Surgical Tech Questions

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1. The room where patients are "recovered" immediately following surgery is known as the ____________.

Explanation

The correct answer is PACU. PACU stands for Post-Anesthesia Care Unit and it is the room where patients are taken after surgery to recover from the effects of anesthesia. In the PACU, patients are closely monitored by healthcare professionals as they wake up from anesthesia and their vital signs are stabilized. This is an important step in the surgical process to ensure the patient's safety and well-being before they are transferred to a regular hospital room.

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Surgical Tech Questions - Quiz

All kinds of questions related to the Surgical Tech Study guide

2. A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a (n) ___________.

Explanation

A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is called blepharoplasty.

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3. While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the

Explanation

The correct answer is "procedure." During the STSR passing instruments, the surgeon's main focus is on the procedure itself. This includes performing the necessary steps, following the correct techniques, and ensuring the success of the operation. The surgeon needs to concentrate on the task at hand and coordinate with the rest of the surgical team to ensure a smooth and efficient procedure.

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4. What does the term apnea mean?

Explanation

The term apnea refers to the condition of not breathing. It is a temporary cessation or pause in breathing, which can be caused by various factors such as sleep apnea, respiratory disorders, or even certain medications. During an episode of apnea, the person's breathing stops for a brief period, leading to a decrease in oxygen levels in the body. This can result in symptoms like gasping for air, snoring, or disrupted sleep patterns. Treatment options for apnea depend on the underlying cause and may include lifestyle changes, breathing devices, or surgery.

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5. Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what  conditions?

Explanation

The correct answer is "None: the bottle may not be recapped." This means that fluid bottles should not be recapped and reused under any conditions. Recapping can lead to contamination and the spread of harmful bacteria. It is important to use a new, sterile bottle each time to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the fluid being used.

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6.  A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.

Explanation

A currette is a surgical instrument specifically designed to remove tissue by scraping. It is commonly used in various medical procedures, such as curettage, where abnormal tissue or growths are scraped off from the body. The instrument's shape and sharp edge allow for effective tissue removal, making it a valuable tool in surgical settings.

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7. Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room. This bacterium is known to cause various infections, including surgical site infections, which can lead to complications and prolonged hospital stays for patients. It is easily transmitted through direct contact with contaminated surfaces or healthcare workers' hands. Strict adherence to infection control measures, such as proper hand hygiene and disinfection of equipment, is crucial to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus aureus in the operating room.

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8. Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care practice?

Explanation

The basic values for health care practice are reflected in laws, standards, and guidelines. Laws provide legal requirements and regulations that health care practitioners must adhere to. Standards set expectations for the quality and safety of care provided. Guidelines offer recommendations and best practices for specific medical conditions or procedures. Therefore, all of the options mentioned (laws, standards, and guidelines) reflect the basic values for health care practice.

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9. In the health care field, the term _________ is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record.

Explanation

In the health care field, the term "documenting" is used broadly to refer to the placing of information into a patient's medical record. This process involves recording important details such as symptoms, diagnosis, treatment plans, and progress notes. By documenting this information, healthcare providers can ensure accurate and comprehensive patient care, facilitate communication between healthcare professionals, and maintain a legal record of the patient's medical history.

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10. Which pathogen leads in the percentage of surgical site infections?

Explanation

Staphylococcus aureus leads in the percentage of surgical site infections. This bacterium is commonly found on the skin and in the nasal passages of healthy individuals, but it can cause infections when it enters the body through surgical incisions. Staphylococcus aureus is a major cause of healthcare-associated infections and is known for its ability to develop resistance to antibiotics, making it difficult to treat. Its prevalence and ability to cause infections make it the leading pathogen in surgical site infections.

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11. What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patinet back to the ESU?

Explanation

A grounding pad is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned from the patient back to the ESU (Electrosurgical Unit). It is an essential safety measure in medical procedures involving electrical currents. The grounding pad is placed on the patient's body, typically on the thigh or buttocks, and is connected to the ESU. It helps to prevent electrical shocks and ensures that the current flows safely through the patient's body and back to the ESU, completing the electrical circuit.

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12. Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and could result in __________.

Explanation

Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence as it can lead to various negative consequences. Firstly, it may require another surgical procedure to obtain a new specimen, causing additional time, cost, and potential risks for the patient. Secondly, improper specimen preparation could result in inaccurate or incomplete analysis, leading to incorrect diagnoses or treatment plans. Lastly, improper specimen analysis may compromise the quality and reliability of the results, affecting patient care and outcomes. Therefore, all of the above options are potential outcomes of specimen loss or mishandling.

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13. The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group forms which component of the human being?

Explanation

The needs or activities related to one's identification or interaction with another individual or group form the social component of the human being. This component encompasses the desire for companionship, social support, belongingness, and the ability to form relationships and engage in social interactions. It involves aspects such as communication, empathy, cooperation, and the development of social skills. The social component is essential for human beings as it contributes to their overall well-being and sense of connectedness with others.

