Association Of Surgical Tech

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  • 1/95 Questions

    Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?

    • Teeth
    • Villi
    • Sinuses
    • Tonsils
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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia
About This Quiz

This quiz, titled 'Association of Surgical Tech,' evaluates knowledge on surgical procedures and technologies. It covers topics like wound classifications, surgical incisions, and equipment handling, essential for professionals in surgical technology.

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  • 2. 

    Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?

    • Clean

    • Contaminated

    • Dirty and infected

    • Clean-contaminated

    Correct Answer
    A. Clean-contaminated
    Explanation
    clean-contaminated procedures include those when the aerodigestive tract is entered. The bronchoscope is inserted through the mouth and into the bronchial tubes. The procedure is considered clean, not sterile.

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  • 3. 

    The enzyme used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery is:

    • Atropine sulfate

    • Alpha-chymotrypsin

    • Acetylcholine chloride

    • Pilocarpine hydrochloride

    Correct Answer
    A. Alpha-chymotrypsin
    Explanation
    Alpha-chymotrypsin is the correct answer because it is an enzyme that is commonly used to soften the zonules of the lens before cataract surgery. This enzyme helps to break down the zonules, which are the tiny fibers that hold the lens in place, making it easier for the surgeon to remove the cataract. Atropine sulfate, acetylcholine chloride, and pilocarpine hydrochloride are not typically used for this purpose.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen frequently used in gynecological surgery?

    • Midline

    • Paramedian

    • McBurney's

    • Pfannenstiel

    Correct Answer
    A. Pfannenstiel
    Explanation
    Pfannenstiel is a curved, transverse incision across the lower abdomen that is commonly used in gynecological surgery. It is preferred over midline or paramedian incisions because it provides better cosmetic results and reduces the risk of herniation. McBurney's incision, on the other hand, is a muscle-splitting incision used for appendectomy.

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  • 5. 

    When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:

    • Flat

    • Upside down

    • Vertical

    • Angled

    Correct Answer
    A. Flat
    Explanation
    Perforated metal trays should be positioned flat on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart. This is because placing them flat ensures that the steam can circulate evenly around the items being sterilized, allowing for effective sterilization. If the trays were placed upside down or at an angle, it could impede the flow of steam and result in uneven sterilization. Therefore, positioning the trays flat is the correct way to ensure proper sterilization.

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  • 6. 

    Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:

    • Calcium

    • Nitrogen

    • Potassium

    • Albumin

    Correct Answer
    A. Potassium
    Explanation
    Hyperkalemia refers to a high concentration of potassium in the blood. This condition can occur due to various reasons such as kidney problems, certain medications, or hormonal imbalances. It can lead to symptoms like muscle weakness, irregular heartbeat, and even cardiac arrest in severe cases. Monitoring and managing potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following tissues are cut using curved Mayo scissors?

    • Fascia

    • Periosteum

    • Dura mater

    • Arterial wall

    Correct Answer
    A. Fascia
    Explanation
    Curved Mayo scissors are commonly used in surgical procedures to cut through tough tissues such as fascia. Fascia is a connective tissue that surrounds muscles, organs, and other structures in the body. It is a dense and fibrous tissue that requires a strong and sharp instrument like curved Mayo scissors for precise cutting. In contrast, periosteum is the tissue covering the bones, dura mater is the tough outermost membrane surrounding the brain and spinal cord, and arterial wall is the thick layer of tissue in blood vessels. These tissues do not typically require curved Mayo scissors for cutting.

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  • 8. 

    Which laser beam can travel through clear tissues without heating them?

    • Argon

    • Excimer

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Neodymium: YAG

    Correct Answer
    A. Argon
    Explanation
    Argon laser beams can travel through clear tissues without heating them because they have a longer wavelength, which allows them to be absorbed by pigmented tissues rather than being absorbed or scattered by clear tissues. This makes argon lasers suitable for delicate surgeries and treatments where minimal heat damage is desired.

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  • 9. 

    Permission for treatment given with full knowledge of risk is a/an:

    • Tort

    • Malpractice

    • Personal liability

    • Informed consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Informed consent
    Explanation
    Informed consent refers to the permission given by a patient for a medical treatment or procedure after being fully informed of the potential risks and benefits associated with it. It ensures that the patient has a clear understanding of the treatment and can make an informed decision about their healthcare. This concept is essential in medical ethics and legal practice to protect the rights and autonomy of patients.

