Panevelil Pharm Quiz

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Practicing is very good in case you have some doubts on your ability to recall some of the things that you have learnt in class. This being said it is very important to ensure that you get reliable tests. Are you looking for some review of material for test 2 in pharmacology? The Panavelil Pharm quiz below is perfect for that so try it out!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Beta adrenergic Agonists typically end in..
    • A. 

      - rol

    • B. 

      - one

    • C. 

      - tropium

    • D. 

      -tidine

  • 2. 
    What is the mechanism of action for beta-adrenergic agonists?
    • A. 

      Stimulation of alpha and beta receptors.

    • B. 

      Highly selective beta-2 agonistic affects

    • C. 

      Highly selective beta-1 agonists effects

    • D. 

      Used only through parenteral administration to prophylactically treat asthma.

  • 3. 
    What is the most appropriate choice of aerosol during an acute asthma attack?
    • A. 

      Salmeterol

    • B. 

      Cromolyn

    • C. 

      Albuterol

    • D. 

      Prednisolone

  • 4. 
    Which of the following medication would not be appropriate to give during an acute asthma attack?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Terbutaline

    • D. 

      Salmeterol

  • 5. 
    What is the #1 choice in treating status asthmaticus & anaphylaxis?
    • A. 

      Hydrocortisone

    • B. 

      Epinephrine

    • C. 

      Albuterol

    • D. 

      Ipratropium

  • 6. 
    Beta-Adrenergic agonists are well known to cause tolerance in patients. As the care provider what should your response be to this?
    • A. 

      Treat pt with another highly specific beta 2 agonist

    • B. 

      Increase the dosage of the medication

    • C. 

      Switch pt to corticosteroids for 5 days

    • D. 

      Switch pt to theophylline

  • 7. 
    Corticosteroids usually end in.....
    • A. 

      -rol

    • B. 

      -ine

    • C. 

      -roid

    • D. 

      -one

  • 8. 
    Inhaled corticosteroids are generally recommended to be used for what?
    • A. 

      For maintenance and prophylaxis of asthma

    • B. 

      For treatment of acute asthma attacks

    • C. 

      For the treatment of candidiasis

    • D. 

      For treatment of acute exacerbations of reversible airway obstruction in pts not responsive to first line therapies

  • 9. 
    What is the Mechanism of action of corticosteroids?
    • A. 

      Highly selective beta-2 agonistic effects

    • B. 

      Inhibit synthesis of leukotrienes, prostaglandins and thromboxane

    • C. 

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase and antogonism of adenosine to increase cAMP.

    • D. 

      Binds to IgE which prevents IgE from binding to anything else which would trigger allergic response

  • 10. 
    Which Anticholinergic drug is used solely for the treatment of COPD?
    • A. 

      Ipratropium

    • B. 

      Theophylline

    • C. 

      Tiotropium

    • D. 

      Montelukast

  • 11. 
    What is the only methyl xanthine used in the treatment of asthma?
    • A. 

      Omalizumab

    • B. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • C. 

      Ipratropium

    • D. 

      Theophylline

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is NOT a side effect associated with Theophylline?
    • A. 

      Headache, Insomnia, Tremors

    • B. 

      Sedation and lethargy

    • C. 

      Lethal arrythmias and hypotension with overdose

    • D. 

      Diuresis

  • 13. 
    What medication is used as a prophylactic agent to treat mild and moderate asthma mainly in children?
    • A. 

      Albuterol

    • B. 

      Ipratroprium

    • C. 

      Cromolyn

    • D. 

      Theophylline

  • 14. 
    Mechanism of Action of Cromolyn?
    • A. 

      Beta-2 agonist

    • B. 

      Inhibit synthesis of leukotrienes, prostaglandins and thromboxane

    • C. 

      Phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism which which leads to increased cAMP.

    • D. 

      Inhibit mast cell degranulation and prevents release of Histamine.

  • 15. 
    In what way is Montelukast different from the other Luekotriene antagonists?
    • A. 

      Does not inhibit CYP2C9 or CYP3A4

    • B. 

      Increases liver enzymes much more

    • C. 

      Useful for acute asthma attacks

    • D. 

      It's the only med I can actually remember.

  • 16. 
    What is the MOA of Omalizumab?
    • A. 

      Blockade of prostaglandins and suppression of peritumoral inflammation

    • B. 

      Monoclonal Anti-Body which lowers IgE levels and prevnts an allergic response

    • C. 

      Competitively blocks H1 receptors

    • D. 

      Phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism which which leads to increased cAMP.

  • 17. 
    Which of the following is true regarding H1 antihistamines?
    • A. 

      Histamine Agonists

    • B. 

