Association Of Surgical Tech

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1. Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?

Explanation

The Gram stain is a laboratory test used to determine bacterial identification. It involves staining bacteria with crystal violet dye, followed by iodine, alcohol, and safranin. This staining process helps to differentiate bacteria into two groups: Gram-positive (which retain the purple dye) and Gram-negative (which lose the purple dye and take on the red dye). This test is widely used in microbiology to identify and classify bacteria based on their cell wall composition, which is crucial for determining appropriate treatment options.

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About This Quiz
Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

This quiz, titled 'Association of Surgical Tech,' evaluates knowledge on surgical procedures and technologies. It covers topics like wound classifications, surgical incisions, and equipment handling, essential for professionals... see morein surgical technology. see less

2. Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patients ID bracelet?

Explanation

It is appropriate to never remove a patient's ID bracelet until they are discharged from the facility because the ID bracelet serves as a crucial form of identification for the patient. It helps ensure accurate patient identification, prevents medical errors, and ensures patient safety. Removing the ID bracelet before discharge can lead to confusion, misidentification, and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to keep the ID bracelet on the patient at all times until they leave the facility.

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3. Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of risk is a/an:

Explanation

Informed consent refers to the permission given by a patient for a medical treatment or procedure after being fully informed of the potential risks and benefits associated with it. It ensures that the patient has a clear understanding of the treatment and can make an informed decision about their healthcare. This concept is essential in medical ethics and legal practice to protect the rights and autonomy of patients.

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4. Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?

Explanation

The anesthesia provider determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU because they are responsible for monitoring the patient's vital signs, managing pain and anesthesia, and ensuring the patient's safety and stability during the transition. They have the expertise to assess the patient's condition and determine if they are ready for transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit.

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5. Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?

Explanation

Standard Precautions is a set of infection control practices that healthcare providers use to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. It includes the use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves, masks, and gowns), proper hand hygiene, safe injection practices, and the proper handling and disposal of blood and body fluids. Therefore, it is the regulation that states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious.

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6. Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the OR?

Explanation

Separation anxiety is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the OR. Young children at this age often experience anxiety and fear when separated from their parents or caregivers, especially in unfamiliar environments like the operating room. This fear of separation can lead to increased distress, crying, and resistance during transportation, making the overall experience more challenging for both the child and the healthcare providers involved.

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7. Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?

Explanation

Formalin is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens. It is a solution of formaldehyde gas in water, and it helps to prevent decomposition of tissues by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and fungi. Formalin also helps to maintain the structural integrity of the tissues, allowing them to be stored for longer periods of time without degradation. It is widely used in histology laboratories for the preservation of tissue samples before they are processed and examined under a microscope.

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8. The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:

Explanation

Heparin is used as an agent to flush an artery in order to prevent clotting. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps to prevent the formation of blood clots. It works by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors in the blood. This flushing process helps to maintain the patency of the artery and prevent any blockages or clot formation that could impede blood flow. Thrombin is not used as a flushing agent but rather as a clotting factor. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin if necessary. Ringer's lactate is a solution used for fluid resuscitation and not specifically for preventing clotting.

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9. What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?

Explanation

The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is lateral. This position involves the patient lying on their side with the surgical site facing up. This position provides optimal access to the kidney and allows the surgeon to perform the procedure with ease. It also helps in minimizing the risk of complications and allows for better visualization of the surgical field.

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10. How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

Explanation

In cases where an adult patient is illiterate, they may not be able to sign their name to provide informed consent for surgery. Instead, the patient can mark with an "X" as a signature, indicating their agreement. A witness is then required to verify that the mark was made by the patient themselves. This ensures that the patient's consent is documented and acknowledged, even if they are unable to read or write.

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11. Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:

Explanation

Low level disinfectants are effective in killing most microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, they are not able to destroy spores. Spores are highly resistant structures produced by certain microorganisms that can withstand harsh conditions and remain dormant until favorable conditions arise. Due to their unique protective layers, spores are more resistant to disinfection and require high-level disinfectants or sterilization methods to be destroyed. Therefore, low level disinfectants are not effective against spores.

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12. Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

Explanation

The suffix "-centesis" means surgical puncture to remove fluid. This can be seen in medical terms such as amniocentesis (puncture of the amniotic sac to remove fluid for testing) and thoracentesis (puncture of the chest to remove fluid from the pleural cavity). It is used to describe a procedure in which a needle or other instrument is inserted into a body cavity or organ to drain or remove fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

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13. Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?

