Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Quiz: Test!

1. Volume in milliliters occupied by 1 gram of a drug, including any adhering mucilage, after it has swollen in an aqueous liquid for 4 hours is

Water number

Swelling Index

Tannin Content

Bitterness value

The swelling index refers to the volume in milliliters occupied by 1 gram of a drug after it has swollen in an aqueous liquid for 4 hours. This measurement is used to determine the extent to which a drug can absorb and retain water, which can be important for its dissolution and absorption in the body. Therefore, the swelling index is the most appropriate answer in this context.

Explanation

The swelling index refers to the volume in milliliters occupied by 1 gram of a drug after it has swollen in an aqueous liquid for 4 hours. This measurement is used to determine the extent to which a drug can absorb and retain water, which can be important for its dissolution and absorption in the body. Therefore, the swelling index is the most appropriate answer in this context.

2. Distribution of drug in the human body depends on its

Dissociation constant

Type of dosage form in which it dispensed

Route of drug administration

All of these

The distribution of a drug in the human body depends on various factors, including its dissociation constant, the type of dosage form in which it is dispensed, and the route of drug administration. The dissociation constant determines the extent to which the drug will dissociate into its active form in the body. The type of dosage form affects the rate and extent of drug release, absorption, and distribution. The route of drug administration determines how the drug enters the body and reaches its target site. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in the distribution of a drug in the human body.

Explanation

The distribution of a drug in the human body depends on various factors, including its dissociation constant, the type of dosage form in which it is dispensed, and the route of drug administration. The dissociation constant determines the extent to which the drug will dissociate into its active form in the body. The type of dosage form affects the rate and extent of drug release, absorption, and distribution. The route of drug administration determines how the drug enters the body and reaches its target site. Therefore, all of these factors play a role in the distribution of a drug in the human body.

3. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization is a regulatory authority of which country?

Japan

India

South Africa

Australia

Europe:European Medicines Agency (EMA)
Japan:Japanese Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Agency (PMDA)
Australia:Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

Explanation

Europe:European Medicines Agency (EMA)
Japan:Japanese Pharmaceuticals and Medical Devices Agency (PMDA)
Australia:Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

4. Stomatal index(SI) is used as an analytical constant for identification and authentification of:

Bark drug

Volatile oil

Leaf drug

Fixed oil

Stomatal index (SI) refers to the ratio of the number of stomata to the number of epidermal cells in a leaf. It is used as an analytical constant for the identification and authentication of leaf drugs. Leaf drugs are derived from various plant leaves and are used for medicinal purposes. By determining the stomatal index, one can analyze and authenticate the leaf drug, ensuring its quality and effectiveness.

Explanation

Stomatal index (SI) refers to the ratio of the number of stomata to the number of epidermal cells in a leaf. It is used as an analytical constant for the identification and authentication of leaf drugs. Leaf drugs are derived from various plant leaves and are used for medicinal purposes. By determining the stomatal index, one can analyze and authenticate the leaf drug, ensuring its quality and effectiveness.

5. Uitraviolet-Visible spectroscopy is a type of:

Emission spectroscopy

Absorption spectroscopy

Vibrational spectroscopy

None of these

UV-Visible spectroscopy is a type of absorption spectroscopy. In this technique, the sample absorbs UV or visible light, causing electronic transitions in the molecules. The absorbed light energy is then used to determine the concentration of the sample or to identify the presence of certain compounds. Emission spectroscopy, on the other hand, involves the emission of light by excited atoms or molecules, while vibrational spectroscopy focuses on the study of molecular vibrations. Therefore, the correct answer is absorption spectroscopy.

Explanation

UV-Visible spectroscopy is a type of absorption spectroscopy. In this technique, the sample absorbs UV or visible light, causing electronic transitions in the molecules. The absorbed light energy is then used to determine the concentration of the sample or to identify the presence of certain compounds. Emission spectroscopy, on the other hand, involves the emission of light by excited atoms or molecules, while vibrational spectroscopy focuses on the study of molecular vibrations. Therefore, the correct answer is absorption spectroscopy.

6. Which of the following group is electron-withdrawing & meta director?

-CN

-CF3

-SO3H

All of the above

All of the given groups, CN, CF3, and SO3H, are electron-withdrawing and meta directors. Electron-withdrawing groups have a strong ability to withdraw electron density from the benzene ring, making it more electron deficient. This results in a decrease in the electron density at the ortho and para positions and an increase in the electron density at the meta position. Therefore, these groups are considered meta directors as they direct incoming groups to the meta position in an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

Explanation

All of the given groups, CN, CF3, and SO3H, are electron-withdrawing and meta directors. Electron-withdrawing groups have a strong ability to withdraw electron density from the benzene ring, making it more electron deficient. This results in a decrease in the electron density at the ortho and para positions and an increase in the electron density at the meta position. Therefore, these groups are considered meta directors as they direct incoming groups to the meta position in an electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

7. "List of minimum equipment required for the efficient running of pharmacy" is given in:

Schedule M

Schedule N

Schedule R

Schedule Y

Schedule N is the correct answer because it provides a list of minimum equipment required for the efficient running of a pharmacy. This schedule is specifically related to the requirements for the storage and sale of drugs, and it outlines the necessary equipment and facilities that a pharmacy should have in order to ensure the safe and efficient dispensing of medications.

Explanation

Schedule N is the correct answer because it provides a list of minimum equipment required for the efficient running of a pharmacy. This schedule is specifically related to the requirements for the storage and sale of drugs, and it outlines the necessary equipment and facilities that a pharmacy should have in order to ensure the safe and efficient dispensing of medications.

8. Standards for ophthalmic preparation are included in which of the schedule of the Drug & Cosmetic Act?

Sch F(I)

Sch FF

Sch F(II)

Sch (III)

The correct answer is "sch FF". The question is asking which schedule of the Drug & Cosmetic Act includes standards for ophthalmic preparation. The correct schedule is sch FF.

Explanation

The correct answer is "sch FF". The question is asking which schedule of the Drug & Cosmetic Act includes standards for ophthalmic preparation. The correct schedule is sch FF.

9. Configuration of cardiac glycoside between A-B, B-C, C-D ring is?

Cis-cis-cis

Trans-cis-trans

Cis-trans-cis

Trans-trans-trans

The configuration of the cardiac glycoside between the A-B, B-C, and C-D rings is cis-trans-cis. This means that the A and B rings are in a cis configuration, the B and C rings are in a trans configuration, and the C and D rings are in a cis configuration.

Explanation

The configuration of the cardiac glycoside between the A-B, B-C, and C-D rings is cis-trans-cis. This means that the A and B rings are in a cis configuration, the B and C rings are in a trans configuration, and the C and D rings are in a cis configuration.

10. Corticosteroids act on which type of receptors?

Intermembrane receptors

Surface receptors

Nuclear receptors

Enzymes

Corticosteroids act on nuclear receptors. Nuclear receptors are a type of receptor found inside the cell, specifically in the cell nucleus. When corticosteroids bind to these receptors, they can regulate gene expression and affect various cellular processes. This interaction with nuclear receptors allows corticosteroids to exert their anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects.

Explanation

Corticosteroids act on nuclear receptors. Nuclear receptors are a type of receptor found inside the cell, specifically in the cell nucleus. When corticosteroids bind to these receptors, they can regulate gene expression and affect various cellular processes. This interaction with nuclear receptors allows corticosteroids to exert their anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects.

11. Which of the following nuclei has Odd Atomic mass & Atomic number and spin number(I) of 1/2?

1H

17O

13C

29Si

The correct answer is 1H because it is the only option that meets all the given criteria. 1H, also known as hydrogen, has an atomic mass of 1 and an atomic number of 1, making it odd. Additionally, it has a spin number (I) of 1/2, which is the characteristic of a proton. The other options, 17O, 13C, and 29Si, do not have an odd atomic mass and atomic number combination or a spin number of 1/2.

Explanation

The correct answer is 1H because it is the only option that meets all the given criteria. 1H, also known as hydrogen, has an atomic mass of 1 and an atomic number of 1, making it odd. Additionally, it has a spin number (I) of 1/2, which is the characteristic of a proton. The other options, 17O, 13C, and 29Si, do not have an odd atomic mass and atomic number combination or a spin number of 1/2.

12. Select inappropriate statement.

Neostigmine, Physostigmine, cough suppressant

Etoposide, Podophyllotoxin ,Anticancer

Dextromethorphan, Morphin, Analgesic

Sodium cromoglycate, Khellin, Anti asthmatic

Neostigmine and Physostigmine are not cough suppressants, but rather they are used as cholinesterase inhibitors to treat conditions such as myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents.

Explanation

Neostigmine and Physostigmine are not cough suppressants, but rather they are used as cholinesterase inhibitors to treat conditions such as myasthenia gravis and to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents.

13. Which one of the drug acts directly to alter fungal cell membrane permeability?

Ampicillin

Polymixin B

Amphotericin B

Streptomycin

Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent agent that alters the cell membrane permeability causing the change in potassium ion transport.

Explanation

Amphotericin B is an antifungal agent agent that alters the cell membrane permeability causing the change in potassium ion transport.

14. Danckwert's model proposed for the dissolution of the solid dosage form in a physiological fluid is based on which theory?