      The second generation of H1 antihistamines are HIGHLY lipid soluble

    • C. 

      They all cross blood brain barrier and cause sedation

    • D. 

      Known to cause HTN

  • 18. 
    Most H1 Antihistamines end in....
    • A. 

      -moa

    • B. 

      -tyzine

    • C. 

      -role

    • D. 

      - ine

  • 19. 
    How are second generation H1 antihistamines different from the first generation?
    • A. 

      Less lipid soluble and thus cause less sedation.

    • B. 

      Have different suffix to drug names

    • C. 

      More likely to cause arrythmias

    • D. 

      Are not as effective for treating allergies.

  • 20. 
    Which of the following is not a clinical use of H1 antihistamines?
    • A. 

      Treatment of nausea and vomiting in pregnany

    • B. 

      Treatment of gastric acid reflux

    • C. 

      Treatment of allergies

    • D. 

      Prevention of motion sickness

  • 21. 
    Which H1 antihistamine can be used in the treatment of anaphylaxis?
    • A. 

      Promethazine

    • B. 

      Azelastine

    • C. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • D. 

      Fexofenadine

  • 22. 
    Which H1 antihistamine has the strongest anti-emetic effects?
    • A. 

      Desloratadine

    • B. 

      Azelastine

    • C. 

      Promethazine

    • D. 

      Panavelitidine

  • 23. 
    Which H1 antihistamine has a dual action which not only antagonizes H1 receptors but also inhibits histamine release from mast cells?
    • A. 

      Azelastine

    • B. 

      Promethazine

    • C. 

      Toxitine

    • D. 

      Cetirizine

  • 24. 
    Which medication would you use to treat a patient on SSRI's who is complaining of anorgasmy?
    • A. 

      Cetirizine

    • B. 

      Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

    • C. 

      MAO inhibitor

    • D. 

      Switch them to a different SSRI

  • 25. 
    Which H1 antihistamine drug could you safely give to a one year old child?
    • A. 

      Loratadine (Claritin)

    • B. 

      Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

    • C. 

      Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    • D. 

      Any of them, they have all been approved for children over the age of 6 months

  • 26. 
    How would you plan to treat a patient with an H.Pylori infection?
    • A. 

      With a 7 day course of Prilosec & Vancomycin

    • B. 

      5 day of metronidazole 2x per day follwed by 10 days of Prilosec.

    • C. 

      Place the pt on a nexium regimen.

    • D. 

      With a 14 day course of Ranitidine, Amoxicillin, & bismuth sulfate.

  • 27. 
    All H2 recepto blockers end in...
    • A. 

      - tidine

    • B. 

      -one

    • C. 

      -cid

    • D. 

      -xetine

  • 28. 
    What medication would you recommend for a patient who is complaining of heartburn at night?
    • A. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • B. 

      Famotidine

    • C. 

      Promethazine

    • D. 

      Lansoprazole

  • 29. 
    Cimetidine (tagamet) is most well known for causing which adverse effects?
    • A. 

      Promotes cytochrome p450

    • B. 

      Constipation

    • C. 

      Gynecomastia & Galactorrhea

    • D. 

      All the above

  • 30. 
    Which of the following should not be given during pregnany due to its ability to cause abortion due to uterine contractility?
    • A. 

      Ranitidine

    • B. 

      Omeprazole

    • C. 

      Simethicone

    • D. 

      Misoprostol

  • 31. 
    All of the Proton Pump Inhibitors end in.....
    • A. 

      -prazole

    • B. 

      -tidine

    • C. 

      -sec

    • D. 

      -zone

  • 32. 
    Which medication would be used a 'primer and sealer' for your stomach?
    • A. 

      Simethicone

    • B. 

      Mg(Oh)2

    • C. 

      Sucralfate

    • D. 

      Pantoprazole

  • 33. 
    When giving antacids, which medication would you give in order to decrease the risk of either constipation or diarrhea?
    • A. 

      Mg (Oh)2

    • B. 

      Al (Oh)3

    • C. 

      Combination of A & B

    • D. 

      CaCO3

  • 34. 
    Mg (OH)2 may be associated with what syndrome?
    • A. 

      Milk Alkali Syndrome

    • B. 

      Steven Johnsons syndrome

    • C. 

      Lactic Acid Syndrome

    • D. 

      Reye's Syndrome

  • 35. 
    Why is the dopamine receptor antagonist Cisapride no longer used?
    • A. 

      Gave everybody the hiccups

    • B. 

      High risk of arrythmias

    • C. 

      High risk of stroke

    • D. 

      Causes erectile dysfunction and anorgasmy.

  • 36. 
    What medication might you choose to increase a pts gastric motility, while also treating their persistant hiccups?
    • A. 

