Otterbein/Grant CRNA Pharm Final Review

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1. Match the following
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About This Quiz
Otterbein/Grant CRNA Pharm Final Review - Quiz

The 'Otterbein\/Grant CRNA Pharm Final Review' quiz assesses knowledge on pharmacology relevant to anesthesia. It covers topics such as MAC of common agents, contraindications for induction agents in specific medical conditions, and the impact of drugs on the cardiovascular system and adrenal function.

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2. Kayexelate is indicated for ____________, it binds with potassium in exchange for sodium or calcium ions and is excreted via poops.

Explanation

Kayexelate is indicated for hyperkalemia, a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. It works by binding with potassium in exchange for sodium or calcium ions, which helps to lower the potassium levels in the body. Once bound, it is excreted through the stool, thereby aiding in the removal of excess potassium from the body.

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3. Match the following
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4. When redosing an induction agent you should use 10% of the original dose you gave.

Explanation

When redosing an induction agent, it is recommended to use 10% of the original dose that was given. This is because the initial dose of the induction agent is usually higher to achieve the desired effect quickly. Redosing with a smaller amount helps maintain the desired level of sedation or anesthesia without overdosing the patient. Using a smaller dose also allows for better control and adjustment of the medication as needed. Therefore, the statement "When redosing an induction agent you should use 10% of the original dose you gave" is true.

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5. Match the following
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6. Which drug is a centrally acting dopamine antagonist that causes selective GI cholinergic stimulation, increases LES/fundal smooth muscle tension, increases gastric & small intestine motility, relaxes pylorus/duodenum during contraction?

Explanation

Metoclopramide is a centrally acting dopamine antagonist that stimulates cholinergic receptors in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. It increases the tension of the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) and fundal smooth muscles, which helps prevent reflux. It also increases the motility of the gastric and small intestine, aiding in digestion. Additionally, metoclopramide relaxes the pylorus and duodenum during contraction, allowing for the smooth passage of food through the GI tract.

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7. Hypotension, bradycardia, dysrhythmias and akathisia (restlessness/uneasiness) are common side effects of Reglan.

Explanation

The statement is true because hypotension, bradycardia, dysrhythmias, and akathisia are indeed common side effects of Reglan. Hypotension refers to low blood pressure, bradycardia is a slow heart rate, dysrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms, and akathisia is a condition characterized by restlessness or uneasiness. These side effects can occur when taking Reglan, a medication commonly used to treat gastrointestinal issues such as acid reflux and gastroparesis. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side effects and discuss them with their healthcare provider.

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8. Match the following
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9. Local anesthetic toxicity symptoms:
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10. A, D, E, and K are the only fat soluble vitamins, therefore all other vitamins must be water soluble.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that fat soluble vitamins are only absorbed and stored in the body with the help of dietary fat. A, D, E, and K are the only vitamins that fall under this category. Since all other vitamins are not fat soluble, they must be water soluble, meaning they can dissolve in water and are easily absorbed and excreted by the body. Therefore, the statement is true.

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11. Locals
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12. Ancef is an example of a cephalosporin that is commonly used because it offers broad spectrum coverage and is inexpensive.

Explanation

Ancef is indeed an example of a cephalosporin that is commonly used. It is known for its broad spectrum coverage, meaning that it can effectively treat a wide range of bacterial infections. Additionally, it is also relatively inexpensive, making it a cost-effective choice for many healthcare providers. Therefore, the statement that Ancef offers broad spectrum coverage and is inexpensive is true.

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13. Parkinson's treatment consists of anticholinergic and _______ drugs.

Explanation

Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the brain. Dopaminergic drugs are used to increase the levels of dopamine in the brain, which helps to alleviate the symptoms of the disease. These drugs work by either replacing dopamine or by stimulating the dopamine receptors in the brain. Therefore, the use of dopaminergic drugs is a crucial part of the treatment for Parkinson's disease.

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14. Levodopa for Parkinson's treatment is associated with GI dysfunction, hypotension, dyskinesias, and psychosis.

Explanation

Levodopa, a medication commonly used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease, is indeed associated with various side effects. GI dysfunction refers to gastrointestinal problems such as nausea, vomiting, and constipation. Hypotension refers to low blood pressure, which can lead to dizziness and fainting. Dyskinesias are abnormal involuntary movements that can occur as a side effect of levodopa treatment. Lastly, psychosis, which includes symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, can also be a potential side effect of levodopa therapy. Therefore, the statement "Levodopa for Parkinson's treatment is associated with GI dysfunction, hypotension, dyskinesias, and psychosis" is true.

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15. Match the following
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16. Adrenergic agonists MOA
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17. Match the following
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18. Cocaine is special because it has vasoconstrictive properties related to its ability to block the reuptake of norepinephrine.

