Association Of Surgical Tech

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    Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?

    • Gram stain
    • Manual count
    • Prothrombin time
    • Gel electrophoresis
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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Association of Surgical Tech,' evaluates knowledge on surgical procedures and technologies. It covers topics like wound classifications, surgical incisions, and equipment handling, essential for professionals in surgical technology.

Quiz Preview

  • 2. 

    Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of risk is a/an:

    • Tort

    • Malpractice

    • Personal liability

    • Informed consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Informed consent
    Explanation
    Informed consent refers to the permission given by a patient for a medical treatment or procedure after being fully informed of the potential risks and benefits associated with it. It ensures that the patient has a clear understanding of the treatment and can make an informed decision about their healthcare. This concept is essential in medical ethics and legal practice to protect the rights and autonomy of patients.

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  • 3. 

    Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patients ID bracelet?

    • During insertion of an IV catheter

    • Never until patient is discharged from facility

    • Postoperatively when taken to the nursing unit

    • When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self

    Correct Answer
    A. Never until patient is discharged from facility
    Explanation
    It is appropriate to never remove a patient's ID bracelet until they are discharged from the facility because the ID bracelet serves as a crucial form of identification for the patient. It helps ensure accurate patient identification, prevents medical errors, and ensures patient safety. Removing the ID bracelet before discharge can lead to confusion, misidentification, and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to keep the ID bracelet on the patient at all times until they leave the facility.

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  • 4. 

    Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?

    • Anesthesia provider

    • Circulator

    • Surgeon

    • Surgical tech

    Correct Answer
    A. Anesthesia provider
    Explanation
    The anesthesia provider determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU because they are responsible for monitoring the patient's vital signs, managing pain and anesthesia, and ensuring the patient's safety and stability during the transition. They have the expertise to assess the patient's condition and determine if they are ready for transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit.

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  • 5. 

    Which of the following is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens?

    • Saline

    • Formalin

    • Ethyl alcohol

    • Lugol's solution

    Correct Answer
    A. Formalin
    Explanation
    Formalin is a commonly used preservative for tissue specimens. It is a solution of formaldehyde gas in water, and it helps to prevent decomposition of tissues by inhibiting the growth of bacteria and fungi. Formalin also helps to maintain the structural integrity of the tissues, allowing them to be stored for longer periods of time without degradation. It is widely used in histology laboratories for the preservation of tissue samples before they are processed and examined under a microscope.

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  • 6. 

    Which of the following regulations states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious?

    • Body Substance Isolation Rules

    • Medical Device Safety Act

    • Postexposure Prophylaxis

    • Standard Precautions

    Correct Answer
    A. Standard Precautions
    Explanation
    Standard Precautions is a set of infection control practices that healthcare providers use to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases. It includes the use of personal protective equipment (such as gloves, masks, and gowns), proper hand hygiene, safe injection practices, and the proper handling and disposal of blood and body fluids. Therefore, it is the regulation that states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the OR?

    • Room temperature change

    • Lack of communication

    • Fear of anesthesia

    • Separation anxiety

    Correct Answer
    A. Separation anxiety
    Explanation
    Separation anxiety is a major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patients being transported to the OR. Young children at this age often experience anxiety and fear when separated from their parents or caregivers, especially in unfamiliar environments like the operating room. This fear of separation can lead to increased distress, crying, and resistance during transportation, making the overall experience more challenging for both the child and the healthcare providers involved.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?

    • Fascia

    • Periosteum

    • Dura mater

    • Arterial wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia
    Explanation
    Curved Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues such as fascia. Fascia is a connective tissue that surrounds muscles, organs, and other structures in the body. It is a dense and fibrous tissue that requires a strong and sharp instrument like curved Mayo scissors for precise cutting. In contrast, periosteum is the tissue covering the bones, dura mater is the tough outermost membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and arterial wall is the thick layer of tissue in blood vessels. These tissues do not typically require curved Mayo scissors for cutting.

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  • 9. 