Film theory

Surface Renewal Theory

Double barrier

Limited solvation theory

Danckwert's model proposed for the dissolution of the solid dosage form in a physiological fluid is based on the Surface Renewal Theory. This theory suggests that the rate of dissolution is determined by the renewal of the liquid at the solid-liquid interface. According to this theory, the dissolution process occurs when fresh solvent molecules come into contact with the solid surface, leading to the dissolution of the solid. The Surface Renewal Theory is widely used in pharmaceutical research to understand and predict the dissolution behavior of solid dosage forms in physiological fluids.

Explanation

Danckwert's model proposed for the dissolution of the solid dosage form in a physiological fluid is based on the Surface Renewal Theory. This theory suggests that the rate of dissolution is determined by the renewal of the liquid at the solid-liquid interface. According to this theory, the dissolution process occurs when fresh solvent molecules come into contact with the solid surface, leading to the dissolution of the solid. The Surface Renewal Theory is widely used in pharmaceutical research to understand and predict the dissolution behavior of solid dosage forms in physiological fluids.

15. In a newer tablet machine Antiturning device is used for which of the following purposes?

To avoid double impression

To avoid cone formation

To avoid rat-holing

To avoid weight variation

The antiturning device in a tablet machine is used to prevent double impression. Double impression occurs when the tablet is imprinted with the design or marking twice, resulting in a distorted or illegible imprint. The antiturning device ensures that the tablet remains in the correct position during the compression process, preventing any movement or rotation that could lead to double impression.

Explanation

The antiturning device in a tablet machine is used to prevent double impression. Double impression occurs when the tablet is imprinted with the design or marking twice, resulting in a distorted or illegible imprint. The antiturning device ensures that the tablet remains in the correct position during the compression process, preventing any movement or rotation that could lead to double impression.

16. Carnauba wax is used in the following step of Sugar Coating of tablet:

Seal coating

Syrup coating

Polishing

Sub coating

Being wax it is added in the last step of coating to polish the surface of tablet.

Explanation

Being wax it is added in the last step of coating to polish the surface of tablet.

17. Where is the National Institute of Virology (NIV) located?

Delhi

Pune

Kolkata

Hyderabad

Located in Pune, it is a part of Indian
Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

Explanation

Located in Pune, it is a part of Indian
Council of Medical Research (ICMR)

18. Identify this reaction:

Vilsmeier haack reaction

Ullmann reaction

Forvski reaction

None

The correct answer is Ullmann reaction. The Ullmann reaction is a cross-coupling reaction in organic chemistry that involves the coupling of two aryl halides to form a biaryl compound. It is named after Fritz Ullmann, who first reported this reaction in 1901. The reaction is typically catalyzed by a copper(I) compound and often requires high temperatures. It is widely used in the synthesis of pharmaceuticals, natural products, and materials science.

Explanation

The correct answer is Ullmann reaction. The Ullmann reaction is a cross-coupling reaction in organic chemistry that involves the coupling of two aryl halides to form a biaryl compound. It is named after Fritz Ullmann, who first reported this reaction in 1901. The reaction is typically catalyzed by a copper(I) compound and often requires high temperatures. It is widely used in the synthesis of pharmaceuticals, natural products, and materials science.

19. "Frontal headache" is a side effect of which NSAID?

Aspirin

Indomethacin

Analgin

Phenylbutazone

Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is known to cause frontal headaches as a side effect. This medication works by reducing inflammation and pain in the body, but it can also lead to headaches as a result of its effects on blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, if someone experiences a frontal headache while taking an NSAID, such as Indomethacin, it could be attributed to this specific medication.

Explanation

Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is known to cause frontal headaches as a side effect. This medication works by reducing inflammation and pain in the body, but it can also lead to headaches as a result of its effects on blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, if someone experiences a frontal headache while taking an NSAID, such as Indomethacin, it could be attributed to this specific medication.

20. ‎106 mg of compound A (dissolved in 100 ml ethanol) in a 1 cm long cell has a lambda max 295 nm and absorbance is 0.28. then the value of A^1%_{1 cm} is...?

2.64

264

190

640

The value of A1%1 cm is a measure of the absorbance of a 1% solution of the compound in a 1 cm long cell. In this case, the absorbance of the compound A at its lambda max of 295 nm is given as 0.28. Therefore, the value of A1%1 cm can be calculated by multiplying the absorbance by 100, since 1% is equivalent to 100 times the concentration. Thus, A1%1 cm = 0.28 * 100 = 28. Dividing this value by 10, since the cell length is 1 cm, gives us the final answer of 2.64.

Explanation

The value of A1%1 cm is a measure of the absorbance of a 1% solution of the compound in a 1 cm long cell. In this case, the absorbance of the compound A at its lambda max of 295 nm is given as 0.28. Therefore, the value of A1%1 cm can be calculated by multiplying the absorbance by 100, since 1% is equivalent to 100 times the concentration. Thus, A1%1 cm = 0.28 * 100 = 28. Dividing this value by 10, since the cell length is 1 cm, gives us the final answer of 2.64.

21. An example of a Thermal Conductivity Detector is:

Katharometer

Flame ionization detector

Electron capture detector

Bolometer

A Katharometer is an example of a Thermal Conductivity Detector. This type of detector measures changes in thermal conductivity between a reference gas and the sample gas to determine the presence and concentration of different components in a mixture. It works by passing the mixture over a heated filament and measuring the temperature difference between the filament and a reference filament. The Katharometer is commonly used in gas chromatography to detect and analyze various compounds.

Explanation

A Katharometer is an example of a Thermal Conductivity Detector. This type of detector measures changes in thermal conductivity between a reference gas and the sample gas to determine the presence and concentration of different components in a mixture. It works by passing the mixture over a heated filament and measuring the temperature difference between the filament and a reference filament. The Katharometer is commonly used in gas chromatography to detect and analyze various compounds.

22. Which one of the following adverse effects of the drugs is very common among persons having similar genetic make-up?

Intolerance

Photosensitivity

Idiosyncrasy

Mutagenicity

Idiosyncrasy is the correct answer because it refers to an adverse reaction to a drug that is unique to an individual due to their genetic make-up. It is very common among persons who have similar genetic make-up, as they may share the same genetic variations that make them susceptible to the adverse reaction. Intolerance, photosensitivity, and mutagenicity are not specifically related to genetic make-up and may have other causes.

Explanation

Idiosyncrasy is the correct answer because it refers to an adverse reaction to a drug that is unique to an individual due to their genetic make-up. It is very common among persons who have similar genetic make-up, as they may share the same genetic variations that make them susceptible to the adverse reaction. Intolerance, photosensitivity, and mutagenicity are not specifically related to genetic make-up and may have other causes.

23. Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located at?

Dehradun

Lucknow

Pune

Kolkata

Delhi

The Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located in Lucknow.

Explanation

The Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants is located in Lucknow.

24. For Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) if the pH of the environment is less than its pKa, according to HENDERSON-HESSELBACH EQUATION

Cojugate base (anion)CH3COO- will predominate

Acidic (neutral) form CH3COOH will predominate

Both species will be in equal proportioons

Can't be infferred from given information

According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, if the pH of the environment is less than the pKa of acetic acid (CH3COOH), the conjugate base (anion) CH3COO- will predominate. This is because at a lower pH, there is an excess of H+ ions in the environment, which will cause the acetic acid to donate a proton and form the conjugate base. Therefore, the concentration of the conjugate base will be higher compared to the acidic (neutral) form of acetic acid.

Explanation

According to the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, if the pH of the environment is less than the pKa of acetic acid (CH3COOH), the conjugate base (anion) CH3COO- will predominate. This is because at a lower pH, there is an excess of H+ ions in the environment, which will cause the acetic acid to donate a proton and form the conjugate base. Therefore, the concentration of the conjugate base will be higher compared to the acidic (neutral) form of acetic acid.

25. PH of 0.02 normal Hydrochloric acid will be

Less than 1

Between 1-2

Between 2-3

Greater than 3

A pH value indicates the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. A pH less than 7 is considered acidic. Since hydrochloric acid is a strong acid, it completely ionizes in water to form hydrogen ions (H+). A normal solution is one that contains 1 equivalent weight of a solute per liter of solution. Therefore, a 0.02 normal hydrochloric acid solution will have a high concentration of hydrogen ions, resulting in a pH value between 1-2, indicating a strong acidity.

Explanation

A pH value indicates the acidity or alkalinity of a solution. A pH less than 7 is considered acidic. Since hydrochloric acid is a strong acid, it completely ionizes in water to form hydrogen ions (H+). A normal solution is one that contains 1 equivalent weight of a solute per liter of solution. Therefore, a 0.02 normal hydrochloric acid solution will have a high concentration of hydrogen ions, resulting in a pH value between 1-2, indicating a strong acidity.

26. Mescaline is synthesized from which amino acid?

Ornithine

Phenylalanine

Tryptophan

None

Mescaline is a psychoactive compound found in certain cacti, such as peyote. It is synthesized from the amino acid phenylalanine. Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid that is converted into tyrosine, which is then further converted into dopamine. From dopamine, mescaline is synthesized through a series of chemical reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is Phenylalanine.

Explanation

Mescaline is a psychoactive compound found in certain cacti, such as peyote. It is synthesized from the amino acid phenylalanine. Phenylalanine is an essential amino acid that is converted into tyrosine, which is then further converted into dopamine. From dopamine, mescaline is synthesized through a series of chemical reactions. Therefore, the correct answer is Phenylalanine.

