Haad Radiology Trivia Quiz
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Do you aspire to become a radiographer, or are you one of them? Are you preparing for the HAAD radiographer exam? Try these radiographer quiz questions and answers and check your knowledge for the same. The below quiz consists of questions from easy to hard related to radiography. So, if you are interested to know more about radiography and radiographer, proceed with this quiz and do the same. We wish you the best of luck with this exam.
Questions and Answers
- 1.
When were x rays discovered?
- A.
1985
- B.
1988
- C.
1895
- D.
1890
Correct Answer
C. 1895Explanation
X-rays were discovered in 1895. This breakthrough discovery was made by Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen, a German physicist. While conducting experiments with cathode rays, he noticed a new type of radiation that could pass through objects and create images on a photographic plate. This discovery revolutionized the field of medicine and had significant implications in various industries.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Who discovered the x ray?
- A.
W.d coolidge
- B.
W.c.roentgen
- C.
O.walkhoff
- D.
Dr. kells
- E.
Dr. morton
Correct Answer
B. W.c.roentgenExplanation
W.C. Roentgen is credited with the discovery of X-rays. In 1895, while experimenting with cathode rays, Roentgen noticed a fluorescent glow coming from a nearby screen. He realized that a new type of ray was being emitted, which he called X-rays. Roentgen's discovery revolutionized the field of medicine and had numerous applications in various industries. His work earned him the first-ever Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901.Rate this question:
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- 3.
An older term given x radiation in honor of its discoverer
- A.
X ray
- B.
Gamma ray
- C.
Roentgen ray
- D.
Scattered ray
Correct Answer
C. Roentgen rayExplanation
The correct answer is "roentgen ray." This term was used in the past to refer to x radiation as a way of honoring its discoverer, Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen. The term has since been replaced with "x ray," but it was commonly used in the early days of the discovery of x radiation.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Who is believed to have exposed the prototype of the first dental x ray film?
- A.
A. cieszynski
- B.
Otto walkhoff
- C.
C. edmund kells
- D.
Wilhelm conrad roentgen
Correct Answer
B. Otto walkhoffExplanation
Otto Walkhoff is believed to have exposed the prototype of the first dental x-ray film.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Who introduced the hot cathode tube?
- A.
W.d.coolidge
- B.
W. roentgen
- C.
F. mcCormack
- D.
C.e. kells
Correct Answer
A. W.d.coolidgeExplanation
W.D. Coolidge is credited with introducing the hot cathode tube. This invention revolutionized the field of X-ray technology by providing a more efficient and reliable source of X-rays. Coolidge's design involved a tungsten filament that could be heated to high temperatures, resulting in the emission of electrons. These electrons were then accelerated towards a target, producing X-rays. The hot cathode tube became widely adopted in medical and industrial applications, greatly advancing the field of radiography.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Who designed the "long cone" to use with the paralleling technique?
- A.
W.d coolidge
- B.
W.roentgen
- C.
G.m fitzgerald
- D.
C.e. kells
Correct Answer
C. G.m fitzgeraldExplanation
G.M. Fitzgerald is the correct answer because he is the one who designed the "long cone" specifically for use with the paralleling technique. The other options, W.D. Coolidge, W. Roentgen, and C.E. Kells, are not associated with the design of the "long cone" for the paralleling technique.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Who is considered to be the first advocate for the science of ratiation protection?
- A.
W. price
- B.
W.rollins
- C.
A. cieszynski
- D.
F. mcCormack
Correct Answer
B. W.rollinsExplanation
W. Rollins is considered to be the first advocate for the science of radiation protection.Rate this question:
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- 8.
Who is given credit for suggesting the bisecting technique?
- A.
A. cieszynski
- B.
W. rollins
- C.
O.walkhoff
- D.
G.m. fitzgerald
Correct Answer
A. A. cieszynskiExplanation
Cieszynski is given credit for suggesting the bisecting technique.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Who is given credit for suggesting the paralleling technique?
- A.
F. mcCormick
- B.
H.r raper
- C.
W.d coolidge
- D.
C.e. kells
Correct Answer
A. F. mcCormick -
- 10.
Most common hormone deficiency seen after intracranial radiation therapy?
- A.