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  • 10. 

    Which portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter?

    • Cardia

    • Fundus

    • Pylorus

    • Antrum

    Correct Answer
    A. Cardia
    Explanation
    The cardia is the portion of the stomach that surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter. This sphincter is located at the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, and it prevents the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. The cardia acts as a protective barrier and helps to maintain the integrity of the esophagus by regulating the passage of food and stomach contents into the stomach.

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  • 11. 

    Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:

    • Viruses

    • Bacteria

    • Fungi

    • Spores

    Correct Answer
    A. Spores
    Explanation
    Low level disinfectants are effective in killing most microbes, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, they are not able to destroy spores. Spores are highly resistant structures produced by certain microorganisms that can withstand harsh conditions and remain dormant until favorable conditions arise. Due to their unique protective layers, spores are more resistant to disinfection and require high-level disinfectants or sterilization methods to be destroyed. Therefore, low level disinfectants are not effective against spores.

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  • 12. 

    Syndactyly refers to:

    • Cleft palate

    • Webbed fingers

    • Fused tarsals

    • Torn ligaments

    Correct Answer
    A. Webbed fingers
    Explanation
    Syndactyly refers to the condition where two or more fingers or toes are fused together, resulting in webbed fingers or toes. This occurs due to incomplete separation during fetal development. It is a congenital anomaly that can vary in severity, with some individuals having partial fusion and others having complete fusion of the digits. Syndactyly can affect one or both hands or feet and may require surgical intervention to separate the fused digits, depending on the functional and cosmetic concerns.

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  • 13. 

    The islets of Langerhans secrete:

    • Bile

    • Insulin

    • Intrinsic factor

    • Inhibiting hormones

    Correct Answer
    A. Insulin
    Explanation
    The islets of Langerhans are clusters of cells in the pancreas that are responsible for producing and releasing hormones, including insulin. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by allowing cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream. It plays a crucial role in maintaining normal blood sugar levels and preventing hyperglycemia. Without insulin, the body cannot effectively use glucose for energy, leading to diabetes. Therefore, the correct answer is insulin.

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  • 14. 

    Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty?

    • Ampulla of Vater

    • Duct of Santorini

    • Wirsung's duct

    • Sphincter of Oddi

    Correct Answer
    A. Ampulla of Vater
    Explanation
    The common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty through the Ampulla of Vater. This is a small opening located in the duodenum, the first part of the small intestine. The Ampulla of Vater acts as a junction point where the bile duct and pancreatic duct join together before releasing their contents into the small intestine. This allows for the coordinated release of bile and pancreatic enzymes, which are important for the digestion and absorption of fats and other nutrients. The other options listed are not involved in the emptying of these ducts.

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  • 15. 

    Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR?

    • Name, social security #, physician

    • Name, medical record #, allergies

    • Name, DOB, diagnosis

    • Name, DOB, physician

    Correct Answer
    A. Name, DOB, physician
    Explanation
    Prior to transporting a patient to the OR, it is important to verify the patient's identity and ensure that the correct patient is being transported. This includes verifying the patient's name, date of birth (DOB), and the physician who is responsible for their care. By confirming these identifiers, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of errors or mix-ups during transportation and ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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  • 16. 

    What are spiral-shaped bacteria called?

    • Cocci

    • Bacilli

    • Spirilli

    • Diplococci

    Correct Answer
    A. Spirilli
    Explanation
    Spirilli are spiral-shaped bacteria. They are characterized by their corkscrew-like shape, which allows them to move efficiently through various environments. This shape also provides them with increased surface area, aiding in nutrient absorption and attachment to surfaces. Examples of spirilli include the genus Spirillum, which are commonly found in freshwater environments.

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  • 17. 

    The primary function of the gallbladder is to:

    • Store bile

    • Produce bile

    • Emulsify fats

    • Metabolize fats

    Correct Answer
    A. Store bile
    Explanation
    The gallbladder's primary function is to store bile. Bile is produced by the liver and is necessary for the digestion and absorption of fats. The gallbladder stores bile until it is needed for the digestion of fatty foods. When fatty foods are consumed, the gallbladder contracts and releases bile into the small intestine, where it helps break down fats into smaller molecules that can be easily absorbed by the body. Therefore, the correct answer is "Store bile."

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the OR?