Explanation

Curved Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues such as fascia. Fascia is a connective tissue that surrounds muscles, organs, and other structures in the body. It is a dense and fibrous tissue that requires a strong and sharp instrument like curved Mayo scissors for precise cutting. In contrast, periosteum is the tissue covering the bones, dura mater is the tough outermost membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and arterial wall is the thick layer of tissue in blood vessels. These tissues do not typically require curved Mayo scissors for cutting.

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14. Syndactyly refers to:

Explanation

Syndactyly refers to the condition where two or more fingers or toes are fused together, resulting in webbed fingers or toes. This occurs due to incomplete separation during fetal development. It is a congenital anomaly that can vary in severity, with some individuals having partial fusion and others having complete fusion of the digits. Syndactyly can affect one or both hands or feet and may require surgical intervention to separate the fused digits, depending on the functional and cosmetic concerns.

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15. Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?

Explanation

Pfannenstiel is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen that is commonly used in gynecological surgery. It is preferred over midline or paramedian incisions because it provides better cosmetic results and reduces the risk of herniation. McBurney's incision, on the other hand, is a muscle-splitting incision used for appendectomy.

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16. Which microbes live without oxygen?

Explanation

Anaerobes are the microbes that can live without oxygen. They are able to survive and thrive in environments with little to no oxygen. These organisms have adapted to obtain energy through alternative metabolic pathways that do not require oxygen. Some examples of anaerobes include certain bacteria, archaea, and fungi. They play important roles in various ecological processes, such as decomposition and fermentation.

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17. Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?

Explanation

Laser is the correct answer because it is a thermal method of hemostasis that utilizes intense, focused light. Laser light can be precisely directed to target specific tissues and coagulate blood vessels, making it an effective tool for achieving hemostasis during surgical procedures. The intense, focused light energy of the laser can generate heat, which can then be used to cauterize or seal off blood vessels, preventing bleeding and promoting wound healing.

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18. The primary function of the gallbladder is to:

Explanation

The gallbladder's primary function is to store bile. Bile is produced by the liver and is necessary for the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed for the digestion of fatty foods. When fatty foods are consumed, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine, where it helps break down fats into smaller molecules that can be easily absorbed by the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "Store bile."

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19. Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?

Explanation

A fistula is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends. It can occur in various parts of the body, such as the digestive system, urinary system, or reproductive system. Fistulas can be caused by infections, trauma, or underlying medical conditions. They can lead to symptoms such as drainage of fluid or pus, pain, and inflammation. Treatment for fistulas often involves addressing the underlying cause and may include medication, surgery, or other interventions.

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20. What is the action of antagonist drugs?

Explanation

Antagonist drugs work by counteracting the action of another drug. This means that they bind to specific receptors in the body and block the effects of another drug or substance, preventing it from exerting its intended action. By doing so, antagonist drugs can be used to reverse the effects of certain medications or substances, or to treat drug overdoses. They essentially act as inhibitors or blockers, preventing the target drug or substance from producing its desired effects.

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21. The islets of Langerhans secrete:

Explanation

The islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that are responsible for producing and releasing hormones, including insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It plays a crucial role in maintaining normal blood sugar levels and preventing hyperglycemia. Without insulin, the body cannot effectively use glucose for energy, leading to diabetes. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin.

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22. What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?

Explanation

The correct answer is supine. Supine position refers to lying flat on the back with face up. This position is commonly used for mitral valve replacement surgery because it provides optimal access to the heart and allows for better visualization and manipulation of the mitral valve. It also allows the surgeon to easily connect the patient to the heart-lung bypass machine if needed during the procedure.

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23. Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?

Explanation

Otoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to correct a congenital deformity of the ear. It involves reshaping or repositioning the ear in order to improve its appearance or correct any abnormalities. This procedure is commonly done to address issues such as protruding or misshapen ears, and it can greatly enhance a person's self-confidence and overall facial harmony.

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24. What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?

Explanation

An acute disease is characterized by a rapid onset, meaning it develops quickly, and a rapid recovery, meaning the symptoms improve quickly. This type of disease typically lasts for a short duration and can be severe. Examples of acute diseases include the common cold, flu, and acute appendicitis. Chronic diseases, on the other hand, develop slowly and have a long-lasting or permanent nature. Primary and asymptomatic are not relevant to the description of a disease characterized by rapid onset and recovery.

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25. To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?

Explanation

The appendix is attached to the cecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. It is a small, finger-like pouch that extends from the cecum. The cecum is located in the lower right side of the abdomen, where the small intestine connects to the large intestine. The appendix plays a role in the immune system and the exact function is still not completely understood.