    The agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting is:

    • Heparin

    • Thrombin

    • Protamine sulfate

    • Ringer's lactate

    Correct Answer
    A. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is used as an agent to flush an artery in order to prevent clotting. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that helps to prevent the formation of blood clots. It works by inhibiting the activity of certain clotting factors in the blood. This flushing process helps to maintain the patency of the artery and prevent any blockages or clot formation that could impede blood flow. Thrombin is not used as a flushing agent but rather as a clotting factor. Protamine sulfate is used to reverse the effects of heparin if necessary. Ringer's lactate is a solution used for fluid resuscitation and not specifically for preventing clotting.

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  • 10. 

    Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?

    • Midline

    • Paramedian

    • McBurney's

    • Pfannenstiel

    Correct Answer
    A. Pfannenstiel
    Explanation
    Pfannenstiel is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen that is commonly used in gynecological surgery. It is preferred over midline or paramedian incisions because it provides better cosmetic results and reduces the risk of herniation. McBurney's incision, on the other hand, is a muscle-splitting incision used for appendectomy.

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  • 11. 

    Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:

    • Viruses

    • Bacteria

    • Fungi

    • Spores

    Correct Answer
    A. Spores
    Explanation
    Low level disinfectants are effective in killing most microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, they are not able to destroy spores. Spores are highly resistant structures produced by certain microorganisms that can withstand harsh conditions and remain dormant until favorable conditions arise. Due to their unique protective layers, spores are more resistant to disinfection and require high-level disinfectants or sterilization methods to be destroyed. Therefore, low level disinfectants are not effective against spores.

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  • 12. 

    Syndactyly refers to:

    • Cleft palate

    • Webbed fingers

    • Fused tarsals

    • Torn ligaments

    Correct Answer
    A. Webbed fingers
    Explanation
    Syndactyly refers to the condition where two or more fingers or toes are fused together, resulting in webbed fingers or toes. This occurs due to incomplete separation during fetal development. It is a congenital anomaly that can vary in severity, with some individuals having partial fusion and others having complete fusion of the digits. Syndactyly can affect one or both hands or feet and may require surgical intervention to separate the fused digits, depending on the functional and cosmetic concerns.

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  • 13. 

    What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?

    • Prone

    • Lateral

    • Supine

    • Lithotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral
    Explanation
    The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is lateral. This position involves the patient lying on their side with the surgical site facing up. This position provides optimal access to the kidney and allows the surgeon to perform the procedure with ease. It also helps in minimizing the risk of complications and allows for better visualization of the surgical field.

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  • 14. 

    Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

    • -dynia

    • -tomy

    • -lysis

    • -centesis

    Correct Answer
    A. -centesis
    Explanation
    The suffix "-centesis" means surgical puncture to remove fluid. This can be seen in medical terms such as amniocentesis (puncture of the amniotic sac to remove fluid for testing) and thoracentesis (puncture of the chest to remove fluid from the pleural cavity). It is used to describe a procedure in which a needle or other instrument is inserted into a body cavity or organ to drain or remove fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

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  • 15. 

    How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

    • Authorized individual signs patients name

    • Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies

    • RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent

    • Surgeon and Risk Manager sign consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies
    Explanation
    In cases where an adult patient is illiterate, they may not be able to sign their name to provide informed consent for surgery. Instead, the patient can mark with an "X" as a signature, indicating their agreement. A witness is then required to verify that the mark was made by the patient themselves. This ensures that the patient's consent is documented and acknowledged, even if they are unable to read or write.

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  • 16. 

    Which microbes live without oxygen?

    • Aerobes

    • Anaerobes

    • Capnophiles

    • Microaerophiles

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaerobes
    Explanation
    Anaerobes are the microbes that can live without oxygen. They are able to survive and thrive in environments with little to no oxygen. These organisms have adapted to obtain energy through alternative metabolic pathways that do not require oxygen. Some examples of anaerobes include certain bacteria, archaea, and fungi. They play important roles in various ecological processes, such as decomposition and fermentation.

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  • 17. 

    Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?

    • Epitheliazation

    • Fistula

    • Herniation

    • Sinus

    Correct Answer
    A. Fistula
    Explanation
    A fistula is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends. It can occur in various parts of the body, such as the digestive system, urinary system, or reproductive system. Fistulas can be caused by infections, trauma, or underlying medical conditions. They can lead to symptoms such as drainage of fluid or pus, pain, and inflammation. Treatment for fistulas often involves addressing the underlying cause and may include medication, surgery, or other interventions.

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  • 18. 

    Which thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light?

    • Laser

    • Bipolar

    • Harmonic

    • Monopolar

    Correct Answer
    A. Laser
    Explanation
    Laser is the correct answer because it is a thermal method of hemostasis that utilizes intense, focused light. Laser light can be precisely directed to target specific tissues and coagulate blood vessels, making it an effective tool for achieving hemostasis during surgical procedures. The intense, focused light energy of the laser can generate heat, which can then be used to cauterize or seal off blood vessels, preventing bleeding and promoting wound healing.

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  • 19. 

    The primary function of the gallbladder is to:

    • Store bile

    • Produce bile

    • Emulsify fats

    • Metabolize fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Store bile
    Explanation
    The gallbladder's primary function is to store bile. Bile is produced by the liver and is necessary for the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed for the digestion of fatty foods. When fatty foods are consumed, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine, where it helps break down fats into smaller molecules that can be easily absorbed by the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "Store bile."

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  • 20. 

    What is the action of antagonist drugs?

    • Inhibit the clotting process

    • Achieve neuroleptanesthesia

    • Increase the effects of opiates

    • Counteract the action of another drug

    Correct Answer
    A. Counteract the action of another drug
    Explanation
    Antagonist drugs work by counteracting the action of another drug. This means that they bind to specific receptors in the body and block the effects of another drug or substance, preventing it from exerting its intended action. By doing so, antagonist drugs can be used to reverse the effects of certain medications or substances, or to treat drug overdoses. They essentially act as inhibitors or blockers, preventing the target drug or substance from producing its desired effects.

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  • 21. 

    The islets of Langerhans secrete:

    • Bile

    • Insulin

    • Intrinsic factor

    • Inhibiting hormones

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    The islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that are responsible for producing and releasing hormones, including insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It plays a crucial role in maintaining normal blood sugar levels and preventing hyperglycemia. Without insulin, the body cannot effectively use glucose for energy, leading to diabetes. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin.

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  • 22. 

    What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?

    • Prone

    • Sims

    • Supine

    • Kraske

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supine. Supine position refers to lying flat on the back with face up. This position is commonly used for mitral valve replacement surgery because it provides optimal access to the heart and allows for better visualization and manipulation of the mitral valve. It also allows the surgeon to easily connect the patient to the heart-lung bypass machine if needed during the procedure.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

    • Clerical

    • Mechanical

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    Correct Answer
    A. Biological
    Explanation
    Biological monitors provide positive assurance of sterility because they contain live spores that are highly resistant to sterilization processes. These spores are placed in the sterilizer alongside the items being sterilized and are then incubated to determine if any viable spores survive. If no growth is observed after incubation, it confirms that the sterilization process was successful and the items are considered sterile. This method provides a direct and reliable indication of sterilization effectiveness, making biological monitors the most accurate option for ensuring sterility.

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  • 24. 

    What type of disease is characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery?

    • Acute

    • Chronic

    • Primary

    • Asymptomatic

    Correct Answer
    A. Acute
    Explanation
    An acute disease is characterized by a rapid onset, meaning it develops quickly, and a rapid recovery, meaning the symptoms improve quickly. This type of disease typically lasts for a short duration and can be severe. Examples of acute diseases include the common cold, flu, and acute appendicitis. Chronic diseases, on the other hand, develop slowly and have a long-lasting or permanent nature. Primary and asymptomatic are not relevant to the description of a disease characterized by rapid onset and recovery.

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  • 25. 

    Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure?