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14. The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all of the following EXCEPT__________.

Explanation

The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include temperature, urine output, and oxygenation. Turgor refers to the elasticity and hydration of the skin, which is an important indicator of fluid balance in patients of all ages. Therefore, turgor should be included as a critical parameter for monitoring pediatric patients.

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15. Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent _________.

Explanation

Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent severe hypovolemia. Severe hypovolemia refers to a significant decrease in blood volume, which can lead to inadequate perfusion of organs and tissues, ultimately resulting in organ failure and even death. Controlling bleeding is crucial to maintain blood volume and prevent severe hypovolemia, ensuring adequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the body's vital organs.

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16. What is the function of the iris?

Explanation

The iris is responsible for regulating the amount of light entering the eye through the pupil. It acts like a camera aperture, adjusting the size of the pupil to control the amount of light that reaches the retina. In bright light, the iris contracts, making the pupil smaller to limit the amount of light entering the eye. In dim light, the iris expands, making the pupil larger to allow more light to enter. This helps to optimize vision in different lighting conditions and protect the retina from excessive light exposure.

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17. What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to prevent the risk of burns to the patient?

Explanation

To prevent the risk of burns to the patient in the operating room, electrical devices must be grounded properly and tested frequently. Grounding the devices ensures that any excess electrical charge is safely directed into the ground, reducing the risk of electric shock or burns. Testing the devices frequently helps identify any faults or malfunctions that could potentially cause burns to the patient. Therefore, both grounding the devices and regular testing are necessary to prevent the risk of burns in the operating room.

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18. The term D and C represents ______.

Explanation

The term D and C represents dilation and curettage. Dilation refers to the widening or opening of a body cavity or canal, while curettage is the process of scraping or removing tissue from the lining of the uterus. Together, dilation and curettage is a medical procedure commonly used to diagnose and treat various conditions, such as abnormal uterine bleeding, miscarriage, or to remove tissue after childbirth.

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19. Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments?

Explanation

Saline should not be used to clean stainless steel surgical instruments because salt in the saline solution can cause pitting on the surface of the stainless steel. Pitting refers to the formation of small holes or depressions on the metal, which can compromise the integrity and cleanliness of the instruments. Therefore, using saline as a cleaning agent for stainless steel surgical instruments is not recommended to avoid damaging the instruments.

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20. Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of ___________.

Explanation

Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use of pulse oximetry. Pulse oximetry is a non-invasive method that measures the oxygen saturation level in the blood by using a device called a pulse oximeter. It works by emitting light through a person's skin and measuring the amount of light absorbed by the oxygenated and deoxygenated hemoglobin in the blood. This measurement is important in assessing a person's respiratory function and can help in diagnosing conditions such as hypoxemia and respiratory failure. Capnography measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in exhaled breath, spirometry measures lung function, and plethysmography measures changes in blood volume.

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21. The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident.

Explanation

The spleen is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle accident. This is because the spleen is located in the upper left side of the abdomen, making it vulnerable to impact during a collision. The spleen is also a delicate organ, with a soft texture and a thin capsule, which makes it prone to rupture when exposed to trauma. When the spleen ruptures, it can cause internal bleeding, which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential for spleen injury in motor vehicle accidents and seek medical attention if any symptoms or signs of injury are present.

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22. The ___________ is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually.

Explanation

An ultrasonic washer is used to remove small organic particles and soil from areas of instruments that are difficult to clean manually. This machine uses high-frequency sound waves to create microscopic bubbles in a cleaning solution. These bubbles then implode, creating a scrubbing action that effectively removes dirt and debris from the instruments. The ultrasonic washer is particularly useful for cleaning intricate or hard-to-reach areas, ensuring thorough cleanliness and sterilization.

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23. Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ___________.

Explanation

Escherichia coli is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the intestines of humans and animals. It is a normal resident of the intestinal lumen, where it plays a role in digestion and the production of certain vitamins. The bacteria are able to survive and thrive in the acidic environment of the intestines, but they can also cause infections if they enter other parts of the body. Therefore, the correct answer is intestine.

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24. Which of the following focuses on altering the patient's level of consciousness and minimizing pain and awareness?

Explanation

General anesthesia is the correct answer because it involves altering the patient's level of consciousness and minimizing pain and awareness. During general anesthesia, the patient is rendered unconscious and unable to feel pain or have any awareness of their surroundings. This is achieved through the administration of various medications that induce a state of deep sleep and provide analgesia. General anesthesia is commonly used during surgical procedures to ensure the patient's comfort and safety.

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25. Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a cleft palate repair?