    • Uses less space for opening

    • Aid in controlling temperature

    • Eliminate air turbulance

    • Provides for thorough cleaning

    Correct Answer
    A. Aid in controlling temperature
    Explanation
    Surface-mounted sliding doors do not aid in controlling temperature in the operating room. While they may provide other benefits such as using less space for opening, eliminating air turbulence, and providing for thorough cleaning, they do not contribute to temperature control. This could be because surface-mounted sliding doors may not have the same insulation properties as other types of doors, making it difficult to regulate the temperature effectively.

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  • 19. 

    What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?

    • Type of procedure, equipment, radiation dose

    • Exposure, frequency, concentration

    • Time, shielding, distance

    • Site, age, gender

    Correct Answer
    A. Time, shielding, distance
    Explanation
    The three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure are time, shielding, and distance. Time refers to the amount of time spent in the presence of radiation, as shorter exposure times can reduce the overall dose received. Shielding involves using barriers such as lead aprons or walls to block or absorb the radiation. Distance refers to increasing the distance between the source of radiation and the individual, as radiation intensity decreases with distance. By considering these factors and implementing appropriate measures, the exposure to ionizing radiation can be minimized.

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  • 20. 

    Which is the first part of the small intestine?

    • Duodenum

    • Jejunum

    • Ileum

    • Cecum

    Correct Answer
    A. Duodenum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Duodenum. The small intestine is divided into three parts: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, located immediately after the stomach. It plays a crucial role in the digestion process, as it receives partially digested food from the stomach and further breaks it down with the help of digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver.

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  • 21. 

    What is the surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery?

    • Prone

    • Lateral

    • Supine

    • Lithotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Lateral
    Explanation
    The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is lateral. This position involves the patient lying on their side with the surgical site facing up. This position provides optimal access to the kidney and allows the surgeon to perform the procedure with ease. It also helps in minimizing the risk of complications and allows for better visualization of the surgical field.

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  • 22. 

    How are rickettsiae transmitted?

    • Arthropod bites

    • Physical contact

    • Blood exposure

    • Airborne organisms

    Correct Answer
    A. Arthropod bites
    Explanation
    Rickettsiae are transmitted through arthropod bites. These bacteria-like organisms are primarily spread to humans through the bites of infected ticks, fleas, lice, or mites. Once an arthropod becomes infected with rickettsiae by feeding on an infected host, it can transmit the bacteria to humans through subsequent bites. This mode of transmission is common for diseases such as Rocky Mountain spotted fever and typhus.

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  • 23. 

    Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope?

    • Colposcopy

    • Laparoscopy

    • Urethroscopy

    • Hyeroscopy

    Correct Answer
    A. Colposcopy
    Explanation
    Colposcopy is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope. It is a procedure that allows a healthcare provider to closely examine the cervix, vagina, and vulva for any abnormalities or signs of disease. During a colposcopy, a special instrument called a colposcope is used to magnify the tissues and provide a detailed view of the cervix. This procedure is commonly performed to evaluate abnormal Pap smear results, detect cervical cancer or precancerous changes, and guide biopsies if necessary. Laparoscopy, urethroscopy, and hysteroscopy are different types of examinations that focus on other parts of the reproductive system.

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  • 24. 

    Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup is called:

    • Tamponade

    • Pericarditis

    • Infarction

    • Cardiomyopathy

    Correct Answer
    A. Tamponade
    Explanation
    Tamponade refers to the compression of the heart caused by an excessive buildup of fluid or blood. This condition can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, infection, or certain medical procedures. When the fluid or blood accumulates in the pericardial sac surrounding the heart, it puts pressure on the heart, preventing it from filling and pumping effectively. This can lead to serious complications and requires immediate medical intervention to relieve the pressure and restore normal heart function.

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  • 25. 

    Which surgical team member determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU?

    • Anesthesia provider

    • Circulator

    • Surgeon

    • Surgical tech

    Correct Answer
    A. Anesthesia provider
    Explanation
    The anesthesia provider determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU because they are responsible for monitoring the patient's vital signs, managing pain and anesthesia, and ensuring the patient's safety and stability during the transition. They have the expertise to assess the patient's condition and determine if they are ready for transfer to the post-anesthesia care unit.

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  • 26. 

    Which suffix means surgical puncture to remove fluid?

