Panevelil Pharm Quiz

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Panevelil Pharm Quiz

Have you been reading up on Panavelil? If so, before you do this test you must have handled test one and revised everything that was problematic on your side. Below is some review of material for test 2 in pharmacology. Do you feel confident enough to try it? Give it a shot and get to refresh your memory. Best of luck!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Beta adrenergic Agonists typically end in..
    • A. 

      - rol

    • B. 

      - one

    • C. 

      - tropium

    • D. 

      -tidine

  • 2. 
    What is the most appropriate choice of aerosol during an acute asthma attack?
    • A. 

      Salmeterol

    • B. 

      Cromolyn

    • C. 

      Albuterol

    • D. 

      Prednisolone

  • 3. 
    Which of the following medication would not be appropriate to give during an acute asthma attack?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Terbutaline

    • D. 

      Salmeterol

  • 4. 
    Toxocity of which of the following medications is likely to cause skeletal muscle tremors?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Fexofenadine

    • C. 

      Morphine

    • D. 

      Hydrocortisone

  • 5. 
    What is the #1 choice in treating status asthmaticus & anaphylaxis?
    • A. 

      Hydrocortisone

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Albuterol

    • D. 

      Ipratropium

  • 6. 
    Beta-Adrenergic agonists are well known to cause tolerance in patients. As the care provider what should your response be to this?
    • A. 

      Treat pt with another highly specific beta 2 agonist

    • B. 

      Increase the dosage of the medication

    • C. 

      Switch pt to corticosteroids for 5 days

    • D. 

      Switch pt to theophylline

  • 7. 
    Corticosteroids usually end in.....
    • A. 

      -rol

    • B. 

      -ine

    • C. 

      -roid

    • D. 

      -one

  • 8. 
    Inhaled corticosteroids are generally recommended to be used for what?
    • A. 

      For maintenance and prophylaxis of asthma

    • B. 

      For treatment of acute asthma attacks

    • C. 

      For the treatment of candidiasis

    • D. 

      For treatment of acute exacerbations of reversible airway obstruction in pts not responsive to first line therapies

  • 9. 
    What is the Mechanism of action of corticosteroids?
    • A. 

      Highly selective beta-2 agonistic effects

    • B. 

      Inhibit synthesis of leukotrienes, prostaglandins and thromboxane

    • C. 

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase and antogonism of adenosine to increase cAMP.

    • D. 

      Binds to IgE which prevents IgE from binding to anything else which would trigger allergic response

  • 10. 
    Which Anticholinergic drug is used solely for the treatment of COPD?
    • A. 

      Ipratropium

    • B. 

      Theophylline

    • C. 

      Tiotropium

    • D. 

      Montelukast

  • 11. 
    What is the only methyl xanthine used in the treatment of asthma?
    • A. 

      Omalizumab

    • B. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • C. 

      Ipratropium

    • D. 

      Theophylline

  • 12. 
    What medication is used as a prophylactic agent to treat mild and moderate asthma mainly in children?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Ipratroprium

    • C. 

      Cromolyn

    • D. 

      Theophylline

  • 13. 
    Mechanism of Action of Cromolyn?
    • A. 

      Beta-2 agonist

    • B. 

      Inhibit synthesis of leukotrienes, prostaglandins and thromboxane

    • C. 

      Phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism which which leads to increased cAMP.

    • D. 

      Inhibit mast cell degranulation and prevents release of Histamine.

  • 14. 
    In what way is Montelukast different from the other Luekotriene antagonists?
    • A. 

      Does not inhibit CYP2C9, CYP3A4, or P450

    • B. 

      Increases liver enzymes much more

    • C. 

      Useful for acute asthma attacks

    • D. 

      It's the only med I can actually remember.

  • 15. 
    What is the MOA of Omalizumab?
    • A. 

      Blockade of prostaglandins and suppression of peritumoral inflammation

    • B. 

      Monoclonal Anti-Body which lowers IgE levels and prevnts an allergic response

    • C. 

      Competitively blocks H1 receptors

    • D. 

      Phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism which which leads to increased cAMP.

  • 16. 
    Which of the following is true regarding H1 antihistamines?
    • A. 

      Histamine Agonists

    • B. 

      The second generation of H1 antihistamines are HIGHLY lipid soluble

    • C. 

      They all cross blood brain barrier and cause sedation

    • D. 

      Known to cause HTN

  • 17. 
    Most H1 Antihistamines end in....
    • A. 

      -moa

    • B. 

      -tyzine

    • C. 

      -role

    • D. 

      - ine

  • 18. 
    How are second generation H1 antihistamines different from the first generation?
    • A. 

      Less lipid soluble and thus cause less sedation.

    • B. 

      Have different suffix to drug names

    • C. 

      More likely to cause arrythmias

    • D. 

      Are not as effective for treating allergies.

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is not a clinical use of H1 antihistamines?
    • A. 

      Treatment of nausea and vomiting in pregnany

    • B. 

      Treatment of gastric acid reflux

    • C. 

      Treatment of allergies

    • D. 

      Prevention of motion sickness

  • 20. 
    Which H1 antihistamine can be used in the treatment of anaphylaxis?
    • A. 

      Promethazine

    • B. 

      Azelastine

    • C. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • D. 

      Fexofenadine

  • 21. 
    Which H1 antihistamine has the strongest anti-emetic effects?
    • A. 

      Desloratadine

    • B. 

      Azelastine

    • C. 

      Promethazine

    • D. 

      Panavelitidine

  • 22. 
    Which H1 antihistamine has a dual action which not only antagonizes H1 receptors but also inhibits histamine release from mast cells?
    • A. 

      Azelastine

    • B. 

      Promethazine

    • C. 

      Toxitine

    • D. 

      Cetirizine

  • 23. 
    Which medication would you use to treat a patient on SSRI's who is complaining of anorgasmy?
    • A. 

      Cetirizine

    • B. 

      Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

    • C. 

      MAO inhibitor

    • D. 

      Switch them to a different SSRI

  • 24. 
    Which H1 antihistamine drug could you safely give to a one year old child?
    • A. 

      Loratadine (Claritin)

    • B. 

      Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

    • C. 

      Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    • D. 

      Any of them, they have all been approved for children over the age of 6 months

  • 25. 
    How would you plan to treat a patient with an H.Pylori infection?
    • A. 

      With a 7 day course of Prilosec & Vancomycin

    • B. 

      5 day of metronidazole 2x per day follwed by 10 days of Prilosec.

    • C. 

      Place the pt on a nexium regimen.

    • D. 

      With a 14 day course of Ranitidine, Amoxicillin, & bismuth sulfate.

  • 26. 
    All H2 receptor blockers end in...
    • A. 

      - tidine

    • B. 

      -one

    • C. 

      -cid

    • D. 

      -xetine

  • 27. 
    What medication would you recommend for a patient who is complaining of heartburn at night?
    • A. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • B. 

      Famotidine

    • C. 

      Promethazine

    • D. 

      Lansoprazole

  • 28. 
    Cimetidine (tagamet) is most well known for causing which adverse effects?
    • A. 

      Promotes cytochrome p450

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Gynecomastia & Galactorrhea

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 29. 
    Which of the following should not be given during pregnany due to its ability to cause abortion due to uterine contractility?
    • A. 

      Ranitidine

    • B. 

      Omeprazole

    • C. 

      Simethicone

    • D. 

      Misoprostol

  • 30. 
    Which class of medication has been shown to cause tumors in animals?
    • A. 

      H2 receptor blockers

    • B. 

      H1 antagonists

    • C. 

      Proton Pump Inhibitors

    • D. 

      SSRI's

  • 31. 
    Which medication would be used a 'primer and sealer' for your stomach?
    • A. 

      Simethicone

    • B. 

      Mg(Oh)2

    • C. 

      Sucralfate

    • D. 

      Pantoprazole

  • 32. 
    When giving antacids, which medication would you give in order to decrease the risk of either constipation or diarrhea?
    • A. 

      Mg (Oh)2

    • B. 