Explanation

During a cleft palate repair, a self-retaining mouth gag is attached to the Mayo stand. This instrument is used to hold the patient's mouth open and keep the tongue out of the surgical field, allowing the surgeon to have better access and visibility during the procedure. The self-retaining mouth gag has adjustable blades that can be locked into place, ensuring that the mouth remains open throughout the surgery. This instrument is specifically designed for oral and maxillofacial procedures, making it the appropriate choice for a cleft palate repair.

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26. What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?

Explanation

Using water as a presoaking solution is ineffective at removing dried debris because water alone does not have the ability to break down or dissolve tough, dried-on substances. It lacks the necessary properties or cleaning agents to effectively remove such debris. Therefore, using water alone may not provide satisfactory results in terms of cleaning and removing dried debris from surfaces or objects.

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27. Drug administered within a joint is ___________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "intra-articular". This means that the drug is administered directly into a joint. It is commonly used to treat conditions such as arthritis or inflammation within the joint. This route of administration allows for targeted delivery of the medication to the affected area, maximizing its effectiveness.

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28. Accountability is defined as a (n) ___________.

Explanation

Accountability is defined as an obligation. This means that individuals or organizations are responsible for their actions and must be able to explain and justify them. Obligation implies a duty or commitment to fulfill certain responsibilities and be answerable for one's actions. In the context of accountability, it refers to the requirement to act responsibly and be held liable for any consequences or outcomes of one's actions.

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29. Why should cabinets and doors within the operating room be recessed into the wall?

Explanation

Cabinets and doors within the operating room should be recessed into the wall to prevent dust accumulation. By recessing them, there are fewer exposed surfaces where dust particles can settle and accumulate. This is crucial in an operating room where cleanliness and hygiene are of utmost importance to prevent the spread of infections. Additionally, by minimizing dust accumulation, it becomes easier to maintain a clean and sterile environment, ensuring the safety and well-being of patients and medical staff.

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30. Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?

Explanation

An ultrasonic washer is a machine found in the decontamination room that uses cavitation. Cavitation is the formation and collapse of tiny bubbles in a liquid, which creates high-energy shock waves that can effectively clean and remove contaminants from surfaces. The ultrasonic washer uses this principle by generating high-frequency sound waves that create cavitation bubbles in a cleaning solution. These bubbles implode near the surface being cleaned, releasing energy that helps to remove dirt, debris, and microorganisms. Therefore, the ultrasonic washer is the correct answer as it utilizes cavitation for effective cleaning.

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31. Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called __________.

Explanation

Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called aerobic. This term refers to organisms that need oxygen to carry out their metabolic processes and generate energy. They use oxygen as a final electron acceptor in their respiration, allowing them to efficiently produce ATP. Aerobic bacteria are commonly found in environments with high oxygen levels, such as the human respiratory tract or aerobic wastewater treatment systems.

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32. To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins( double basin), what must be done?

Explanation

To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins, separating the basins with a towel is the correct answer. This is because the towel acts as an insulating barrier between the basins, preventing the transfer of heat and reducing the chances of condensation occurring. By creating a physical separation, the towel helps to maintain a dry environment and avoid the accumulation of moisture.

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33. What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains sinks for gross decontamination of instruments?

Explanation

The correct answer is "decontamination" because this term refers to the process of removing or reducing contamination, especially in the context of medical instruments. In a surgery department, a room dedicated to decontamination would contain sinks specifically designed for the thorough cleaning and disinfection of instruments to ensure they are safe to use in future procedures. The other options, such as "substerile" and "sterile storage," do not accurately describe a room for gross decontamination.

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34. Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the _________.

Explanation

The crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is called the meniscus. The meniscus acts as a shock absorber and provides stability to the joints. It helps to distribute the forces evenly across the joint surfaces, reducing friction and preventing damage to the bones. The meniscus also helps to improve the congruence and fit between the bones, allowing for smooth and efficient movement of the joint. Therefore, the correct answer is meniscus.

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35. The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity?

Explanation

The medulla oblongata controls various visceral activities, including cardiac activity, vasomotor activity, and respiratory activity. It is responsible for regulating heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate. Therefore, the correct answer is "all of the above" as the medulla oblongata controls all of these activities.

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36. When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.

Explanation

When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a back and forth motion should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument. This motion helps to evenly distribute the cleaning agent and prevent the build-up of residue in one area. Circular motion or using an abrasive cleanser can cause scratches on the stainless steel surface, while a wire brush can be too harsh and damaging. Therefore, a back and forth motion is the most suitable technique for cleaning stainless steel instruments without causing any damage.

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37. When placing the pregnant surgical patient in the supine position, the circulating surgical technologist should place a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip. This will help __________.

