Pharm CNS & Anti-bacterial Medications

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  • 1/47 Questions

    Acyclovir aodium (Zovirax) is an anti-viral used to treat multiple types of herpes viruses. 

    • True
    • False
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About This Quiz

This quiz assesses knowledge on CNS and anti-bacterial medications, focusing on therapeutic levels, drug-lab interactions, and specific treatments for conditions like Crohn's disease. It is crucial for students and professionals in medicine and pharmacology.

Pharm CNS & Anti-bacterial Medications - Quiz

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following anti-psychotic medications commonly causes metallic taste?

    • Risperdal

    • Prolixin

    • Haldol

    • Lithium

    Correct Answer
    A. Lithium
    Explanation
    Lithium is known to commonly cause a metallic taste as a side effect. This is a common complaint among individuals taking lithium, and it can be an unpleasant and bothersome symptom. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this side effect and inform patients who are prescribed lithium about the possibility of experiencing a metallic taste.

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  • 3. 

    Which type of infection is Garamycin effective in treating?

    • Bacterial

    • Fungal

    • Viral

    • Parasitic

    Correct Answer
    A. Bacterial
    Explanation
    Garamycin is effective in treating bacterial infections. It is an antibiotic medication that specifically targets and kills bacteria, making it an appropriate treatment for bacterial infections. It is not effective against fungal, viral, or parasitic infections, as these are caused by different types of organisms.

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  • 4. 

    A patient has been in the hospital for 7 days, and complains of insomnia. Which of the following should the nurse do first?

    • Discuss with the patient their normal bedtime routine, and attempt to follow

    • Contact physician and request a sedative

    • Offer patient a 15 minute back massage

    • Contact family member to help

    Correct Answer
    A. Discuss with the patient their normal bedtime routine, and attempt to follow
    Explanation
    The nurse should first discuss with the patient their normal bedtime routine and attempt to follow it. This is because insomnia can often be caused by disruptions in a person's regular sleep schedule or routine. By understanding the patient's normal routine and attempting to follow it, the nurse may be able to create a more conducive sleep environment for the patient, potentially alleviating their insomnia. This approach is non-invasive and does not involve medication or external assistance, making it the most appropriate first step in addressing the patient's complaint.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following patient's taking Sinemet for Parkinson's disease requires immediate attention?

    • Peripheral neuropathy and muscle weakness

    • Drown discoloration of urine and sweat with a bitter taste in the mouth

    • Constipation and decreased urine output

    • Tongue protrusion, twitching, and eye spasms

    Correct Answer
    A. Tongue protrusion, twitching, and eye spasms
    Explanation
    The patient experiencing tongue protrusion, twitching, and eye spasms while taking Sinemet for Parkinson's disease requires immediate attention. These symptoms may indicate a condition called tardive dyskinesia, which is a potential side effect of long-term use of Sinemet. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary and repetitive movements of the tongue, lips, face, and other body parts. It is important to address this side effect promptly to prevent further complications and adjust the patient's medication regimen if necessary.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following is used to treat resistant staph?

    • Amoxil

    • Bactrim

    • Cefazolin

    • Vancomycin

    Correct Answer
    A. Vancomycin
    Explanation
    Vancomycin is used to treat resistant staph infections. Staphylococcus aureus, commonly known as staph, can become resistant to many antibiotics, making it difficult to treat. Vancomycin is a powerful antibiotic that is effective against these resistant strains of staph. It works by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and preventing them from forming a cell wall, ultimately killing the bacteria. Vancomycin is often considered a last-resort treatment for staph infections when other antibiotics have failed.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following actions by a student nurse with a patient receiving Zyloprim, would cause a nurse to intervene?

    • Advising a patient to avoid Vitamin C intake

    • Educating the patient to increase fluid intake

    • Administering Aspirin to a patient c/o headache

    • Providing food during medication administration

    Correct Answer
    A. Administering Aspirin to a patient c/o headache
    Explanation
    Administering Aspirin to a patient c/o headache would cause a nurse to intervene because Zyloprim is a medication used to treat gout, and aspirin can worsen gout symptoms. Aspirin is known to increase uric acid levels in the body, which can trigger a gout attack. Therefore, it is contraindicated to administer aspirin to a patient receiving Zyloprim. The nurse should intervene to prevent any potential harm or adverse effects to the patient.

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  • 8. 