Prolactin
- B.
Gonadotropins
- C.
ACTH
- D.
Growth hormone
Correct Answer
D. Growth hormoneExplanation
After intracranial radiation therapy, the most common hormone deficiency seen is growth hormone deficiency. Radiation therapy to the brain can damage the pituitary gland, which is responsible for producing growth hormone. This can lead to a deficiency in growth hormone, resulting in stunted growth and other symptoms associated with growth hormone deficiency.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is seen in?
- A.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
- B.
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
- C.
Somatostatinoma
- D.
Serous cystadenoma
Correct Answer
D. Serous cystadenomaExplanation
The spongy appearance with central sunburst calcification is a characteristic finding in serous cystadenoma. Serous cystadenomas are benign cystic neoplasms of the pancreas that typically have a central scar or calcification, giving it a sunburst appearance. This is in contrast to other pancreatic tumors such as adenocarcinoma or mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, which typically do not show this specific radiographic feature. Somatostatinomas are rare neuroendocrine tumors of the pancreas and are not associated with the described radiographic findings.Rate this question:
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- 12.
A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistems were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. What is the diagnosis
- A.
Cortical contusion
- B.
Cerebral laceration
- C.
Multiple infarcts
- D.
Diffuse axonal injuries
Correct Answer
D. Diffuse axonal injuriesExplanation
Diffuse axonal injuries (DAI) is the correct diagnosis for the given scenario. DAI is a type of traumatic brain injury that occurs due to rotational or shearing forces applied to the brain, resulting in widespread damage to the axons. The presence of multiple small hemorrhages and compression of the basal cisterns on CT brain is characteristic of DAI. This injury typically occurs in high-energy trauma, such as motor vehicle accidents, and can lead to long-term neurological deficits. Cortical contusion, cerebral laceration, and multiple infarcts are not consistent with the findings described.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows
- A.
Diffusely increased uptake
- B.
Diffusely decreased uptake
- C.
Hot spots
- D.
Cold spots
Correct Answer
D. Cold spotsExplanation
The bone scan of a patient with Multiple Myeloma shows cold spots. Cold spots on a bone scan indicate areas of decreased uptake of the radiotracer, suggesting reduced blood flow or decreased metabolic activity in those areas. In the context of Multiple Myeloma, cold spots may indicate areas of bone destruction or osteolytic lesions caused by the cancer. These cold spots can help in identifying the extent and location of bone involvement in Multiple Myeloma and guide treatment decisions.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Most chemoresistant tumors among the following is
- A.
Synovial sarcoma
- B.
Osteosarcoma
- C.
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
- D.
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
Correct Answer
C. Malignant fibrous histiocytomaExplanation
Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most chemoresistant tumor among the given options. Chemoresistance refers to the tumor's ability to resist the effects of chemotherapy drugs. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma is known to be resistant to various chemotherapy agents, making it difficult to treat. This resistance can be attributed to various factors such as the tumor's genetic makeup, the presence of drug efflux pumps, and its ability to repair DNA damage caused by chemotherapy. Therefore, compared to synovial sarcoma, osteosarcoma, and embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, malignant fibrous histiocytoma is the most challenging to treat with chemotherapy.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy is
- A.
Gestational sac volume
- B.
Crown-rump length
- C.
Nuchal translucency
- D.
Serum B HCG level
Correct Answer
C. Nuchal translucencyExplanation
Nuchal translucency is the most sensitive sonological indicator for aneuploidy. It refers to the measurement of fluid accumulation behind the fetal neck during the first trimester of pregnancy. Increased nuchal translucency is associated with a higher risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome. This measurement is commonly used in combination with other screening tests to assess the risk of fetal abnormalities.Rate this question:
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- 16.
On MRI the differential diagnosis of spinal cord edema is:
- A.
Myelodysplasia
- B.
Myelomalacia
- C.
Myeloschisis
- D.