    • -dynia

    • -tomy

    • -lysis

    • -centesis

    Correct Answer
    A. -centesis
    Explanation
    The suffix "-centesis" means surgical puncture to remove fluid. This can be seen in medical terms such as amniocentesis (puncture of the amniotic sac to remove fluid for testing) and thoracentesis (puncture of the chest to remove fluid from the pleural cavity). It is used to describe a procedure in which a needle or other instrument is inserted into a body cavity or organ to drain or remove fluid for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes.

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  • 27. 

    To which portion of the colon is the appendix attached?

    • Ascending

    • Descending

    • Cecum

    • Sigmoid

    Correct Answer
    A. Cecum
    Explanation
    The appendix is attached to the cecum, which is the first part of the large intestine. It is a small, finger-like pouch that extends from the cecum. The cecum is located in the lower right side of the abdomen, where the small intestine connects to the large intestine. The appendix plays a role in the immune system and the exact function is still not completely understood.

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  • 28. 

    Which laboratory test determines bacterial identification?

    • Gram stain

    • Manual count

    • Prothrombin time

    • Gel electrophoresis

    Correct Answer
    A. Gram stain
    Explanation
    The Gram stain is a laboratory test used to determine bacterial identification. It involves staining bacteria with crystal violet dye, followed by iodine, alcohol, and safranin. This staining process helps to differentiate bacteria into two groups: Gram-positive (which retain the purple dye) and Gram-negative (which lose the purple dye and take on the red dye). This test is widely used in microbiology to identify and classify bacteria based on their cell wall composition, which is crucial for determining appropriate treatment options.

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  • 29. 

    Medication used to dilate the pupil is called:

    • Miotics

    • Myopics

    • Mydriatics

    • Muscarinics

    Correct Answer
    A. Mydriatics
    Explanation
    Mydriatics are medications used to dilate the pupil. They work by relaxing the muscles in the iris, allowing the pupil to open wider. This can be useful in various medical procedures, such as eye examinations or surgeries, as it provides a better view of the inside of the eye. Miotics, on the other hand, are medications that constrict the pupil. Myopics and muscarinics are not relevant terms in this context.

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  • 30. 

    Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated?

    • Laparotomy

    • U-drape

    • Transverse

    • Craniotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. U-drape
    Explanation
    A non-fenestrated drape is a surgical drape that does not have an opening or hole in it. It is used to cover the patient's body or a specific area during surgery to maintain a sterile environment. Among the options given, the U-drape is the only one that is non-fenestrated. Laparotomy, Transverse, and Craniotomy drapes typically have an opening or hole to allow access to the surgical site.

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  • 31. 

    Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patients ID bracelet?

    • During insertion of an IV catheter

    • Never until patient is discharged from facility

    • Postoperatively when taken to the nursing unit

    • When patient is awake and alert and can verbally identify self

    Correct Answer
    A. Never until patient is discharged from facility
    Explanation
    It is appropriate to never remove a patient's ID bracelet until they are discharged from the facility because the ID bracelet serves as a crucial form of identification for the patient. It helps ensure accurate patient identification, prevents medical errors, and ensures patient safety. Removing the ID bracelet before discharge can lead to confusion, misidentification, and potential harm to the patient. Therefore, it is important to keep the ID bracelet on the patient at all times until they leave the facility.

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  • 32. 

    What is the position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement?

    • Prone

    • Sims

    • Supine

    • Kraske

    Correct Answer
    A. Supine
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supine. Supine position refers to lying flat on the back with face up. This position is commonly used for mitral valve replacement surgery because it provides optimal access to the heart and allows for better visualization and manipulation of the mitral valve. It also allows the surgeon to easily connect the patient to the heart-lung bypass machine if needed during the procedure.

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  • 33. 

    Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?

    • Carbon dioxide

    • Nd:YAG

    • Excimer

    • Argon

    Correct Answer
    A. Argon
    Explanation
    Argon laser is the best choice for vitrectomy procedures. This laser emits a blue-green light that is absorbed by the hemoglobin in the blood, allowing for precise coagulation and cutting of tissue. It is commonly used in ophthalmic surgeries, including vitrectomy, to treat conditions such as retinal detachment or diabetic retinopathy. The Argon laser provides excellent tissue penetration and minimal thermal damage, making it an ideal option for delicate eye surgeries.

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  • 34. 

    Which of the following monitors provides positive assurance of sterility?