    When administering a drug with a narrow therapeutic index, which of the following actions is most important?

    • Maintaining alkaline urine

    • Obtaining serum peak and trough levels

    • Obtaining blood and electrolyte lab values prior to each dose

    • Rinsing mouth after consumption

    Correct Answer
    A. Obtaining serum peak and trough levels
    Explanation
    When administering a drug with a narrow therapeutic index, obtaining serum peak and trough levels is most important. This is because drugs with a narrow therapeutic index have a small margin of safety, meaning that the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is minimal. Monitoring serum peak and trough levels helps to ensure that the drug is within the desired therapeutic range and not reaching toxic levels. By doing so, healthcare professionals can adjust the dosage or frequency of administration as needed to maintain the drug's effectiveness and minimize the risk of toxicity.

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  • 9. 

    Celebrex selectively inhibits COX 1 enzyme.

    • True

    • False

    Correct Answer
    A. False
    Explanation
    Celebrex selectively inhibits COX 2 enzyme, not COX 1. COX 1 and COX 2 are enzymes involved in the production of prostaglandins, which are responsible for inflammation and pain. Celebrex is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that specifically targets COX 2 enzymes, reducing inflammation and pain without affecting COX 1 enzymes, which are involved in protecting the stomach lining and promoting platelet aggregation.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following patient's taking Dilantin takes priority?

    • Pt experiencing headache and dizziness

    • Pt with a serum Dilantin level of 13 mcg/mL

    • Pt c/o reddish-brown urine and diarrhea

    • Pt c/o N/V, diplopia, and confusion

    Correct Answer
    A. Pt c/o N/V, diplopia, and confusion
    Explanation
    The patient who is experiencing nausea/vomiting, diplopia (double vision), and confusion takes priority because these symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to Dilantin. These symptoms could be signs of toxicity or an overdose of the medication. Prompt assessment and intervention are necessary to prevent further complications and ensure the patient's safety.

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  • 11. 

    Which of the following patients would be prescribed Aralen for prophylactic use?

    • Dx of malaria

    • Came in contact with infected person

    • Traveling to endemic country

    • Experiencing s/s of parasitic infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Traveling to endemic country
    Explanation
    Aralen is a medication commonly prescribed for prophylactic use to prevent malaria. Malaria is a parasitic infection that is prevalent in certain regions, known as endemic countries. Therefore, individuals who are traveling to an endemic country are at a higher risk of contracting malaria and would be prescribed Aralen as a preventive measure. The other options, such as having a diagnosis of malaria, coming in contact with an infected person, or experiencing symptoms of parasitic infection, would typically require treatment with antimalarial medications rather than prophylactic use.

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  • 12. 

    The anti-retroviral, Zidovudine (AZT), is classified as which of the following?

    • Acetyl-CoA reverse transcriptase inhibitor

    • Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

    • Long-acting protein synthesis inhibitor

    • Selective nucleoside reuptake inhibitor

    Correct Answer
    A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
    Explanation
    Zidovudine (AZT) is classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. This type of medication works by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is necessary for the replication of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). By inhibiting this enzyme, AZT prevents the virus from multiplying and spreading throughout the body. This class of drugs is commonly used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS to slow down the progression of the disease and improve the immune system function.

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  • 13. 

    When would it be appropriate to without a dose of AZT?

    • Platelet count of 76,500/mm3

    • When experiencing s/s of infection

    • If patient is experiencing hair loss

    • WBC count of 3,800/mm3

    Correct Answer
    A. WBC count of 3,800/mm3
    Explanation
    It would be appropriate to withhold a dose of AZT when the patient has a WBC count of 3,800/mm3. This is because AZT can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a decrease in white blood cell count. Therefore, if the patient already has a low WBC count, withholding the dose of AZT can help prevent further suppression and reduce the risk of infection.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is used to decrease abdominal cramping and blood in stools in a patient with Crohn's disease?

    • Remicade (Infliximad)

    • Sumatriptan (Imatrex)

    • Phenytoin (Dilantin)

    • Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

    Correct Answer
    A. Remicade (Infliximad)
    Explanation
    Remicade (Infliximad) is used to decrease abdominal cramping and blood in stools in a patient with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the digestive tract. Remicade is a medication that belongs to a class of drugs called biologics, which work by targeting and blocking a protein called tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). TNF-alpha plays a key role in causing inflammation in Crohn's disease. By blocking TNF-alpha, Remicade helps reduce inflammation, alleviate symptoms such as abdominal cramping, and decrease the occurrence of blood in stools.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following medications may cause: gingival hyperplasia, decreased coordination, diplopia, and/or Stevens-Johnson syndrome.

