has blood-thinning properties and can enhance the effects of warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, taking high doses of vitamin E along with warfarin can potentially result in excessive anticoagulation and bleeding complications.

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  • 8. 

    ..... Is antifoaming agent used to relieve flatulence

    • Magnesium hydroxide

    • Aluminium hydroxide

    • Sodium bicarbonate

    • Alginates

    • Simethicone

    Correct Answer
    A. Simethicone
    Explanation
    Simethicone is an antifoaming agent used to relieve flatulence. It works by breaking down gas bubbles in the stomach and intestines, allowing them to be passed more easily. This helps to reduce bloating, discomfort, and excessive gas caused by the accumulation of gas in the digestive system. Magnesium hydroxide, aluminium hydroxide, sodium bicarbonate, and alginates are not specifically antifoaming agents and are used for different purposes such as antacids or as a protective barrier for the stomach lining.

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  • 9. 

    All of the following are H2 receptor antagonist except

    • Cimetidine

    • Ranitidine

    • Nifedipine

    • Famotidine

    • Nizatidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Nifedipine
    Explanation
    Nifedipine is not an H2 receptor antagonist. It is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat high blood pressure and angina. H2 receptor antagonists, on the other hand, are a class of drugs that block the action of histamine on the H2 receptors in the stomach, reducing the production of stomach acid. Examples of H2 receptor antagonists include cimetidine, ranitidine, famotidine, and nizatidine.

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  • 10. 

    ....... is / are corticosteroid used in the treatment of crohn's disease

    • Dexamthasone

    • Budesonide

    • Betamethasone

    • Prednisolone

    • Budesonide and Prednisolone

    Correct Answer
    A. Budesonide
    Explanation
    Budesonide is a corticosteroid that is commonly used in the treatment of Crohn's disease. It works by reducing inflammation in the intestines, which helps to alleviate symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and rectal bleeding. Budesonide is often preferred over other corticosteroids because it has a high first-pass metabolism, meaning that it is rapidly metabolized in the liver and has a lower systemic bioavailability. This helps to minimize the side effects often associated with long-term corticosteroid use.

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  • 11. 

    ...... is a bile acid sequesterant

    • Ursodeoxycholic acid

    • Pancreatin

    • Colestyramine

    • Glyceryltrinitrate

    • Phenol

    Correct Answer
    A. Colestyramine
    Explanation
    Colestyramine is a bile acid sequestrant. Bile acid sequestrants are medications that bind to bile acids in the intestines, preventing their reabsorption. This helps to lower cholesterol levels in the body as bile acids are made from cholesterol. Colestyramine is commonly used to treat high cholesterol and can also be used to relieve itching caused by liver disease.

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  • 12. 

    ..... is a cardiac glycoside eliminated by the liver

    • Digitoxin

    • Milrinone

    • Digoxin

    • Enoximone

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Digitoxin
    A. Digoxin
    Explanation
    Both Digitoxin and Digoxin are cardiac glycosides that are eliminated by the liver.

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  • 13. 

    All of the following are thiazide diurteics except

    • Bendroflumethazide

    • Hydrochlorthiazide

    • Chlorthalidone

    • Indapamide

    • Eplerenone

    Correct Answer
    A. Eplerenone
    Explanation
    Eplerenone is not a thiazide diuretic. Thiazide diuretics are a type of medication used to treat high blood pressure and edema by increasing urine production. Bendroflumethazide, hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone, and indapamide are all examples of thiazide diuretics. Eplerenone, on the other hand, is a selective aldosterone receptor antagonist that works by blocking the effects of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes sodium and water retention. While it is also used to treat high blood pressure, it is not classified as a thiazide diuretic.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following antifungal agents is used in Histoplasmosis?

    • Fluconazole

    • Ketoconazole

    • Caspofungin

    • Voriconazole

    • Flucytosine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ketoconazole
    Explanation
    Ketoconazole is used in the treatment of Histoplasmosis, a fungal infection caused by Histoplasma capsulatum. It is an antifungal agent that works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, an essential component of fungal cell membranes. This disruption of the cell membrane leads to the death of the fungus. Ketoconazole is effective against a wide range of fungal infections, including Histoplasmosis.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following is an alkaloid used in the treatment of arrhythmias?