27. What is the correct order for unsaturation present in following fatty acids

Polmitoleic Acid
Linolenic
Alpha linolenic
Arachidonic acid

1>2>3>4

3>4=2>1

4>3>2>1

4>3=2>1

Arachidonic acid contains 4 double bonds
Alpha linolenic contains 3
Linolenic contains 2
Polmitoleic Acid contains 1

Explanation

Arachidonic acid contains 4 double bonds
Alpha linolenic contains 3
Linolenic contains 2
Polmitoleic Acid contains 1

28. Which of the following is an antiparasitic compound obtained from Marine sources?

Bryostatin-1

Dolastatin-10

Alpha-kainic acid

Ecteinascidin 74

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

29. Influenza virus belongs to which of the following morphological categories?

Helical Viruses

Complex Viruses

Enveloped Helical Viruses

Icosahedral Viruses

Helical Viruses: Tobacco mosaic virus
Complex Viruses: bacteriophage
Icosahedral Viruses: Poliovirus
Enveloped polyhedral Viruses: Herpes simplex virus
Enveloped helical Viruses : Influenza virus

Explanation

Helical Viruses: Tobacco mosaic virus
Complex Viruses: bacteriophage
Icosahedral Viruses: Poliovirus
Enveloped polyhedral Viruses: Herpes simplex virus
Enveloped helical Viruses : Influenza virus

30. Identify the drug molecule.

Domperidone

Haloperidol

Clofribate

Droperidol

Haloperidol is the correct answer because it is a drug molecule used to treat various psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and Tourette syndrome. It belongs to the class of antipsychotic medications and works by blocking the effects of dopamine in the brain. Haloperidol is available in different forms, including tablets, injections, and oral solutions. It is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals to help manage symptoms associated with certain mental illnesses.

Explanation

Haloperidol is the correct answer because it is a drug molecule used to treat various psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia and Tourette syndrome. It belongs to the class of antipsychotic medications and works by blocking the effects of dopamine in the brain. Haloperidol is available in different forms, including tablets, injections, and oral solutions. It is commonly prescribed by healthcare professionals to help manage symptoms associated with certain mental illnesses.

31. Which one of the following is the most suitable Diluent for a directly compressible tablet?

Polyvinyl Pyrrolidine

Hydroxy propyl methyl Cellulose

Carboxy Methyl Cellulose

MicroCrystalline Cellulose

Microcrystalline cellulose is the most suitable diluent for a directly compressible tablet. It is commonly used in tablet formulation due to its compressibility, flowability, and compatibility with active pharmaceutical ingredients. Microcrystalline cellulose has excellent binding properties, which helps in holding the tablet ingredients together during compression. It also provides good hardness and disintegration properties to the tablet. Additionally, it has a low moisture content, which makes it stable and suitable for long-term storage.

Explanation

Microcrystalline cellulose is the most suitable diluent for a directly compressible tablet. It is commonly used in tablet formulation due to its compressibility, flowability, and compatibility with active pharmaceutical ingredients. Microcrystalline cellulose has excellent binding properties, which helps in holding the tablet ingredients together during compression. It also provides good hardness and disintegration properties to the tablet. Additionally, it has a low moisture content, which makes it stable and suitable for long-term storage.

32. Which of the following test of significance compares two experimental means, an experimental mean with a known value or sets of pairs of experimental values?

F test

T test

Analysis of Variance

Q test

t-test :used to compare two experimental means, an experimental
mean with a known value or sets of pairs of experimental values

F-test enables the precisions of two sets of data to be compared using
their variances.

Q-test: used to determine whether to reject or retain a suspected
outlier

ANOVA: several sets of data to assess and compare
different sources of variability

Explanation

t-test :used to compare two experimental means, an experimental
mean with a known value or sets of pairs of experimental values

F-test enables the precisions of two sets of data to be compared using
their variances.

Q-test: used to determine whether to reject or retain a suspected
outlier

ANOVA: several sets of data to assess and compare
different sources of variability

33. Karplus curve is associated with which spectroscopy?

UV

Mass

FTIR

NMR

The Karplus curve is associated with NMR spectroscopy. NMR spectroscopy is a technique used to study the structure and dynamics of molecules by analyzing the nuclear magnetic moments of atoms. The Karplus curve, named after Martin Karplus, is a plot that relates the dihedral angles in a molecule to the corresponding coupling constants observed in NMR spectra. It provides valuable information about the conformation and spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, making it a powerful tool in structural determination and elucidation of molecular dynamics.

Explanation

The Karplus curve is associated with NMR spectroscopy. NMR spectroscopy is a technique used to study the structure and dynamics of molecules by analyzing the nuclear magnetic moments of atoms. The Karplus curve, named after Martin Karplus, is a plot that relates the dihedral angles in a molecule to the corresponding coupling constants observed in NMR spectra. It provides valuable information about the conformation and spatial arrangement of atoms in a molecule, making it a powerful tool in structural determination and elucidation of molecular dynamics.

34. Which of the following factors would be the Rate Limiting step for dissolution of a drug candidate classified under BCS class I?

Solubility

Permeability

Gastric emptying time

It varies case by case

Class I has High solubility & High permeability so gastric Emptying time will be rate-limiting.

Explanation

Class I has High solubility & High permeability so gastric Emptying time will be rate-limiting.

35. Which of the following method is used for the assay of Myrrh and Asafoetida?

Water soluble extractive

Alcohol soluble extractive

Ether soluble extractive

Volatile oil content

The correct answer is Alcohol soluble extractive. This method is used for the assay of Myrrh and Asafoetida. Alcohol soluble extractive refers to the amount of extractable substances in a sample that can be dissolved in alcohol. This method is commonly used in herbal medicine to determine the quality and potency of plant extracts. By extracting the active compounds with alcohol, it allows for a more accurate assessment of the medicinal properties of the sample.

Explanation

The correct answer is Alcohol soluble extractive. This method is used for the assay of Myrrh and Asafoetida. Alcohol soluble extractive refers to the amount of extractable substances in a sample that can be dissolved in alcohol. This method is commonly used in herbal medicine to determine the quality and potency of plant extracts. By extracting the active compounds with alcohol, it allows for a more accurate assessment of the medicinal properties of the sample.

36. P-nitroanoline has pKb of 13.0... p-methoxyaniline has pKb of 8.7.... Aniline has pKb of 9.38...... Which of the following statement is true with respect to Basicity?

P-nitroanoline is less basic due electron release & p-methoxyaniline is more basic due to electron withdrawal

P-nitroanoline is less basic due electron withdrawal & p-methoxyaniline is more basic due to electron release

P-nitroanoline is more basic due electron withdrawal & p-methoxyaniline is less basic due to electron release

Electron release & withdrawal does not affect basicity

The basicity of a compound is determined by its ability to donate a lone pair of electrons. Electron release from a substituent increases the electron density on the nitrogen atom, making it more basic. In the case of p-nitroaniline, the nitro group withdraws electron density from the nitrogen atom, reducing its basicity. On the other hand, p-methoxyaniline has a methoxy group that donates electron density to the nitrogen atom, increasing its basicity. Therefore, p-nitroaniline is less basic due to electron withdrawal, and p-methoxyaniline is more basic due to electron release.

Explanation

The basicity of a compound is determined by its ability to donate a lone pair of electrons. Electron release from a substituent increases the electron density on the nitrogen atom, making it more basic. In the case of p-nitroaniline, the nitro group withdraws electron density from the nitrogen atom, reducing its basicity. On the other hand, p-methoxyaniline has a methoxy group that donates electron density to the nitrogen atom, increasing its basicity. Therefore, p-nitroaniline is less basic due to electron withdrawal, and p-methoxyaniline is more basic due to electron release.

37. In Proton NMR spectra of an organic compound,peak IS obtained at around 7 ppm and it is singlet. That infers the compound is...

Ortho substituted

Meta substituted

Para substituted

Mono substituted

only for meta substitution singlet will be observerd due to proton at carbon 2

Explanation

only for meta substitution singlet will be observerd due to proton at carbon 2

38. "knee shaped trichome" is characteristic of which of the following plant drug?

Ephedra equisetina

Lobelia inflata

Adhatoda vasaka

Ocimum sanctum

The correct answer is Adhatoda vasaka. Adhatoda vasaka is a medicinal plant commonly known as Vasaka. It is used in traditional medicine for its bronchodilator and expectorant properties. The presence of "knee-shaped trichome" is a characteristic feature of Adhatoda vasaka. Trichomes are small hair-like structures found on the surface of plants, and the knee-shaped trichome is a specific type found on the leaves of Adhatoda vasaka. These trichomes play a role in the plant's defense against herbivores and also contribute to the medicinal properties of the plant.

Explanation

The correct answer is Adhatoda vasaka. Adhatoda vasaka is a medicinal plant commonly known as Vasaka. It is used in traditional medicine for its bronchodilator and expectorant properties. The presence of "knee-shaped trichome" is a characteristic feature of Adhatoda vasaka. Trichomes are small hair-like structures found on the surface of plants, and the knee-shaped trichome is a specific type found on the leaves of Adhatoda vasaka. These trichomes play a role in the plant's defense against herbivores and also contribute to the medicinal properties of the plant.