Explanation

Cocaine is indeed special because it has vasoconstrictive properties. This means that it can narrow or constrict blood vessels, leading to a decrease in blood flow. This property is related to its ability to block the reuptake of norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter involved in regulating blood vessel size. By blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, cocaine increases its levels in the body, causing vasoconstriction and various physiological effects. Therefore, the statement "Cocaine is special because it has vasoconstrictive properties related to its ability to block the reuptake of norepinephrine" is true.

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19. Match the following
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20. Systemic absorption of injected local anesthetics depends on the blood flow to the site.  IV>tracheal>intrapleural, intercostal>Caudal>paracervical>epidural>brachial plexus>subarachnoid,sciatic,femoral>subcutaneous

Explanation

Mnemonic=In Time I Can Please Everyone But Susie & Sally

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21. I can't remember what Greg believes is the most potent vasoconstrictor - angiotensin II??

Explanation

The given answer is true because angiotensin II is indeed considered to be one of the most potent vasoconstrictors. It is a hormone that constricts blood vessels, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Angiotensin II plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure and fluid balance in the body.

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22. Serotonin is an endogenous vasoactive autocoid.

Explanation

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is involved in various physiological processes, including the regulation of blood vessels. As an endogenous vasoactive autocoid, it means that serotonin is produced within the body and acts as a signaling molecule to regulate blood vessel constriction and dilation. This helps in maintaining blood pressure and blood flow to different tissues and organs. Therefore, the statement that serotonin is an endogenous vasoactive autocoid is true.

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23. Aldosterone secretion causes the reabsorption of Na+, the loss of hydrogen ions and which electrolyte?

Explanation

Aldosterone secretion causes the reabsorption of Na+ and the loss of hydrogen ions. This hormone also stimulates the reabsorption of potassium ions (K+) in the kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is K+.

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24. Angiotensin converting enzyme is responsible for the production of the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II as well as the destruction of the vasodilator bradykinin.  ACE inhibitors therefore prevent the production of angiotensin II and increase the amount of circulation bradykinin causing vasodilation.

Explanation

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) is responsible for the production of angiotensin II, which is a vasoconstrictor. ACE inhibitors work by blocking the action of ACE, thereby preventing the production of angiotensin II. This leads to vasodilation, or the widening of blood vessels, which helps to lower blood pressure. Additionally, ACE is also responsible for the destruction of bradykinin, which is a vasodilator. By inhibiting ACE, ACE inhibitors also increase the amount of circulating bradykinin, further promoting vasodilation. Therefore, the statement that ACE inhibitors prevent the production of angiotensin II and increase the amount of circulating bradykinin causing vasodilation is true.

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25. Prostaglandins cause bronchial muscle relaxation, uterus contraction, inhibit gastric acid secretion, and prevent platelet aggregation.

Explanation

Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that play a role in various physiological processes. They are known to cause bronchial muscle relaxation, which helps in widening the airways and facilitating breathing. Prostaglandins also stimulate uterine contractions during labor and delivery. Additionally, they inhibit gastric acid secretion, which can help in reducing stomach acid levels and preventing gastric ulcers. Lastly, prostaglandins prevent platelet aggregation, which is important for maintaining normal blood flow and preventing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the statement is true as prostaglandins do indeed cause all of these effects.

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26. It is okay for patients on monoamine oxidase inhibitors to receive ephedrine.

Explanation

NE is in abundance - will cause htn crisis

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27. The dose of sodium nitroprusside is 0.5-10 mcg/kg/min.  It can cause what type of toxicity if ran at high doses?

Explanation

Sodium nitroprusside, when administered at high doses, can cause cyanide toxicity. Cyanide is a highly toxic substance that inhibits cellular respiration by binding to cytochrome oxidase, preventing the utilization of oxygen by cells. Symptoms of cyanide toxicity include headache, confusion, dizziness, seizures, respiratory distress, and cardiac arrest. Prompt recognition and treatment are essential in managing cyanide toxicity.

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28. Which of the following induction agents is contraindicated with an intracranial hemorrhage?

Explanation

Increases CPP, CMRO2, ICP, and IOP

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29. Phenylephrine is a non-catecholamine predominantly ______ agonist.

Explanation

Phenylephrine is a non-catecholamine that primarily acts as an agonist on alpha1 adrenergic receptors. This means that it stimulates these receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure. Alpha1 agonists are commonly used to treat conditions such as nasal congestion, hypotension, and shock.

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30. Antiretrovirals can cause pancreatitis, lactic acidosis, and inhibition of cytochrome P-450 enzymes.