    • Lidocaine

    • Mexiletine

    • Verapamil

    • Quinidine

    • Propafenone

    Correct Answer
    A. Quinidine
    Explanation
    Quinidine is an alkaloid that is commonly used in the treatment of arrhythmias. It works by blocking certain electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heart's rhythm. This medication is often prescribed for conditions such as atrial fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia. Quinidine is classified as a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug and is known to have both antiarrhythmic and antimalarial properties. It is important to note that Quinidine should only be used under the guidance and supervision of a healthcare professional.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following betablockes are water soluble?

    • Atenolol

    • Celiprolol

    • Nadolol

    • Sotalol

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. All of the above
    Explanation
    All of the above beta blockers (Atenolol, Celiprolol, Nadolol, and Sotalol) are water soluble.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is a sympathomimetic topical nasal decongestant?

    • Ephedrine nasal drops

    • Mometasone fuorate

    • Xylometazoline hydrochloride

    • All of the above

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Ephedrine nasal drops
    A. Xylometazoline hydrochloride
    Explanation
    Ephedrine nasal drops and Xylometazoline hydrochloride are both sympathomimetic topical nasal decongestants. This means that they work by constricting the blood vessels in the nasal passages, reducing swelling and congestion. Mometasone fuorate, on the other hand, is a corticosteroid nasal spray, which works by reducing inflammation in the nasal passages. Therefore, the correct answer is Ephedrine nasal drops and Xylometazoline hydrochloride, as they are both sympathomimetic topical nasal decongestants.

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  • 18. 

    Which betablocker is indicated in the treatment of hypertension in pregnanacy?

    • Bisoprolol

    • Carvedilol

    • Oxoprenolol

    • Labetalol

    • Celiprolol

    Correct Answer
    A. Labetalol
    Explanation
    Labetalol is indicated in the treatment of hypertension in pregnancy because it is a beta blocker that has both alpha- and beta-blocking properties. This allows it to lower blood pressure without causing significant constriction of blood vessels, which is important for maintaining adequate blood flow to the placenta and fetus. Labetalol is considered safe to use during pregnancy and is commonly used for the management of hypertension in pregnant women.

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  • 19. 

    The main side effect of ACE inihibitors is

    • Drowsiness

    • Tachycardia

    • Dry cough

    • Palpitation

    • Systemic lupus erythematous

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry cough
    Explanation
    ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure. One of the most common side effects of ACE inhibitors is a dry cough. This occurs due to the inhibition of an enzyme called ACE, which can lead to an accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs. Bradykinin is known to cause irritation and inflammation in the airways, resulting in a persistent dry cough. Therefore, dry cough is the main side effect associated with ACE inhibitors.

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  • 20. 

    .... is used in erectile dysfunction

    • Valsartan

    • Terazosin

    • Minxoidil

    • Diazoxide

    • Sildenafil

    Correct Answer
    A. Sildenafil
    Explanation
    Sildenafil is used in erectile dysfunction. It is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitors. It works by increasing blood flow to the penis during sexual stimulation, allowing for an erection to occur. Sildenafil is commonly sold under the brand name Viagra and is a widely prescribed treatment for erectile dysfunction.

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  • 21. 

    ..... is an oral ion chelator

    • Deferoxamine

    • Hydroxycobalamin

    • Deferiprone

    • Folinic acid

    • Cyanocobalamin

    Correct Answer
    A. Deferiprone
    Explanation
    Deferiprone is an oral ion chelator used to treat iron overload in patients with thalassemia. It works by binding to excess iron in the body and facilitating its excretion. This helps to reduce iron levels and prevent complications associated with iron overload, such as organ damage. Deferiprone is taken orally, making it a convenient option for patients who cannot or prefer not to receive intravenous iron chelation therapy. Hydroxycobalamin, cyanocobalamin, and folinic acid are not ion chelators, and while hydroxycobalamin and cyanocobalamin are forms of vitamin B12, they do not have chelating properties.

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  • 22. 