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26. When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:

Explanation

Perforated metal trays should be positioned flat on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart. This is because placing them flat ensures that the steam can circulate evenly around the items being sterilized, allowing for effective sterilization. If the trays were placed upside down or at an angle, it could impede the flow of steam and result in uneven sterilization. Therefore, positioning the trays flat is the correct way to ensure proper sterilization.

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27. Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

Explanation

Biological monitors provide positive assurance of sterility because they contain live spores that are highly resistant to sterilization processes. These spores are placed in the sterilizer alongside the items being sterilized and are then incubated to determine if any viable spores survive. If no growth is observed after incubation, it confirms that the sterilization process was successful and the items are considered sterile. This method provides a direct and reliable indication of sterilization effectiveness, making biological monitors the most accurate option for ensuring sterility.

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28. What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

Explanation

The three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure are time, shielding, and distance. Time refers to the amount of time spent in the presence of radiation, as shorter exposure times can reduce the overall dose received. Shielding involves using barriers such as lead aprons or walls to block or absorb the radiation. Distance refers to increasing the distance between the source of radiation and the individual, as radiation intensity decreases with distance. By considering these factors and implementing appropriate measures, the exposure to ionizing radiation can be minimized.

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29. Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?

Explanation

Circumferential is the correct answer because it describes a type of skin prep that involves cleaning and disinfecting the entire circumference of an extremity. This term suggests that the prep is done in a circular or wrapping motion, covering all sides of the extremity. Spiral, horizontal, and longitudinal do not accurately describe the type of skin prep for an entire extremity.

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30. What incision is also known as a lower oblique?

Explanation

The incision that is also known as a lower oblique is the inguinal incision. This incision is made in the groin area and is commonly used for procedures involving the lower abdomen, such as hernia repairs. It is called "lower oblique" because it is made diagonally across the lower part of the abdomen, following the natural creases of the skin. The inguinal incision provides good access to the inguinal canal and allows for easier visualization and manipulation of structures in the lower abdomen.

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31. Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

Explanation

clean-contaminated procedures include those when the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes. The procedure is considered clean, not sterile.

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32. The larynx is located between the:

Explanation

The larynx, commonly known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system and is located between the pharynx and trachea. The pharynx is the passage that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx, while the trachea is the tube that leads from the larynx to the bronchi. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pharynx and trachea."

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33. Which is the first part of the small intestine?

Explanation

The correct answer is Duodenum. The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestion process, as it receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

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34. What is the medical term for a bunion?

Explanation

A bunion is a deformity of the joint at the base of the big toe, where the bone or tissue at the joint moves out of place. The medical term for this condition is hallux valgus. "Talipes valgus" refers to a different condition known as clubfoot, where the foot is twisted inward. "Hallux varus" is a condition where the big toe points away from the midline of the foot. "Talipes varus" is a term used to describe a foot deformity where the foot turns inward. Therefore, the correct answer for the medical term for a bunion is hallux valgus.

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35. What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?

Explanation

When transporting a patient to the OR department, the stretcher should be oriented with the patient's feet first and the side rails up. This ensures that the patient's head is closer to the healthcare providers, allowing for better monitoring and communication during transportation. Additionally, having the side rails up provides a safety measure to prevent the patient from accidentally falling off the stretcher during movement.

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36. When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?

Explanation

During endotracheal intubation, the anesthesia provider may request cricoid pressure. This technique involves applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage to compress the esophagus and prevent regurgitation of stomach contents into the airway. It is done to reduce the risk of aspiration and maintain a clear airway during intubation. Cricoid pressure is not typically required during Bier block or epidural injection procedures, as they do not involve airway management. It is also not necessary during endotracheal extubation, as the patient is already being removed from the ventilator and the airway is no longer at risk.

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37. What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?

Explanation

A Coude catheter is a type of urinary catheter that has a small, curved tapered tip. It is specifically designed for patients with urethral strictures, which are narrowings or obstructions in the urethra. The curved tip of the Coude catheter allows for easier insertion and passage through the narrowed area, making it a preferred choice for patients with this condition. The other options listed (Iglesias, Pigtail, and Bonanno) are not specific types of urinary catheters and do not have the same design features as a Coude catheter.

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38. How are rickettsiae transmitted?

Explanation

Rickettsiae are transmitted through arthropod bites. These bacteria-like organisms are primarily spread to humans through the bites of infected ticks, fleas, lice, or mites. Once an arthropod becomes infected with rickettsiae by feeding on an infected host, it can transmit the bacteria to humans through subsequent bites. This mode of transmission is common for diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus.

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39. Which of the following routines preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?

