HESI Pharmacology Practice Quiz Exam

Reviewed by Farah Naz
Farah Naz, MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
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Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.
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HESI Pharmacology Practice Quiz Exam - Quiz


We've designed here an interesting and fun 'HESI pharmacology practice exam' to test your knowledge about pharmacology and its related concepts. If you think you have a good understanding of this topic, then you must take this quiz. So, are you ready to get started with this test? Let's begin, then. Wishing you good luck with this quiz.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The nurse is administering 0900 medications to the following patients. To which patients would the nurse question administering the medication?

    • A.

      The patient receiving a calcium channel blocker, who drank a full glass of water.

    • B.

      The patient receiving a beta blocker, who has a blood pressure of 110/70.

    • C.

      The patient receiving a nitro glycerin patch, who is complaining of a headache.

    • D.

      The patient receiving an antiplatelet medication, who has a platelet count of 33,000.

    Correct Answer
    B. The patient receiving a beta blocker, who has a blood pressure of 110/70.
    Explanation
    Beta blockers are medications that lower blood pressure, so administering them to a patient with already low blood pressure (hypotension) could potentially worsen the condition and lead to complications like dizziness, fainting, or even shock. Therefore, the nurse should question administering the beta blocker in this scenario.

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  • 2. 

    The patient with a head injury is ordered a CT scan of the head with contrast dye. Which intervention should the nurse include when discussing the procedure?

    • A.

      Instruct the client to not take any of the routine medications.

    • B.

      Inform the client an intravenous line will be started prior to the procedure.

    • C.

      Ask about any allergies to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication.

    • D.

      Explain that the client will be given sedatives prior to the procedure.

    Correct Answer
    B. Inform the client an intravenous line will be started prior to the procedure.
    Explanation
    The nurse should inform the patient that an intravenous line will be started prior to the procedure because contrast dye is typically administered intravenously during a CT scan. This allows for better visualization of the head structures and can help identify any abnormalities or injuries. Starting an intravenous line beforehand ensures that the contrast dye can be quickly and easily administered during the procedure. It also allows for the administration of any necessary medications or fluids before, during, or after the scan.

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  • 3. 

    The obstetric clinic nurse is discussing folic acid, a vitamin, with a patient who is trying to conceive. Which information should the nurse discuss with the patient when taking this medication? 

    • A.

      This medication will help prevent spina bifida in the unborn child.

    • B.

      Notify the health-care provider if the client’s vision becomes blurry.

    • C.

      Do not use any laxatives containing mineral oil when taking folic acid.

    • D.

      The client should drink one glass of red wine daily to potentiate the medication.

    Correct Answer
    A. This medication will help prevent spina bifida in the unborn child.
    Explanation
    The nurse should discuss with the client that taking folic acid medication will help prevent spina bifida in the unborn child.

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  • 4. 

    The client is experiencing ventricular tachycardia and has a weak, thread apical pulse. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer to the client?

    • A.

      Epinephrine, an adrenergic agonist, intravenous push.

    • B.

      Lidocaine, an antidysrhythmic, intravenous push.

    • C.

      Atropine, an antidysrhythmic, intravenous push.

    • D.

      Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, intravenous push.

    Correct Answer
    B. Lidocaine, an antidysrhythmic, intravenous push.
    Explanation
    Lidocaine is the correct medication to administer in this situation because it is an antidysrhythmic. Ventricular tachycardia is a potentially life-threatening arrhythmia that can lead to cardiac arrest. Lidocaine helps to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further dysrhythmias. The weak, thread apical pulse suggests that the client's heart is not effectively pumping blood, and lidocaine can help to restore a more normal rhythm and improve cardiac output. Epinephrine is typically used in cardiac arrest situations, while atropine is used for bradycardia. Digoxin is not typically used for ventricular dysrhythmias.

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  • 5. 

    The client who has had abdominal surgery has an IV of Ringer lactate infusion at 100 mL/hour. The nurse is hanging a new bag of fluid at which rate should the nurse set the pump to infuse the Ringer’s lactate?

    • A.

      100 ML

    • B.

      10ML

    • C.

      1000ML

    • D.

      101ML

    Correct Answer
    A. 100 ML
    Explanation
    The nurse should set the pump to infuse the Ringer's lactate at a rate of 100 mL/hour. This is because the question states that the IV is already infusing at a rate of 100 mL/hour, and the nurse is hanging a new bag of fluid. Therefore, the pump should continue to be set at the same rate to maintain a consistent infusion of Ringer's lactate.

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  • 6. 