    ...... is indicated in migraine

    • Glyceryl trinitrate

    • Sodium nitroprusside

    • Methyldopa

    • Moxonidine

    • Clonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Clonidine
    Explanation
    Clonidine is indicated in migraine because it acts as an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist, which reduces sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system. This leads to decreased release of norepinephrine and ultimately reduces the frequency and severity of migraines.

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  • 23. 

    All of the following is indicated in Benign prostatic hyperplasia except

    • Terazosin

    • Doxazosin

    • Indoramin

    • Prazosin

    • Moxonidine

    Correct Answer
    A. Moxonidine
    Explanation
    Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the prostate gland, leading to urinary symptoms such as frequent urination, weak urine flow, and difficulty in starting and stopping urination. Terazosin, Doxazosin, Indoramin, and Prazosin are all alpha-blocker medications commonly used to treat BPH. They work by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow and reducing symptoms. However, Moxonidine is not indicated for the treatment of BPH. Moxonidine is actually a centrally acting antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure by reducing sympathetic nerve activity. Therefore, it is not indicated for the treatment of BPH.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following is angiotensin II antagonist

    • Fluphenazine

    • Nifedipine

    • Pentazosin

    • Valsartan

    • Gemfibrozil

    Correct Answer
    A. Valsartan
    Explanation
    Valsartan is an angiotensin II antagonist. Angiotensin II is a hormone that causes blood vessels to narrow, leading to increased blood pressure. Angiotensin II antagonists block the action of this hormone, causing blood vessels to relax and blood pressure to decrease. Fluphenazine, Nifedipine, Pentazosin, and Gemfibrozil are not angiotensin II antagonists.

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  • 25. 

    GTN stands for

    • Sodium nitroprusside

    • Nitroglycerine

    • Isodorbide dinitrate

    • Glyceryl trinitrate

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Nitroglycerine
    A. Glyceryl trinitrate
    Explanation
    GTN stands for Glyceryl trinitrate, which is a medication used to treat angina (chest pain) and heart failure. It works by relaxing and widening the blood vessels, allowing for increased blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. Nitroglycerine is another name for Glyceryl trinitrate and is commonly used in medical literature and discussions.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following are calcium channel blockers except

    • Verapamil

    • Amlodipine

    • Diltiazem

    • Ivabradine

    • Nifedipine

    Correct Answer
    A. Ivabradine
    Explanation
    Ivabradine is not a calcium channel blocker. It is a medication that works by reducing the heart rate without affecting the calcium channels. Calcium channel blockers, such as Verapamil, Amlodipine, Diltiazem, and Nifedipine, work by blocking the calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels, resulting in relaxation of the blood vessels and decreased heart rate.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following is used in the treatment of Raynaud's Syndrome

    • Nifedipine

    • Inositol

    • Nimodipine

    • Oxypentifylline

    • Cilostazol

    Correct Answer
    A. Nifedipine
    Explanation
    Nifedipine is used in the treatment of Raynaud's Syndrome. Raynaud's Syndrome is a condition characterized by spasms in the blood vessels, causing them to narrow and restrict blood flow to certain areas of the body, typically the fingers and toes. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker, which helps to relax and widen the blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the frequency and severity of Raynaud's attacks. It is a commonly prescribed medication for managing the symptoms of Raynaud's Syndrome.

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  • 28. 

    .... is a vasoconstrictor sympathomimetic

    • Acetylcholine

    • Norepinephrine bitartrate

    • Dobutamine

    • Dopexamine

    • Acetylcholine and Norepinephrine bitartrate

    Correct Answer
    A. Norepinephrine bitartrate
    Explanation
    Norepinephrine bitartrate is a vasoconstrictor sympathomimetic because it acts on the sympathetic nervous system to constrict blood vessels. This leads to an increase in blood pressure and a decrease in blood flow to certain areas of the body.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is oral anticoagulant

    • Heparin

    • Enoxaparin

    • Protamine sulphate

    • Acenocoumarol

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. Acenocoumarol
    Explanation
    Acenocoumarol is an oral anticoagulant because it is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits the production of certain clotting factors in the liver. It is commonly used to prevent blood clots and treat conditions such as deep vein thrombosis and atrial fibrillation. Unlike heparin and enoxaparin, which are administered via injection, acenocoumarol is taken orally in tablet form. Protamine sulphate, on the other hand, is not an anticoagulant but is used to reverse the effects of heparin. Therefore, the correct answer is Acenocoumarol.