    • Romazicon

    • Sinemet

    • Risperdal

    • Dilantin

    Correct Answer
    A. Dilantin
    Explanation
    Dilantin is the correct answer because it is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of the gum tissue. It can also cause decreased coordination and diplopia, which is double vision. Additionally, Dilantin has been associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a severe skin reaction.

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  • 16. 

    Which of the following patients would cause the nurse to withhold dose of Zidovudine?

    • Fever, flu-like symptoms

    • Rectal bleeding, abdominal pain

    • Diaphoresis, change in taste, polyuria

    • N/V, peripheral neuropathy

    Correct Answer
    A. N/V, peripheral neuropathy
    Explanation
    The nurse would withhold the dose of Zidovudine in a patient experiencing N/V (nausea/vomiting) and peripheral neuropathy. N/V can indicate gastrointestinal side effects of the medication, while peripheral neuropathy is a potential adverse effect of Zidovudine. Withholding the dose in this patient would be appropriate to prevent further discomfort or complications.

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  • 17. 

    What is the maximum daily dose of Acetaminophen for a healthy adult?

    • 2,000 mg

    • 6,000 mg

    • 3,000 mg

    • 4,000 mg

    Correct Answer
    A. 4,000 mg
    Explanation
    The maximum daily dose of Acetaminophen for a healthy adult is 4,000 mg. This is the recommended limit to avoid potential liver damage or other adverse effects. Exceeding this dosage can be harmful and may lead to serious health complications. It is important to follow the recommended guidelines and consult a healthcare professional if necessary.

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  • 18. 

    In order to avoid liver damage, Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is recommended to be used no longer than _ days.

    • 30

    • 10

    • 20

    • 5

    Correct Answer
    A. 10
    Explanation
    Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is recommended to be used no longer than 10 days in order to avoid liver damage. Prolonged use of acetaminophen can lead to liver toxicity, as the drug is metabolized by the liver. Therefore, it is important to adhere to the recommended duration of use to prevent any potential harm to the liver.

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  • 19. 

    Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for Mestinon?

    • Diabetes

    • Hypotension

    • Bradycardia

    • Bowel obstruction

    Correct Answer
    A. Diabetes
    Explanation
    Mestinon is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder. It works by improving muscle strength and reducing muscle weakness. Contradictions for Mestinon include conditions that may worsen the side effects or interactions with the medication. Diabetes is not a contraindication for Mestinon as it does not have any direct negative effects or interactions with the medication.

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  • 20. 

    Which of the following adverse reactions is NOT listed when taking Isoniazid (INH)?

    • Optic Neuritis- blurred vision, change in color perception

    • Peripheral Neuritis- weakness, numbness/tingling of hands/feet, fatigue

    • Hepatotoxicity- loss of appetite, N/V, jaundice of skin or eyes

    • Pancreatitis- abdominal pain, N/V, high fever, increased liver enzymes

    Correct Answer
    A. Pancreatitis- abdominal pain, N/V, high fever, increased liver enzymes
    Explanation
    The adverse reaction that is NOT listed when taking Isoniazid (INH) is Pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas and its symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (N/V), high fever, and increased liver enzymes. However, this adverse reaction is not associated with the use of Isoniazid (INH).

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  • 21. 

    A patient experiencing symptoms of hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, and vitamin B6 deficiency is likely suffering from side effects of which medication?

    • Isoniazid

    • Metronidazole

    • Zidovudine

    • Aralen

    Correct Answer
    A. Isoniazid
    Explanation
    A patient experiencing symptoms of hyperglycemia, metabolic acidosis, and vitamin B6 deficiency is likely suffering from side effects of isoniazid. Isoniazid is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, but it can cause these side effects. Hyperglycemia refers to high blood sugar levels, which can occur as a result of isoniazid's effect on glucose metabolism. Metabolic acidosis is an imbalance in the body's pH levels, which can be caused by isoniazid's effect on the body's acid-base balance. Vitamin B6 deficiency can also occur as isoniazid can interfere with the body's ability to absorb and use this vitamin.

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  • 22. 