Explanation

Antiretrovirals, which are used to treat HIV, can indeed cause pancreatitis, lactic acidosis, and inhibition of cytochrome P-450 enzymes. Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas, lactic acidosis is a buildup of lactic acid in the body, and inhibition of cytochrome P-450 enzymes can affect the metabolism of other drugs. Therefore, the statement is true.

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31. Epinephrine _________ myocardial oxygen demand.

Explanation

Epinephrine increases myocardial oxygen demand. Epinephrine is a hormone that is released during times of stress or excitement. It acts on the heart by increasing heart rate and contractility, which in turn increases the amount of oxygen that the heart muscle needs to function properly. This increased demand for oxygen can be beneficial in certain situations, such as during exercise when the body needs more oxygen to meet the increased energy demands. However, in individuals with heart disease or other cardiac conditions, this increased demand for oxygen can be detrimental and may lead to chest pain or heart attack.

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32. Which steroid is commonly used to treat cerebral edema?

Explanation

Dexamethasone is commonly used to treat cerebral edema. It is a steroid that helps reduce inflammation and swelling in the brain, which can occur in conditions such as brain tumors, infections, or traumatic brain injury. Dexamethasone works by suppressing the immune response and reducing the release of substances that cause inflammation. This helps to alleviate the symptoms of cerebral edema and improve the patient's condition.

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33. Beta blockers are generally avoided in asthmatics due to the potential to trigger severe asthma attacks.

Explanation

Beta blockers are medications that can block the effects of adrenaline, which can cause bronchial constriction and narrowing of the airways. This can be particularly dangerous for individuals with asthma, as it can potentially trigger severe asthma attacks. Therefore, it is generally recommended to avoid using beta blockers in asthmatics to minimize the risk of exacerbating their condition.

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34. An allergy to penicillins implies an 8% likelihood of an allergy to:

Explanation

An allergy to penicillins implies an 8% likelihood of an allergy to cephalosporins (ancef). This means that there is a relatively high chance of cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins, as both are beta-lactam antibiotics and have a similar chemical structure. However, there is no significant evidence to suggest a similar cross-reactivity with aminoglycosides, antivirals, or vancomycin. Therefore, the correct answer is cephalosporins (ancef).

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35. Which medication was originally advertised as an antiepileptic but is now commonly used to manage neuropathic pain?

Explanation

Gabapentin was originally advertised as an antiepileptic medication but is now commonly used to manage neuropathic pain. It works by reducing the abnormal electrical activity in the brain that can cause seizures, and also helps to relieve nerve pain by affecting certain chemicals in the brain and nerves that are involved in pain signals.

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36. Which of the following antimuscarinics crosses the BBB?

Explanation

Atropine is able to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB), allowing it to exert its effects on the central nervous system. This is due to its lipophilic nature, which enables it to pass through the lipid-rich barrier. On the other hand, glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound, which means it carries a positive charge and is therefore unable to cross the BBB. Hence, atropine is the correct answer as it is the antimuscarinic that can penetrate the BBB.

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37. Levobupivacaine is the isomer of bupivacaine that is less cardiotoxic.

Explanation

Ropivacaine is mentioned in the ppt to have less cardiotoxicity than bupivacaine - it is "the propyl analogue of, bupivacaine having a butyl group in the same position."

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38. Methyldopa, clonidine, and dexmedetomidine are all _______ agonists, they are considered to be sympatholytic, abrupt discontinuation can cause acute withdrawal syndrome leading to hypertensive crisis.

Explanation

Methyldopa, clonidine, and dexmedetomidine are all alpha 2 agonists. Alpha 2 agonists work by stimulating alpha 2 adrenergic receptors in the body, leading to a decrease in sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system. This results in a decrease in sympathetic activity and a reduction in blood pressure. These drugs are considered sympatholytic because they inhibit the release of norepinephrine, which is responsible for activating the sympathetic nervous system. Abrupt discontinuation of alpha 2 agonists can cause acute withdrawal syndrome, which can lead to a sudden increase in sympathetic activity and hypertensive crisis.

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39. Deficiencies in ______ acid cause neural tube defect in utero.

Explanation

Deficiencies in folic acid can lead to neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Folic acid is crucial for the proper development of the neural tube, which eventually becomes the brain and spinal cord. Insufficient levels of folic acid during pregnancy can result in incomplete closure of the neural tube, leading to conditions such as spina bifida or anencephaly. It is therefore important for pregnant women to ensure an adequate intake of folic acid through diet or supplements to prevent these defects.

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40. With epinephrine added, the max dose of lidocaine and mepivacaine are both _ mg/kg.

Explanation

With epinephrine added, the maximum dose of lidocaine and mepivacaine is both 7 mg/kg.