    • Mouth

    • Nose

    • Ear

    • Eye

    Correct Answer
    A. Ear
    Explanation
    Otoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to correct a congenital deformity of the ear. It involves reshaping or repositioning the ear in order to improve its appearance or correct any abnormalities. This procedure is commonly done to address issues such as protruding or misshapen ears, and it can greatly enhance a person's self-confidence and overall facial harmony.

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  • 26. 

    What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

    • Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose

    • Exposure, frequency, concentration

    • Time, shielding, distance

    • Site, age, gender

    Correct Answer
    A. Time, shielding, distance
    Explanation
    The three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure are time, shielding, and distance. Time refers to the amount of time spent in the presence of radiation, as shorter exposure times can reduce the overall dose received. Shielding involves using barriers such as lead aprons or walls to block or absorb the radiation. Distance refers to increasing the distance between the source of radiation and the individual, as radiation intensity decreases with distance. By considering these factors and implementing appropriate measures, the exposure to ionizing radiation can be minimized.

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  • 27. 

    To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?

    • Ascending

    • Descending

    • Cecum

    • Sigmoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Cecum
    Explanation
    The appendix is attached to the cecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. It is a small, finger-like pouch that extends from the cecum. The cecum is located in the lower right side of the abdomen, where the small intestine connects to the large intestine. The appendix plays a role in the immune system and the exact function is still not completely understood.

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  • 28. 

    Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?

    • Spiral

    • Horizontal

    • Longitudinal

    • Circumferential

    Correct Answer
    A. Circumferential
    Explanation
    Circumferential is the correct answer because it describes a type of skin prep that involves cleaning and disinfecting the entire circumference of an extremity. This term suggests that the prep is done in a circular or wrapping motion, covering all sides of the extremity. Spiral, horizontal, and longitudinal do not accurately describe the type of skin prep for an entire extremity.

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  • 29. 

    Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

    • Clean

    • Contaminated

    • Dirty and infected

    • Clean-contaminated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean-contaminated
    Explanation
    clean-contaminated procedures include those when the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes. The procedure is considered clean, not sterile.

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  • 30. 

    When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:

    • Flat

    • Upside down

    • Vertical

    • Angled

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat
    Explanation
    Perforated metal trays should be positioned flat on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart. This is because placing them flat ensures that the steam can circulate evenly around the items being sterilized, allowing for effective sterilization. If the trays were placed upside down or at an angle, it could impede the flow of steam and result in uneven sterilization. Therefore, positioning the trays flat is the correct way to ensure proper sterilization.

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  • 31. 

    Which is the first part of the small intestine?

    • Duodenum

    • Jejunum

    • Ileum

    • Cecum

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duodenum. The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestion process, as it receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

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  • 32. 

    What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?

    • Feet first, side rails up

    • Feet first, side rails down

    • Head first, side rails up

    • Head first, side rails down

    Correct Answer
    A. Feet first, side rails up
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient to the OR department, the stretcher should be oriented with the patient's feet first and the side rails up. This ensures that the patient's head is closer to the healthcare providers, allowing for better monitoring and communication during transportation. Additionally, having the side rails up provides a safety measure to prevent the patient from accidentally falling off the stretcher during movement.

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  • 33. 

    The larynx is located between the:

    • Pharynx and trachea

    • Nasal cavity and pharynx

    • Trachea and bronchi

    • Nasal and oral cavities

    Correct Answer
    A. Pharynx and trachea
    Explanation
    The larynx, commonly known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system and is located between the pharynx and trachea. The pharynx is the passage that connects the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx, while the trachea is the tube that leads from the larynx to the bronchi. Therefore, the correct answer is "Pharynx and trachea."

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  • 34. 

    What incision is also known as a lower oblique?

    • Inguinial

    • Paramedian

    • Infraumbilical

    • Thoracoabdominal

    Correct Answer
    A. Inguinial
    Explanation
    The incision that is also known as a lower oblique is the inguinal incision. This incision is made in the groin area and is commonly used for procedures involving the lower abdomen, such as hernia repairs. It is called "lower oblique" because it is made diagonally across the lower part of the abdomen, following the natural creases of the skin. The inguinal incision provides good access to the inguinal canal and allows for easier visualization and manipulation of structures in the lower abdomen.