Cord tumors
Correct Answer
B. MyelomalaciaExplanation
Myelomalacia is the most likely diagnosis for spinal cord edema on an MRI. Myelomalacia refers to the softening or degeneration of the spinal cord, which can be caused by various factors such as trauma, ischemia, or infection. This condition is often associated with edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the tissues. The other options, myelodysplasia, myeloschisis, and cord tumors, are less likely to present with edema on an MRI. Myelodysplasia refers to abnormal development of the spinal cord, myeloschisis is a rare congenital condition characterized by an open spinal cord defect, and cord tumors may or may not present with edema depending on the specific characteristics of the tumor.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Which of the following features on mammogram would suggest malignancy?
- A.
Well defined lesion
- B.
A mass of decreased density
- C.
Areas of spiculated microcalcifications
- D.
Smooth borders
Correct Answer
C. Areas of spiculated microcalcificationsExplanation
Areas of spiculated microcalcifications on a mammogram would suggest malignancy. Spiculated microcalcifications are tiny calcium deposits that appear as small, irregular, and linear clusters on the mammogram. These are often associated with breast cancer and indicate a higher likelihood of malignancy. The presence of spiculated microcalcifications can help in the early detection and diagnosis of breast cancer, as they may indicate the presence of an underlying tumor. Therefore, it is important to further investigate and evaluate any areas of spiculated microcalcifications found on a mammogram.Rate this question:
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- 18.
A 40 years old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showd an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A.
Meningioma
- B.
Glioma
- C.
Schwannoma
- D.
Pituitary adenoma
Correct Answer
A. MeningiomaExplanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 40-year-old female patient with recurrent headaches and an extra-axial, dural-based, and enhancing lesion on MRI is meningioma. Meningiomas are typically slow-growing tumors that arise from the meninges, the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord. They are more common in females and often present with symptoms such as headaches, seizures, or neurological deficits. The dural-based and enhancing characteristics seen on MRI are consistent with the typical imaging findings of a meningioma.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Plethoric lung fields are seen in all of the following conditions, except:
- A.
Atrial septal defect (ASD)
- B.
TAPVC (Total Anomalous Pulmonary venous connection)
- C.
Ebsteins’ anomaly
- D.
Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer
C. Ebsteins’ anomalyExplanation
Plethoric lung fields are seen in conditions which increase pulmonary blood flow. They are:
Left to right shunt – ASD, VSD, PDA, Coronary artery fistula into right heart, Aortopulmonary window
Transposition of great arteries with ASD or VSD
Truncus arteriosus
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connectionRate this question:
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- 20.
Xrays are made up of
- A.
Electrons
- B.
Neutrons
- C.
Photons
- D.
Protons
Correct Answer
C. PhotonsExplanation
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, which means they consist of photons. Photons are particles of light that have no mass or charge. When high-energy electrons interact with matter, they can produce X-ray photons. These photons have a much higher energy than visible light, allowing them to pass through soft tissues in the body but be absorbed by denser materials like bones. Therefore, the correct answer is photons.Rate this question:
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- 21.
The portion of the target struck by electrons is called the
- A.
Principle point
- B.
End point
- C.
Photon point
- D.
Focal spot
Correct Answer
D. Focal spotExplanation
The correct answer is focal spot. The focal spot refers to the specific area on the target that is struck by electrons in an imaging system. It is where the electrons are concentrated and produce the X-ray beam. The focal spot size is an important factor in determining the resolution and quality of the resulting image.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Milliamperage controls
- A.
The speed electrons move from cathode to anode
- B.
Cooling of the anode
- C.
Heating of the anode
- D.
Heating of the cathode
Correct Answer
D. Heating of the cathodeExplanation
The milliamperage controls the heating of the cathode. When the milliamperage is increased, more current flows through the cathode, causing it to heat up. The cathode is responsible for emitting electrons, and by heating it, the speed of the electrons moving from the cathode to the anode can be controlled. Therefore, the correct answer is heating of the cathode.Rate this question:
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- 23.
The cathode is a filament composed of
- A.
Gold
- B.
Silver
- C.
Tungsten
- D.
Copper
Correct Answer
C. TungstenExplanation
Tungsten is the correct answer because it is commonly used as the filament in cathodes. Tungsten has a high melting point and excellent heat resistance, making it suitable for withstanding the high temperatures generated in cathode filaments. Additionally, tungsten has a low vapor pressure, which means it does not easily evaporate and degrade the performance of the cathode over time. Therefore, tungsten is the preferred choice for cathode filaments in various applications such as incandescent light bulbs and electron guns in vacuum tubes.Rate this question:
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- 24.