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41. HITT stands for __________ induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis caused by drug induced platelet aggregation.

Explanation

HITT stands for heparin induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis caused by drug induced platelet aggregation. Heparin is a medication commonly used as an anticoagulant to prevent blood clots. However, in some individuals, heparin can cause an immune response that leads to a decrease in platelet count (thrombocytopenia) and the formation of blood clots (thrombosis). This condition is known as HITT. It is important to identify and manage HITT promptly to prevent serious complications.

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42. Aldosterone, desoxycorticosterone, cortisol (hydrocortisone), corticosterone, and cortisone are endogenous corticosteroids.

Explanation

The statement is true because aldosterone, desoxycorticosterone, cortisol (hydrocortisone), corticosterone, and cortisone are indeed endogenous corticosteroids. These hormones are produced naturally in the body by the adrenal glands and play important roles in regulating various physiological processes, including salt and water balance, metabolism, and immune responses.

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43. Which of the following induction agents is associated with adrenal corticoid suppression and should be used cautiously or avoided with patients on chronic steroids/Addison's disease?

Explanation

Etomidate is associated with adrenal corticoid suppression and should be used cautiously or avoided with patients on chronic steroids/Addison's disease. This is because etomidate inhibits the production of cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands. Patients with chronic steroid use or Addison's disease already have compromised adrenal function, and the use of etomidate can further suppress cortisol production, leading to adrenal insufficiency. Therefore, it is important to exercise caution and consider alternative induction agents in these patients to prevent adrenal crisis.

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44. Patients with end stage renal disease do not need reduced dosing for benzodiazepines or morphine.

Explanation

Patients with end stage renal disease do need reduced dosing for benzodiazepines or morphine. This is because their kidneys are not functioning properly, leading to a decreased ability to eliminate these medications from the body. Therefore, lower doses are required to prevent potential toxicity or adverse effects.

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45. Gingko, ginseng, and garlic are all associated with?

Explanation

Gingko, ginseng, and garlic are all associated with bleeding. These three substances have anticoagulant properties, meaning they can thin the blood and increase the risk of bleeding. They can interfere with blood clotting mechanisms and may interact with certain medications, such as blood thinners, leading to excessive bleeding. It is important to be cautious when using these substances, especially before surgeries or if already taking medications that affect blood clotting.

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46. Which of the following antimuscarinics do NOT cross the placenta?

Explanation

Glycopyrrolate is the correct answer because it is a quaternary ammonium compound that does not easily cross the placenta due to its large molecular size and positive charge. This makes it a safer choice during pregnancy compared to atropine, which is a tertiary amine and can cross the placenta more readily.

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47. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to prevent cerebral vasospasms because it is the only Ca++ channel blocker that crosses the BBB.

Explanation

Nimodipine

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48. Which of the following would you NOT consider using for treating a hypertensive crisis intraoperatively?

Explanation

Dobutamine is a medication that is primarily used to increase cardiac output in patients with heart failure. It works by stimulating the heart to beat more forcefully. However, in the context of a hypertensive crisis, where blood pressure is dangerously high, the goal is to lower blood pressure. Therefore, using dobutamine, which can increase blood pressure, would not be appropriate in this situation.

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49. H2 receptors relax bronchial smooth muscles, therefore patients on H2 antagonists are at an increased risk for bronchial constriction. 

Explanation

H2 receptors are found in the bronchial smooth muscles, and when these receptors are activated by H2 antagonists, they cause relaxation of the muscles. This relaxation can lead to bronchial constriction, which is a narrowing of the airways. Therefore, patients on H2 antagonists are indeed at an increased risk for bronchial constriction.

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50. The addition of epinephrine to a local anesthetic leads to vessel vasoconstriction and _______ absorption/metabolism of the local anesthetic.

Explanation

The addition of epinephrine to a local anesthetic leads to vessel vasoconstriction, which means that the blood vessels in the area constrict or narrow. This constriction reduces blood flow to the area, resulting in less absorption and metabolism of the local anesthetic. As a result, the anesthetic stays in the area for a longer duration, providing prolonged pain relief.

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51. Insulin is metabolized by the liver and the:

Explanation

Insulin is primarily metabolized by the liver, but a small portion is also metabolized by the kidneys. The kidneys play a role in the elimination of insulin from the body. They filter the blood and excrete any excess or unused insulin through urine. While the liver is the main organ responsible for insulin metabolism, the kidneys also contribute to its elimination.

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52. Tachycardia, confusion, and hypertension are symptoms of ____________ that can be masked by general anesthesia.