39. Which of the following statement is not true for Atracurium?

It undergoes spontaneous non-enzymatic chemical degradation in plasma

Its action becomes briefer during respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventillation

It is a steroid based compound

It is a bis-quaternary compound

Atracurium is not a steroid-based compound. It is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that is used during surgery to relax muscles. It undergoes spontaneous non-enzymatic chemical degradation in plasma, and its action becomes briefer during respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. However, it is not a steroid-based compound.

Explanation

Atracurium is not a steroid-based compound. It is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that is used during surgery to relax muscles. It undergoes spontaneous non-enzymatic chemical degradation in plasma, and its action becomes briefer during respiratory alkalosis caused by hyperventilation. However, it is not a steroid-based compound.

40. Which of the following drug reduces the positive free water clearance, but does not affect the negative free water clearance?

Furosemide

Hydrochlorthiazide

Spironolactone

Acetazolamide

Hydrochlorthiazide is the correct answer because it is a diuretic that reduces positive free water clearance. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. Unlike Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Acetazolamide, Hydrochlorthiazide does not affect the negative free water clearance, which means it does not cause excessive loss of free water without electrolytes.

Explanation

Hydrochlorthiazide is the correct answer because it is a diuretic that reduces positive free water clearance. It works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the distal convoluted tubule of the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of water and electrolytes. Unlike Furosemide, Spironolactone, and Acetazolamide, Hydrochlorthiazide does not affect the negative free water clearance, which means it does not cause excessive loss of free water without electrolytes.

41. Which company has made first film coating tablet?

Pfizer

Abbott

GSK

Johnson & johnson

Abbott is the correct answer because they were the first company to develop and introduce film coating technology for tablets. Film coating is a process where a thin layer of polymer is applied to the tablet surface, providing protection, improving appearance, and making it easier to swallow. Abbott's innovation in film coating revolutionized the pharmaceutical industry, leading to the development of more advanced and patient-friendly tablet formulations.

Explanation

Abbott is the correct answer because they were the first company to develop and introduce film coating technology for tablets. Film coating is a process where a thin layer of polymer is applied to the tablet surface, providing protection, improving appearance, and making it easier to swallow. Abbott's innovation in film coating revolutionized the pharmaceutical industry, leading to the development of more advanced and patient-friendly tablet formulations.

42. ‎_____ is having a furan moiety and also CYP450 inhibitory activity?

Cimetidine

Ranitidine

Nizatidine

Famotidine

None of the above

Ranitidine is the correct answer because it contains a furan moiety and also exhibits CYP450 inhibitory activity. Cimetidine, Nizatidine, and Famotidine do not have a furan moiety and may not possess CYP450 inhibitory activity.

Explanation

Ranitidine is the correct answer because it contains a furan moiety and also exhibits CYP450 inhibitory activity. Cimetidine, Nizatidine, and Famotidine do not have a furan moiety and may not possess CYP450 inhibitory activity.

43. The duration of action of sublingual NG is:

3-5 sec

10-30mins

3-5 mins

10-60 mins

The correct answer is 10-30 minutes. Sublingual NG refers to a medication that is placed under the tongue and absorbed into the bloodstream. The duration of action is the length of time that the medication remains active in the body. In this case, the sublingual NG medication typically takes around 10-30 minutes to take effect and provide its therapeutic benefits.

Explanation

The correct answer is 10-30 minutes. Sublingual NG refers to a medication that is placed under the tongue and absorbed into the bloodstream. The duration of action is the length of time that the medication remains active in the body. In this case, the sublingual NG medication typically takes around 10-30 minutes to take effect and provide its therapeutic benefits.

44. Which of the following antitubercular drugs penetrates Necrotic tuberculous lesions?

Isoniazid

Rifampicin

Cyclosrine

Ethambutol

Isoniazid is able to penetrate necrotic tuberculous lesions. Necrotic lesions are areas of dead tissue, which can be found in tuberculosis infections. Isoniazid is a highly effective antitubercular drug that has good penetration into various tissues, including necrotic lesions. This allows it to effectively target and treat tuberculosis infections throughout the body, including in areas of necrotic tissue.

Explanation

Isoniazid is able to penetrate necrotic tuberculous lesions. Necrotic lesions are areas of dead tissue, which can be found in tuberculosis infections. Isoniazid is a highly effective antitubercular drug that has good penetration into various tissues, including necrotic lesions. This allows it to effectively target and treat tuberculosis infections throughout the body, including in areas of necrotic tissue.

45. Which of the following is anti-expectorant?

Ergot

Atropine

Reserpine

Veratrum

Atropine is an anti-expectorant because it is a medication that inhibits the production and release of mucus in the respiratory tract. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates mucus secretion. By inhibiting mucus production, Atropine helps to reduce coughing and the excessive production of phlegm. Ergot, Reserpine, and Veratrum are not anti-expectorants and have different pharmacological properties and uses.

Explanation

Atropine is an anti-expectorant because it is a medication that inhibits the production and release of mucus in the respiratory tract. It works by blocking the action of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that stimulates mucus secretion. By inhibiting mucus production, Atropine helps to reduce coughing and the excessive production of phlegm. Ergot, Reserpine, and Veratrum are not anti-expectorants and have different pharmacological properties and uses.

46. A sheath of crystal formed around sclerenchyma is identifying characteristics of which drug?

Digitalis

Datura

Senna

Belladona

Senna is a drug that is known for its laxative properties. One of the identifying characteristics of Senna is the formation of a sheath of crystal around sclerenchyma. This unique feature helps in distinguishing Senna from other drugs like Digitalis, Datura, and Belladona.

Explanation

Senna is a drug that is known for its laxative properties. One of the identifying characteristics of Senna is the formation of a sheath of crystal around sclerenchyma. This unique feature helps in distinguishing Senna from other drugs like Digitalis, Datura, and Belladona.

47. Which of the following is an appropriate mechanism of action of Sematilide?

K+ channel blocker

K+ channel opener

Ca+ channel opener

Ca+ channel blocker

Sematilide:N-[2-(Diethylamino)ethyl]-4-[(methylsulfonyl)amino]benzamide, is a close structural analogue of N-acetyl procainamide. It is a class III antiarrhythmic agent.

Explanation

Sematilide:N-[2-(Diethylamino)ethyl]-4-[(methylsulfonyl)amino]benzamide, is a close structural analogue of N-acetyl procainamide. It is a class III antiarrhythmic agent.

48. Intravaginal drug Delivery is categorized under which route of drug administration?

Parenteral

Topical

Enteral

Pre-oral

Intravaginal drug delivery refers to the administration of drugs directly into the vagina. This route of drug administration is considered topical because the drug is applied directly to the surface of the vaginal mucosa. Topical administration involves the application of drugs onto the skin or mucous membranes for localized effects. Therefore, the correct answer is "Topical."

Explanation

Intravaginal drug delivery refers to the administration of drugs directly into the vagina. This route of drug administration is considered topical because the drug is applied directly to the surface of the vaginal mucosa. Topical administration involves the application of drugs onto the skin or mucous membranes for localized effects. Therefore, the correct answer is "Topical."

49. Which of the omitted schedule includes calculation of poisons in certain cases?

Sch I

Sch B

Sch L

Sch Z

Schedule I includes the calculation of poisons in certain cases.

Explanation

Schedule I includes the calculation of poisons in certain cases.

50. Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs has direct membrane-stabilizing action at high doses?

Propafenone

Amiodarone

Propranolol

Verapamil

Propranolol is the correct answer because it is a non-selective beta-blocker that has direct membrane-stabilizing action at high doses. It works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the effects of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart. This helps to stabilize the cell membranes and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. Propafenone, amiodarone, and verapamil are also antiarrhythmic drugs, but they do not have direct membrane-stabilizing action at high doses like propranolol does.

Explanation

Propranolol is the correct answer because it is a non-selective beta-blocker that has direct membrane-stabilizing action at high doses. It works by blocking the beta receptors in the heart, which reduces the effects of adrenaline and other stress hormones on the heart. This helps to stabilize the cell membranes and prevent abnormal heart rhythms. Propafenone, amiodarone, and verapamil are also antiarrhythmic drugs, but they do not have direct membrane-stabilizing action at high doses like propranolol does.

51. Woodward-Fieser rules can be applied upto how many bonds?

4

5

6

No such limits are there

The Woodward-Fieser rules are a set of guidelines used to predict the absorption wavelengths of conjugated organic compounds. These rules can be applied up to four bonds. This means that the rules are applicable for compounds with up to four conjugated double bonds. Beyond that, the rules may not accurately predict the absorption wavelengths. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

Explanation

The Woodward-Fieser rules are a set of guidelines used to predict the absorption wavelengths of conjugated organic compounds. These rules can be applied up to four bonds. This means that the rules are applicable for compounds with up to four conjugated double bonds. Beyond that, the rules may not accurately predict the absorption wavelengths. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.

52. (3R,4S)-1-(4-fluorophenyl)-3-[(3S)-3-(4-fluorophenyl)-3-hydroxypropyl]-4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)azetidin-2-one is IUPAC name of which anti-hyperlipidemic agent?

Simvastatin

Ezetimibe

Probucol

Mipomerosen

Ezetimibe contains Azetidine moeity

Explanation

Ezetimibe contains Azetidine moeity

53. Esophageal ulceration is a side effect of which drug?

Doxycycline

Clarithromycin

Cinnarizine

Olapatidine

Doxycycline is known to cause esophageal ulceration as a side effect. This medication belongs to a class of antibiotics called tetracyclines, which can irritate the esophagus and cause ulcers. It is important to take doxycycline with plenty of water and to avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after taking it to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation.