    The client admitted for an acute exacerbation of reactive airway disease is receiving intravenous aminophylline. The client’s serum theophylline level is 18 ug/mL.  Which action should the nurse implement first?

    • A.

      Continue to monitor the aminophylline drip.

    • B.

      Assess the client for nausea and restlessness.

    • C.

      Discontinue the aminophylline drip.

    • D.

      Notify the health-care provider immediately.

    Correct Answer
    A. Continue to monitor the aminophylline drip.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to continue monitoring the aminophylline drip. This is because the client's serum theophylline level is within the therapeutic range (10-20 ug/mL). Monitoring the drip ensures that the medication is being administered properly and that the client's condition is being adequately managed. Assessing for nausea and restlessness, discontinuing the drip, or notifying the healthcare provider would be appropriate actions if the theophylline level was outside of the therapeutic range or if the client was experiencing adverse effects.

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  • 7. 

    The nurse is administering 0800 medications. Which medication would the nurse question?

    • A.

      Misoprostol (Cytotec), a prostaglandin analog, to a 29-year-old male with an NSAID-produced ulcer.

    • B.

      Omeprazole (Prilosec), a proton-pump inhibitor, to a 68-year-old male with a duodenal ulcer.

    • C.

      Furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic, to a 56-year-old male with a potassium level of 3.0mEq/L.

    • D.

      Acetaminophen (Tylenol), a nonnarcotic analgesic to an 84 year old with a frontal headache.

    Correct Answer
    C. Furosemide (Lasix), a loop diuretic, to a 56-year-old male with a potassium level of 3.0mEq/L.
    Explanation
    The nurse would question administering Furosemide (Lasix) to a 56-year-old male with a potassium level of 3.0mEq/L(low levels) because Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss. With a low potassium level already present, giving Furosemide could further decrease the potassium level and potentially lead to complications.

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  • 8. 

    The nurse is administering morning medication to the patient in a medical ward. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

    • A.

      Regular insulin sliding scale to an elderly client diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

    • B.

      Methylprednisolone, a glucocorticoid, to a client diagnosed with lupus erythematous.

    • C.

      Morphine, a narcotic analgesic, to a client diagnosed with Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • D.

      Etanercept, a biologic response modifier, to a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.

    Correct Answer
    A. Regular insulin sliding scale to an elderly client diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus.
    Explanation
    The nurse should administer the regular insulin sliding scale to the elderly client diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus first because insulin is necessary for controlling blood sugar levels in diabetic patients. Failure to administer insulin promptly can lead to hyperglycemia and potential complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of insulin to ensure proper management of the client's diabetes.

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  • 9. 

    Which intervention should the nurse implement when administering the biologic response modifier filgrastim (Neupogen) subcutaneously?

    • A.

      Shake the vial well prior to preparing the injection.

    • B.

      Apply a warm washcloth after administering the medication.

    • C.

      Discard any unused portion of the vial after withdrawing the correct dose.

    • D.

      Keep the medication vials in the freezer until preparing to administer.

    Correct Answer
    C. Discard any unused portion of the vial after withdrawing the correct dose.
    Explanation
    It is important to discard any unused portion of the vial after withdrawing the correct dose of filgrastim (Neupogen) because it is a biologic medication that can easily become contaminated if not handled properly. This reduces the risk of infection or other complications for the patient.

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  • 10. 

    The client experienced a full-thickness burn to 45% of the body including the chest area. The HCP ordered fluid resuscitation. Which data indicates the fluid resuscitation has been effective?

    • A.

      The client’s urine output is less than 30mL/hour.

    • B.

      The client has a productive cough and clear lungs.

    • C.

      The client’s blood pressure is 110/70.

    • D.

      The client’s urine contains sediment.

    Correct Answer
    C. The client’s blood pressure is 110/70.
    Explanation
    The client's blood pressure being 110/70 indicates that the fluid resuscitation has been effective. A full-thickness burn can lead to significant fluid loss and hypovolemia, which can cause a decrease in blood pressure. By restoring the fluid volume, the blood pressure returns to a normal range, indicating that the fluid resuscitation has been successful in restoring the client's fluid balance.

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  • 11. 

    The charge nurse on an orthopedic unit is transcribing orders for a client diagnosed with back pain. Which HCP order should the charge nurse question?

    • A.

      Morphine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, Q 4 hours ATC.

    • B.

      CBC and CMP (complete metabolic panel).

    • C.

      Hydrocodone (Vicodin), an opioid analgesic, Q 4 hours PRN.

    • D.

      Carisoprodol (Soma), a muscle relaxant, po, B.I.D.