Explanation

Tachycardia, confusion, and hypertension are symptoms commonly associated with hypoglycemia, a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels. During general anesthesia, these symptoms can be masked or go unnoticed, making it important for healthcare professionals to monitor blood sugar levels closely in order to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia, or high blood sugar levels, is not associated with these symptoms and therefore is not the correct answer. Cancer and GERD are unrelated to the symptoms mentioned and are therefore not the correct answer.

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53. Which of the following are the naturally occuring adrenergic agonists?

Explanation

Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are naturally occurring adrenergic agonists. Adrenergic agonists are substances that activate adrenergic receptors in the sympathetic nervous system, leading to various physiological responses. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is released by the adrenal glands and plays a role in the "fight or flight" response. Norepinephrine, also known as noradrenaline, is a neurotransmitter that is released by sympathetic nerve endings. Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that has various functions in the brain and body. These three substances have adrenergic effects and can bind to adrenergic receptors to stimulate the sympathetic nervous system.

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54. What stimulates renin secretion?

Explanation

Decreased renal perfusion refers to a reduction in blood flow to the kidneys. When the kidneys sense a decrease in blood flow, they release renin, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure. Renin acts on angiotensinogen to convert it into angiotensin I, which is further converted to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction and stimulates the release of aldosterone, leading to increased blood volume and blood pressure. Therefore, decreased renal perfusion stimulates renin secretion as a compensatory mechanism to restore blood pressure.

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55. Many antiepileptic drugs work by ______ GABA-mediated neuronal inhibiton.

Explanation

Many antiepileptic drugs work by enhancing GABA-mediated neuronal inhibition. GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, meaning it helps to reduce neuronal activity. By enhancing the effects of GABA, these drugs can further suppress the excessive neuronal activity that occurs during seizures, helping to prevent or reduce the frequency and severity of epileptic episodes.

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56. The lower the pKa of a local anesthetic, the faster the onset of action will be, with the only exception being chloroprocaine which has a high pKa but a rapid onset.

Explanation

The explanation for the given correct answer is that the pKa of a local anesthetic determines its ability to penetrate the nerve membrane and become ionized, which affects its onset of action. A lower pKa means that the anesthetic is more likely to be in its non-ionized form, allowing it to easily cross the nerve membrane and reach its target site. This results in a faster onset of action. However, chloroprocaine is an exception to this rule. Despite having a high pKa, it still has a rapid onset of action due to its unique chemical properties.

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57. Antiepileptic medications _______ hepatic enzymes such as P-450.

Explanation

Antiepileptic medications have the ability to increase the activity of hepatic enzymes such as P-450. This means that they enhance the metabolism of other drugs and substances in the liver, leading to a faster breakdown and elimination from the body. As a result, the effectiveness of these other drugs may be reduced when taken concomitantly with antiepileptic medications. This induction of hepatic enzymes is an important consideration in the management of drug interactions and dosing adjustments for patients on antiepileptic therapy.

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58. Local anesthetics that are more lipid soluble also tend to have a higher degree of protein binding.  Local anesthetics bind mostly to:

Explanation

Local anesthetics that are more lipid soluble tend to have a higher degree of protein binding. In this case, the correct answer is Alpha 1-acid glycoproteins. This means that local anesthetics with higher lipid solubility have a greater affinity for binding to Alpha 1-acid glycoproteins rather than albumin.

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59. The duration of action is ________ for local anesthetics that exhibit the greatest protein binding and the highest lipid solubility. 

Explanation

Local anesthetics that exhibit the greatest protein binding and highest lipid solubility have a longer duration of action. This is because these properties allow the anesthetic to stay bound to proteins and remain within the lipid-rich environment for a longer period of time, resulting in a slower release and metabolism of the drug. As a result, the effects of the anesthetic are prolonged, leading to a longer duration of action.

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60. Toradol is safe to use on patients with a history of asthma.

Explanation

NSAID-induced bronchospasms appear to be caused by the inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1); this in turn activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which eventually increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs) that induces bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.

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61. Antacids lower gastric pH by neutralizing acid.

Explanation

Antacids are medications that work by neutralizing stomach acid, therefore lowering gastric pH. This helps to relieve symptoms of acid reflux, heartburn, and indigestion. By neutralizing the acid, antacids can provide temporary relief and reduce the acidity in the stomach. This is why the statement "Antacids lower gastric pH by neutralizing acid" is true.

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62. Which of the following agents should be avoiding in patients with coronary artery disease, uncontrolled HTN, or CHF due to its ability to increase myocardial workload?

Explanation

Ketamine should be avoided in patients with coronary artery disease, uncontrolled hypertension, or congestive heart failure due to its ability to increase myocardial workload. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that can cause an increase in heart rate and blood pressure, leading to increased myocardial oxygen demand. This can be dangerous in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular conditions as it may exacerbate their symptoms and potentially lead to cardiovascular complications. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid using ketamine in these patients to minimize the risk of cardiovascular events.