Explanation

HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. It is used as a marker to detect pregnancy and to monitor the progress of a pregnancy. In this case, since the question is about premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy, ordering an HCG test would be relevant to check for pregnancy status. The other options (HBV, HIV, HDL) are not specifically related to preoperative laboratory studies for premenopausal women without a hysterectomy.

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40. Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:

Explanation

Hyperkalemia refers to a high concentration of potassium in the blood. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as kidney problems, certain medications, or hormonal imbalances. It can lead to symptoms like muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and even cardiac arrest in severe cases. Monitoring and managing potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia.

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41. What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?

Explanation

Spirilli are spiral-shaped bacteria. They are characterized by their corkscrew-like shape, which allows them to move efficiently through various environments. This shape also provides them with increased surface area, aiding in nutrient absorption and attachment to surfaces. Examples of spirilli include the genus Spirillum, which are commonly found in freshwater environments.

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42. Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

Explanation

the teeth are located in the sockets of the alveolar processes of the mandible and maxillae

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43. Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

Explanation

The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty through the Ampulla of Vater. This is a small opening located in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. The Ampulla of Vater acts as a junction point where the bile duct and pancreatic duct join together before releasing their contents into the small intestine. This allows for the coordinated release of bile and pancreatic enzymes, which are important for the digestion and absorption of fats and other nutrients. The other options listed are not involved in the emptying of these ducts.

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44. Which of the following is a type of passive drain?

Explanation

A Penrose drain is a type of passive drain used in surgical procedures to remove excess fluid or blood from a wound. It is a soft, latex tube that is placed in the wound and allows the fluid to drain out naturally through capillary action. Unlike active drains, such as Hemovac, Pleur-evac, or Jackson-Pratt, which use suction or negative pressure to remove fluid, a Penrose drain relies on gravity and the body's natural processes to facilitate drainage.

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45. Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

Explanation

Colposcopy is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope. It is a procedure that allows a healthcare provider to closely examine the cervix, vagina, and vulva for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a colposcopy, a special instrument called a colposcope is used to magnify the tissues and provide a detailed view of the cervix. This procedure is commonly performed to evaluate abnormal Pap smear results, detect cervical cancer or precancerous changes, and guide biopsies if necessary. Laparoscopy, urethroscopy, and hysteroscopy are different types of examinations that focus on other parts of the reproductive system.

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46. What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?

Explanation

A full-thickness skin graft includes both the epidermis and all of the dermis. This type of graft is used when there is a need for complete restoration of the skin, as it provides the most natural and durable results. The entire thickness of the skin is harvested from the donor site and transferred to the recipient site, ensuring that all layers are included. Full-thickness grafts are commonly used for reconstructive surgeries and in cases where there is a need for optimal cosmetic outcomes.

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47. Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?

Explanation

The upper arms, neckline, and axillary region of the surgical gown are considered non-sterile. This means that these areas are not protected from contamination and should be handled with caution to prevent the spread of bacteria or other microorganisms.

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48. Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?

Explanation

Adaptic is a nonadherent dressing because it is designed to be placed directly on wounds without sticking to the wound bed. It provides a protective barrier while allowing for easy removal without causing further trauma or pain to the patient. Kling, Collodion, and Elastoplast are not nonadherent dressings as they may adhere to the wound surface, potentially causing discomfort and disruption to the healing process.

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49. Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?

Explanation

Prior to transporting a patient to the OR, it is important to verify the patient's identity and ensure that the correct patient is being transported. This includes verifying the patient's name, date of birth (DOB), and the physician who is responsible for their care. By confirming these identifiers, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of errors or mix-ups during transportation and ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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50. Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?

Explanation

Argon laser beams can travel through clear tissues without heating them because they have a longer wavelength, which allows them to be absorbed by pigmented tissues rather than being absorbed or scattered by clear tissues. This makes argon lasers suitable for delicate surgeries and treatments where minimal heat damage is desired.

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51. Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft?

Explanation

Chlorhexidine should be used to prep the donor site for a split-thickness skin graft. Chlorhexidine is a commonly used antiseptic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, fungi, and viruses. It has a broad spectrum of activity and is known for its persistent antimicrobial effect. This makes it an ideal choice for prepping the donor site, as it helps reduce the risk of infection during the grafting procedure. Additionally, Chlorhexidine is less likely to cause skin irritation or allergic reactions compared to other antiseptics, making it a safe and effective option for prepping the donor site.

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52. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patients satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical team's abilities?