      Dexamethasone

    • B. 

      Dronabinol

    • C. 

      Metaclopromide

    • D. 

      Erythromycin

  • 37. 
    What is the chemoreceptor trigger zone and what does it do?
    • A. 

      During the treatment of cancer this is the threshhold at which the cancer treatment actually becomes effective

    • B. 

      Responsibile for producing allergic reactione and bronchoconstriction. Located in terminal bronchioles.

    • C. 

      It is just one more stupid thing for me to memorize and it is currently annoying the crap out of me.

    • D. 

      Located on floor of 4th ventricle, it sends messages to the vomit center.

  • 38. 
    Which drug is useful in treating N/V and works by blockade of prostaglandins and suppressing peritumoral inflammation?
    • A. 

      Dexamethasone

    • B. 

      Promethazine

    • C. 

      Metaclopromide

    • D. 

      Diphenhydramine

  • 39. 
    Which drug would you choose to treat anticipatory vomitting?
    • A. 

      Diphenhydramine

    • B. 

      Metaclopromide

    • C. 

      Lorazepam

    • D. 

      Dronabinol

  • 40. 
    What is Dronabinol?
    • A. 

      Acts as a D2 dopamine antagonist at chemoreceptor trigger zone

    • B. 

      An Opioid formulated with atropine and used in the treatment diarrhea.

    • C. 

      Stimulate mu receptors to relieve pain.

    • D. 

      A cannabinoid which acts by stimulations of CB1 type cannabinoid receptors on neurons around vomitting center.

  • 41. 
    Which of the following would you choose as the safest laxative agent to treat your pt?
    • A. 

      Psyllium

    • B. 

      Lactulose

    • C. 

      Loperamide

    • D. 

      Bisacodyl

  • 42. 
    Why is diphenoxylate formulated with atropine?
    • A. 

      In order to specifically treat inflammatory diarrhea

    • B. 

      To reduce abuse of the agent

    • C. 

      So that it will NOT penetrate the CNS

    • D. 

      Just to see the reactions on the pts face when THEY figure it out.

  • 43. 
    An overdosage of Loperamide is known to cause what adverse effect?
    • A. 

      Anticholinergic effects

    • B. 

      Gallstone formation

    • C. 

      CNS depression & paralytic ileus

    • D. 

      Dependence & N/V

  • 44. 
    What is the MOA of anti-diarrheals?
    • A. 

      Increase motor activity and pepsin output

    • B. 

      Dopamine D2 antagonism at the chemoreceptor trigger zone

    • C. 

      Ummm... all I know is you stop pooping so much.

    • D. 

      Inhibit acetyl choline release by activating pre-synaptic opioid receptors.

  • 45. 
    What are the 3 classes of opiate receptors?
    • A. 

      Mu, Delta, Kappa

    • B. 

      Pi, Kappa, Alpha

    • C. 

      Phi, Mu, Beta

    • D. 

      Delta, Gamma, Xi

  • 46. 
    What is an Opiate?
    • A. 

      Endogenous Peptides that act on opioid receptors

    • B. 

      A drug derived from from alkaloids of the opium poppy

    • C. 

      Receptors of natural high that treat pain

    • D. 

      A drug that activates some or all opiate receptor subtypes

  • 47. 
    What is an Opiopeptin?
    • A. 

      Endogenous Peptides that act on opioid receptors

    • B. 

      A drug derived from from alkaloids of the opium poppy

    • C. 

      Receptors of natural high that treat pain

    • D. 

      A drug that activates some or all opiate receptor subtypes

  • 48. 
    Which of the following is NOT an opiopeptin?
    • A. 

      Endorphin

    • B. 

      Enkalphalin

    • C. 

      Dynmorphin

    • D. 

      Epinorphin

  • 49. 
    What is the duration of effect for Fentanyl?
    • A. 

      6-8 hours

    • B. 

      2-4 hours

    • C. 

      4-6 hours

    • D. 

      1-2 hours

  • 50. 
    What is the duration of effect for Buprenorphine?
    • A. 

      4-6 hours

    • B. 

      6-8 hours

    • C. 

      2-4 hours

    • D. 

      1-2 hours

  • 51. 
    Most opioids end in....
    • A. 

      -tadine

    • B. 

      -one

    • C. 

      -phine

    • D. 

      -lol

  • 52. 
    What is the basic MOA of opiods?
    • A. 

      They are opiate receptor antagonists

    • B. 

      Activate only the kappa receptors in order to produce analgesia

    • C. 

      They make you feel Goooooooooood.

    • D. 

      They are opiate receptor agonists

  • 53. 
    Which of the following opiate receptors is stimulated by Endorphin?
    • A. 