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63. Carbidopa and benserazide ______ the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine via decarboxylase.

Explanation

Carbidopa and benserazide inhibit the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine via decarboxylase. This means that they prevent the breakdown of levodopa into dopamine in the periphery, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted into dopamine there. By inhibiting this metabolism, carbidopa and benserazide enhance the effectiveness of levodopa in treating conditions such as Parkinson's disease.

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64. Patients taking MAOI's should not be treated with ________ acting adrenergic agonists due to the potential for a hypertensive crisis.

Explanation

Patients taking MAOI's should not be treated with indirect-acting adrenergic agonists due to the potential for a hypertensive crisis. MAOI's inhibit the breakdown of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin, leading to an accumulation of these neurotransmitters. Indirect-acting adrenergic agonists, such as tyramine, can displace norepinephrine from storage sites and cause a sudden release of norepinephrine, leading to a dangerous increase in blood pressure. Direct-acting adrenergic agonists, on the other hand, directly stimulate adrenergic receptors and do not rely on the release of norepinephrine, making them safer to use in patients taking MAOI's.

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65. The addition of sodium bicarbonate to the local will________ the pH of the LA and therefore increase the amount of drug in the nonionized form.

Explanation

When sodium bicarbonate is added to the local anesthetic (LA), it acts as a buffer and increases the pH of the solution. This increase in pH shifts the equilibrium of the LA towards the nonionized form. The nonionized form of the drug is more lipophilic and can easily cross cell membranes, leading to an increased amount of drug available for action. Therefore, the addition of sodium bicarbonate increases the amount of drug in the nonionized form, ultimately enhancing its effectiveness.

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66. Synthetic steroids are administered for their ______________ effects:

Explanation

Synthetic steroids are administered for their glucocorticoid effects. Glucocorticoids are a class of steroid hormones that have anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. They regulate glucose metabolism, suppress the immune system, and reduce inflammation. Synthetic glucocorticoids, such as prednisone or dexamethasone, are commonly used in the treatment of various conditions, including allergies, asthma, autoimmune disorders, and certain types of cancer. They mimic the effects of natural glucocorticoids produced by the adrenal glands, helping to reduce inflammation and control the body's immune response.

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67. Epinephrine utilizes dosing for effect and can stimulate all of the following receptors except:

Explanation

Epinephrine is a medication that acts as a sympathomimetic by stimulating adrenergic receptors. It primarily targets alpha1, beta1, and beta2 receptors, leading to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation respectively. However, it does not directly stimulate alpha2 receptors. Alpha2 receptors are inhibitory autoreceptors that regulate the release of norepinephrine, and epinephrine does not have a significant affinity for these receptors. Therefore, epinephrine does not utilize dosing for effect on alpha2 receptors.

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68. Which of the following induction agents has minimal effects on the cardiovascular system, usually not changing contractility or cardiac output, and also does not usually result in apnea unless opioids have also been administered?

Explanation

Etomidate is the correct answer because it is known to have minimal effects on the cardiovascular system. It typically does not change contractility or cardiac output, making it a suitable choice for patients with cardiovascular concerns. Additionally, it usually does not result in apnea unless opioids have also been administered, further highlighting its safety profile.

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69. A _______ selective blocker are preferred for COPD and PVD.

Explanation

Beta1 selective blockers are preferred for COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) and PVD (Peripheral Vascular Disease). This is because beta1 selective blockers primarily target the beta1 adrenergic receptors found in the heart, while having minimal effect on the beta2 adrenergic receptors found in the lungs and blood vessels. By selectively blocking beta1 receptors, these medications can help manage conditions like COPD and PVD without exacerbating respiratory symptoms or causing vasoconstriction in the peripheral blood vessels.

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70. Which of the following is a selective beta1 antagonist?

Explanation

Esmolol is a selective beta1 antagonist because it specifically targets and blocks beta1 adrenergic receptors in the heart. This selective action allows it to primarily affect the heart, reducing heart rate and contractility, without significantly affecting beta2 receptors in other tissues. Labetolol and propanolol, on the other hand, are non-selective beta blockers that block both beta1 and beta2 receptors, leading to broader effects on the body.

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71. The most common complication of antimicrobial use is:

Explanation

Pseudomembranous colitis is the most common complication of antimicrobial use. This condition is caused by the overgrowth of a bacteria called Clostridium difficile in the colon, which produces toxins that damage the lining of the colon. Symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis include severe diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. It is important to note that "poops" is not a medical term, but it is likely used here to describe the symptom of diarrhea associated with this condition.