    Correct Answer
    A. Morphine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, Q 4 hours ATC.
    Explanation
    The charge nurse should question the order for morphine sulfate, a narcotic analgesic, Q 4 hours ATC. This is because "ATC" stands for "around the clock," which means the medication should be given regularly and not as needed. However, the client is diagnosed with back pain, which typically requires pain medication to be administered on an as-needed basis. Therefore, the order for morphine sulfate should be questioned and clarified with the healthcare provider.

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  • 12. 

    The nurse is administering medications to clients in an orthopedic unit. Which medication should the nurse question?

    • A.

      Ibuprofen (Motrin), an NSAID, to a client diagnosed with back pain.

    • B.

      Morphine, an opioid analgesic, to a client with a “2” back pain on the pain scale.

    • C.

      Methocarbamol (Robaxin), a muscle relaxant, to a client with chronic back pain.

    • D.

      Propoxyphene (Darvon N), a narcotic, to a client with mild back pain.

    Correct Answer
    B. Morphine, an opioid analgesic, to a client with a “2” back pain on the pain scale.
    Explanation
    The nurse should question administering morphine, an opioid analgesic, to a client with a "2" back pain on the pain scale because opioids are typically reserved for moderate to severe pain. A pain level of "2" suggests mild pain, which can usually be managed with non-opioid analgesics such as ibuprofen or muscle relaxants like methocarbamol. Administering morphine for mild pain may be unnecessary and can increase the risk of adverse effects associated with opioids.

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  • 13. 

    Which is the scientific rationale for prescribing decongestants for a client with a cold?

    • A.

      Decongestants vasoconstricts the blood vessels, reducing nasal inflammation.

    • B.

      Decongestants decrease the immune system’s response to a virus.

    • C.

      Decongestants activate viral receptors in the body’s immune system.

    • D.

      Decongestants block the virus from binding to the epithelial cells of the nose.

    Correct Answer
    A. Decongestants vasoconstricts the blood vessels, reducing nasal inflammation.
    Explanation
    Decongestants vasoconstricts the blood vessels, reducing nasal inflammation. When a person has a cold, the blood vessels in the nasal passages become dilated, leading to nasal congestion and inflammation. Decongestants work by constricting these blood vessels, reducing the swelling and congestion in the nasal passages, and providing relief from symptoms such as stuffy nose. This is the scientific rationale for prescribing decongestants for a client with a cold.

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  • 14. 

    The nurse is caring for clients on the telemetry unit. Which medication should the nurse administer first?

    • A.

      The cardiotonic digoxin to the client diagnosed with CHF whose digoxin level is 1.9 mg/dL

    • B.

      The marcotice morphine IVP to the client who has pleuritic chest pain that is a “7” on a 1-10 pain scale.

    • C.

      The sodium channel blocker lidocaine to the client exhibiting two unifocal PVCs per minute.

    • D.

      The ACE inhibitor lisinopril (Vasotec) to the client diagnosed with HTN who has a B/P of 130/68.

    Correct Answer
    B. The marcotice morphine IVP to the client who has pleuritic chest pain that is a “7” on a 1-10 pain scale.
    Explanation
    The nurse should administer the marcotice morphine IVP to the client who has pleuritic chest pain that is a “7” on a 1-10 pain scale. Pain management is a priority in this situation, as the client is experiencing moderate to severe pain. Morphine is an appropriate medication to relieve chest pain. The other options, such as digoxin, lidocaine, and lisinopril, are not indicated for immediate pain relief and can be administered at a later time.

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  • 15. 

    The nurse is administering digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg intravenous push medication to the client. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

    • A.

      Administer the medication undiluted in a 1-mL syringe.

    • B.

      Check the client’s potassium level.

    • C.

      Pinch off the intravenous tubing below the port

    • D.

      Inject the medication quickly and at a steady rate.

    Correct Answer
    B. Check the client’s potassium level.
    Explanation
    The nurse should check the client's potassium level before administering digoxin because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin works by increasing the force of contraction of the heart, and low potassium levels can enhance this effect, leading to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is important to assess the client's potassium level to ensure it is within the therapeutic range before giving the medication. This intervention helps to prevent potential harm to the client.

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  • 16. 

    To which client would the nurse expect the health-care provider to prescribe chlordiazepoxide (Librium), a benzodiazepine?

    • A.

      A client addicted to cocaine.

    • B.

      A client addicted to heroin.

    • C.

      A client addicted to amphetamines.

    • D.

      A client addicted to alcohol.