Explanation

Placing a small rolled pad or sheet under the right hip of a pregnant surgical patient in the supine position helps take weight off of the vena cava. The vena cava is a large vein that returns blood from the lower body to the heart. When a pregnant woman lies flat on her back, the weight of the uterus can compress the vena cava, reducing blood flow to the heart and potentially causing hypotension and decreased oxygen supply to the fetus. By elevating the right hip, the pressure on the vena cava is relieved, ensuring adequate blood flow and oxygenation for both the mother and the baby.

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38. What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse environmental conditions?

Explanation

Bacteria can form spores as a dormant structure to survive adverse environmental conditions. Spores are highly resistant structures that allow bacteria to withstand extreme temperatures, lack of nutrients, and other unfavorable conditions. These spores can remain dormant for extended periods until conditions become favorable for growth and reproduction. During spore formation, bacteria undergo a process called sporulation, where they encase their genetic material and essential components within a protective shell. This protective shell shields the bacteria from harmful factors and enables them to remain viable until conditions improve.

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39. ____________ means microbes and infection are absent.

Explanation

The term "sterile" refers to a condition where there are no microbes or infections present. It indicates a complete absence of any microorganisms that could potentially cause contamination or infection. This term is commonly used in medical and laboratory settings to describe an environment or object that has undergone a rigorous sterilization process to ensure its cleanliness and safety.

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40. Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called _______.

Explanation

Raytec sponges are commonly used in surgical procedures that require smaller incisions. These sponges are designed to be compact and absorbent, making them ideal for procedures that involve minimal tissue manipulation. Laparotomy refers to a surgical procedure involving a larger incision in the abdominal area. Neurosurgical pertains to surgical procedures specifically related to the nervous system. Tonsil refers to a specific anatomical structure in the throat and is not directly related to smaller incisions.

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41. A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.

Explanation

A Tru-Cut needle is used to obtain a biopsy. This type of needle is specifically designed for taking tissue samples from the body, usually from organs or masses that need to be examined for diagnostic purposes. It has a sharp cutting edge that allows for a precise and controlled extraction of tissue, making it an ideal tool for biopsies.

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42. Operating room walls should have which characteristic?

Explanation

Operating room walls should have the characteristic of being easy to clean with an antimicrobial solution. This is important because operating rooms need to maintain a high level of cleanliness and sterility to prevent the spread of infections. Having walls that are easy to clean with an antimicrobial solution ensures that any potential pathogens or bacteria can be effectively eliminated, reducing the risk of contamination during surgeries.

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43. Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:

Explanation

Incomplete closure of the vertebral column refers to a condition where the neural tube, which eventually forms the spinal cord, does not fully close during embryonic development. This leads to a range of abnormalities known as spina bifida. These abnormalities can vary in severity, but they generally involve the incomplete formation of the vertebrae, spinal cord, or both. Spina bifida can cause a variety of symptoms, including problems with mobility, bladder and bowel control, and potential complications such as hydrocephalus.

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44. A bloodborne pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk is ____________.

Explanation

Hepatitis C is a bloodborne pathogen that poses a significant risk to healthcare workers. It is transmitted through contact with infected blood, making healthcare professionals vulnerable to exposure during procedures or accidents involving needles or other sharp objects. Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can lead to chronic liver disease, and it is estimated that healthcare workers have a higher risk of contracting this infection compared to the general population due to their occupational exposure. Therefore, hepatitis C is the correct answer for this question.

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45. The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of ________________.

Explanation

The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the production of insulin. Insulin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood sugar levels. It allows cells to take in glucose from the bloodstream and use it for energy or store it for later use. Without insulin, glucose cannot enter cells, leading to high blood sugar levels and potentially causing diabetes.

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46. Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?

Explanation

Epinephrine is a hormone and neurotransmitter that is released by the adrenal glands in response to stress or danger. One of its main actions is vasoconstriction, which means it causes the blood vessels to narrow. This helps to increase blood pressure and redirect blood flow to vital organs during times of stress or injury. Epinephrine also has other effects such as bronchodilation (opening up the airways), analgesia (pain relief), and it can act as an anticoagulant (preventing blood clotting). However, the primary action of epinephrine is vasoconstriction.

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47. Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.

Explanation

A mastectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the entire mammary breast. This means that the entire breast tissue is removed, including the nipple and areola. This procedure is usually performed as a treatment for breast cancer or as a preventive measure for individuals at high risk of developing breast cancer. It is important to remove the entire mammary breast to ensure the complete removal of cancerous cells and reduce the risk of recurrence.

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48. Cystocele is prolapse of the ________.

Explanation

Cystocele is a condition where the bladder protrudes into the vaginal vault. This occurs when the supportive tissues and muscles that hold the bladder in place become weak or damaged. As a result, the bladder descends and bulges into the vagina, causing discomfort and other symptoms. Treatment options for cystocele may include pelvic floor exercises, lifestyle changes, and in some cases, surgery to repair or reinforce the weakened tissues.

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49. Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical dependence and abuse are called __________.