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  • 35. 

    How are rickettsiae transmitted?

    • Arthropod bites

    • Physical contact

    • Blood exposure

    • Airborne organisms

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthropod bites
    Explanation
    Rickettsiae are transmitted through arthropod bites. These bacteria-like organisms are primarily spread to humans through the bites of infected ticks, fleas, lice, or mites. Once an arthropod becomes infected with rickettsiae by feeding on an infected host, it can transmit the bacteria to humans through subsequent bites. This mode of transmission is common for diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus.

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  • 36. 

    What is the medical term for a bunion?

    • Talipes valgus

    • Hallux valgus

    • Hallux varus

    • Talipes varus

    Correct Answer
    A. Hallux valgus
    Explanation
    A bunion is a deformity of the joint at the base of the big toe, where the bone or tissue at the joint moves out of place. The medical term for this condition is hallux valgus. "Talipes valgus" refers to a different condition known as clubfoot, where the foot is twisted inward. "Hallux varus" is a condition where the big toe points away from the midline of the foot. "Talipes varus" is a term used to describe a foot deformity where the foot turns inward. Therefore, the correct answer for the medical term for a bunion is hallux valgus.

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  • 37. 

    What is the name of the urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures?

    • Iglesias

    • Coude

    • Pigtail

    • Bonanno

    Correct Answer
    A. Coude
    Explanation
    A Coude catheter is a type of urinary catheter that has a small, curved tapered tip. It is specifically designed for patients with urethral strictures, which are narrowings or obstructions in the urethra. The curved tip of the Coude catheter allows for easier insertion and passage through the narrowed area, making it a preferred choice for patients with this condition. The other options listed (Iglesias, Pigtail, and Bonanno) are not specific types of urinary catheters and do not have the same design features as a Coude catheter.

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  • 38. 

    When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?

    • Bier block

    • Epidural injection

    • Endotracheal intubation

    • Endotracheal extubation

    Correct Answer
    A. Endotracheal intubation
    Explanation
    During endotracheal intubation, the anesthesia provider may request cricoid pressure. This technique involves applying pressure on the cricoid cartilage to compress the esophagus and prevent regurgitation of stomach contents into the airway. It is done to reduce the risk of aspiration and maintain a clear airway during intubation. Cricoid pressure is not typically required during Bier block or epidural injection procedures, as they do not involve airway management. It is also not necessary during endotracheal extubation, as the patient is already being removed from the ventilator and the airway is no longer at risk.

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  • 39. 

    Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:

    • Calcium

    • Nitrogen

    • Potassium

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Potassium
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia refers to a high concentration of potassium in the blood. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as kidney problems, certain medications, or hormonal imbalances. It can lead to symptoms like muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and even cardiac arrest in severe cases. Monitoring and managing potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia.

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  • 40. 

    What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?

    • Cocci

    • Bacilli

    • Spirilli

    • Diplococci

    Correct Answer
    A. Spirilli
    Explanation
    Spirilli are spiral-shaped bacteria. They are characterized by their corkscrew-like shape, which allows them to move efficiently through various environments. This shape also provides them with increased surface area, aiding in nutrient absorption and attachment to surfaces. Examples of spirilli include the genus Spirillum, which are commonly found in freshwater environments.

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  • 41. 

    Which of the following routines preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?

    • HCG

    • HBV

    • HIV

    • HDL

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. It is used as a marker to detect pregnancy and to monitor the progress of a pregnancy. In this case, since the question is about premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy, ordering an HCG test would be relevant to check for pregnancy status. The other options (HBV, HIV, HDL) are not specifically related to preoperative laboratory studies for premenopausal women without a hysterectomy.

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  • 42. 

    Which of the following is a type of passive drain?