    Which of the following patients taking Aralen takes priority?

    • Pt c/o tingling and numbness of hands and feet

    • Pt c/o urine turning rust/brown color suddenly

    • Pt c/o weakness, fatigue, loss of appetite, N/V

    • Pt c/o headache, dizziness, decreased reflexes

    Correct Answer
    A. Pt c/o headache, dizziness, decreased reflexes
    Explanation
    The patient complaining of headache, dizziness, and decreased reflexes should take priority because these symptoms may indicate a serious adverse reaction to Aralen, such as neurotoxicity. Neurotoxicity is a potential side effect of Aralen, and it can cause neurological symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and decreased reflexes. It is important to assess and monitor this patient closely to ensure their safety and well-being. The other symptoms reported by the other patients, such as tingling and numbness, urine discoloration, weakness, and fatigue, may also be concerning, but they do not necessarily indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like neurotoxicity.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the below serum salicylate levels would indicate a therapeutic range?

    • 6 mg/dL

    • 9 mg/dL

    • 16 mg/dL

    • 32 mg/dL

    Correct Answer
    A. 16 mg/dL
    Explanation
    A serum salicylate level of 16 mg/dL would indicate a therapeutic range because it falls within the desired range for treating certain conditions. Salicylates, such as aspirin, are commonly used as analgesics and antipyretics. However, they can also be toxic at high levels. A therapeutic range ensures that the medication is effective without causing harm. In this case, a level of 16 mg/dL is within the desired range, suggesting that the medication is being appropriately utilized.

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  • 24. 

    Select all of the following that are included as cardinal signs of inflammation.

    • Redness

    • Drainage

    • Swelling

    • Loss of function

    • Heat

    • Discoloration

    • Numbness

    • Pain

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Redness
    A. Swelling
    A. Loss of function
    A. Heat
    A. Pain
    Explanation
    Redness, swelling, loss of function, heat, and pain are all cardinal signs of inflammation. Redness occurs due to increased blood flow to the area, swelling is caused by fluid accumulation, loss of function refers to impaired movement or use of the affected area, heat is a result of increased blood flow and metabolic activity, and pain is a common symptom of inflammation. These signs indicate the body's response to tissue damage or infection and are essential for diagnosing and treating inflammatory conditions.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following situations takes priority?

    • Patient waiting to receive already prepared Ativan via IV

    • Patient who is sedated with decreased urine output after receiving Elavil

    • Patient who is experiencing a cough and fever after taking Prozac

    • Patient with a drop in BP of 20 mmHg when taking Prolixin

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient waiting to receive already prepared Ativan via IV
    Explanation
    The patient waiting to receive already prepared Ativan via IV takes priority because Ativan is a medication used to treat anxiety and seizures, and the patient may be in need of immediate relief. Administering the medication promptly can help alleviate their symptoms and prevent any potential complications. The other situations mentioned may also require attention, but they do not involve an immediate need for medication administration.

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  • 26. 

    Select all of the following that should be included in discharge of a patient taking Doxycycline (Vibramycin).

    • Hold dose once, and continue treatment if severe diarrhea occurs

    • Take dose with 8 ounces of water, 1 hour before lying down to prevent ulceration

    • Maintain a diet high in iron during treatment

    • Store medication out of light and extreme heat

    • Take medication around the clock to maintain blood levels

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Take dose with 8 ounces of water, 1 hour before lying down to prevent ulceration
    A. Store medication out of light and extreme heat
    A. Take medication around the clock to maintain blood levels
    Explanation
    The correct answer choices for the discharge of a patient taking Doxycycline (Vibramycin) are explained as follows:
    - Taking the dose with 8 ounces of water, 1 hour before lying down helps prevent ulceration, as Doxycycline can cause irritation to the esophagus.
    - Storing the medication out of light and extreme heat ensures its stability and effectiveness.
    - Taking the medication around the clock helps to maintain consistent blood levels, which is important for its therapeutic effect.

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  • 27. 

    Which of the following patient's receiving Morphine IV would be of greater concern to the nurse

    • Pt with respirations of 12/minute

    • Pt with decreased peristalsis on auscultation

    • Pt experiencing N/V with urinary retention

    • Pt with pinpoint pupils when observing reaction

    Correct Answer
    A. Pt with pinpoint pupils when observing reaction
    Explanation
    When checking pupil changes and reaction, pinpoint pupils may indicate Morphine overdose.