Explanation

When a patient trusts the surgical team's abilities, it satisfies the need for safety according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Safety needs are the second level of needs in the hierarchy, and they include physical safety, emotional security, and protection from harm. Trusting the surgical team's abilities gives the patient a sense of security and assurance that they will be safe during the surgical procedure. This trust allows the patient to feel confident and comfortable in the healthcare environment, meeting their safety needs.

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53. The vocal cords are located in the:

Explanation

The vocal cords are located in the larynx. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system situated between the pharynx and the trachea. It contains the vocal cords, which are two folds of mucous membrane that vibrate to produce sound when air passes through them. The larynx plays a crucial role in speech and phonation.

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54. Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called:

Explanation

Tamponade refers to the compression of the heart caused by an excessive buildup of fluid or blood. This condition can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, infection, or certain medical procedures. When the fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart, it puts pressure on the heart, preventing it from filling and pumping effectively. This can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical intervention to relieve the pressure and restore normal heart function.

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55. Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"?

Explanation

Kyphosis refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine that causes a hunchback appearance. It is characterized by an exaggerated rounding of the upper back, leading to a forward stooping posture. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as poor posture, osteoporosis, or certain medical conditions. Treatment options for kyphosis may include physical therapy, bracing, or in severe cases, surgery.

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56. What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?

Explanation

In cases where an ovarian tumor is malignant, the excision typically involves removing both the fallopian tubes and ovaries bilaterally, as well as the uterus. This is done to ensure that all cancerous tissue is removed and to reduce the risk of the cancer spreading to other parts of the reproductive system.

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57. Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle?

Explanation

A hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle is described as a direct hernia. Hesselbach's triangle is an anatomical region in the lower abdomen, bounded by the inguinal ligament, the inferior epigastric vessels, and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle. A direct hernia occurs when abdominal contents protrude through a weak point in the abdominal wall within this triangle. This is different from an indirect hernia, which occurs when abdominal contents protrude through the deep inguinal ring, passing through the inguinal canal. Femoral hernias occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal, and hiatal hernias occur when the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity.

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58. Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?

Explanation

A non-fenestrated drape is a surgical drape that does not have an opening or hole in it. It is used to cover the patient's body or a specific area during surgery to maintain a sterile environment. Among the options given, the U-drape is the only one that is non-fenestrated. Laparotomy, Transverse, and Craniotomy drapes typically have an opening or hole to allow access to the surgical site.

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59. A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the:

Explanation

A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait, and balance would likely be located in the cerebellum. The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating and regulating muscle movements, as well as maintaining balance and posture. Damage or abnormalities in this region can lead to problems with motor control, resulting in symptoms such as changes in muscle tone, coordination difficulties, and issues with gait and balance. Therefore, a tumor in the cerebellum could disrupt these functions and cause the observed alterations.

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60. What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?

Explanation

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage. When blood pressure is elevated, the blood vessels in the brain can become weak and rupture, leading to bleeding within the brain tissue. This can result in damage to brain cells and potentially life-threatening complications. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is not a common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage. Meningioma is a type of brain tumor and meningitis is an infection of the membranes surrounding the brain, neither of which are directly related to intracerebral hemorrhage.

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61. What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery?

Explanation

The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is the Reverse Trendelenburg position. In this position, the patient is tilted with the head elevated and the feet lower than the head. This position helps to improve access to the surgical site by allowing the surgeon to have better visualization and manipulation of the organs. It also helps to minimize the risk of complications such as bleeding and swelling. The Reverse Trendelenburg position is commonly used in surgeries where the upper abdomen and neck need to be accessed.

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62. The most common cause of retinal detachment is:

Explanation

Retinal detachment occurs when the retina becomes separated from the underlying tissue. While aging is a risk factor for retinal detachment, trauma is the most common cause. Trauma to the eye, such as a direct blow or injury, can lead to a tear or hole in the retina, causing it to detach. This can happen due to accidents, sports injuries, or any other physical trauma to the eye.

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63. For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization?

Explanation

The Trendelenburg position involves tilting the patient's body with the head lower than the feet. This position helps to improve visualization by allowing the abdominal organs to fall away from the pelvis, creating more space for the surgeon to work. In the case of a hysterectomy, which involves the removal of the uterus, the Trendelenburg position would provide optimal visualization of the pelvic organs, making it easier for the surgeon to perform the procedure.

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64. Medication used to dilate the pupil is called:

Explanation

Mydriatics are medications used to dilate the pupil. They work by relaxing the muscles in the iris, allowing the pupil to open wider. This can be useful in various medical procedures, such as eye examinations or surgeries, as it provides a better view of the inside of the eye. Miotics, on the other hand, are medications that constrict the pupil. Myopics and muscarinics are not relevant terms in this context.