    • Clerical

    • Mechanical

    • Biological

    • Chemical

    Correct Answer
    A. Biological
    Explanation
    Biological monitors provide positive assurance of sterility because they contain live spores that are highly resistant to sterilization processes. These spores are placed in the sterilizer alongside the items being sterilized and are then incubated to determine if any viable spores survive. If no growth is observed after incubation, it confirms that the sterilization process was successful and the items are considered sterile. This method provides a direct and reliable indication of sterilization effectiveness, making biological monitors the most accurate option for ensuring sterility.

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  • 35. 

    The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is the:

    • Omentum

    • Mesentery

    • Ligamentum

    • Peritoneum

    Correct Answer
    A. Omentum
    Explanation
    The apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach is called the omentum. The omentum is a fold of peritoneum, a thin membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers the organs within it. The omentum helps to support and protect the abdominal organs, as well as store fat. It also plays a role in immune responses and can help isolate infections or inflammation within the abdominal cavity.

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  • 36. 

    Which microbes live without oxygen?

    • Aerobes

    • Anaerobes

    • Capnophiles

    • Microaerophiles

    Correct Answer
    A. Anaerobes
    Explanation
    Anaerobes are the microbes that can live without oxygen. They are able to survive and thrive in environments with little to no oxygen. These organisms have adapted to obtain energy through alternative metabolic pathways that do not require oxygen. Some examples of anaerobes include certain bacteria, archaea, and fungi. They play important roles in various ecological processes, such as decomposition and fermentation.

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  • 37. 

    Which of the following is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends?

    • Epitheliazation

    • Fistula

    • Herniation

    • Sinus

    Correct Answer
    A. Fistula
    Explanation
    A fistula is an abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends. It can occur in various parts of the body, such as the digestive system, urinary system, or reproductive system. Fistulas can be caused by infections, trauma, or underlying medical conditions. They can lead to symptoms such as drainage of fluid or pus, pain, and inflammation. Treatment for fistulas often involves addressing the underlying cause and may include medication, surgery, or other interventions.

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  • 38. 

    What is the action of antagonist drugs?

    • Inhibit the clotting process

    • Achieve neuroleptanesthesia

    • Increase the effects of opiates

    • Counteract the action of another drug

    Correct Answer
    A. Counteract the action of another drug
    Explanation
    Antagonist drugs work by counteracting the action of another drug. This means that they bind to specific receptors in the body and block the effects of another drug or substance, preventing it from exerting its intended action. By doing so, antagonist drugs can be used to reverse the effects of certain medications or substances, or to treat drug overdoses. They essentially act as inhibitors or blockers, preventing the target drug or substance from producing its desired effects.

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following directional terms describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity?

    • Spiral

    • Horizontal

    • Longitudinal

    • Circumferential

    Correct Answer
    A. Circumferential
    Explanation
    Circumferential is the correct answer because it describes a type of skin prep that involves cleaning and disinfecting the entire circumference of an extremity. This term suggests that the prep is done in a circular or wrapping motion, covering all sides of the extremity. Spiral, horizontal, and longitudinal do not accurately describe the type of skin prep for an entire extremity.

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  • 40. 

    What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?

    • Bilateral ovaries only

    • Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus

    • Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube

    • Unilateral involved ovary and fallopian tube, uterus

    Correct Answer
    A. Bilateral fallopian tubes and ovaries, uterus
    Explanation
    In cases where an ovarian tumor is malignant, the excision typically involves removing both the fallopian tubes and ovaries bilaterally, as well as the uterus. This is done to ensure that all cancerous tissue is removed and to reduce the risk of the cancer spreading to other parts of the reproductive system.

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  • 41. 

    Which term refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine referred to as "hunchback"?

    • Lordosis

    • Scoliosis

    • Kyphosis

    • Alkalosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Kyphosis
    Explanation
    Kyphosis refers to an abnormal thoracic curve of the spine that causes a hunchback appearance. It is characterized by an exaggerated rounding of the upper back, leading to a forward stooping posture. This condition can be caused by various factors, such as poor posture, osteoporosis, or certain medical conditions. Treatment options for kyphosis may include physical therapy, bracing, or in severe cases, surgery.

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  • 42. 

    What is the medical term for a bunion?