Explanation

Doxycycline is known to cause esophageal ulceration as a side effect. This medication belongs to a class of antibiotics called tetracyclines, which can irritate the esophagus and cause ulcers. It is important to take doxycycline with plenty of water and to avoid lying down for at least 30 minutes after taking it to minimize the risk of esophageal irritation.

54. First Amino acid in protein synthesis in case of Archaea, Bacteria & Eukarya is?`

Methionine,Formylmethionine & Methionine respectively

Alanine,Glycine & Methionine respectively

Lysine,Isoleucine & Arginine respectively

Tryptophan,Tyrosine & Histidine respectively

In the case of Archaea, the first amino acid in protein synthesis is Methionine. In the case of Bacteria, the first amino acid is Formylmethionine. And in the case of Eukarya, the first amino acid is Methionine.

Explanation

In the case of Archaea, the first amino acid in protein synthesis is Methionine. In the case of Bacteria, the first amino acid is Formylmethionine. And in the case of Eukarya, the first amino acid is Methionine.

55. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents inhibits DNA synthesis?

Amphotericin

Griseofulvin

Capsofungin

Flucytosine

Flucytosine is the correct answer because it is an antifungal agent that inhibits DNA synthesis. It is converted into 5-fluorouracil inside the fungal cells, which then inhibits the synthesis of fungal DNA by interfering with thymidylate synthase, an enzyme involved in the production of thymidine. This disruption of DNA synthesis ultimately leads to the death of the fungal cells. Amphotericin, Griseofulvin, and Caspofungin are not chemotherapeutic agents that inhibit DNA synthesis.

Explanation

Flucytosine is the correct answer because it is an antifungal agent that inhibits DNA synthesis. It is converted into 5-fluorouracil inside the fungal cells, which then inhibits the synthesis of fungal DNA by interfering with thymidylate synthase, an enzyme involved in the production of thymidine. This disruption of DNA synthesis ultimately leads to the death of the fungal cells. Amphotericin, Griseofulvin, and Caspofungin are not chemotherapeutic agents that inhibit DNA synthesis.

56. Which of the following plant hormone inhibit root growth?

IAA

GA3

Zeatin

ABA

IAA, also known as Indole-3-acetic acid, is a plant hormone that promotes cell elongation and growth in shoots. However, it inhibits root growth. This is because IAA is primarily synthesized in the apical meristem (the tip of the plant), and it moves downwards towards the roots. In the roots, IAA inhibits cell division and elongation, leading to a decrease in root growth. Therefore, IAA acts as a negative regulator of root growth in plants.

Explanation

IAA, also known as Indole-3-acetic acid, is a plant hormone that promotes cell elongation and growth in shoots. However, it inhibits root growth. This is because IAA is primarily synthesized in the apical meristem (the tip of the plant), and it moves downwards towards the roots. In the roots, IAA inhibits cell division and elongation, leading to a decrease in root growth. Therefore, IAA acts as a negative regulator of root growth in plants.

57. Which of the following is released as a co-transmitter with noradrenaline(NA) at many sympathetic nerve endings?

VIP

Angiotensin

Neuropeptide Y

Acetylcholine

Neuropeptide Y is released as a co-transmitter with noradrenaline at many sympathetic nerve endings. Co-transmitters are substances that are released alongside a primary neurotransmitter to modulate its effects. In the sympathetic nervous system, noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for the "fight or flight" response. Neuropeptide Y acts as a co-transmitter to enhance the effects of noradrenaline, contributing to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide), angiotensin, and acetylcholine are not typically released as co-transmitters with noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve endings.

Explanation

Neuropeptide Y is released as a co-transmitter with noradrenaline at many sympathetic nerve endings. Co-transmitters are substances that are released alongside a primary neurotransmitter to modulate its effects. In the sympathetic nervous system, noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for the "fight or flight" response. Neuropeptide Y acts as a co-transmitter to enhance the effects of noradrenaline, contributing to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure. VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide), angiotensin, and acetylcholine are not typically released as co-transmitters with noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve endings.

58. In IR sharp, medium intensity peak at 2250 cm-1 is due to which functional group?

C triple bond N

C=C

C triple bond C

C-O

The correct answer is C triple bond N. Infrared spectroscopy is a technique used to identify functional groups in a molecule based on the absorption of infrared radiation. A medium intensity peak at 2250 cm-1 is characteristic of a triple bond between carbon and nitrogen (C≡N). This peak corresponds to the stretching vibration of the triple bond, which causes a strong absorption in this region of the infrared spectrum. Therefore, the presence of a medium intensity peak at 2250 cm-1 suggests the presence of a C triple bond N functional group.

Explanation

The correct answer is C triple bond N. Infrared spectroscopy is a technique used to identify functional groups in a molecule based on the absorption of infrared radiation. A medium intensity peak at 2250 cm-1 is characteristic of a triple bond between carbon and nitrogen (C≡N). This peak corresponds to the stretching vibration of the triple bond, which causes a strong absorption in this region of the infrared spectrum. Therefore, the presence of a medium intensity peak at 2250 cm-1 suggests the presence of a C triple bond N functional group.

59. Which of the following in a chromatographic separation is a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliability during normal usage?

Ruggedness

Accuracy/Precision

Range/Linearity

Robustness

Ruggedness/Robustness: a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliabilityduring normal usage.

Accuracy: closeness of test result with the true value
Precision:closeness of test result among each other

Linearity :

Explanation

Ruggedness/Robustness: a measure of its capacity to remain unaffected by small, but deliberate variations in method parameters and provides an indication of its reliabilityduring normal usage.

Accuracy: closeness of test result with the true value
Precision:closeness of test result among each other

Linearity :

60. Which of the following is NOT a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics?

Ethanol

Aspirin

Morphine

Phentoin

Morphine is not a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics because it follows first-order elimination kinetics. In zero-order elimination, a constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless of the drug concentration. However, in first-order elimination, a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, meaning that the elimination rate decreases as the drug concentration decreases. Therefore, morphine does not exhibit zero-order elimination kinetics.

Explanation

Morphine is not a drug exhibiting zero-order elimination kinetics because it follows first-order elimination kinetics. In zero-order elimination, a constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, regardless of the drug concentration. However, in first-order elimination, a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time, meaning that the elimination rate decreases as the drug concentration decreases. Therefore, morphine does not exhibit zero-order elimination kinetics.

61. Largest capsule size for human use is...?

0

000

1

5

The largest capsule size for human use is 0. This means that there is no capsule size available for human use.

Explanation

The largest capsule size for human use is 0. This means that there is no capsule size available for human use.

62. Absorption of cardiac glycoside and insulin is via which transport route?

Intracellular

Intercellular

Vesicular

None of above

The correct answer is intercellular. Intercellular transport refers to the movement of substances between cells. Cardiac glycosides and insulin are both absorbed through this route, meaning they are able to pass between cells to reach their target sites. This mode of transport allows for efficient distribution of these substances throughout the body.

Explanation

The correct answer is intercellular. Intercellular transport refers to the movement of substances between cells. Cardiac glycosides and insulin are both absorbed through this route, meaning they are able to pass between cells to reach their target sites. This mode of transport allows for efficient distribution of these substances throughout the body.

63. In the case of the chewable tablet which tooling is used generally?

B tooling

BB tooling

D tooling

None

chewable tablets are quite large in size and for large tablets, D tooling is used.

Explanation

chewable tablets are quite large in size and for large tablets, D tooling is used.

64. In spraying process which of the following step eliminated in sugar coating?

Seal coating

Subcoating

Polishing

Smoothing

In the spraying process of sugar coating, the step that is eliminated is seal coating. Seal coating is a process where a thin layer of coating is applied to seal the sugar coating and prevent moisture absorption. However, in sugar coating, the aim is to create a smooth and glossy outer layer on the surface of the product, so there is no need for an additional seal coating step.

Explanation

In the spraying process of sugar coating, the step that is eliminated is seal coating. Seal coating is a process where a thin layer of coating is applied to seal the sugar coating and prevent moisture absorption. However, in sugar coating, the aim is to create a smooth and glossy outer layer on the surface of the product, so there is no need for an additional seal coating step.

65. A compound is having IHD(index of hydrogen deficiency) =4. What can be concluded from the given information? P. it can be aromatic ring Q. it can be 4 double bond R. it can be 2 tripple bond S. it can be 4 fused saturated cyclic ring

Only P and Q are true

Only Q and r true

Only P,Q,R are true

All are true

The compound having an IHD of 4 can have all the given characteristics - it can be an aromatic ring (P), it can have 4 double bonds (Q), it can have 2 triple bonds (R), and it can have 4 fused saturated cyclic rings (S). Therefore, all the statements P, Q, R, and S are true.

Explanation

The compound having an IHD of 4 can have all the given characteristics - it can be an aromatic ring (P), it can have 4 double bonds (Q), it can have 2 triple bonds (R), and it can have 4 fused saturated cyclic rings (S). Therefore, all the statements P, Q, R, and S are true.