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65. Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?

Explanation

not-available-via-ai

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66. What postoperative complication is associated with total hip arthroplasty?

Explanation

Pulmonary embolism is a postoperative complication associated with total hip arthroplasty. This condition occurs when a blood clot, usually from the lower extremities, travels to the lungs and blocks the blood flow. Total hip arthroplasty involves surgical intervention in the hip joint, which can increase the risk of blood clot formation. If a clot reaches the lungs, it can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, chest pain, and even be life-threatening. Therefore, it is important to identify and manage this complication promptly to prevent further complications.

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67. The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the:

Explanation

The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is called the omentum. The omentum is a fold of peritoneum, a thin membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The omentum helps to support and protect the abdominal organs, as well as store fat. It also plays a role in immune responses and can help isolate infections or inflammation within the abdominal cavity.

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68. The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the:

Explanation

The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the mesentery. The mesentery is a fold of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the back wall of the abdomen. It provides support and allows for the passage of blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics to and from the small intestine. The mesentery also helps to hold the small intestine in place and prevents it from becoming twisted or tangled.

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69. Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?

Explanation

Microtia refers to the absence or underdevelopment of the external ear. It is a congenital condition where the external ear is either completely missing or abnormally small. This can affect one or both ears and can vary in severity. Microtia can cause hearing loss and may require surgical intervention for reconstruction of the ear. Anophthalmia refers to the absence of one or both eyes, Cheiloschisis refers to a cleft lip, and Entrosyndactyly refers to the fusion of the fingers or toes.

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70. What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?

Explanation

Commensalism is the correct answer because it refers to a relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits while the other is unaffected or unharmed. In commensalism, the organism that benefits may use the resources or shelter provided by the other organism without causing harm or benefiting it in return. This type of relationship is often seen in nature, where one organism takes advantage of the presence of another organism without causing any negative effects.

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71. A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:

Explanation

Depo-Medrol is a topical steroid commonly used after eye surgery to reduce inflammation. It contains the active ingredient methylprednisolone, which helps to suppress the immune response and decrease swelling, redness, and pain in the eye. By reducing inflammation, Depo-Medrol promotes healing and improves post-surgical recovery. It is important to note that this medication should only be used as directed by a healthcare professional and should not be used for extended periods of time to avoid potential side effects.

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72. What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs?

Explanation

A balanced anesthesia refers to the combination of both inhalation and intravenous drugs. This approach allows for a more controlled and balanced level of anesthesia during a medical procedure. Inhalation drugs are administered through a mask or breathing tube, while intravenous drugs are delivered directly into the bloodstream. This combination ensures that the patient receives the appropriate level of anesthesia while minimizing the potential side effects and risks associated with using only one type of anesthesia.

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73. What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?

Explanation

A vaccination is a form of artificial active acquired immunity. This means that the immunity is acquired through deliberate exposure to a weakened or inactive form of a pathogen, such as a vaccine. The body recognizes the pathogen and mounts an immune response by producing antibodies and memory cells. This provides long-term protection against future infections by the same pathogen.

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74. What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?

Explanation

When an incorrect sponge count is discovered, the first step taken is to notify the surgeon. This is important because the surgeon needs to be informed immediately so that appropriate actions can be taken to ensure patient safety. The surgeon may decide to conduct further investigations or take necessary steps to address the issue promptly. Notifying the surgeon is crucial in order to prevent any potential harm to the patient and to maintain the highest standard of care in the operating room.

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75. The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the following glands?

Explanation

The correct answer is Parotid. The mumps can be diagnosed by finding inflammation in the parotid glands. The parotid glands are the largest of the salivary glands and are located on either side of the face, just below the ears. Inflammation of these glands is a common symptom of mumps, a contagious viral infection.

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76. What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another?

Explanation

Parasitism is the correct answer because it refers to a relationship where one organism, the parasite, benefits from the relationship at the expense of the other organism, the host. The parasite obtains nutrients or resources from the host, often causing harm or damage in the process. This type of relationship is characterized by one-sided benefits, with the parasite benefiting while the host is negatively affected.

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77. The outer layer of the intestine is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is serosa. The serosa is the outermost layer of the intestine. It is a smooth, slippery membrane that helps protect and lubricate the intestine. The mucosa is the innermost layer of the intestine, responsible for absorbing nutrients. The muscularis is the layer of smooth muscle that helps with the movement and contraction of the intestine. The submucosa is the layer that contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue.

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78. Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?