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  • 28. 

    How does Acyclovir (Zovirax) work in the treatment of herpes?

    • Does not cure, but does not allow transmission

    • Decreasing amount & time of exacerbations

    • Symptomatically to improve quality of life

    • Resolution of infection

    Correct Answer
    A. Decreasing amount & time of exacerbations
    Explanation
    Acyclovir (Zovirax) works by decreasing the amount and duration of herpes exacerbations. This means that it helps to reduce the frequency and severity of herpes outbreaks. While it does not cure the infection or prevent transmission, it can significantly improve the quality of life for individuals with herpes by minimizing the frequency and duration of symptoms.

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  • 29. 

    When is the best time to administer a patient's Ritalin?

    • With breakfast

    • 1 hour before bedtime

    • Immediately when waking up in the morning

    • 1 hour before lunch

    Correct Answer
    A. 1 hour before lunch
    Explanation
    Give at least 6 hours before bedtime, 30-45 minutes before meals

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following foods is high in tyramine? (avoid when taking Sinemet)

    • White wine

    • Milk

    • Bananas

    • Cashews

    Correct Answer
    A. Bananas
    Explanation
    Bananas are high in tyramine, which is a naturally occurring compound found in certain foods. Tyramine can interact with certain medications, such as Sinemet, and may cause an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, it is advised to avoid consuming tyramine-rich foods like bananas while taking Sinemet to prevent any potential adverse effects.

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  • 31. 

    Which of the following medications is classified as an anti-malarial?

    • Zovirax

    • INH

    • Aralen

    • Diflucan

    Correct Answer
    A. Aralen
    Explanation
    Aralen is classified as an anti-malarial medication. This drug contains chloroquine, which is commonly used to treat and prevent malaria. It works by killing the parasites that cause the disease. Zovirax is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections. INH is an antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis. Diflucan is an antifungal medication used to treat various fungal infections.

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  • 32. 

    Select all of the following that apply to Aspirin's drug-lab interactions

    • Increased PT

    • Decreased uric acid

    • Increased INR

    • Decreased potassium

    • Increased T3 and T4 levels

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Increased PT
    A. Increased INR
    A. Decreased potassium
    Explanation
    Aspirin's drug-lab interactions can lead to increased PT and INR levels, indicating potential blood clotting issues. Additionally, it can cause a decrease in potassium levels, which can affect various bodily functions. However, there is no evidence to suggest that aspirin has an effect on uric acid or T3 and T4 levels.

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  • 33. 

    Select all of the following conditions that Carisoprodol (Soma) is used to treat:

    • Parkinson's disease

    • Stroke

    • Rheumatoid Arthritis

    • Spinal cord injury

    • Myasthenia gravis

    • Multiple sclerosis

    • Cerebral palsy

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Stroke
    A. Spinal cord injury
    A. Multiple sclerosis
    A. Cerebral palsy
    Explanation
    Carisoprodol (Soma) is a muscle relaxant medication commonly used to treat conditions such as stroke, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis, and cerebral palsy. It helps to relieve muscle spasms and stiffness associated with these conditions, improving mobility and reducing discomfort. However, Carisoprodol is not indicated for the treatment of Parkinson's disease, rheumatoid arthritis, or myasthenia gravis.

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  • 34. 

    Select all of the following that needs to be included in patient education for a patient taking oral suspension Risperidone (Risperdal)?

    • Teach to take BP and advise if a drop of 30 mmHg occurs, needs to be reported

    • Store in light-resistant container, avoid contact with skin during preparation

    • Importance of good oral hygiene

    • Avoid diluting with fruit juice, only water or milk

    • Avoid high heat environments to decrease risk of hypotension

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Teach to take BP and advise if a drop of 30 mmHg occurs, needs to be reported
    A. Store in light-resistant container, avoid contact with skin during preparation
    A. Importance of good oral hygiene
    A. Avoid high heat environments to decrease risk of hypotension
    Explanation
    The patient education for a patient taking oral suspension Risperidone (Risperdal) should include teaching them to take their blood pressure and advising them to report any drop of 30 mmHg. This is important because Risperidone can cause hypotension, and monitoring blood pressure can help detect any significant changes. They should also be instructed to store the medication in a light-resistant container and avoid contact with skin during preparation to prevent degradation and potential adverse effects. Additionally, emphasizing the importance of good oral hygiene is necessary to maintain oral health while taking the medication. Lastly, patients should be educated to avoid high heat environments, as Risperidone can increase the risk of hypotension, and heat exposure may exacerbate this effect.