    • Talipes valgus

    • Hallux valgus

    • Hallux varus

    • Talipes varus

    Correct Answer
    A. Hallux valgus
    Explanation
    A bunion is a deformity of the joint at the base of the big toe, where the bone or tissue at the joint moves out of place. The medical term for this condition is hallux valgus. "Talipes valgus" refers to a different condition known as clubfoot, where the foot is twisted inward. "Hallux varus" is a condition where the big toe points away from the midline of the foot. "Talipes varus" is a term used to describe a foot deformity where the foot turns inward. Therefore, the correct answer for the medical term for a bunion is hallux valgus.

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  • 43. 

    What incision is also known as a lower oblique?

    • Inguinial

    • Paramedian

    • Infraumbilical

    • Thoracoabdominal

    Correct Answer
    A. Inguinial
    Explanation
    The incision that is also known as a lower oblique is the inguinal incision. This incision is made in the groin area and is commonly used for procedures involving the lower abdomen, such as hernia repairs. It is called "lower oblique" because it is made diagonally across the lower part of the abdomen, following the natural creases of the skin. The inguinal incision provides good access to the inguinal canal and allows for easier visualization and manipulation of structures in the lower abdomen.

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  • 44. 

    The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the:

    • Mesentery

    • Peritoneum

    • Falciform ligament

    • Lesser omentum

    Correct Answer
    A. Mesentery
    Explanation
    The small intestine attaches to the posterior abdominal wall by the mesentery. The mesentery is a fold of peritoneum that connects the small intestine to the back wall of the abdomen. It provides support and allows for the passage of blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics to and from the small intestine. The mesentery also helps to hold the small intestine in place and prevents it from becoming twisted or tangled.

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  • 45. 

    What is the term for a relationship in which two organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed?

    • Commensalism

    • Neutralism

    • Mutualism

    • Parasitism

    Correct Answer
    A. Commensalism
    Explanation
    Commensalism is the correct answer because it refers to a relationship between two organisms where one organism benefits while the other is unaffected or unharmed. In commensalism, the organism that benefits may use the resources or shelter provided by the other organism without causing harm or benefiting it in return. This type of relationship is often seen in nature, where one organism takes advantage of the presence of another organism without causing any negative effects.

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  • 46. 

    A topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery is:

    • Depo-Medrol

    • Miochol

    • Healon

    • Wydase

    Correct Answer
    A. Depo-Medrol
    Explanation
    Depo-Medrol is a topical steroid commonly used after eye surgery to reduce inflammation. It contains the active ingredient methylprednisolone, which helps to suppress the immune response and decrease swelling, redness, and pain in the eye. By reducing inflammation, Depo-Medrol promotes healing and improves post-surgical recovery. It is important to note that this medication should only be used as directed by a healthcare professional and should not be used for extended periods of time to avoid potential side effects.

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  • 47. 

    How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate?

    • Authorized individual signs patients name

    • Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies

    • RN and surgeon sign that patient gave consent

    • Surgeon and Risk Manager sign consent

    Correct Answer
    A. Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies
    Explanation
    In cases where an adult patient is illiterate, they may not be able to sign their name to provide informed consent for surgery. Instead, the patient can mark with an "X" as a signature, indicating their agreement. A witness is then required to verify that the mark was made by the patient themselves. This ensures that the patient's consent is documented and acknowledged, even if they are unable to read or write.

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  • 48. 

    What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?

    • Feet first, side rails up

    • Feet first, side rails down

    • Head first, side rails up

    • Head first, side rails down

    Correct Answer
    A. Feet first, side rails up
    Explanation
    When transporting a patient to the OR department, the stretcher should be oriented with the patient's feet first and the side rails up. This ensures that the patient's head is closer to the healthcare providers, allowing for better monitoring and communication during transportation. Additionally, having the side rails up provides a safety measure to prevent the patient from accidentally falling off the stretcher during movement.

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  • 49. 

    Which of the following routines preoperative laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?

    • HCG

    • HBV

    • HIV

    • HDL

    Correct Answer
    A. HCG
    Explanation
    HCG stands for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin, a hormone that is produced during pregnancy. It is used as a marker to detect pregnancy and to monitor the progress of a pregnancy. In this case, since the question is about premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy, ordering an HCG test would be relevant to check for pregnancy status. The other options (HBV, HIV, HDL) are not specifically related to preoperative laboratory studies for premenopausal women without a hysterectomy.

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Quiz Review Timeline (Updated): Mar 22, 2023 +

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  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Sep 02, 2014
    Quiz Created by
    Jrichards3

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