Explanation

A ligature is a mechanical method of hemostasis because it involves tying a thread or suture around a blood vessel to stop bleeding. This method physically compresses the vessel, preventing blood flow and promoting clotting. Laser, thrombin, and electrosurgery are not mechanical methods of hemostasis.

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79. Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?

Explanation

The correct answer is abdominal aortic. An abdominal aortic aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries. This type of aneurysm occurs in the lower part of the aorta, which is the main blood vessel that carries blood from the heart to the rest of the body. It is commonly caused by a weakening of the arterial wall, leading to a bulging or ballooning of the aorta. If left untreated, an abdominal aortic aneurysm can rupture, causing severe internal bleeding and potentially life-threatening complications.

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80. What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement?

Explanation

After the process of debridement, which involves cleaning and removing any damaged tissue, the next step for reattachment of a severed digit is bone-to-bone fixation. This involves aligning the bones of the severed digit and securing them together using screws, wires, or plates. This fixation allows for proper healing and stability of the bones, which is crucial for successful reattachment and functional recovery of the digit.

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81. Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?

Explanation

The pharynx is a structure that has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions. It serves as a passage for both food and air. The oral division of the pharynx connects to the mouth, the nasal division connects to the nose, and the laryngeal division connects to the larynx or voice box. This allows for the passage of food and liquids from the mouth to the esophagus, as well as the passage of air from the nose and mouth to the trachea and lungs.

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82. Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

Explanation

Argon laser is the best choice for vitrectomy procedures. This laser emits a blue-green light that is absorbed by the hemoglobin in the blood, allowing for precise coagulation and cutting of tissue. It is commonly used in ophthalmic surgeries, including vitrectomy, to treat conditions such as retinal detachment or diabetic retinopathy. The Argon laser provides excellent tissue penetration and minimal thermal damage, making it an ideal option for delicate eye surgeries.

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83. Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the OR?

Explanation

Surface-mounted sliding doors do not aid in controlling temperature in the operating room. While they may provide other benefits such as using less space for opening, eliminating air turbulence, and providing for thorough cleaning, they do not contribute to temperature control. This could be because surface-mounted sliding doors may not have the same insulation properties as other types of doors, making it difficult to regulate the temperature effectively.

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84. A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close is:

Explanation

Patent ductus arteriosus is a congenital defect where the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta, called the ductus arteriosus, remains open after birth. Normally, the ductus arteriosus closes shortly after birth, but in cases of patent ductus arteriosus, it remains open, allowing blood to flow between the two arteries. This can lead to increased blood flow to the lungs and strain on the heart. Symptoms of patent ductus arteriosus may include a heart murmur, difficulty breathing, poor feeding, and failure to thrive. Treatment may involve medication or surgery to close the ductus arteriosus.

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85. The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:

Explanation

Alpha-chymotrypsin is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is commonly used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery. This enzyme helps to break down the zonules, which are the tiny fibers that hold the lens in place, making it easier for the surgeon to remove the cataract. Atropine sulfate, acetylcholine chloride, and pilocarpine hydrochloride are not typically used for this purpose.

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86. Which of the following incisions is oblique?

Explanation

The Kocher incision is oblique because it is made diagonally across the abdomen, starting from the subcostal region and extending towards the iliac crest. This type of incision allows for better exposure of the abdominal organs and is commonly used in procedures such as cholecystectomy and appendectomy. The other options, epigastric, paramedian, and Pfannenstiel, are all examples of vertical or transverse incisions.

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87. The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:

Explanation

The pancreas is connected to the duodenum by a duct. The pancreas is an important organ that plays a role in digestion and the regulation of blood sugar levels. It produces digestive enzymes that are released into the duodenum to help break down food. Additionally, the pancreas produces insulin and glucagon, which are hormones that help regulate blood sugar levels. Therefore, the pancreas is the correct answer as it is the organ connected to the duodenum by a duct.

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88. Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis?

Explanation

Epispadias is a congenital abnormality where the urethral meatus is located on the upper side of the penis. Epispadias repair is the surgical procedure performed to correct this abnormality. During the procedure, the urethra is repositioned and the opening is relocated to the tip of the penis. This helps to restore normal urinary function and improve the appearance of the penis. Hypospadias repair, on the other hand, is performed when the urethral meatus is located on the underside of the penis. Meatotomy is a simpler procedure that involves making a small incision to enlarge the urethral opening. Ureteroneocystostomy is a surgical procedure to correct abnormalities in the connection between the ureter and the bladder, which is unrelated to the given question.

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89. What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?