      Delta

    • B. 

      Kappa

    • C. 

      Mu

    • D. 

      Phi

  • 54. 
    Which of the following opiate receptors is stimulated by Enkephalin?
    • A. 

      Mu

    • B. 

      Kappa

    • C. 

      Phi

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 55. 
    Which of the following opiate receptors are stimulated by Dynorphin?
    • A. 

      Kappa

    • B. 

      Mu

    • C. 

      Phi

    • D. 

      Delta

  • 56. 
    Which of the following is NOT true regarding Mu & Delta receptors?
    • A. 

      Contributes to analgesia at both spinal and supraspinal level

    • B. 

      Play a role in sedative effects of drugs

    • C. 

      Contribute to respiratory depression

    • D. 

      Play a role in physical dependence

  • 57. 
    Which of the following is not a clinical use of Opioids?
    • A. 

      Treatment of Constipation

    • B. 

      Treatment of Pulmonary Edema

    • C. 

      Treatment of Opioid dependence

    • D. 

      Analgesia

  • 58. 
    Which of the following opioids does not cause miosis?
    • A. 

      Morphine

    • B. 

      Meperedine

    • C. 

      Fentanyl

    • D. 

      Methadone

  • 59. 
    How would you treat a patient with an Opiod addiction?
    • A. 

      Sending them to be safely detoxxed at an inpatient facility

    • B. 

      Gradually taper the dosage since the pt is now physically dependent

    • C. 

      With an Opioid, like methadone

    • D. 

      With a regular regimen of an opioid antagonist such as Narcan.

  • 60. 
    What medication would you use to treat an opioid overdose?
    • A. 

      Methadone

    • B. 

      Morphine

    • C. 

      Lithium

    • D. 

      Narcan

  • 61. 
    What is the MOA of NSAID's?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of cyclo-oxygenase (cox 1 & 2)

    • B. 

      Selective cox-2 inhibition

    • C. 

      Inhibition of mast cell degranulation

    • D. 

      H2 receptor antagonism

  • 62. 
    What are some of the adverse effects associated with Aspirin use?
    • A. 

      Reye's syndrome, respiratory Acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, tinnitus

    • B. 

      Ulcers, respiratory alkalosis, asthma, vertigo

    • C. 

      Drowsiness, decreased GI motility, osteoarthritis

    • D. 

      Ulcers, Steven Johnson syndrome, N/V, Respiratory acidosis

  • 63. 
    Which of the following NSAID drugs has a poor antipyretic effect?
    • A. 

      Ketorolac

    • B. 

      Naproxen

    • C. 

      Ibuprofen

    • D. 

      Diflunisal

  • 64. 
    Which of the following NSAID's are used primarily to treat Rhuematoid Arthritis and Osteoarthritis?
    • A. 

      Naproxen & Indomethacin

    • B. 

      Ibuprofen & Acetaminophen

    • C. 

      Ketoprofen & Phenylbutazone

    • D. 

      Ketorolac & Diflunisal

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is known as an antipyretic "systemic" drug?
    • A. 

      Acetaminophen

    • B. 

      Ketorolac

    • C. 

      Ibuprofen

    • D. 

      Piroxicam

  • 66. 
    How will the half life of tylenol be affected if your pt has renal disease?
    • A. 

      Half life will be increased

    • B. 

      Half life will be decreased

    • C. 

      Half life will be unaffected

  • 67. 
    Why is it that Acetaminophen does not have anti- inflammatory effects?
    • A. 

      It is a selective Cox-2 inhibitor

    • B. 

      It is a selective Cox-1 inhibitor

    • C. 

      Because of it's effects on prostaglandins

    • D. 

      Because of central, not peripheral, COX inhibition.

  • 68. 
    What serious adverse effect is associated with acetaminophen?
    • A. 

      Hepatic Toxicity

    • B. 

      Nerve damage at high doses

    • C. 

      Renal Toxicity

    • D. 

      Dangerously elevated blood glucose levels

  • 69. 
    All selective Cox-2 inhibitors end in...
    • A. 

      -til

    • B. 

      -coxib

    • C. 

      -pramine

    • D. 

      -cas

  • 70. 
    What is the MOA of tricyclic antidepressants?
    • A. 

      Inhibits neuronal re-uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into pre-synaptic nerve terminals

    • B. 

      Specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake

    • C. 

      Enable nuerotransmitter molecules to escape degredation

    • D. 

      Inhibit cyclo-oxygenase in the CNS

  • 71. 
    You are currently caring for a pt who is taking a TCA and is not finding it to be effective. What else could you try?
    • A. 

      Give concurrent MAOI to increase effectiveness

    • B. 