Explanation

Controlled substances refer to drugs that have a high potential for abuse and can lead to psychological or physical dependence. These drugs are regulated by the government and require a prescription from a healthcare professional. They are classified into different schedules based on their potential for abuse and accepted medical use. Examples of controlled substances include opioids, stimulants, and sedatives.

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50. The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n) _____________.

Explanation

A fetoscope is a medical instrument specifically designed for visualizing a fetus in utero. It allows healthcare professionals to examine the developing fetus by inserting the instrument into the mother's uterus. The other options - laryngoscope, hysteroscope, and colonoscope - are all medical instruments used for visualizing different parts of the body, but they are not specifically designed for visualizing a fetus in utero. Therefore, the correct answer is fetoscope.

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51. When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with __________.

Explanation

When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the surgical technologist is responsible for cooling the instruments with sterile water. This is because sterile water is a safe and effective way to rapidly cool down the instruments without causing any damage or compromising their sterility. Using alcohol or glutaraldehyde could be harmful to the instruments or pose a risk to the surgical team, while sterile saline may not provide the same level of cooling as sterile water. Therefore, sterile water is the most appropriate choice for this task.

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52. During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology?

Explanation

During abdominal procedures on obese patients, cholecystectomy might additionally be performed due to newly identified pathology. Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the gallbladder, which is commonly performed to treat gallstones or inflammation of the gallbladder. In obese patients, there is an increased risk of gallstone formation, and if gallstones or other gallbladder pathology are identified during the procedure, cholecystectomy may be necessary to prevent future complications. This procedure can be performed concurrently with other abdominal surgeries to address the newly identified pathology.

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53. The washer decontaminator does NOT render the instruments __________.

Explanation

The washer decontaminator does NOT render the instruments sterile. This means that the instruments are not completely free from all forms of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Although the washer decontaminator may clean and disinfect the instruments, it does not achieve the highest level of cleanliness required for sterility. Sterility is essential in certain medical procedures to prevent the transmission of infections.

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54. Items are counted in which order for every procedure?

Explanation

The correct order for counting items in every procedure is sponges first, followed by sharps, and then instruments.

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55. Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?

Explanation

Ultrasound is a diagnostic procedure that uses high-frequency sound waves to create images of the internal structures of the body. It is commonly used to examine organs, tissues, and blood flow. Unlike other imaging techniques like MRI, PET, and CT, ultrasound does not involve the use of radiation, making it a safer option for certain patients, such as pregnant women. The high-frequency sound waves emitted by the ultrasound machine bounce off the body's structures and create real-time images that can be used for diagnosis and monitoring of various conditions.

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56. The term PACU refers to the _________.

Explanation

The term PACU refers to the post anesthesia care unit. This is the unit where patients are taken immediately after surgery to recover from the effects of anesthesia. In the PACU, patients are closely monitored by medical professionals to ensure their vital signs stabilize and they wake up safely from anesthesia. This unit is responsible for providing post-operative care, managing pain, and monitoring patients until they are stable enough to be transferred to a regular hospital room or discharged.

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57. For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should have which of the following available?

Explanation

In the posterolateral position, the patient is positioned on their side with the operative side facing up. This position requires the use of a beanbag, which is a versatile positioning device that conforms to the patient's body shape and provides stability and support. The beanbag helps to maintain the patient's position during the procedure, preventing them from shifting or sliding. It also helps to distribute pressure evenly, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. The other options, such as the adhesive tape, extra arm board, and shoulder rests, may be used in different surgical positions or for different purposes, but they are not specifically required for the posterolateral position.

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58. Which of the following is the generic name for Marcaine?

Explanation

Bupivacaine is the correct answer because it is the generic name for the drug Marcaine. Marcaine is a local anesthetic that is commonly used for pain relief during medical procedures. The other options listed, Pitocin, Xylocaine, and Novocain, are not the generic names for Marcaine and are different medications used for different purposes.

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59. Which term describes the following coping mechanism: "A patient tries to give excuses as to why he or she has a particular illness"?

Explanation

Rationalization is the correct answer because it refers to the coping mechanism where a patient tries to give excuses or logical explanations for their illness. This defense mechanism helps the individual to protect their ego and reduce feelings of guilt or shame associated with their illness. They may attribute the illness to external factors or circumstances, rather than accepting personal responsibility.

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60. At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are NOT considered ____________.

Explanation

At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are not considered appropriate for use on the patient because even though they have been sterilized, they still need to go through additional steps such as assembly into sets and processing before they can be used on a patient.

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61. Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in __________.

Explanation

Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in formalin because it is a commonly used fixative in pathology laboratories. Formalin helps to preserve the tissue and prevent decay, allowing for accurate examination and analysis. It also helps to maintain the structural integrity of the specimen, making it easier to handle and process for further testing or storage. Additionally, formalin is able to penetrate tissues effectively, ensuring that all parts of the specimen are properly preserved.