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  • 30. 

    ..... is a synthetic pentasachharide that inhibits activatated Factor X

    • Nicoumalone

    • Eptifibatide

    • Dipyridamole

    • Clopidogrel

    • Fondaparinux

    Correct Answer
    A. Fondaparinux
    Explanation
    Fondaparinux is a synthetic pentasaccharide that inhibits activated Factor X. It acts as an anticoagulant by binding to antithrombin III and enhancing its inhibitory effect on Factor Xa. This prevents the formation of thrombin and ultimately inhibits the blood clotting process. Fondaparinux is used for the prevention and treatment of deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and as a prophylaxis for thromboembolic events in patients undergoing surgery.

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  • 31. 

    All of the following are glycoprotein 11b/111a inhibtors except

    • Abciximab

    • Tirofiban

    • Eptifibatide

    • Clopidogrel

    • Tirofiban and clopidogrel

    Correct Answer
    A. Clopidogrel
    Explanation
    Clopidogrel is not a glycoprotein 11b/111a inhibitor. It belongs to a different class of medications called P2Y12 inhibitors. Glycoprotein 11b/111a inhibitors, on the other hand, directly inhibit the glycoprotein receptors on platelets, preventing platelet aggregation. Abciximab, Tirofiban, and Eptifibatide are all examples of glycoprotein 11b/111a inhibitors. Therefore, Clopidogrel is the correct answer as it does not belong to this class of medications.

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  • 32. 

    ....... is a fibrinolytic drug

    • Tranexamic acid

    • Aprotinin

    • Alteplase

    • Drotrecogin alfa

    • Etamsylate

    Correct Answer
    A. Alteplase
    Explanation
    Alteplase is a fibrinolytic drug used to dissolve blood clots in various medical conditions such as heart attack, stroke, and pulmonary embolism. It works by activating the body's natural clot-dissolving system, converting plasminogen to plasmin, which breaks down the fibrin meshwork of blood clots. This helps restore blood flow and prevent further complications. Tranexamic acid, aprotinin, drotrecogin alfa, and etamsylate are not fibrinolytic drugs and have different mechanisms of action.

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  • 33. 

    ..... is a proteolytic enzyme inhibtor acting on plasma and kallikrein

    • Ethamsylate

    • Tranexamic acid

    • Desmopressin

    • Aprotinin

    • Tranexamic acid and Desmopressin

    Correct Answer
    A. Aprotinin
    Explanation
    Aprotinin is a proteolytic enzyme inhibitor that acts on both plasma and kallikrein. It is commonly used in medical procedures to reduce bleeding and prevent excessive blood loss. Aprotinin works by inhibiting the activity of enzymes that break down proteins involved in blood clotting, thereby promoting clot formation and reducing bleeding. This makes it an effective choice for controlling bleeding during surgeries or other procedures where there is a risk of excessive bleeding.

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  • 34. 

    ...... is used in treatment of panic disorder , it exerts its action by binding to the GABA receptor causing an influx of chloride ions into the locus ceruleus neurons, which are the main source of non adrengeric output in the brain , the result is reduction of nor epinephrine output

    • Gabapentin

    • Carbamazepine

    • Methysergide

    • Alprazolam

    • Paroxetine

    Correct Answer
    A. Alprazolam
    Explanation
    Alprazolam is the correct answer because it is a medication commonly used in the treatment of panic disorder. It works by binding to the GABA receptor, which causes an influx of chloride ions into the locus ceruleus neurons. The locus ceruleus neurons are responsible for non-adrenergic output in the brain, and by reducing nor epinephrine output, Alprazolam helps to alleviate symptoms of panic disorder.

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  • 35. 

    Which of the following is anion exchange resin?

    • Cholestyramine

    • Gemfibrozil

    • Bezafibrate

    • Cloestipol

    • Cholestyramine and colestipol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Cholestyramine
    A. Cloestipol
    A. Cholestyramine and colestipol
    Explanation
    Anion exchange resins are used to remove negatively charged ions from a solution. Cholestyramine and colestipol are both anion exchange resins commonly used to treat high cholesterol levels. They work by binding to bile acids in the intestines, preventing their reabsorption and promoting their elimination from the body. This helps to lower cholesterol levels. Therefore, the correct answer is Cholestyramine, Cloestipol, Cholestyramine and colestipol.