The lead diaphagm determines the size and shape of the
- A.
Electron cloud
- B.
Film used
- C.
Xray beam
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
C. Xray beamExplanation
The lead diaphragm is responsible for determining the size and shape of the x-ray beam. It controls the area of exposure and helps to limit the radiation to the specific region of interest. The film used and the electron cloud are not directly related to the size and shape of the x-ray beam. Therefore, the correct answer is x-ray beam.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Proper collimation for the film size and target film distance will
- A.
Increase the kvp
- B.
Decrease the wavelength
- C.
Decrease the radiation received by the patient
- D.
Increase the wavelegh
Correct Answer
C. Decrease the radiation received by the patientExplanation
Proper collimation for the film size and target film distance will decrease the radiation received by the patient. This is because collimation helps to limit the size of the x-ray beam to match the size of the film being used, reducing unnecessary exposure to radiation for the patient. By narrowing the beam, collimation also helps to reduce scatter radiation, further decreasing the radiation dose received by the patient. Therefore, proper collimation is crucial in ensuring patient safety during radiographic procedures.Rate this question:
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- 26.
This modality allows for evaluation of abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting. Indicated for bowel obstruction, viscus perforation and foreign body ingestion, it is usually the initial evaluation of abdominal pain or nausea and vomiting: a. Enteroscopy b. Video Esophogram c. Plain abdominal film
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
Correct Answer
C. CExplanation
The correct answer is C, Plain abdominal film. This modality is indicated for evaluating abdominal pain or symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. It can help identify bowel obstruction, viscus perforation, and foreign body ingestion. It is often the first step in the evaluation of abdominal pain or symptoms. Enteroscopy and Video Esophogram are not typically used for these purposes.Rate this question:
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- 27.
This modality produces high resolution images of the bowel wall revealing distinct layers such as: Mediastinum, pancreas, liver, gall bladder and mesenteric vessels. Used in Fine needle aspirations: a. EGD b. Endoscopic US c. Angiogram
- A.
A
- B.
B
- C.
C
Correct Answer
B. BExplanation
Endoscopic US is the correct answer because it is a modality that can produce high resolution images of the bowel wall, allowing for the visualization of distinct layers such as the mediastinum, pancreas, liver, gall bladder, and mesenteric vessels. This modality is also used in fine needle aspirations, making it the most appropriate choice among the options given.Rate this question:
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- 28.
This 69 year old female presents with a mass in her abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is:
- A.
Adenocarcinoma of the colon.
- B.
Large bowel obstruction.
- C.
Hemorrhagic ovarian cyst.
- D.
Ventral hernia.
Correct Answer
D. Ventral hernia.Explanation
The most likely diagnosis for a 69-year-old female with a mass in her abdomen is a ventral hernia. This is because a ventral hernia occurs when there is a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing abdominal contents to protrude through. The presence of a mass in the abdomen suggests an abnormal bulge, which is characteristic of a ventral hernia. Adenocarcinoma of the colon and large bowel obstruction are less likely as they typically present with other symptoms such as changes in bowel habits or abdominal pain. A hemorrhagic ovarian cyst is also less likely as it usually presents with pelvic pain.Rate this question:
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- 29.
A two-and-a-half-week-old male infant presents with persistent projectile vomiting and regurgitation. What is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?
- A.
Diaphragmatic hernia
- B.
Pyloric stenosis
- C.
Esophageal atresia
- D.
Esophageal rings
- E.
Gastric heterotopia in the duodenum
Correct Answer
B. Pyloric stenosisExplanation
Pyloric stenosis is the most likely cause of the infant's persistent projectile vomiting and regurgitation. Pyloric stenosis is a condition in which the muscle between the stomach and small intestine (pylorus) becomes thickened, leading to a narrowing of the passage. This narrowing can cause food to be forcefully expelled from the stomach, resulting in projectile vomiting. The age of the infant (two-and-a-half weeks old) is also consistent with pyloric stenosis, as it typically presents within the first few weeks of life.Rate this question:
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- 30.