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72. Which of the following non-selectively blocks beta1 and beta2 receptors?

Explanation

Propranolol is the correct answer because it is a non-selective beta blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. This means that it can affect the heart (beta1) as well as other organs such as the lungs (beta2). Esmolol is a selective beta1 blocker, meaning it primarily targets beta1 receptors in the heart. Labetolol, on the other hand, is a non-selective beta blocker but it also has alpha-blocking properties, making it a better choice for conditions that involve both beta and alpha receptor blockade.

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73. Pravastatin, pitavastatin, and rosuvastatin are _____ protein bound statins.

Explanation

Pravastatin, pitavastatin, and rosuvastatin are the least protein bound statins. This means that a smaller percentage of these drugs will bind to proteins in the blood compared to other statins. As a result, these statins may have a higher level of free, unbound drug available to exert their pharmacological effects.

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74. This class of medications halts secretion of HCl by gastric parietal cells by blocking the function of hydrogen ion pumps, increasing gastric fluid pH and decreased gastric fluid volume.  They do cross the BBB, and may cause abdominal pain and N/V

Explanation

Proton pump inhibitors are a class of medications that work by blocking the function of hydrogen ion pumps in gastric parietal cells. This action stops the secretion of hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach, leading to an increase in gastric fluid pH and a decrease in gastric fluid volume. Proton pump inhibitors are able to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB), which means they can affect the central nervous system. They are associated with side effects such as abdominal pain and nausea/vomiting.

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75. Which receptor antagonists are used for signs and symptoms of allergic rhinitis?

Explanation

H1 receptor antagonists are used for signs and symptoms of allergic rhinitis because they block the action of histamine at the H1 receptor, which is responsible for causing allergic symptoms such as sneezing, itching, and nasal congestion. By blocking the H1 receptor, these antagonists help to alleviate the symptoms of allergic rhinitis. H2 and H3 receptor antagonists are not typically used for allergic rhinitis as they are involved in different physiological processes and are not directly related to allergic symptoms.

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76. The lifespan of dopa/norepi
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77. __________ is an alpha and beta receptor antagonist that reduces BP w/o reflex tachycardia due to its combined receptor effects, it has a ratio of 1:7 alpha to beta blockade.

Explanation

Labetolol is a medication that acts as an antagonist for both alpha and beta receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of these receptors, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Unlike other medications in its class, labetolol does not cause reflex tachycardia, which is an increase in heart rate that can occur as a compensatory response to a drop in blood pressure. This is due to its combined effects on both alpha and beta receptors. Labetolol has a ratio of 1:7 alpha to beta blockade, meaning it has a stronger effect on alpha receptors compared to beta receptors.

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78. Match the following
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79. Intraoperative treatment
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80. Cocaine and amphetamines are examples _______ adrenergic agonists.

Explanation

Amphetamines are resistant to MAO while cocaine decreases the reuptake of NE

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81. Match the following
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82. Histamine receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine.

Explanation

Block the receptors on effector cell membranes

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83. H2 receptor antagonists _______ the clearance of lidocaine, procainamide, meperidine, propanolol, theophylline, nifedipine, and warfarin.

Explanation

Inhibits P-450 enzyme function

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84. MAC of common agents
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85. Match the following
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86. Dopamine
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87. Kallidin and bradykinin are plasma kinins which are the most potent endogenous vasoconstrictors known.

Explanation

Most potent endogenous vasodilators**

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88. Metformin is associated with lactic acidosis and should be discontinued how many hours pre-operatively?

Explanation

Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes. It can lead to a rare but serious side effect called lactic acidosis, which is the buildup of lactic acid in the body. Lactic acidosis can be exacerbated by certain medical procedures, such as surgery, due to the stress it puts on the body. Therefore, it is recommended to discontinue metformin 48 hours before surgery to minimize the risk of lactic acidosis.

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89. Injecting a LA into an infected site will generally _______ the onset of action.

Explanation

Injecting a local anesthetic (LA) into an infected site can cause the onset of action to be prolonged or delayed. This is because the infection can alter the pH and blood flow in the area, affecting the absorption and distribution of the LA. As a result, the LA may take longer to reach its target and exert its numbing effect, thus lengthening the onset of action.

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90. Which synthetic steroid has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid effects?

Explanation

Prednisolone is the correct answer because it is a synthetic steroid that has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid effects. Glucocorticoids are involved in the regulation of glucose metabolism and have anti-inflammatory effects, while mineralocorticoids regulate electrolyte and water balance. Prednisolone has both of these effects, making it a suitable choice for conditions where both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid effects are needed. Methylprednisolone, dexamethasone, and betamethasone are also synthetic steroids, but they do not have mineralocorticoid effects.