      Al (Oh)3

    • C. 

      Combination of A & B

    • D. 

      CaCO3

  • 33. 
    Why is the dopamine receptor antagonist Cisapride no longer used?
    • A. 

      Gave everybody the hiccups

    • B. 

      High risk of arrythmias

    • C. 

      High risk of stroke

    • D. 

      Causes erectile dysfunction and anorgasmy.

  • 34. 
    What medication might you choose to increase a pts gastric motility, while also treating their persistant hiccups?
    • A. 

      Dexamethasone

    • B. 

      Dronabinol

    • C. 

      Metaclopromide

    • D. 

      Erythromycin

  • 35. 
    Which drug is useful in treating N/V  and works by blockade of prostaglandins and suppressing peritumoral inflammation?
    • A. 

      Dexamethasone

    • B. 

      Promethazine

    • C. 

      Metaclopromide

    • D. 

      Diphenhydramine

  • 36. 
    MOA of phenothiazines?
    • A. 

      Act on vestibular efferents within the brain stem.

    • B. 

      Dopamine D2 antagonism at the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

    • C. 

      Agonistic effect on CB1 type cannboid receptors on neurons around vomiting center

    • D. 

      Blockade of prostaglandins and suppressions of peritumoral inflammation.

  • 37. 
    Which drug would you choose to treat anticipatory vomitting?
    • A. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • B. 

      Metaclopromide

    • C. 

      Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Dronabinol

  • 38. 
    What is Dronabinol?
    • A. 

      Acts as a D2 dopamine antagonist at chemoreceptor trigger zone

    • B. 

      An Opioid formulated with atropine and used in the treatment diarrhea.

    • C. 

      Stimulate mu receptors to relieve pain.

    • D. 

      A cannabinoid which acts by stimulations of CB1 type cannabinoid receptors on neurons around vomitting center.

  • 39. 
    Which of the following would you choose as the safest laxative agent to treat your pt?
    • A. 

      Psyllium

    • B. 

      Lactulose

    • C. 

      Loperamide

    • D. 

      Bisacodyl

  • 40. 
    Why is diphenoxylate formulated with atropine?
    • A. 

      In order to specifically treat inflammatory diarrhea

    • B. 

      To reduce abuse of the agent

    • C. 

      So that it will NOT penetrate the CNS

    • D. 

      Just to see the reactions on the pts face when THEY figure it out.

  • 41. 
    An overdosage of Loperamide is known to cause what adverse effect?
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic effects

    • B. 

      Gallstone formation

    • C. 

      CNS depression & paralytic ileus

    • D. 

      Dependence & N/V

  • 42. 
    What is the MOA of anti-diarrheals?
    • A. 

      Increase motor activity and pepsin output

    • B. 

      Dopamine D2 antagonism at the chemoreceptor trigger zone

    • C. 

      Ummm... all I know is you stop pooping so much.

    • D. 

      Inhibit acetyl choline release by activating pre-synaptic opioid receptors.

  • 43. 
    What are the 3 classes of opiate receptors?
    • A. 

      Mu, Delta, Kappa

    • B. 

      Pi, Kappa, Alpha

    • C. 

      Phi, Mu, Beta

    • D. 

      Delta, Gamma, Xi

  • 44. 
    What is an Opiate?
    • A. 

      Endogenous Peptides that act on opioid receptors

    • B. 

      A drug derived from from alkaloids of the opion poppy

    • C. 

      Receptors of natural high that treat pain

    • D. 

      A drug that activates some or all opiate receptor subtypes

  • 45. 
    What is an Opiopeptin?
    • A. 

      Endogenous Peptides that act on opioid receptors

    • B. 

      A drug derived from from alkaloids of the opium poppy

    • C. 

      Receptors of natural high that treat pain

    • D. 

      A drug that activates some or all opiate receptor subtypes

  • 46. 
    Which of the following is NOT an opiopeptin?
    • A. 

      Endorphin

    • B. 

      Enkalphalin

    • C. 

      Dynorphin

    • D. 

      Epinorphin