      Send pt to counseling, you can't do this with drugs alone

    • C. 

      Switch to an SSRI

    • D. 

      Try a different TCA.

  • 72. 
    How long does it take to see therapeutic effects of TCA's?
    • A. 

      3-4 weeks

    • B. 

      2 months

    • C. 

      10-12 hours

    • D. 

      5-7 days

  • 73. 
    Which of the anti-depressant agents could be used in the treatment Anorexia nervosa & panic disorders?
    • A. 

      Marinol

    • B. 

      Imipramine

    • C. 

      Fluoxetine

    • D. 

      Phenelzine

  • 74. 
    What drug is useful in controlling bed wetting in children over the age of 6 years?
    • A. 

      Fluoxetine

    • B. 

      Tranylcypromine

    • C. 

      Marinol

    • D. 

      Imipramine

  • 75. 
    What adverse effect is associated with SSRI's?
    • A. 

      Anorgasmia and loss of libido

    • B. 

      Cardiac arrythmias and stroke

    • C. 

      Reye's syndrome

    • D. 

      Blurred vision & dry mouth

  • 76. 
    Which of the anti-depressant agents should be used with caution in bipolar patients?
    • A. 

      MAOI's

    • B. 

      TCA's

    • C. 

      SSRI's

    • D. 

      Lithium

  • 77. 
    You are caring for a pt currently on Fluoxetine, who states the medication is not as effective as he had hoped. What would you recommend?
    • A. 

      Try another TCA, which may be effective

    • B. 

      Immediately switch to an MAOI

    • C. 

      Try another SSRI, which may be effective

    • D. 

      Increase the dosage because tolerance has developed.

  • 78. 
    Which class of anti-depressant agent would you choose to treat atypical depression which has not responded to other drugs? 
    • A. 

      Lithium

    • B. 

      TCA's

    • C. 

      SSRI's

    • D. 

      MAOI's

  • 79. 
    What is the MOA of MAOI's?
    • A. 

      Enables nuerotransmitter molecules to escape degredation

    • B. 

      Inhibits neuronal re-uptake of norepinephrine and serotonin into pre-synaptic nerve terminals

    • C. 

      Inhibits serotonin reuptake

  • 80. 
    Which class of antidepressant exhibits a high degree of food-drug interactions?
    • A. 

      SSRI's

    • B. 

      MAOI's

    • C. 

      TCA's

    • D. 

      Lithium

  • 81. 
    You have a pt who is currently taking an MAOI. The pt comes to your office and tells you he has just attended the most wonderful social party... a wine and cheese tasting. He consumes large amounts of red wine, cheese, and beer. What physical symptoms would you expect this pt to exhibit?
    • A. 

      Hypotension, syncope, cardiac arrythmias

    • B. 

      Acute renal and hepatic failure

    • C. 

      Hypertension, Tachycardia, nauseau and headache.

    • D. 

      None... these foods have no effects on MAOI's. Though he is most likely drunk.

  • 82. 
    You have a pt who is currently taking an SSRI. The pt comes to your office and tells you he has just attended the most wonderful social party... a wine and cheese tasting. He consumes large amounts of red wine, cheese, and beer. What physical symptoms would you expect this pt to exhibit?
    • A. 

      Hypotension, syncope, cardiac arrythmias

    • B. 

      Acute renal and hepatic failure

    • C. 

      Hypertension, Tachycardia, nauseau and headache.

    • D. 

      None... these foods have no effects on SSRI's. Though he is most likely drunk.

  • 83. 
    How long should you wait after discontinuing an SSRI to start treatment with an MAOI?
    • A. 

      6 weeks

    • B. 

      3 months

    • C. 

      2 weeks

    • D. 

      No wait is neccessary

  • 84. 
    Concurrent administration of MAOI's and SSRI's may result in what serious adverse reaction?
    • A. 

      Steven Johnson's Syndrome

    • B. 

      Serotonin Syndrome

    • C. 

      Endorphin Syndrome

    • D. 

      None, these drugs are routinely administered together

  • 85. 
    What is Lithium used for?
    • A. 

      To treat pts with both alcoholism and depression

    • B. 

      To treat severe and acute depressive or manic episodes

    • C. 

      To prophylactically treat manic episodes in depressed pts

    • D. 

      As a sedative when pts are going through withdrawal

  • 86. 
    Which of the following is a Beta adrenergic  agonist?
    • A. 

      Fluticasone

    • B. 

      Tiotropium

    • C. 

      Omalizumab

    • D. 

      Levalbuterol

  • 87. 
    Which of the following is a Corticosteroid?
    • A. 

      Beclomethasone

    • B. 

      Formoterol

    • C. 