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  • 36. 

    All of the following are fibrates except

    • Bezafibrate

    • Ciprofibrate

    • Fenofibrate

    • Gemfibrozil

    • None of the above

    Correct Answer
    A. None of the above
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "None of the above". This means that all of the options listed (Bezafibrate, Ciprofibrate, Fenofibrate, and Gemfibrozil) are fibrates. Therefore, there is no exception among the given options.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor

    • Ezetimibe

    • Ethanolamine oleate

    • Atorvastatin

    • Acipimox

    • Ezetimibe and Atorvastatin

    Correct Answer
    A. Atorvastatin
    Explanation
    Atorvastatin is a HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor. HMG Co-A reductase is an enzyme involved in the production of cholesterol in the liver. By inhibiting this enzyme, Atorvastatin helps to lower cholesterol levels in the blood. It is commonly prescribed to treat high cholesterol and reduce the risk of heart disease.

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  • 38. 

    Which of the following NSAID is from Anthranilic acid group

    • Acetylsalicilic acid

    • Indomethacin

    • Mefenamic acid

    • Sulindac

    • Diclofenac

    Correct Answer
    A. Mefenamic acid
    Explanation
    Mefenamic acid is from the Anthranilic acid group. It is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is commonly used to relieve pain, inflammation, and fever. It works by inhibiting the production of certain chemicals in the body that cause pain and inflammation.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following is a short acting beta 2 agonist

    • Salmeterol

    • Terbutaline

    • Formoterol

    • Salbutamol

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Terbutaline
    A. Salbutamol
    Explanation
    Terbutaline and Salbutamol are both short-acting beta-2 agonists used for the treatment of asthma and other respiratory conditions. These medications work by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, allowing for easier breathing. Salmeterol and Formoterol, on the other hand, are long-acting beta-2 agonists that provide a more sustained bronchodilator effect and are typically used for maintenance therapy in asthma. Therefore, Terbutaline and Salbutamol are the correct answers as they are both short-acting beta-2 agonists.

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  • 40. 

    Is a polyene macrolide used as an antifungal agent

    • Candicidin

    • Clarithromycin

    • Nystatin

    • Natamycin

    • Tolnaftate

    Correct Answer
    A. Nystatin
    Explanation
    Nystatin is a polyene macrolide that is commonly used as an antifungal agent. It works by binding to ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes, and causing damage to the cell membrane. This leads to leakage of cellular contents and ultimately kills the fungus. Nystatin is primarily used topically to treat fungal infections of the skin, mouth, and vagina. It is not well absorbed by the body when taken orally, so it is not effective for systemic fungal infections.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following is antimuscarinic bronchodilator

    • Orchiprenaline

    • Ephedrine

    • Ipratropium

    • Theophylline

    • Ipratropium and Theophylline

    Correct Answer
    A. Ipratropium
    Explanation
    Ipratropium is an antimuscarinic bronchodilator. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that causes constriction of the airways. By blocking this action, ipratropium helps to relax and widen the airways, making it easier to breathe. This makes it an effective medication for treating conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following used in the prophylaxis of asthma

    • Nedocromil

    • Acrivastine

    • Acetylcysteine

    • Budesonide

    • Dexamethasone

    Correct Answer
    A. Nedocromil
    Explanation
    Nedocromil is used in the prophylaxis of asthma. It is a medication that belongs to the class of mast cell stabilizers. It works by preventing the release of substances in the body that cause inflammation and narrowing of the airways, thereby reducing the frequency and severity of asthma attacks. Nedocromil is typically used as a preventive treatment rather than a rescue medication for asthma. It is available in the form of an inhaler and is prescribed for long-term management of asthma symptoms. Other options listed, such as acrivastine, acetylcysteine, budesonide, and dexamethasone, are not typically used for asthma prophylaxis.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following absorption enhancers is a bile salt

    • Sodium lauryl sulfate

    • Sodium glycocholate

    • Sodium caprylate

    • Sodium lauryl sulfate and Sodium caprylate

    • All the answers

    Correct Answer
    A. Sodium glycocholate
    Explanation
    Sodium glycocholate is a bile salt, which is a type of absorption enhancer. Bile salts are natural substances produced by the liver and stored in the gallbladder, and they play a key role in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine. In pharmaceutical formulations, bile salts can be used as absorption enhancers to improve the absorption of drugs across biological membranes. Sodium glycocholate specifically is a commonly used bile salt in pharmaceutical applications due to its ability to increase the solubility and permeability of drugs, thereby enhancing their absorption.