    Correct Answer
    D. A client addicted to alcohol.
    Explanation
    Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms. It helps reduce anxiety, tremors, and seizures associated with alcohol withdrawal. Therefore, it is expected that the health-care provider would prescribe chlordiazepoxide to a client addicted to alcohol.

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  • 17. 

    The client is discussing wanting to quit smoking cigarettes with the clinic nurse. Which intervention is most successful in helping the client to quit smoking cigarettes?

    • A.

      Encourage the client to attend a smoking cessation support group.

    • B.

      Discuss tapering the number of cigarettes smoked daily.

    • C.

      Instruct the client to use varenicline (Chantix), a smoking cessation medication.

    • D.

      Explain that clonidine can be taken daily to help decrease withdrawal symptoms.

    Correct Answer
    C. Instruct the client to use varenicline (Chantix), a smoking cessation medication.
    Explanation
    Using varenicline (Chantix), a smoking cessation medication, is the most successful intervention in helping the client quit smoking cigarettes. Varenicline is specifically designed to help individuals quit smoking by reducing the cravings and withdrawal symptoms associated with nicotine addiction. It works by blocking the effects of nicotine on the brain and reducing the pleasurable sensations from smoking. Thus, instructing the client to use varenicline can greatly increase their chances of successfully quitting smoking.

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  • 18. 

      For which client with a head injury would the nurse not administer the osmotic diuretic mannitol (Osmitrol)?

    • A.

      The 34-year-old client, who is HIV positive.

    • B.

      The 84-year-old client, who has glaucoma.

    • C.

      The 68-year-old client, who has congestive heart failure.

    • D.

      The 16-year-old client, who has cystic fibrosis.

    Correct Answer
    B. The 84-year-old client, who has glaucoma.
    Explanation
    Mannitol, an osmotic diuretic, is contraindicated in the 84-year-old client with glaucoma due to the risk of increasing intraocular pressure (IOP). Administering mannitol could exacerbate glaucoma symptoms, leading to potential vision damage. Therefore, it is not appropriate for this client.

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  • 19. 

    The client receiving telemetry is exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia. Which antidysrhythmic medication should the nurse administer?

    • A.

      Lidocaine

    • B.

      Atropine

    • C.

      Adenosine

    • D.

      Epinephrine

    Correct Answer
    C. Adenosine
    Explanation
    Adenosine is the correct antidysrhythmic medication to administer for a client exhibiting supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by slowing down the electrical conduction in the heart, which can help restore a normal heart rhythm. It is often used as a first-line treatment for supraventricular tachycardia because of its effectiveness and rapid onset of action. Lidocaine is typically used for ventricular dysrhythmias, while atropine is used for bradycardia. Epinephrine is used for cardiac arrest or severe bradycardia.

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  • 20. 

    Walter, a teenage patient is admitted to the hospital because of an acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose. Overdoses of acetaminophen can precipitate life-threatening abnormalities in which of the following organs?

    • A.

      Lungs

    • B.

      Liver

    • C.

      Kidney

    • D.

      Adrenal Glands

    Correct Answer
    B. Liver
    Explanation
    Acetaminophen overdose can cause liver toxicity. The liver is responsible for metabolizing acetaminophen, and when taken in excessive amounts, it can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it. This can lead to liver damage and potentially life-threatening abnormalities.

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  • 21. 

    A contraindication for topical corticosteroid usage in a male patient with atopic dermatitis (eczema) is:

    • A.

      Parasite infection.

    • B.

      Viral infection.

    • C.

      Bacterial infection

    • D.

      Spirochete infection.

    Correct Answer
    B. Viral infection.
    Explanation
    Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat atopic dermatitis (eczema), but they should not be used if the patient has a viral infection. This is because corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, making it harder for the body to fight off viral infections. Using corticosteroids during a viral infection can potentially worsen the infection and delay the healing process. Therefore, it is important to avoid using topical corticosteroids in patients with viral infections.

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  • 22. 

    Mandy, a patient, called the clinic today because he is taking atorvastatin (Lipitor) to treat his high cholesterol and is having pain in both of his legs. You instruct him to:

    • A.

      Stop taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week.

    • B.

      Continue taking the drug and make an appointment to be seen next week.

    • C.

      Stop taking the drug and come to the clinic to be seen today.

    • D.

      Walk for at least 30 minutes and call if symptoms continue.