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62. Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?

Explanation

Bartholin's gland is the correct answer because it is a female gland that secretes a lubricating mucoid substance. This gland is located on either side of the vaginal opening and its secretions help to lubricate the vagina during sexual arousal, reducing friction and discomfort. Cowper's gland is a male gland that secretes a clear fluid during sexual arousal, while the pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles. Sudoriferous glands, also known as sweat glands, are responsible for producing sweat to regulate body temperature.

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63. The ultrasonic washer is an example os a __________.

Explanation

The ultrasonic washer is considered a mechanical decontamination unit because it uses high-frequency sound waves to create vibrations that help remove dirt, debris, and contaminants from objects. It is commonly used in healthcare settings to clean and decontaminate medical instruments before sterilization. Unlike sterilizers, which eliminate all forms of microbial life, the ultrasonic washer focuses on physically removing contaminants through mechanical means. Therefore, it falls under the category of a mechanical decontamination method rather than a sterilizer or bioburden.

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64. Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________ procedures.

Explanation

Curved needle holders are generally used during gynecological procedures. These procedures often involve delicate and intricate suturing, and the curved design of the needle holder allows for better control and manipulation of the curved needles commonly used in gynecological surgeries. The curved needle holder enables surgeons to securely hold and maneuver the needle, facilitating precise and accurate suturing during gynecological procedures.

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65. What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?

Explanation

The best temperature for irrigation used on the brain is body temperature. This is because body temperature is the closest to the natural temperature of the brain, which helps to maintain its normal functioning and prevent any damage or complications. Irrigation with cold or hot water can cause temperature imbalances and potentially harm the brain. Room temperature may not be ideal as it can vary and may not provide the necessary stability for brain irrigation.

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66. What medical term refers to the abdominal accumulation of air in the pleural cavity?

Explanation

Pneumothorax refers to the accumulation of air in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can occur due to lung injury or disease, causing the lung to collapse partially or completely. Symptoms of pneumothorax may include sudden chest pain, shortness of breath, and rapid breathing. Treatment usually involves removing the air from the pleural cavity and allowing the lung to re-expand.

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67. The pH of vaginal fluid is _________.

Explanation

The pH of vaginal fluid is acidic. This is because the normal pH range of the vagina is between 3.8 and 4.5, which is considered acidic. The acidic environment helps to maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and prevent the overgrowth of harmful bacteria or yeast. This acidity also provides protection against potential infections and helps to keep the vaginal flora in a healthy state.

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68. Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with __________.

Explanation

Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with higher mortality. This is because geriatric patients often have multiple comorbidities and decreased physiological reserve, making them more vulnerable to complications during emergency procedures. Additionally, age-related changes in organ function and decreased ability to tolerate stressors such as hypothermia and hypoxemia further contribute to the increased mortality rate in this population. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully assess and plan emergency procedures in geriatric patients to minimize the risk of adverse outcomes.

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69. Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?

Explanation

Clostridium perfringens is the correct answer for the question. This microorganism is known to cause both gas gangrene and cellulitis. Gas gangrene is a severe infection that affects the muscles and other soft tissues, causing them to die and produce gas. Cellulitis, on the other hand, is a common bacterial skin infection that can spread to deeper tissues. Clostridium perfringens is a spore-forming bacterium commonly found in soil and the gastrointestinal tract of humans and animals. It produces toxins that contribute to the development of these infections.

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70. A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered in known as _________.

Explanation

Laminar airflow refers to a unidirectional positive-pressure flow of air that captures microbes to be filtered. This type of airflow is commonly used in cleanrooms, laboratories, and medical facilities to maintain a sterile environment and prevent the spread of contaminants. It ensures that air flows in a smooth, uniform manner without any turbulence, effectively capturing and removing airborne particles and microbes.

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71. The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphysis is termed:

Explanation

The dense connective tissue covering the outer surface of the bone diaphysis is called the periosteum. It serves as a protective layer for the bone and contains blood vessels, nerves, and cells involved in bone growth and repair. The periosteum also helps to connect the bone to surrounding tissues and plays a role in the formation of new bone tissue.

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72. What disease is NOT an autoimmune disease?

Explanation

AIDS is not an autoimmune disease because it is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which attacks and weakens the immune system. In autoimmune diseases, the immune system mistakenly attacks healthy cells and tissues in the body. Multiple sclerosis, lupus erythematosus, and rheumatoid arthritis are all examples of autoimmune diseases where the immune system mistakenly attacks various parts of the body.

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73. What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?

Explanation

Water as a presoaking solution is ineffective at removing dried debris because it lacks the necessary properties to break down and dissolve stubborn dirt and grime. While water can help to loosen some debris, it is not as effective as other cleaning agents specifically designed for this purpose. Therefore, relying solely on water as a presoaking solution may not adequately clean or prepare the item for further cleaning or processing.