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  • 35. 

    Select all of the following that are positive symptoms of schizoprenia. 

    • Delusions

    • Poor self-care

    • Poverty of speech

    • Paranoia

    • Social withdrawal

    • Hallucinations

    • Incoherent speech

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Delusions
    A. Paranoia
    A. Hallucinations
    A. Incoherent speech
    Explanation
    The positive symptoms of schizophrenia are characterized by an excess or distortion of normal functioning. Delusions, paranoia, hallucinations, and incoherent speech are all examples of positive symptoms. These symptoms involve the presence of abnormal thoughts, beliefs, perceptions, and speech patterns. Poor self-care, poverty of speech, and social withdrawal, on the other hand, are considered negative symptoms of schizophrenia, which involve a loss or absence of normal functioning.

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  • 36. 

    Select all of the following that are listed as side effects or adverse reactions for Nubain 

    • Urinary urgency

    • Bitter taste

    • Sedation

    • Anxiety

    • Respiratory depression

    • Clammy skin

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Urinary urgency
    A. Bitter taste
    A. Respiratory depression
    A. Clammy skin
    Explanation
    The side effects or adverse reactions listed for Nubain include urinary urgency, bitter taste, respiratory depression, and clammy skin. These side effects can occur as a result of taking Nubain.

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  • 37. 

    Select all of the following conditions that Haloperidol (Haldol) is used to treat:

    • Manic depression

    • Schizoprenia

    • Tourette syndrome

    • Hiccups

    • Delirium

    • Bipolar disorder

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Schizoprenia
    A. Tourette syndrome
    A. Hiccups
    A. Delirium
    Explanation
    Haloperidol (Haldol) is an antipsychotic medication that is commonly used to treat schizophrenia, Tourette syndrome, delirium, and hiccups. It is not typically used to treat manic depression or bipolar disorder.

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  • 38. 

    Select all of the following contraindications that apply when taking Flagyl.

    • Renal disease

    • Third trimester in pregnancy

    • Blood dyscrasias

    • Contracted visual fields

    • Narrow-angle glaucoma

    • PUD

    • Anemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Renal disease
    A. Blood dyscrasias
    A. Contracted visual fields
    A. PUD
    Explanation
    Flagyl is a medication that is used to treat various infections. Renal disease is a contraindication because the drug is primarily eliminated through the kidneys and may accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity. Blood dyscrasias, which refer to disorders of the blood, are also contraindications as Flagyl can potentially worsen these conditions. Contracted visual fields and narrow-angle glaucoma are contraindications because the drug can cause optic neuropathy and worsen glaucoma. PUD, which stands for peptic ulcer disease, is a contraindication because Flagyl can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Anemia, a condition characterized by a low red blood cell count, is not mentioned as a contraindication for Flagyl.

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  • 39. 

    Select all of the following contraindications when using Imitrex

    • Hypotension

    • Hx of MI

    • Stable angina

    • Diabetes

    • Hypertension

    • Smoking

    • Silent ischemia

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Hx of MI
    A. Diabetes
    A. Hypertension
    A. Smoking
    A. Silent ischemia
    Explanation
    The contraindications for using Imitrex include a history of myocardial infarction (MI), diabetes, hypertension, smoking, and silent ischemia. These conditions can increase the risk of cardiovascular events and therefore should be considered before prescribing Imitrex. Hypotension and stable angina are not listed as contraindications for using Imitrex.

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  • 40. 

    Select all of the following side effects that may occur when taking Flagyl.

    • Furry tongue

    • Hypotension

    • Anxiety

    • Metallic taste

    • Concentrated urine

    • Depression

    • Retinal edema

    • Peripheral neuropathy

    • Dilute urine

    Correct Answer(s)
    A. Furry tongue
    A. Metallic taste
    A. Concentrated urine
    A. Depression
    A. Retinal edema
    A. Peripheral neuropathy
    Explanation
    The side effects of Flagyl include furry tongue, metallic taste, concentrated urine, depression, retinal edema, and peripheral neuropathy. These side effects can occur when taking Flagyl.

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  • Apr 23, 2024
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Nov 04, 2012
    Quiz Created by
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