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  • 44. 

    Which of the following is leukotriene receptor antagonist

    • Cetrizine

    • Montelukast

    • Fexofenadine

    • Omalizumab

    • Promethazine

    Correct Answer
    A. Montelukast
    Explanation
    Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Leukotrienes are inflammatory mediators that play a role in conditions such as asthma and allergic rhinitis. Montelukast works by blocking the action of leukotrienes, reducing inflammation and preventing symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Therefore, Montelukast is the correct answer as it specifically targets and antagonizes leukotriene receptors.

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  • 45. 

    Which of the following is ADH antagonist

    • Posterior pituitary hormone

    • Demeclocycline

    • Vasopressin

    • Desmopressin

    • Lypressin

    Correct Answer
    A. Demeclocycline
    Explanation
    Demeclocycline is an antibiotic that acts as an antagonist to the antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland and helps regulate water balance in the body by promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys. However, demeclocycline blocks the action of ADH, preventing water reabsorption and leading to increased urine production. This property of demeclocycline makes it useful in the treatment of conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), where there is an excess of ADH causing water retention.

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  • 46. 

    Which of the following is used in tuberculosis patients

    • Streptomycin

    • Netilmicin

    • Tobramycin

    • Gentamicin

    • Neomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Streptomycin
    Explanation
    Streptomycin is used in tuberculosis patients because it is an effective antibiotic that specifically targets the bacteria that causes tuberculosis. It inhibits protein synthesis in the bacteria, leading to their death. Streptomycin is often used in combination with other antibiotics to treat tuberculosis, as it helps to prevent the development of drug resistance.

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  • 47. 

    All of the following are non sedating anthistamine except

    • Desolratadine

    • Levocetrizine

    • Misolastine

    • Acrivastine

    • Clemastine

    Correct Answer
    A. Clemastine
    Explanation
    Clemastine is not a non-sedating antihistamine. It is a first-generation antihistamine that can cause drowsiness and sedation as a side effect. The other options listed (Desloratadine, Levocetirizine, Misolastine, and Acrivastine) are all second-generation antihistamines known for their non-sedating properties. These antihistamines are designed to have minimal effects on the central nervous system, making them a preferred choice for individuals who need relief from allergy symptoms without experiencing drowsiness.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is a low molecular weight heparin

    • Thrombin

    • Warfarin

    • Hirudin

    • Enoxaparin

    • Ximelagatran

    Correct Answer
    A. Enoxaparin
    Explanation
    Enoxaparin is a low molecular weight heparin. Heparin is a medication used to prevent and treat blood clots. It works by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors in the blood. Enoxaparin is a specific type of heparin that has a lower molecular weight compared to regular heparin. This means that it has a smaller size and is more easily absorbed and distributed in the body. Enoxaparin is commonly used to prevent blood clots in patients undergoing surgery or those at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism.

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  • 49. 

    ...... effectilvely inhibits neuromuscular transmission in the parasite

    • Primethamine

    • Pyrantel pamoate

    • Sulfadoxine

    • Primaquine

    • Praziquentel

    Correct Answer
    A. Pyrantel pamoate
    Explanation
    Pyrantel pamoate is the correct answer because it effectively inhibits neuromuscular transmission in the parasite. This means that it disrupts the communication between the nerves and muscles of the parasite, leading to paralysis and eventually death. Pyrantel pamoate is commonly used to treat parasitic infections, particularly those caused by roundworms and hookworms. Its mode of action makes it highly effective in eliminating these parasites from the body.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 25, 2011
    Quiz Created by
    Hisham Mahmoud

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