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74. Which of the following is a reason a patient may be extubated in the recovery room instead of the operating room suite?

Explanation

A patient may be extubated in the recovery room instead of the operating room suite if they cannot breathe unassisted. This means that the patient is unable to breathe on their own without the assistance of a ventilator or breathing tube. Extubating the patient in the recovery room allows for closer monitoring and immediate intervention if there are any complications or difficulties with breathing. It also ensures that the patient is stable and able to breathe adequately before being transferred out of the operating room suite.

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75. The process used to relieve pain during surgical intervention refers to __________ administration.

Explanation

The correct answer is anesthesia. Anesthesia is the process used to relieve pain during surgical intervention. It involves the administration of drugs or gases to induce a temporary loss of sensation or consciousness, allowing the patient to undergo surgery without feeling pain. Tranquilizers, narcotics, and neuromuscular blocks may be components of anesthesia, but anesthesia itself encompasses the overall process of pain relief during surgery.

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76. Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps EXCEPT __________.

Explanation

Postoperative instrument handling involves several steps, including cleaning and decontamination to ensure instruments are free from any contaminants, reassembly to put the instruments back together properly, and preparation to ensure they are ready for the next use. However, distribution is not a step in postoperative instrument handling. Distribution typically refers to the process of delivering or sending instruments to different locations, which is not a part of the handling process after a surgery.

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77. Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an environment with or without oxygen?

Explanation

Facultative anaerobes are bacteria that have the ability to survive in environments with or without oxygen. They can switch between aerobic respiration (using oxygen) and anaerobic respiration (without oxygen) depending on the availability of oxygen. This flexibility allows them to adapt to different conditions and thrive in various environments. Unlike obligate anaerobes, which can only survive in the absence of oxygen, facultative anaerobes have the metabolic versatility to utilize oxygen if it is present.

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78.
  • A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism is called _________.

Explanation

Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by a softening of adult bone, which is caused by a disorder in calcium and phosphorus metabolism. This disorder leads to a deficiency in minerals necessary for bone strength and structure. As a result, the bones become weak and prone to fractures. Osteochondritis refers to inflammation of the bone and cartilage, osteogenesis refers to the formation of bone, and osteonecrosis refers to the death of bone tissue.

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79. If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for which response?

Explanation

Pediatric patients must be observed for paradoxical responses to some drugs. This means that they may exhibit unexpected or opposite reactions to certain medications compared to what is typically seen in adults. It is important to monitor these patients closely to ensure their safety and to adjust the treatment accordingly.

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80. Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transfered to remain attached to its blood supply?

Explanation

A pedicle flap is a type of flap surgery where the tissue to be transferred remains attached to its blood supply. This means that the tissue is not completely detached from its original location, but rather connected to a pedicle or stalk that contains the blood vessels needed for its survival. This type of flap ensures that the transferred tissue receives a constant blood supply, promoting successful healing and graft survival. In contrast, a free flap involves completely detaching the tissue from its original site and reattaching it to blood vessels at the recipient site. Skin tags and de Quervain's are unrelated to the concept of tissue transfer.

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81. The main function of the liver in metabolism is to __________.

Explanation

The liver plays a crucial role in metabolism by breaking down drug molecules. It contains enzymes that are responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying drugs, making them easier for the body to eliminate. This process helps in reducing the concentration of drugs in the bloodstream and prevents their accumulation in the body. Therefore, the liver's main function in metabolism is to break down drug molecules.

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82. Pharmacodynamics describes the interaction of the ______________.

Explanation

Pharmacodynamics refers to the study of how drugs interact with target cells in the body. It focuses on understanding the mechanisms of action of drugs at the cellular level and how they produce their effects. This includes the binding of drug molecules to specific receptors on target cells, the subsequent activation or inhibition of cellular processes, and the overall response of the organism to the drug. Therefore, the correct answer is "drug molecules and target cells."

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83. Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg?

Explanation

A hip spica is a type of cast that is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg, and around half of the unaffected leg. It is commonly used to immobilize the hip and thigh area, providing support and stability for fractures or injuries in that region. The other options, such as long-leg cast, cylinder cast, and body jacket, do not specifically cover the trunk and the unaffected leg in the same way as a hip spica does.

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84. Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic strutures during the surgical procedures?

Explanation

Fluoroscopy is a diagnostic imaging procedure that allows the surgeon to view anatomical structures in real-time during surgical procedures. It uses a continuous X-ray beam to create a moving image on a screen, providing the surgeon with live feedback. This allows for precise guidance during the surgery, ensuring accurate placement of instruments and monitoring the progress of the procedure. Unlike conventional X-rays, ultrasound, and MRI, fluoroscopy provides dynamic imaging, making it particularly useful during minimally invasive surgeries or procedures that require real-time visualization.

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85. Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be varified by ________________.