      Theophylline

    • D. 

      Azalastine

  • 88. 
    What are the advantages of Anticholinergic Bronchodilators over Beta adgrenergic agonist for some patients?
    • A. 

      Less likely to produce anaphylactic response in pts with multiple drug allergies

    • B. 

      Less toxic in COPD patients, does not produce muscle tremors.

    • C. 

      More potent at reversing acute bronchospasm

    • D. 

      There is only 2 of them to remember.

  • 89. 
    Which anti-cholinergic bronchodilator is approved to treat COPD & asthma and would be the BEST choice for a pt with COPD who has psychogenic exacerbations?
    • A. 

      Tiotropium

    • B. 

      Theophylline

    • C. 

      Ipatropium

    • D. 

      Salmeterol

  • 90. 
    The anti-cholinergic bronchodilators end in....
    • A. 

      -tadine

    • B. 

      -rol

    • C. 

      -sone

    • D. 

      -tropium

  • 91. 
    What is the MOA of montelukast?
    • A. 

      Selective antagonist of leukotriene D4 at the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor in human airway.

    • B. 

      Monoclonal Anti-Body which lowers IgE levels and prevents an allergic response

    • C. 

      Competitively blocks H1 receptors

    • D. 

      Phosphodiesterase inhibition and adenosine antagonism which which leads to increased cAMP.

  • 92. 
    Which 2nd generation H1 antihistamine is most likely to cause sedation?
    • A. 

      Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

    • B. 

      Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

    • C. 

      Loratadine (Claritin)

    • D. 

      Fexofenadine (Allegra)

  • 93. 
    Which class of medication is MOST effective at suppressing gastric acid secretion?
    • A. 

      Antacids

    • B. 

      Prostaglandin Analogs

    • C. 

      H2 receptor blockers

    • D. 

      Proton Pump Inhibitors

  • 94. 
    Which of following is NOT true regarding metaclopromide?
    • A. 

      Blockades prostaglandins

    • B. 

      Antagonism of 5HT-3 receptors which suppresses inhibitory neurons

    • C. 

      Stimulation of excitatory neurons via 5HT-4 receptors

    • D. 

      Counteracts D2 receptor inhibitory effects

  • 95. 
    Which drug is a serotonin antagonist useful in the treatment of N/V associated with chemotherapy?
    • A. 

      Dronabinol

    • B. 

      Odansetron

    • C. 

      Metaclopromide

    • D. 

      Promethazine

  • 96. 
    Which of the following is an irritant laxative?
    • A. 

      Senna

    • B. 

      Bisacodyl

    • C. 

      Psyllium

    • D. 

      Glycerin

  • 97. 
    Psyllium is what form of laxative?
    • A. 

      Stimulant

    • B. 

      Bulk Forming

    • C. 

      Irritant

    • D. 

      Osmotically active

  • 98. 
    You have a patient in the ER who is in Status Asthmaticus. This pt has already been given the first line therapy, epinephrine, and not responded. What medication would you give next?
    • A. 

      Omalizumab

    • B. 

      Albuterol

    • C. 

      Theophylline

    • D. 

      Diphenhydramine

  • 99. 
    Which of the following would not be considered a strong opioid?
    • A. 

      Morphine

    • B. 

      Methadone

    • C. 

      Nalbuphine

    • D. 

      Codeine

  • 100. 
    What is the only Cox-2 inhibitor still on the US market?
    • A. 

      Valdecoxib

    • B. 

      Celecoxib

    • C. 

      Etoricoxib

    • D. 

      Rofecoxib

  • 101. 
    Which of the following classes of drugs is NOT an antidepressant agent?
    • A. 

      MAOI's

    • B. 

      SSRI's

    • C. 

      CNS Stimulants

    • D. 

      TCA's

  • 102. 
    Define Sedation?
    • A. 

      The induction of sleep

    • B. 

      Loss of consciousness associated with absence on response to pain

    • C. 

      Depression of brain activity leading to respiratory & circulatory failure.

    • D. 

      Reduction of Anxiety

  • 103. 
    Define Hypnosis.
    • A. 

      The induction of sleep

    • B. 

      Loss of consciousness associated with absence on response to pain

    • C. 

      Depression of brain activity leading to respiratory & circulatory failure.

    • D. 

      Reduction of Anxiety

  • 104. 
    Define Anesthesia.
    • A. 

      The induction of sleep

    • B. 

      Loss of consciousness associated with absence on response to pain

    • C. 

      Depression of brain activity leading to respiratory & circulatory failure.

    • D. 

      Reduction of Anxiety

  • 105. 
    What are physical symptoms associated with Anxiety?
    • A. 

      Sympathetic activation

    • B. 