66. S.rimosus is a biological source of which of the following antibiotic?

Oxytetracycline

Chlortetracycline

Tobramycin

Bleomycin

S.rimosus is a biological source of Oxytetracycline. Oxytetracycline is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections. It belongs to the tetracycline class of antibiotics and is produced by the bacterium Streptomyces rimosus. Oxytetracycline works by inhibiting the growth and spread of bacteria in the body, thus helping to control and eliminate the infection.

Explanation

S.rimosus is a biological source of Oxytetracycline. Oxytetracycline is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat various bacterial infections. It belongs to the tetracycline class of antibiotics and is produced by the bacterium Streptomyces rimosus. Oxytetracycline works by inhibiting the growth and spread of bacteria in the body, thus helping to control and eliminate the infection.

67. which drug is effective in both short-term and long-term treatment of Mania and Hypomania with the addition of MgO?

Nifedipine

Verapamil

Diltiazem

Hydralazine

Verapamil is the correct answer because it is a calcium channel blocker that has been found to be effective in both short-term and long-term treatment of Mania and Hypomania. Additionally, the addition of MgO (magnesium oxide) can enhance the effectiveness of verapamil in managing these conditions. Nifedipine and diltiazem are also calcium channel blockers, but there is no mention of their effectiveness in treating Mania and Hypomania. Hydralazine is not a calcium channel blocker and therefore is not effective in treating these conditions.

Explanation

Verapamil is the correct answer because it is a calcium channel blocker that has been found to be effective in both short-term and long-term treatment of Mania and Hypomania. Additionally, the addition of MgO (magnesium oxide) can enhance the effectiveness of verapamil in managing these conditions. Nifedipine and diltiazem are also calcium channel blockers, but there is no mention of their effectiveness in treating Mania and Hypomania. Hydralazine is not a calcium channel blocker and therefore is not effective in treating these conditions.

68. In which of the following transport mechanism compound does not have to be in an aqueous solution in order to be absorbed?

Passive difusion

Vesicular

Carrier mediated

ABC

Vesicular transport mechanism allows compounds to be absorbed without needing to be in an aqueous solution. This process involves the formation of vesicles, which are small sacs that transport molecules across cell membranes. Unlike passive diffusion and carrier-mediated transport, vesicular transport does not require the compound to be dissolved in water. Instead, the compound is encapsulated within the vesicle and transported through the cell membrane. The ABC (ATP-binding cassette) transport mechanism, on the other hand, utilizes ATP energy to transport compounds across cell membranes and may or may not require an aqueous solution for absorption.

Explanation

Vesicular transport mechanism allows compounds to be absorbed without needing to be in an aqueous solution. This process involves the formation of vesicles, which are small sacs that transport molecules across cell membranes. Unlike passive diffusion and carrier-mediated transport, vesicular transport does not require the compound to be dissolved in water. Instead, the compound is encapsulated within the vesicle and transported through the cell membrane. The ABC (ATP-binding cassette) transport mechanism, on the other hand, utilizes ATP energy to transport compounds across cell membranes and may or may not require an aqueous solution for absorption.

69. Which of the following drug is used in SLE(Systemic Lupus Erythromatus)?

Hydralazine

Primaquine

Chloroquine

Artemisine

Chloroquine is used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythromatus (SLE). SLE is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to various organs in the body. Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that also has immunomodulatory properties, making it effective in managing the symptoms of SLE. It helps to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system, thereby alleviating the symptoms and preventing disease flares in SLE patients.

Explanation

Chloroquine is used in the treatment of Systemic Lupus Erythromatus (SLE). SLE is an autoimmune disease that causes inflammation and damage to various organs in the body. Chloroquine is an antimalarial drug that also has immunomodulatory properties, making it effective in managing the symptoms of SLE. It helps to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system, thereby alleviating the symptoms and preventing disease flares in SLE patients.

70. Which of the following cells are the first to enter an inflamed area?

Mast cells

Monocytes

Eosinophills

Neutrophills

Neutrophils are the first cells to enter an inflamed area. They are a type of white blood cell and are part of the immune system's response to infection or injury. Neutrophils are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical signals released by damaged tissues. Once they arrive, they help to eliminate pathogens by engulfing and destroying them. Their rapid response and ability to release inflammatory molecules make them essential in the early stages of the inflammatory process.

Explanation

Neutrophils are the first cells to enter an inflamed area. They are a type of white blood cell and are part of the immune system's response to infection or injury. Neutrophils are attracted to the site of inflammation by chemical signals released by damaged tissues. Once they arrive, they help to eliminate pathogens by engulfing and destroying them. Their rapid response and ability to release inflammatory molecules make them essential in the early stages of the inflammatory process.

71. Which of the following drug is used in the treatment of the symptoms of carcinoid tumors?

Ergometrine

Cyproheptadine

Methysergide

Pizotifen

Methysergide is used in the treatment of the symptoms of carcinoid tumors. Carcinoid tumors are rare, slow-growing tumors that can develop in various parts of the body, including the gastrointestinal tract and lungs. These tumors can release chemicals such as serotonin, causing symptoms like flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing. Methysergide is a medication that works by blocking the effects of serotonin, helping to alleviate these symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. Ergometrine, Cyproheptadine, and Pizotifen are not typically used in the treatment of carcinoid tumor symptoms.

Explanation

Methysergide is used in the treatment of the symptoms of carcinoid tumors. Carcinoid tumors are rare, slow-growing tumors that can develop in various parts of the body, including the gastrointestinal tract and lungs. These tumors can release chemicals such as serotonin, causing symptoms like flushing, diarrhea, and wheezing. Methysergide is a medication that works by blocking the effects of serotonin, helping to alleviate these symptoms and improve the patient's quality of life. Ergometrine, Cyproheptadine, and Pizotifen are not typically used in the treatment of carcinoid tumor symptoms.

72. Which of the following drug decreases the absorption of Digoxin?

Erythromycin

Omeprazole

Metoclopramide

Tetracycline

Metoclopramide is the correct answer because it is known to decrease the absorption of Digoxin. Metoclopramide is a medication that increases the movement of the stomach and intestines, which can lead to a faster transit time for medications, including Digoxin. This faster transit time can result in decreased absorption of Digoxin, leading to lower levels of the drug in the bloodstream. Therefore, if Metoclopramide is taken concurrently with Digoxin, it can reduce the effectiveness of Digoxin therapy.

Explanation

Metoclopramide is the correct answer because it is known to decrease the absorption of Digoxin. Metoclopramide is a medication that increases the movement of the stomach and intestines, which can lead to a faster transit time for medications, including Digoxin. This faster transit time can result in decreased absorption of Digoxin, leading to lower levels of the drug in the bloodstream. Therefore, if Metoclopramide is taken concurrently with Digoxin, it can reduce the effectiveness of Digoxin therapy.

73. Anti-hyperlipidemic which improves glucose tolerance?

Clofibrates

Atorvastatin

Fish oil

Bile acid sequestrants

Clofibrates are a type of anti-hyperlipidemic medication that is known to improve glucose tolerance. They work by reducing the levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in the blood, which in turn can help improve insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism. This makes them an effective choice for individuals with both hyperlipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Atorvastatin, fish oil, and bile acid sequestrants may also have some lipid-lowering effects, but they are not specifically known for improving glucose tolerance like clofibrates.

Explanation

Clofibrates are a type of anti-hyperlipidemic medication that is known to improve glucose tolerance. They work by reducing the levels of triglycerides and cholesterol in the blood, which in turn can help improve insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism. This makes them an effective choice for individuals with both hyperlipidemia and impaired glucose tolerance. Atorvastatin, fish oil, and bile acid sequestrants may also have some lipid-lowering effects, but they are not specifically known for improving glucose tolerance like clofibrates.

74. Which of the following antibiotic is known to cause Hyperkalemia?

Tetracycline

Amphotericin B

Penicillin

Streptomycin

Penicillin is known to cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This can occur due to the effect of penicillin on the kidneys, where it can impair the excretion of potassium. As a result, potassium levels can build up in the body, leading to hyperkalemia. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving penicillin therapy, especially those with underlying kidney disease or other risk factors for hyperkalemia.

Explanation

Penicillin is known to cause hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. This can occur due to the effect of penicillin on the kidneys, where it can impair the excretion of potassium. As a result, potassium levels can build up in the body, leading to hyperkalemia. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients receiving penicillin therapy, especially those with underlying kidney disease or other risk factors for hyperkalemia.

75. Which of the following drug shows Bimodal distribution in the population?

Hydralazine

Sodium nitroprusside

Clonidine

Pethidine

Hydralazine is the correct answer because it exhibits a bimodal distribution in the population. Bimodal distribution means that there are two distinct peaks or modes in the frequency distribution of the drug's effects or concentrations in the population. This suggests that there are two subgroups within the population that respond differently to the drug, possibly due to variations in metabolism or other factors. Sodium nitroprusside, clonidine, and pethidine do not show this bimodal distribution.

Explanation

Hydralazine is the correct answer because it exhibits a bimodal distribution in the population. Bimodal distribution means that there are two distinct peaks or modes in the frequency distribution of the drug's effects or concentrations in the population. This suggests that there are two subgroups within the population that respond differently to the drug, possibly due to variations in metabolism or other factors. Sodium nitroprusside, clonidine, and pethidine do not show this bimodal distribution.