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91. Match the following
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92. Max dosing without epi:
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Match the following
Kayexelate is indicated for ____________, it binds with potassium in...
Match the following
When redosing an induction agent you should use 10% of the original...
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Which drug is a centrally acting dopamine antagonist that causes...
Hypotension, bradycardia, dysrhythmias and akathisia...
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Local anesthetic toxicity symptoms:
A, D, E, and K are the only fat soluble vitamins, therefore all other...
Locals
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Levodopa for Parkinson's treatment is associated with GI...
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Adrenergic agonists MOA
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Cocaine is special because it has vasoconstrictive properties related...
Match the following
Systemic absorption of injected local anesthetics depends on the blood...
I can't remember what Greg believes is the most potent...
Serotonin is an endogenous vasoactive autocoid.
Aldosterone secretion causes the reabsorption of Na+, the loss of...
Angiotensin converting enzyme is responsible for the production of the...
Prostaglandins cause bronchial muscle relaxation, uterus contraction,...
It is okay for patients on monoamine oxidase inhibitors to receive...
The dose of sodium nitroprusside is 0.5-10 mcg/kg/min.  It can...
Which of the following induction agents is contraindicated with an...
Phenylephrine is a non-catecholamine predominantly ______ agonist.
Antiretrovirals can cause pancreatitis, lactic acidosis, and...
Epinephrine _________ myocardial oxygen demand.
Which steroid is commonly used to treat cerebral edema?
Beta blockers are generally avoided in asthmatics due to the potential...
An allergy to penicillins implies an 8% likelihood of an allergy to:
Which medication was originally advertised as an antiepileptic but is...
Which of the following antimuscarinics crosses the BBB?
Levobupivacaine is the isomer of bupivacaine that is less cardiotoxic.
Methyldopa, clonidine, and dexmedetomidine are all _______ agonists,...
Deficiencies in ______ acid cause neural tube defect in utero.
With epinephrine added, the max dose of lidocaine and mepivacaine are...
HITT stands for __________ induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis...
Aldosterone, desoxycorticosterone, cortisol (hydrocortisone),...
Which of the following induction agents is associated with adrenal...
Patients with end stage renal disease do not need reduced dosing for...
Gingko, ginseng, and garlic are all associated with?
Which of the following antimuscarinics do NOT cross the placenta?
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to prevent cerebral...
Which of the following would you NOT consider using for treating a...
H2 receptors relax bronchial smooth muscles, therefore patients on H2...
The addition of epinephrine to a local anesthetic leads to vessel...
Insulin is metabolized by the liver and the:
Tachycardia, confusion, and hypertension are symptoms of ____________...
Which of the following are the naturally occuring adrenergic agonists?
What stimulates renin secretion?
Many antiepileptic drugs work by ______ GABA-mediated neuronal...
The lower the pKa of a local anesthetic, the faster the onset of...
Antiepileptic medications _______ hepatic enzymes such as P-450.
Local anesthetics that are more lipid soluble also tend to have a...
The duration of action is ________ for local anesthetics that exhibit...
Toradol is safe to use on patients with a history of asthma.
Antacids lower gastric pH by neutralizing acid.
Which of the following agents should be avoiding in patients with...
Carbidopa and benserazide ______ the peripheral metabolism of levodopa...
Patients taking MAOI's should not be treated with ________ acting...
The addition of sodium bicarbonate to the local will________ the pH of...
Synthetic steroids are administered for their ______________ effects:
Epinephrine utilizes dosing for effect and can stimulate all of the...
Which of the following induction agents has minimal effects on the...
A _______ selective blocker are preferred for COPD and PVD.
Which of the following is a selective beta1 antagonist?
The most common complication of antimicrobial use is:
Which of the following non-selectively blocks beta1 and beta2...
Pravastatin, pitavastatin, and rosuvastatin are _____ protein bound...
This class of medications halts secretion of HCl by gastric parietal...
Which receptor antagonists are used for signs and symptoms of allergic...
The lifespan of dopa/norepi
__________ is an alpha and beta receptor antagonist that reduces BP...
Match the following
Intraoperative treatment
Cocaine and amphetamines are examples _______ adrenergic agonists.
Match the following
Histamine receptor antagonists inhibit the release of histamine.
H2 receptor antagonists _______ the clearance of lidocaine,...
MAC of common agents
Match the following
Dopamine
Kallidin and bradykinin are plasma kinins which are the most potent...
Metformin is associated with lactic acidosis and should be...
Injecting a LA into an infected site will generally _______ the onset...
Which synthetic steroid has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid...
Match the following
Max dosing without epi:
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