      Tachycardia

    • C. 

      Trembling

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 106. 
    What is the MOA of benzodiazepines?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of the reticular activating system and potentiation of GABA action on chloride entry into neuron

    • B. 

      They are CNS depressants producing sedation and ultimately hypnosis.

    • C. 

      Binding to receptors which increase the affinity of GABA receptors for GABA, resulting in more frequent opening of chloride channels and inhibition of neuronal firing via hyperpolarization.

    • D. 

      Inhibition of phoshpdiesterase and blockade of adenosine receptors.

  • 107. 
    What is the MOA of Barbituates?
    • A. 

      They are CNS depressants producing sedation and ultimately hypnosis.

    • B. 

      Inhibition of the reticular activating system and potentiation of GABA action on chloride entry into neuron

    • C. 

      Binding to receptors which increase the affinity of GABA receptors for GABA, resulting in more frequent opening of chloride channels and inhibition of neuronal firing via hyperpolarization.

    • D. 

      Inhibition of phoshpdiesterase and blockade of adenosine receptors.

  • 108. 
    Most benzodiazepines end in...
    • A. 

      -phine

    • B. 

      -tal

    • C. 

      -nil

    • D. 

      -pam

  • 109. 
    Which of the following is NOT an effect of benzodiazepines?
    • A. 

      Anesthesia

    • B. 

      Anxiety reduction

    • C. 

      Anticonvulsive effect

    • D. 

      Muscle Relaxing

  • 110. 
    You are evaluating a pt for Panic Disorder who needs short term treatment to relieve panic attack symptoms. Which medication would be BEST for this patient?
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Alprazolam

    • C. 

      Temazepam

    • D. 

      Clonazepam

  • 111. 
    You are working night shift in the ER when a patient in Status Epilepticus rolls in. What should be your first drug of choice to treat this?
    • A. 

      Clonazepam

    • B. 

      Flurazepam

    • C. 

      Diazepam

    • D. 

      Lorazepam

  • 112. 
    I'm afraid life has been very hard for you. Your dog bit you, The cat hates you, you hate memorizing drugs, and you are considering ending it all. You go to your cabinet and see a bottle of Benzo's and a bottle of Barbituates.... which bottle to you choose to gulp down in order to end your life and why?
    • A. 

      What kind of sick bastard asks a question like this?!?! I love my life!!!

    • B. 

      The Benzo's which are a leading cause of overdose death instead of the Barbituate which will have you wake up in 4 days feeling stupid.

    • C. 

      I'll take half of each. They both work equally well for that sort of thing.

    • D. 

      The Barbituates which are a leading cause of overdose death instead of the Benzo's which will have you wake up in 4 days feeling stupid.

  • 113. 
    Buspar decreases serotonin levels.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 114. 
    Which drug would you use to reverse the action of benzodiazepines?
    • A. 

      Disulfiram

    • B. 

      Flumazenil

    • C. 

      Narcan

    • D. 

      Hydroxyzine

  • 115. 
    Which of the barbituates is used for induction of anesthesia?
    • A. 

      Fentanyl

    • B. 

      Lorazepam

    • C. 

      Thiopental

    • D. 

      Ethanol

  • 116. 
    Which of the following is not a therapuetic use of barbituates?
    • A. 

      Anesthesia

    • B. 

      Anxiety

    • C. 

      Anticonvulsion

    • D. 

      Muscle relaxation

  • 117. 
    You are looking for a medication to treat your pts sleeping disorder, but don't want to use the classic benzo's because of daytime cognitive impairment. What medication would you choose which would have less daytime impairment?
    • A. 

      Zolpidem

    • B. 

      Flurazepam

    • C. 

      Ethanol

    • D. 

      Flumazenil

  • 118. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Caffeine?
    • A. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

    • B. 

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase and blockade of adenosine receptors

    • C. 

      Ganglionic stimulation via depolarization

    • D. 

      Blockade of norepinephrine, serotonin & dopamine re-uptake into pre-synaptic terminals from which these transmitters are released

  • 119. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Nicotine?
    • A. 

      Blockade of norepinephrine, serotonin & dopamine re-uptake into pre-synaptic terminals from which these transmitters are released

    • B. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

    • C. 

      Ganglionic stimulation via depolarization

    • D. 

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase and blockade of adenosine receptors

  • 120. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding cocaine?
    • A. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

    • B. 

      Inhibition of phosphodiesterase and blockade of adenosine receptors

    • C. 

      Serotonin 5-HT agonist activity at presynaptic receptors in midbrain

    • D. 

      Blockade of norepinephrine, serotonin & dopamine re-uptake into pre-synaptic terminals from which these transmitters are released

  • 121. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Amphetamines?
    • A. 