A 50 year old man complains of diarrhea, weight loss, anorexia, and abdominal pain. His stool is extremely malodorous and greasy. Physical exam reveals a pale thin man with petechiae. His red blood cell count hemoglobin and hematocrit are decreased. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
- A.
Pancreatic insufficiency
- B.
Iatrogenic
- C.
Infectious
- D.
Lymphatic obstruction
Correct Answer
A. Pancreatic insufficiencyExplanation
The symptoms described in the question, including diarrhea, weight loss, anorexia, and abdominal pain, along with the malodorous and greasy stool, indicate malabsorption. The physical exam findings of a pale thin man with petechiae suggest anemia. The decreased red blood cell count, hemoglobin, and hematocrit further support the presence of anemia. Pancreatic insufficiency can lead to malabsorption due to a lack of digestive enzymes, specifically lipase, which results in the malodorous and greasy stool. Therefore, pancreatic insufficiency is the most likely cause of this man's condition.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Filters are used in the xray beam to
- A.
Increase density
- B.
Reduce density
- C.
Reduce exposure size of the beam
- D.
Reduce patient radiation dose
Correct Answer
D. Reduce patient radiation doseExplanation
Filters are used in the x-ray beam to reduce patient radiation dose. X-rays can be harmful to the human body, so it is important to minimize the amount of radiation a patient is exposed to during an x-ray procedure. Filters are used to absorb or block certain types of radiation, allowing only the necessary x-rays to pass through and reducing the overall radiation dose received by the patient. This helps to ensure the safety of the patient while still obtaining the required diagnostic information.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Proper collimation of the x ray beam fog film size and focal film distance will
- A.
Improve image definition
- B.
Increase radiographic contrast
- C.
Increase the intensity of the central beam
- D.
Increase secondary radiation
- E.
Reduce primary radiation
Correct Answer
E. Reduce primary radiationExplanation
Proper collimation of the x-ray beam, fog film size, and focal film distance will reduce primary radiation. Collimation refers to the process of restricting the size and shape of the x-ray beam to only the area of interest, reducing scatter radiation. Fog film size refers to the size of the film used to capture the x-ray image, and a smaller film size reduces the amount of scatter radiation reaching the film. Focal film distance refers to the distance between the x-ray tube and the film, and a longer distance reduces scatter radiation. Therefore, by properly collimating the x-ray beam, using a smaller film size, and increasing the focal film distance, the amount of primary radiation reaching the patient is reduced.Rate this question:
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- 33.
The best way to describe the penetration of an x ray beam is by its
- A.
Half value layer
- B.
Kilovoltage
- C.
Milliamperage
- D.
Rad output
- E.
Roentgen output
Correct Answer
A. Half value layerExplanation
The half value layer is the best way to describe the penetration of an x-ray beam because it measures the thickness of a material required to reduce the intensity of the beam by half. This measurement is important in radiology as it helps determine the effectiveness of shielding materials and the dosage of radiation received by patients. Kilovoltage, milliamperage, rad output, and roentgen output are all related to the generation and measurement of x-rays, but they do not specifically describe the penetration of the beam.Rate this question:
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- 34.
The milliampere control dial on the dental x ray mchine
- A.
Regulates the step up transformer
- B.
Determines the penetration of the x ray
- C.
Regulates the guality of the radiation
- D.
Regulates the quantity of the radiation
- E.
Regulates scatter radiation
Correct Answer
D. Regulates the quantity of the radiationExplanation
The milliampere control dial on the dental x-ray machine regulates the quantity of the radiation. This means that adjusting the dial controls the amount of radiation that is emitted during the x-ray procedure. By increasing or decreasing the milliampere setting, the operator can control the intensity of the x-ray beam, resulting in a higher or lower amount of radiation exposure for the patient. This is an important safety feature as it allows for customization of the radiation dose based on the specific needs of each patient and the type of dental imaging being performed.Rate this question:
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- 35.
You have taken a radiograph of a patient with a large skeletal build . the resulting image does not show the bone trabeculation well and appers to underpenetrated. the adjustment that should be made for the retake is
- A.
Reduce the ma
- B.
Reduce the exposure time
- C.
Increase the kvp
- D.
Reduce the kvp
- E.