    Correct Answer
    C. Stop taking the drug and come to the clinic to be seen today.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to stop taking the drug and come to the clinic to be seen today. This is because the patient is experiencing pain in both of his legs, which could be a symptom of a serious side effect of atorvastatin. It is important for the patient to be evaluated by a healthcare professional as soon as possible to determine the cause of the leg pain and adjust the treatment plan if necessary.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following adverse effects is associated with levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy?

    • A.

      Tachycardia

    • B.

      Bradycardia

    • C.

      Hypotension

    • D.

      Constipation

    Correct Answer
    A. Tachycardia
    Explanation
    Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism. One of the adverse effects associated with levothyroxine therapy is tachycardia, which refers to a rapid heart rate. This can occur because levothyroxine increases the metabolic rate, leading to an increased demand for oxygen and nutrients, which in turn leads to an increased heart rate. Other adverse effects of levothyroxine therapy may include palpitations, chest pain, and arrhythmias.

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  • 24. 

    Which of the following adverse effects is specific to the biguanide diabetic drug metformin (Glucophage) therapy?

    • A.

      Hypoglycemia

    • B.

      GI distress

    • C.

      Lactic acidosis

    • D.

      Somnolence

    Correct Answer
    C. Lactic acidosis
    Explanation
    Metformin, a biguanide diabetic drug, is known to have the specific adverse effect of lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis occurs when there is an accumulation of lactic acid in the blood. This can be a serious condition and can lead to symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, muscle pain, and difficulty breathing. It is important to monitor for signs of lactic acidosis while taking metformin, especially in individuals with kidney or liver problems, as they may be at a higher risk. Hypoglycemia, GI distress, and somnolence are potential adverse effects of other diabetic drugs, but lactic acidosis is specific to metformin.

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  • 25. 

    Mr. Robin, a newly admitted patient, has a seizure disorder, which is being treated with medication. Which of the following drugs would the nurse question if ordered for him?

    • A.

      Phenobarbital, 150 mg hs

    • B.

      Amitriptyline (Elavil), 10 mg QID

    • C.

      Aspirins

    • D.

      Phenytoin (Dilantin), 100 mg TID

    Correct Answer
    B. Amitriptyline (Elavil), 10 mg QID
    Explanation
    The nurse would question the order for Amitriptyline (Elavil), 10 mg QID, because it is an antidepressant medication and not typically used to treat seizure disorders. The other options, Phenobarbital, Aspirin, and Phenytoin, are commonly used to treat seizure disorders and would be appropriate for Mr. Robin.

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  • 26. 

    A nurse is preparing the client’s morning NPH insulin dose and notices a clumpy precipitate inside the insulin vial. The nurse should:

    • A.

      Draw up and administer the dose

    • B.

      Shake the vial in an attempt to disperse the clumps

    • C.

      Draw the dose from a new vial

    • D.

      Warm the bottle under running water to dissolve the clump

    Correct Answer
    C. Draw the dose from a new vial
    Explanation
    When a nurse notices a clumpy precipitate inside an insulin vial, it indicates that the insulin has degraded or is no longer effective. Drawing up and administering the dose from this vial could result in an inaccurate dose or ineffective treatment. Shaking the vial may not effectively disperse the clumps and could potentially damage the insulin. Warming the bottle under running water is not recommended as it could alter the effectiveness of the insulin. Therefore, the best course of action is to draw the dose from a new vial to ensure the client receives the appropriate medication.

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  • 27. 

    A client who is taking famotidine (Pepcid) asks the home care nurse what would be the best medication to take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take:

    • A.

      Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)

    • B.

      Ibuprofen (Motrin)

    • C.

      Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

    • D.

      Naproxen (Naprosyn)

    Correct Answer
    C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
    Explanation
    Acetaminophen (Tylenol) would be the best medication to take for a headache while taking famotidine (Pepcid). This is because acetaminophen is less likely to interact with famotidine compared to aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Famotidine belongs to a class of medications called H2 blockers, which reduce stomach acid production. Aspirin, ibuprofen, and naproxen are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) that can increase the risk of stomach irritation and bleeding when taken with famotidine. Acetaminophen, on the other hand, is not an NSAID and is generally considered safe to take with famotidine.

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Farah Naz |MBBS, Medicine |
Medical Expert
Farah holds a Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS) from Dow University of Health Sciences. She gained valuable experience through internships in Radiology, Cardiology, and Neurosurgery, and has contributed to two research publications in medical journals. Passionate about healthcare education, Farah excels in crafting medical content, including articles, literature reviews, and e-learning courses. Leveraging her expertise, she meticulously reviews medical science quizzes, ensuring accuracy and educational value for aspiring healthcare professionals.

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  • Mar 11, 2024
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    Farah Naz
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