    • Penrose

    • Hemovac

    • Pleur-evac

    • Jackson-Pratt

    Correct Answer
    A. Penrose
    Explanation
    A Penrose drain is a type of passive drain used in surgical procedures to remove excess fluid or blood from a wound. It is a soft, latex tube that is placed in the wound and allows the fluid to drain out naturally through capillary action. Unlike active drains, such as Hemovac, Pleur-evac, or Jackson-Pratt, which use suction or negative pressure to remove fluid, a Penrose drain relies on gravity and the body's natural processes to facilitate drainage.

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  • 43. 

    Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

    • Teeth

    • Villi

    • Sinuses

    • Tonsils

    Correct Answer
    A. Teeth
    Explanation
    the teeth are located in the sockets of the alveolar processes of the mandible and maxillae

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  • 44. 

    Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

    • Ampulla of Vater

    • Duct of Santorini

    • Wirsung's duct

    • Sphincter of Oddi

    Correct Answer
    A. Ampulla of Vater
    Explanation
    The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty through the Ampulla of Vater. This is a small opening located in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. The Ampulla of Vater acts as a junction point where the bile duct and pancreatic duct join together before releasing their contents into the small intestine. This allows for the coordinated release of bile and pancreatic enzymes, which are important for the digestion and absorption of fats and other nutrients. The other options listed are not involved in the emptying of these ducts.

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  • 45. 

    Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile?

    • Outside closure ties

    • Two inches below neckline to table level

    • Upper arms, neckline and axillary region

    • Sleeves; two inches above the elbows to the cuffs

    Correct Answer
    A. Upper arms, neckline and axillary region
    Explanation
    The upper arms, neckline, and axillary region of the surgical gown are considered non-sterile. This means that these areas are not protected from contamination and should be handled with caution to prevent the spread of bacteria or other microorganisms.

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  • 46. 

    Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?

    • Argon

    • Excimer

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Neodymium: YAG

    Correct Answer
    A. Argon
    Explanation
    Argon laser beams can travel through clear tissues without heating them because they have a longer wavelength, which allows them to be absorbed by pigmented tissues rather than being absorbed or scattered by clear tissues. This makes argon lasers suitable for delicate surgeries and treatments where minimal heat damage is desired.

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  • 47. 

    Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

    • Colposcopy

    • Laparoscopy

    • Urethroscopy

    • Hyeroscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Colposcopy
    Explanation
    Colposcopy is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope. It is a procedure that allows a healthcare provider to closely examine the cervix, vagina, and vulva for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a colposcopy, a special instrument called a colposcope is used to magnify the tissues and provide a detailed view of the cervix. This procedure is commonly performed to evaluate abnormal Pap smear results, detect cervical cancer or precancerous changes, and guide biopsies if necessary. Laparoscopy, urethroscopy, and hysteroscopy are different types of examinations that focus on other parts of the reproductive system.

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  • 48. 

    Which of the following is a nonadherent dressing?

    • Kling

    • Adaptic

    • Collodion

    • Elastoplast

    Correct Answer
    A. Adaptic
    Explanation
    Adaptic is a nonadherent dressing because it is designed to be placed directly on wounds without sticking to the wound bed. It provides a protective barrier while allowing for easy removal without causing further trauma or pain to the patient. Kling, Collodion, and Elastoplast are not nonadherent dressings as they may adhere to the wound surface, potentially causing discomfort and disruption to the healing process.

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  • 49. 

    What type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis?

    • Composite

    • Split-thickness

    • Pedicle

    • Full-thickness

    Correct Answer
    A. Full-thickness
    Explanation
    A full-thickness skin graft includes both the epidermis and all of the dermis. This type of graft is used when there is a need for complete restoration of the skin, as it provides the most natural and durable results. The entire thickness of the skin is harvested from the donor site and transferred to the recipient site, ensuring that all layers are included. Full-thickness grafts are commonly used for reconstructive surgeries and in cases where there is a need for optimal cosmetic outcomes.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
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  • Sep 02, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jrichards3

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