Check the processing solution temperature
Correct Answer
C. Increase the kvpExplanation
Increasing the kvp (kilovoltage peak) will increase the overall energy of the x-ray beam, allowing it to penetrate the patient's large skeletal build better. This will result in a clearer image with improved visualization of bone trabeculation.Rate this question:
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- 36.
In taking the radiograph you did not center the beam on the film in the patient mouth. the resulting film will show
- A.
Fogging
- B.
Overlapping
- C.
Elongation
- D.
Collimator cutoof cone cutting
- E.
Foreshortening
Correct Answer
D. Collimator cutoof cone cuttingExplanation
Collimator cutoff cone cutting occurs when the x-ray beam is not properly aligned with the film. In this case, the beam was not centered on the film in the patient's mouth, resulting in part of the film being exposed to the collimator, causing a cutoff appearance on the film. This can lead to a distorted or incomplete image on the film.Rate this question:
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- 37.
The dental x ray machine in your office operates at 90kvp and thus is required to have a total filtration of
- A.
2.75 inches of aluminum
- B.
2.5 inches of aluminum
- C.
2.0 mm of aluminum
- D.
2.5mm of aluminum
- E.
1.5 mm of aluminum
Correct Answer
D. 2.5mm of aluminumExplanation
The correct answer is 2.5mm of aluminum. The total filtration required for a dental x-ray machine operating at 90kvp is determined by the energy of the x-ray beam. Higher energy x-rays require more filtration to reduce the amount of radiation that reaches the patient. In this case, the machine requires 2.5mm of aluminum filtration to ensure that the radiation emitted is within safe levels for the patient.Rate this question:
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- 38.
The radiation inspector comes to your office and tells you that your x ray beam has an hvl of 1.00mm of aluminum you should
- A.
Feel assured theat the beam mets the recommended standards
- B.
Be concerned becaused of the unnecessary seconday radiation to your patients
- C.
Be concerned because the beam is too penetrating
- D.
Add more filtration
- E.
Use a different pid
Correct Answer
B. Be concerned becaused of the unnecessary seconday radiation to your patientsExplanation
The correct answer is "be concerned because of the unnecessary secondary radiation to your patients." This is because an HVL (Half-Value Layer) of 1.00mm of aluminum indicates that the x-ray beam is too penetrating. This means that it is able to pass through the patient's body too easily, potentially causing unnecessary exposure to secondary radiation. This can be harmful to the patient and should be a cause for concern.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Radiology is only used for diagnostic purposes
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
diagnostic and therapeuticRate this question:
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- 40.
Which of the following is true about X rays?
- A.
Uses a vacuum and low potential difference
- B.
Denser materials cause less blackening
- C.
Form of electromagnetic energy with long wavelength
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. Denser materials cause less blackeningExplanation
Denser materials cause less blackening in X-rays because they are more effective at absorbing the X-ray photons. When X-rays pass through less dense materials, such as air or tissues, they are more likely to be absorbed and cause blackening on the X-ray film. However, when X-rays pass through denser materials, such as bones or metal, they are less likely to be absorbed and therefore cause less blackening on the film. This property of X-rays is utilized in medical imaging to differentiate between different types of tissues and structures in the body.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which of the following is true about contrast examinations?
- A.
Myelography performed by injecting contrast into epidural space
- B.
Angiography can only be performed in the intra-arterially
- C.
Contrast medium can be mixed with air or water
- D.
Sinogram is a contrast study for the frontal sinuses
Correct Answer
C. Contrast medium can be mixed with air or waterExplanation
Contrast examinations involve the use of a contrast medium, which can be mixed with either air or water. This allows for better visualization of certain structures or areas of the body during imaging procedures. By mixing the contrast medium with air or water, it helps to highlight and differentiate various tissues and organs, aiding in the diagnosis of certain conditions or diseases.Rate this question:
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- 42.
Which of the following modalities can be used to determine flow velocities through vasculature?
- A.
MRI
- B.
Ultrasound
- C.
Spiral CT
- D.