76. Identify this anti-convulsant-

Felbamate

Tiagabine

Zonisamide

Topiramate

Topiramate is an anti-convulsant medication used to treat seizures and prevent migraines. It works by affecting the chemicals in the brain that are involved in seizures and preventing the abnormal electrical activity. Topiramate is commonly prescribed for epilepsy and is also used off-label for other conditions such as bipolar disorder and weight loss. It is available in tablet and capsule form and is usually taken orally. Common side effects of topiramate include drowsiness, dizziness, and difficulty concentrating. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and consult a healthcare professional for proper guidance and monitoring while taking this medication.

Explanation

Topiramate is an anti-convulsant medication used to treat seizures and prevent migraines. It works by affecting the chemicals in the brain that are involved in seizures and preventing the abnormal electrical activity. Topiramate is commonly prescribed for epilepsy and is also used off-label for other conditions such as bipolar disorder and weight loss. It is available in tablet and capsule form and is usually taken orally. Common side effects of topiramate include drowsiness, dizziness, and difficulty concentrating. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and consult a healthcare professional for proper guidance and monitoring while taking this medication.

77. Which of the following is unique as a non-opioid, non-NSAID, non-steroidal analgesic?

Femipezole

Flupirtine

Olapatidine

Morphazinamide

Flupirtine is unique as a non-opioid, non-NSAID, non-steroidal analgesic. This means that it is a pain reliever that does not belong to the opioid class of drugs, does not have anti-inflammatory properties like NSAIDs, and is not a steroid. Flupirtine works by activating potassium channels in the brain, leading to pain relief. This makes it a distinct option for treating pain without the side effects and risks associated with opioids, NSAIDs, or steroids.

Explanation

Flupirtine is unique as a non-opioid, non-NSAID, non-steroidal analgesic. This means that it is a pain reliever that does not belong to the opioid class of drugs, does not have anti-inflammatory properties like NSAIDs, and is not a steroid. Flupirtine works by activating potassium channels in the brain, leading to pain relief. This makes it a distinct option for treating pain without the side effects and risks associated with opioids, NSAIDs, or steroids.

78. PEMATREXED IS...

Inhibit Thymidylate Transferase

Inhibit Thymidylate Synthetase

Inhibit Adenylate Transferase

Inhibit Adenylate Synthetase

One of the enzymes it blocks is thymidylate Synthetase.
The drug is approved by FDA for use in lung cancer specifically(pleural mesothelioma)

Explanation

One of the enzymes it blocks is thymidylate Synthetase.
The drug is approved by FDA for use in lung cancer specifically(pleural mesothelioma)

79. GABA transport is inhibited by which of the following drugs?

Vigabatrine

Guvacine

Gabapentin

None of the above

Guvacine a tetrahydropyridine derivative inhibits GABA transport
it is a constituent of herbal drug Areca.

Explanation

Guvacine a tetrahydropyridine derivative inhibits GABA transport
it is a constituent of herbal drug Areca.

80. Which of the following antianginal drug reduces fatty acid metabolism and increases glucose metabolism in myocardium?

Triamterene

Dipyridamole

Trimetazidine

Nimodipine

Trimetazidine is the correct answer because it is an antianginal drug that works by reducing fatty acid metabolism and increasing glucose metabolism in the myocardium. By doing so, it helps improve the energy production and utilization in the heart muscle, which can be beneficial in treating angina and reducing myocardial ischemia. Triamterene, Dipyridamole, and Nimodipine do not have the same mechanism of action as Trimetazidine and therefore are not the correct answers.

Explanation

Trimetazidine is the correct answer because it is an antianginal drug that works by reducing fatty acid metabolism and increasing glucose metabolism in the myocardium. By doing so, it helps improve the energy production and utilization in the heart muscle, which can be beneficial in treating angina and reducing myocardial ischemia. Triamterene, Dipyridamole, and Nimodipine do not have the same mechanism of action as Trimetazidine and therefore are not the correct answers.

81. Overuse of which of the following drug may cause Parkinsonism?

Levodopa

Domperidone

Imipramine

Chlorpromazine

Domperidone is a medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which can lead to an increase in the levels of dopamine. Overuse of domperidone can result in an imbalance of dopamine levels, which is known to be a contributing factor in the development of Parkinsonism. Parkinsonism is a group of symptoms that resemble Parkinson's disease, including tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with movement. Therefore, excessive use of domperidone can potentially cause Parkinsonism.

Explanation

Domperidone is a medication primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which can lead to an increase in the levels of dopamine. Overuse of domperidone can result in an imbalance of dopamine levels, which is known to be a contributing factor in the development of Parkinsonism. Parkinsonism is a group of symptoms that resemble Parkinson's disease, including tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with movement. Therefore, excessive use of domperidone can potentially cause Parkinsonism.

82. The most commonly used vector in rDNA technology is:

Pseudomonas aeruginosaB.megaterium

E.coli

B.subtilis

B.megaterium

B.subtilis is recently used...E.coli was previously used...

Explanation

B.subtilis is recently used...E.coli was previously used...

83. Which of the following herbal drug is an example of warty outgrowth from micropyle?

Croton

Cardamom

Nutmeg

Datura

Croton is the correct answer because it is an example of a herbal drug that has a warty outgrowth from the micropyle. The micropyle is a small opening in the seed coat through which the pollen tube enters during fertilization. In the case of Croton, it develops a warty outgrowth from this opening, which is unique to this plant. Cardamom, nutmeg, and Datura do not exhibit this characteristic.

Explanation

Croton is the correct answer because it is an example of a herbal drug that has a warty outgrowth from the micropyle. The micropyle is a small opening in the seed coat through which the pollen tube enters during fertilization. In the case of Croton, it develops a warty outgrowth from this opening, which is unique to this plant. Cardamom, nutmeg, and Datura do not exhibit this characteristic.

84. Energetic Photons are used as an ionizing agents in which of the following mode of ionization for Mass spectroscopy?

Chemical Ionization

Desorption Ionization(DI)

Fast Atom Bombardment(FAB)

Electron Ionization

Desorption Ionization (DI) is a mode of ionization in Mass Spectrometry where energetic photons are used as ionizing agents. In DI, the sample is desorbed from a solid surface using laser beams or other energetic photons, and then ionized in the gas phase. This technique is particularly useful for analyzing large biomolecules and other complex samples that are difficult to ionize using traditional ionization methods like Electron Ionization. Therefore, DI is the correct answer for the given question.

Explanation

Desorption Ionization (DI) is a mode of ionization in Mass Spectrometry where energetic photons are used as ionizing agents. In DI, the sample is desorbed from a solid surface using laser beams or other energetic photons, and then ionized in the gas phase. This technique is particularly useful for analyzing large biomolecules and other complex samples that are difficult to ionize using traditional ionization methods like Electron Ionization. Therefore, DI is the correct answer for the given question.

85. Which one of the following drugs belonging to Cephalosporinclass of antibiotics exists in Zwiiter ionic form?

Cefixime

Cefpodoxime Axetil

Cefpirome

Ceftrioxone

Cefpirome exists in the zwitterionic form. Zwitterionic compounds have both positive and negative charges on different parts of the molecule, making them electrically neutral overall. This property allows them to have better solubility and stability in aqueous solutions. Cefpirome is a fourth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria. Its zwitterionic form enhances its ability to penetrate bacterial cell walls and exert its antimicrobial activity.

Explanation

Cefpirome exists in the zwitterionic form. Zwitterionic compounds have both positive and negative charges on different parts of the molecule, making them electrically neutral overall. This property allows them to have better solubility and stability in aqueous solutions. Cefpirome is a fourth-generation cephalosporin antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria. Its zwitterionic form enhances its ability to penetrate bacterial cell walls and exert its antimicrobial activity.

86. Which of the following peptide antibiotic is used in the treatment of TB?

Clarithromycin

Capreomycin

Cycloserine

Chlormycetin

Capreomycin is a peptide antibiotic that is used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB). It is specifically effective against multidrug-resistant strains of TB. Capreomycin works by inhibiting protein synthesis in the bacteria, thereby preventing their growth and replication. It is usually administered through intramuscular injections and is considered a second-line drug for TB treatment.

Explanation

Capreomycin is a peptide antibiotic that is used in the treatment of tuberculosis (TB). It is specifically effective against multidrug-resistant strains of TB. Capreomycin works by inhibiting protein synthesis in the bacteria, thereby preventing their growth and replication. It is usually administered through intramuscular injections and is considered a second-line drug for TB treatment.

87. All of the following agents consisting of dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system except:

Carbamazepine

Imipramine

Trimipramine

Amitryptyline

The question is asking for the agent that does not consist of a dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system. Carbamazepine, Trimipramine, and Amitryptyline all contain this ring system. However, Imipramine does not have this ring system, making it the correct answer.

Explanation

The question is asking for the agent that does not consist of a dibenz[b,f]azepine ring system. Carbamazepine, Trimipramine, and Amitryptyline all contain this ring system. However, Imipramine does not have this ring system, making it the correct answer.

88. Cortisone acetate exists in how many polymorphic forms?

5

6

7

8

Cortisone acetate exists in 8 polymorphic forms. Polymorphism refers to the ability of a substance to exist in multiple crystalline forms. Each polymorphic form of a substance has a unique crystal structure and physical properties. In the case of cortisone acetate, there are 8 different crystal structures that it can adopt, resulting in variations in its properties such as solubility, melting point, and stability. This polymorphism is important in pharmaceuticals as different crystal forms can have different bioavailability and therapeutic effects.