Explanation

A flank procedure involves accessing the side of the body, typically for surgeries related to the kidneys or adrenal glands. A transverse drape would be used for this procedure because it can cover the entire flank area effectively. The transverse drape is designed to be placed horizontally across the body, allowing the surgeon to have access to the flank region while maintaining a sterile environment. This type of drape ensures that the surgical site remains protected and reduces the risk of contamination during the procedure.

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90. Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?

Explanation

The cardia is the portion of the stomach that surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter. This sphincter is located at the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, and it prevents the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. The cardia acts as a protective barrier and helps to maintain the integrity of the esophagus by regulating the passage of food and stomach contents into the stomach.

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91. An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional is called:

Explanation

Iatrogenic refers to an injury or harm that is caused by medical treatment or procedures. In this context, it specifically refers to an injury that a patient sustains as a result of the care provided by a healthcare professional. This term is commonly used in the medical field to describe adverse effects or complications that occur as a result of medical interventions. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of iatrogenic injuries and take steps to prevent them in order to ensure patient safety and well-being.

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92. Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the cornea?

Explanation

During a keratoplasty, the cornea needs to be removed and replaced. The instrument used for this purpose is called a trephine. A trephine is a circular cutting tool with a sharp edge that is used to create a circular incision around the cornea. This allows the surgeon to carefully remove the damaged or diseased cornea and replace it with a healthy donor cornea. The other options listed, such as Westcott, Oculotome, and Phacoemulsifier, are not typically used for cornea removal during a keratoplasty procedure.

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93. Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?

Explanation

A fenestrated drape is a surgical drape with an opening or hole in it, allowing access to a specific area while maintaining a sterile field. Among the given options, the U-drape is the only one that fits this description. The U-drape has a U-shaped opening that can be placed around a specific body part, such as the head or extremities, providing a sterile barrier while allowing access to the surgical site. Incise, Aperture, and Half-sheet do not have the characteristic opening and therefore are not fenestrated drapes.

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94. What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?

Explanation

Supine position is the most commonly used position for neurosurgical procedures. This position involves lying flat on the back with the face upward. It provides easy access to the head and neck area, allowing surgeons to perform procedures on the brain and spinal cord. Additionally, the supine position ensures patient comfort and safety during the surgery. Semi-Fowler's position is commonly used for respiratory support, Trendelenburg position is used to improve surgical exposure in certain procedures, and lithotomy position is used for gynecological and urological surgeries.

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95. The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina is the:

Explanation

The choroid is the correct answer because it is a highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and provides nourishment to the retina. It contains numerous blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the retina, helping it function properly. The choroid also helps to reduce reflection and scatter of light within the eye, improving visual clarity.

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Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?
Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patients...
Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of risk is a/an:
Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be...
Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids...
Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and...
Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue...
The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:
What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing...
How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is...
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?
Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?
Syndactyly refers to:
Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the...
Which microbes live without oxygen?
Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two...
What is the action of antagonist drugs?
The islets of Langerhans secrete:
What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which...
What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid...
To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?
When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam...
Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of...
What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin...
What incision is also known as a lower oblique?
Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?
The larynx is located between the:
Which is the first part of the small intestine?
What is the medical term for a bunion?
What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a...
When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered...
How are rickettsiae transmitted?
Which of the following routines preoperative laboratory studies would...
Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:
What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?
Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar...
Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the...
Which of the following is a type of passive drain?
Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a...
What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?
Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?
Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?
Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or...
Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating...
Which of the following solutions should be used to prep the donor site...
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following...
The vocal cords are located in the:
Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is...
Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred...
What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
Which of the following terms describes a hernia that occurs within...
Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?
A brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle...
What is the most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage?
What is the surgical position commonly used for thyroid and...
The most common cause of retinal detachment is:
For which procedure would Trendelenburg position provide optimal...
Medication used to dilate the pupil is called:
Which of the following dilators are used in the common duct?
What postoperative complication is associated with total hip...
The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the...
The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the:
Which of the following terms refers to absence of the external ear?
What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the...
A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:
What type of anesthesia is a combination of inhalation and intravenous...
What type of acquired immunity is a vaccination?
What is the first step taken for an incorrect sponge count?
The mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the...
What is the term for a relationship that benefits one organism at the...
The outer layer of the intestine is the:
Which of the following is a mechanical method of hemostasis?
Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries?
What is the next step for reattachment of a severed digit after...
Which structure has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions?
Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted...
A congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the...
The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract...
Which of the following incisions is oblique?
The organ that is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
Which surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in...
What type of drape would be used for a flank procedure?
Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?
An injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a...
Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty to remove the...
Which of the following is a fenestrated drape?
What position is most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures?
The highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and...
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