Teleradiology
Correct Answer
B. UltrasoundExplanation
Ultrasound can be used to determine flow velocities through vasculature. Ultrasound imaging uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the inside of the body. It can be used to visualize blood flow and measure the velocity of blood flow in the vasculature. This is done by using Doppler ultrasound, which detects the change in frequency of sound waves reflected by moving red blood cells. By analyzing the Doppler shift, the velocity and direction of blood flow can be determined. Therefore, ultrasound is a modality that can be used to assess flow velocities through vasculature.Rate this question:
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- 43.
When examining the chest or musculoskeletal system which of the following modalities would be least helpful?
- A.
X-ray
- B.
MRI
- C.
Spiral CT
- D.
Ultrasound
Correct Answer
D. UltrasoundExplanation
Ultrasound would be least helpful when examining the chest or musculoskeletal system because it is not effective in imaging bone structures. X-ray is commonly used to visualize bones, while MRI and Spiral CT can provide detailed images of both bones and soft tissues. Ultrasound, on the other hand, uses sound waves to create images and is better suited for examining soft tissues, such as muscles and organs. Therefore, ultrasound would be the least helpful modality in this context.Rate this question:
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- 44.
When choosing imaging studies, protocol should be followed for most patients in clinical practice
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. FalseExplanation
The statement suggests that a protocol should be followed for most patients when choosing imaging studies in clinical practice. However, the correct answer is False, indicating that this statement is not true. This implies that there may be situations where a protocol is not necessary or applicable, and other factors need to be considered when selecting imaging studies for certain patients in clinical practice.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Which of the following can be assessed on plain film?
- A.
Myocardial thickness
- B.
Heart size
- C.
Motion
- D.
Coronary artery disease
Correct Answer
B. Heart sizeExplanation
Heart size can be assessed on plain film because X-ray images can provide information about the overall size and shape of the heart. By analyzing the silhouette of the heart on the X-ray, doctors can determine if the heart is enlarged or if there are any abnormalities in its size. This can be helpful in diagnosing certain cardiac conditions or monitoring the progression of heart disease.Rate this question:
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- 46.
which of the following factors and their effect on the heart's appearance are paired correctly?
- A.
Mediastinal shift: appearant enlargement
- B.
COPD: Masked enlargement
- C.
Scoliosis: masked enlargement
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
B. COPD: Masked enlargementExplanation
COPD stands for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is a lung condition characterized by airflow limitation. In COPD, the lungs become hyperinflated, causing the diaphragm to flatten and push the heart downwards. This can give the appearance of heart enlargement on imaging studies, hence the term "masked enlargement." This is a correct pairing because COPD can indeed lead to a misleading appearance of heart enlargement.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which condition is associated with the image above?
- A.
COPD
- B.
CHF
- C.
Pneumothorax
- D.
Atelectasis
Correct Answer
B. CHFExplanation
The image is associated with CHF (Congestive Heart Failure). CHF is a condition where the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. This can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and chest congestion. The image may show signs of pulmonary edema or fluid in the lungs, which is a common finding in CHF.Rate this question:
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- 48.
This image shows which of the following?
- A.
Pleural effusion
- B.
Aortic aneurysm
- C.
COPD: Emphysema
- D.
Pericarditis
Correct Answer
D. PericarditisExplanation
The image shows pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac-like structure that surrounds the heart. It can be caused by various factors such as infections, autoimmune disorders, or heart attacks. Symptoms of pericarditis include chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a friction rub sound when listening to the heart. In the image, there may be signs of fluid accumulation around the heart, which is a common finding in pericarditis.Rate this question:
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- 49.
This image is significant for which of the following
- A.
Pleural effusion
- B.
Kerly b lines
- C.
Pericardial effusion
- D.
Pneumothorax
Correct Answer
C. Pericardial effusionExplanation
This image is significant for pericardial effusion because it shows an accumulation of fluid around the heart, which is a characteristic feature of pericardial effusion. The presence of fluid in the pericardial sac can cause compression of the heart, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and decreased cardiac output. This condition can be diagnosed and monitored using imaging techniques like echocardiography, which can visualize the fluid accumulation around the heart.Rate this question:
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- 50.
The condition depicted in this picture would cause which masked enlargement of the heart on CXR
- A.
True
- B.
False
Correct Answer
B. False -
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Aug 24, 2023Quiz Edited by
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Jul 15, 2015Quiz Created by
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