Explanation

Cortisone acetate exists in 8 polymorphic forms. Polymorphism refers to the ability of a substance to exist in multiple crystalline forms. Each polymorphic form of a substance has a unique crystal structure and physical properties. In the case of cortisone acetate, there are 8 different crystal structures that it can adopt, resulting in variations in its properties such as solubility, melting point, and stability. This polymorphism is important in pharmaceuticals as different crystal forms can have different bioavailability and therapeutic effects.

89. Select inappropriate statement with respect to the Lipinski's Rule of Five.

Molecular weight of drug must be less than 500

Log P must be less than 5

Number of H-bond donor must be less than 5

Number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5

The statement "number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5" is incorrect with respect to Lipinski's Rule of Five. Lipinski's Rule of Five states that for a drug to have good oral bioavailability, its molecular weight should be less than 500, its log P should be less than 5, it should have no more than 5 hydrogen bond donors, and it should have no more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors. Therefore, the correct answer is that the number of H-bond acceptors should be less than 10, not less than 5.

Explanation

The statement "number of H-bond acceptor must be less than 5" is incorrect with respect to Lipinski's Rule of Five. Lipinski's Rule of Five states that for a drug to have good oral bioavailability, its molecular weight should be less than 500, its log P should be less than 5, it should have no more than 5 hydrogen bond donors, and it should have no more than 10 hydrogen bond acceptors. Therefore, the correct answer is that the number of H-bond acceptors should be less than 10, not less than 5.

90. Select the wrong statement from the following:

Boswellia serrata, Pinaceae, Sesquiterpenes

Cassia angustifolia, Leguminoseae, Anthraquinones

Terminalia chebula, Combretaceae, Tannins

Butea monosperma, Papillioonaceae, Flavones

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

91. Which of the following coenzyme is required in phospholipid synthesis?

CDP

ADP

SAM

PLP

CDP (cytidine diphosphate) is the correct answer because it is a coenzyme that is required in the synthesis of phospholipids. Phospholipids are essential components of cell membranes and play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of cells. CDP is involved in the transfer of phosphatidic acid to other molecules, leading to the formation of various phospholipids. Therefore, CDP is necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, making it the correct choice among the given options.

Explanation

CDP (cytidine diphosphate) is the correct answer because it is a coenzyme that is required in the synthesis of phospholipids. Phospholipids are essential components of cell membranes and play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and function of cells. CDP is involved in the transfer of phosphatidic acid to other molecules, leading to the formation of various phospholipids. Therefore, CDP is necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, making it the correct choice among the given options.

92. Identify the category of this drug:

Neuroleptic

Thymoleptic

Analeptic

Minor tranquilizer

The correct answer is thymoleptic. Thymoleptic drugs are a category of drugs that are used to treat mood disorders, such as depression and bipolar disorder. They work by affecting the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in regulating mood. Neuroleptics, on the other hand, are a category of drugs used to treat psychotic disorders, such as schizophrenia. Analeptics are drugs that stimulate the central nervous system and are used to treat conditions like respiratory depression. Minor tranquilizers are drugs that have a calming effect and are used to treat anxiety and insomnia.

Explanation

The correct answer is thymoleptic. Thymoleptic drugs are a category of drugs that are used to treat mood disorders, such as depression and bipolar disorder. They work by affecting the levels of certain chemicals in the brain that are involved in regulating mood. Neuroleptics, on the other hand, are a category of drugs used to treat psychotic disorders, such as schizophrenia. Analeptics are drugs that stimulate the central nervous system and are used to treat conditions like respiratory depression. Minor tranquilizers are drugs that have a calming effect and are used to treat anxiety and insomnia.

93. Which of the following film former is soluble below 40 C and insoluble above 45 C in water?

HPMC

HPC

HPMCP

Povidone

HPC (Hydroxypropyl cellulose) is the correct answer because it is soluble in water below 40°C but becomes insoluble above 45°C. This means that HPC can form a film when dissolved in water at temperatures below 40°C, but the film will dissolve or disintegrate when the temperature exceeds 45°C.

Explanation

HPC (Hydroxypropyl cellulose) is the correct answer because it is soluble in water below 40°C but becomes insoluble above 45°C. This means that HPC can form a film when dissolved in water at temperatures below 40°C, but the film will dissolve or disintegrate when the temperature exceeds 45°C.

94. EXAMPLE OF DRUG WHOSE DISSOLUTION IN CRYSTALLINE FORM IS HIGHER THAN ITS AMORPHOUS FORM?

Erythromycin

Streptomycin

Ketoconazole

Pyrazinamide

Erythromycin is the correct answer because it is a drug that exhibits higher dissolution in its crystalline form compared to its amorphous form. Crystalline drugs have a regular and ordered structure, which allows for better solubility and dissolution in a solvent. On the other hand, amorphous drugs have a disordered structure, leading to lower solubility and slower dissolution. Therefore, Erythromycin in its crystalline form would dissolve more readily and be more bioavailable compared to its amorphous form.

Explanation

Erythromycin is the correct answer because it is a drug that exhibits higher dissolution in its crystalline form compared to its amorphous form. Crystalline drugs have a regular and ordered structure, which allows for better solubility and dissolution in a solvent. On the other hand, amorphous drugs have a disordered structure, leading to lower solubility and slower dissolution. Therefore, Erythromycin in its crystalline form would dissolve more readily and be more bioavailable compared to its amorphous form.

95. The first choice antibiotic for vancomycin-resistant streptococcus is

Amoxicillin

Quinupristin

Azithromycin

Clindamycin

Quinupristin is the first choice antibiotic for vancomycin-resistant streptococcus because it is a potent bactericidal agent that effectively targets and kills the bacteria. It belongs to a class of antibiotics called streptogramins, which inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Quinupristin is particularly effective against gram-positive bacteria, including vancomycin-resistant streptococcus, making it a suitable choice for treating infections caused by this type of bacteria. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, and clindamycin are not as effective against vancomycin-resistant streptococcus, hence they are not the first choice antibiotics for this condition.

Explanation

Quinupristin is the first choice antibiotic for vancomycin-resistant streptococcus because it is a potent bactericidal agent that effectively targets and kills the bacteria. It belongs to a class of antibiotics called streptogramins, which inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Quinupristin is particularly effective against gram-positive bacteria, including vancomycin-resistant streptococcus, making it a suitable choice for treating infections caused by this type of bacteria. Amoxicillin, azithromycin, and clindamycin are not as effective against vancomycin-resistant streptococcus, hence they are not the first choice antibiotics for this condition.

96. IUPAC name of Quinapril?

(3S)-2-[(2S)-2-{[(2S)-1-ethoxy-1-oxo-4-phenylbutan-2-yl]amino}propanoyl]-1,2,3,4-isoquinoline-3-carboxylic acid

(3S)-2-[(2S)-2-{[(2S)-1-ethoxy-1-oxo-4-phenylbutan-2-yl]amino}propanoyl]-1,2,3,4-tetrahydroquinoline-3-carboxylic acid

(3S)-2-[(2S)-2-{[(2S)-1-ethoxy-1-oxo-4-phenylbutan-2-yl]amino}propanoyl]-1,2,3,4-quinoline-3-carboxylic acid

(3S)-2-[(2S)-2-{[(2S)-1-ethoxy-1-oxo-4-phenylbutan-2-yl]amino}propanoyl]-1,2,3,4-tetrahydroisoquinoline-3-carboxylic acid

not-available-via-ai

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

97. Which of the following chemotherapeutic drugs double the distance between adjacent base pairs of DNA?

Cytarabine

Gatifloxacin

Bleomycin

Acriflavin

Acriflavin is the correct answer because it is known to intercalate between DNA base pairs, causing the distance between adjacent base pairs to double. This intercalation disrupts DNA replication and transcription processes, making it an effective chemotherapeutic drug. Cytarabine, Gatifloxacin, and Bleomycin do not have this specific mechanism of action.

Explanation

Acriflavin is the correct answer because it is known to intercalate between DNA base pairs, causing the distance between adjacent base pairs to double. This intercalation disrupts DNA replication and transcription processes, making it an effective chemotherapeutic drug. Cytarabine, Gatifloxacin, and Bleomycin do not have this specific mechanism of action.

98. Which non-essential amino acid has two chiral centers?

Lysine

Isoleucine

Threonine

Isoleucine and threonine

None

Isoleucine & Threonine both contain 2 chiral carbons both of which are Essential.
Except Glycine all amino acids contain atleast one chiral carbon

Explanation

Isoleucine & Threonine both contain 2 chiral carbons both of which are Essential.
Except Glycine all amino acids contain atleast one chiral carbon

99. Which of the following has pH-independent solubility?

PVAP

PVA

HPMC

HPMCP

PVAP has pH-independent solubility because it is a non-ionic polymer. Non-ionic polymers do not ionize in solution and therefore their solubility is not affected by changes in pH. On the other hand, PVA, HPMC, and HPMCP are all ionic polymers and their solubility can be influenced by pH changes.

Explanation

PVAP has pH-independent solubility because it is a non-ionic polymer. Non-ionic polymers do not ionize in solution and therefore their solubility is not affected by changes in pH. On the other hand, PVA, HPMC, and HPMCP are all ionic polymers and their solubility can be influenced by pH changes.