      Serotonin 5-HT agonist activity at presynaptic receptors in midbrain

    • B. 

      Blockade of norepinephrine, serotonin & dopamine re-uptake into pre-synaptic terminals from which these transmitters are released

    • C. 

      Agonism of CB1 receptors

    • D. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

  • 122. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding LSD?
    • A. 

      Serotonin 5-HT agonist activity at presynaptic receptors in midbrain

    • B. 

      Agonism of CB1 receptors

    • C. 

      It has anticholinergic activity yet produces salivation.

    • D. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

  • 123. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding Tetrahydrocannibol?
    • A. 

      Serotonin 5-HT agonist activity at presynaptic receptors in midbrain

    • B. 

      Agonism of CB1 receptors

    • C. 

      It has anticholinergic activity yet produces salivation.

    • D. 

      Releases intracellular stores of catecholamine(such as dopa) and block MAO.

  • 124. 
    Which of the following is TRUE regarding (Phenylcyclidine) PCP?
    • A. 

      Serotonin 5-HT agonist activity at presynaptic receptors in midbrain

    • B. 

      Agonism of CB1 receptors

    • C. 

      It has anticholinergic activity yet produces salivation.

    • D. 

      It is a Benzo that is commonly used as a date rape drug.

  • 125. 
    Which of the following is a benzodiazepine commonly used a date-rape drug?
    • A. 

      Phenylcyclidine

    • B. 

      Cocaine

    • C. 

      Diazepam

    • D. 

      Flunitrazepam

  • 126. 
    Which of the following is an amphetamine commonly used to treat children with ADD?
    • A. 

      Methylphenidate

    • B. 

      Cocaine

    • C. 

      Flunitrazepam

    • D. 

      Diphenhydramine

  • 127. 
    The Anti-depressant agents differ from the CNS stimulants because the anti-depressants work both in depressed and normal people and are very commonly abused.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 128. 
    What effects are associated with cocaine use?
    • A. 

      Hallucinations and mood alteration

    • B. 

      Increased HR, decreased BP, reddening of conjuctiva

    • C. 

      Pupillary dilation and "fight-or-flight" response

    • D. 

      Insomnia, weakness, hyperactivity

  • 129. 
    High doses of Nicotine are known to cause what?
    • A. 

      Pupillary dilation & Arrythmias

    • B. 

      Ganglionic Blockade

    • C. 

      Lung cancer

    • D. 

      Severe Hypotension

  • 130. 
    What is the MOA of Phenytoin?
    • A. 

      Potentiation of GABA

    • B. 

      Reduces propogation of abnormal electrical charge in the brain by blocking sodium channels.

    • C. 

      Stabilizes neuronal membrane to depolarization by decreasing flux of sodium ions in neurons.

    • D. 

      Blocks GABA uptake into presynaptic neurons

  • 131. 
    Which drug is the first choice for intial therapeutic treatment of seizure, especially in adults?
    • A. 

      Phenobarbitol

    • B. 

      Phenytoin

    • C. 

      Carbamazepine

    • D. 

      Valproid Acid

  • 132. 
    What may happen if you administer phenytoin to a pregnant woman?
    • A. 

      Spontaneous miscarriage

    • B. 

      Severe brain damage & hydrocephalus

    • C. 

      Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome

    • D. 

      Nothing, it has no teratogenic effects.

  • 133. 
    Which of the following is NOT true regarding Carbamazepine?
    • A. 

      Reduces propogation of abnormal electrical charge in the brain by blocking sodium channels.

    • B. 

      Used to treat trigeminal Neuralgia

    • C. 

      May induce liver toxicity

    • D. 

      Is a member of the benzodiazepine family

  • 134. 
    Which drug is the first choice in treating reccurrent seizures in children?
    • A. 

      Phenobarbitol

    • B. 

      Valproic Acid

    • C. 

      Primidone

    • D. 

      Ethosuximide

  • 135. 
    Which of the following seizure drugs is structurally related to phenobarbitol?
    • A. 

      Diazepam

    • B. 

      Primidone

    • C. 

      Ethosuximide

    • D. 

      Gabapentin

  • 136. 
    Which of the following would be your first choice in treating absense seizures?
    • A. 

      Valproic Acid

    • B. 

      Gabapentin

    • C. 

      Ethosuximide

    • D. 

      Topiramate

  • 137. 
    Valproid acid is most useful in treating which type of seizure?
    • A. 

      Myoclonic

    • B. 

      Absence

    • C. 

      Tonic-Clonic

    • D. 

      Partial

  • 138. 
    Primary Epilepsy is caused by a reversible disturbance, such as a tumor or head injury.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False