Explanation

Radiography is a method used to verify the correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains. This involves taking X-ray images to visualize the position and placement of these medical devices within the body. This technique allows healthcare professionals to ensure that the catheters, tubes, and drains are correctly positioned and functioning as intended, minimizing the risk of complications or ineffective treatment. Pulse oximetry measures oxygen saturation in the blood, auscultation involves listening to sounds within the body, and endoscopy is a procedure that uses a flexible tube with a camera to visualize internal organs, none of which are specifically used to verify the placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains.

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86. The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is ____________.

Explanation

Biological indicators are the only method used to ensure the sterility of items. Chemical indicator strips, mechanical indicators, and the Bowie-Dick test are not sufficient on their own to guarantee sterility. Biological indicators, such as spore strips or vials, contain live microorganisms that are highly resistant to sterilization methods. These indicators are placed alongside the items being sterilized and then incubated to see if any microorganisms survive, indicating a failure in the sterilization process. This provides a more accurate and reliable assessment of sterilization effectiveness compared to other methods.

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87. During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection?

Explanation

The long Allis instrument can be used to put tension on the tonsil during dissection. This instrument has sharp teeth that can grip onto the tonsil, allowing the surgeon to manipulate and apply tension to the tissue for easier dissection. It is commonly used in tonsillectomy procedures to aid in the removal of the tonsils.

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88. How many phalanges are in a normal hand?

Explanation

A normal hand consists of 14 phalanges. Phalanges are the bones that make up the fingers and thumb. Each finger has three phalanges, except for the thumb which has two. Therefore, when we add up the phalanges in all the fingers and thumb, we get a total of 14.

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89. Microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred to as _____________.

Explanation

The term "indigenous" refers to something that is native or naturally occurring in a particular place. In the context of the question, it is stating that microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred to as indigenous. This means that these microbes are naturally present in and adapted to the human body, forming a normal part of its ecosystem.

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90. The right kidney is located slightly lower that the left, due to the _________.

Explanation

The right kidney is located slightly lower than the left due to the presence of the liver. The liver is a large organ that occupies a significant amount of space in the abdominal cavity. Its position pushes the right kidney slightly downwards, causing it to be lower than the left kidney.

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91. The time is takes from the administration of a drug until its action becomes evident refers to  __________.

Explanation

The term "onset" refers to the time it takes for a drug to start showing its effects after it has been administered. It signifies the beginning of the drug's action and is an important consideration in determining the effectiveness and timing of drug therapy.

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92. Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called __________ drapes.

Explanation

Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an adhesive backing are called "aperture" drapes. The term "aperture" refers to an opening or hole, which accurately describes the characteristic of these drapes. The use of the word "aperture" suggests that these drapes are designed to provide a clear and defined opening for medical procedures or other applications where a controlled access point is required.

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93. What structures are removed during UPPP?

Explanation

During UPPP (uvulopalatopharyngoplasty), the structures that are removed include the tonsils, adenoids, uvula, and a portion of the soft palate. This surgical procedure is commonly performed to treat obstructive sleep apnea by widening the airway and reducing tissue that may obstruct breathing during sleep. By removing these structures, the surgeon aims to increase the size of the airway and improve airflow, ultimately reducing the symptoms of sleep apnea.

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94. Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.

Explanation

Modified radical mastectomy involves the removal of the breast and axillary lymph nodes. This surgical procedure is commonly used for the treatment of breast cancer. By removing the breast, the surgeon aims to eliminate the cancerous tissue, while also removing the nearby axillary lymph nodes to check for any spread of cancer cells. This comprehensive approach helps to reduce the risk of recurrence and improve the patient's chances of survival. The removal of pectoral muscles is not typically included in a modified radical mastectomy unless the cancer has spread to these muscles.

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95. A vertical plane through the body dividing it into right and left is termed:

Explanation

A vertical plane through the body that divides it into right and left sides is called sagittal. This term is commonly used in anatomy to describe the direction or orientation of a cut or section made through the body. The sagittal plane is perpendicular to the transverse plane, which divides the body into upper and lower parts, and the frontal plane, which divides the body into front and back sections.

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96. The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is referred to as ____________.

Explanation

Bioburden refers to the number of microbes or organic debris present at a specific time. It is a measure of the microbial contamination in a particular environment or on a surface. This term is commonly used in healthcare settings to assess cleanliness and infection control measures. By quantifying the bioburden, healthcare professionals can determine the effectiveness of sterilization processes and the level of contamination present, allowing them to take appropriate actions to minimize the risk of infection.

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97. "Articulations" refer to:

Explanation

Articulations refer to joints. Joints are the structures on bones where muscles attach and allow for movement. They are responsible for connecting bones together and enabling various types of motion in the body.

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98. Bacilli are typically found to be in the shape of

Explanation

Bacilli are typically found in the shape of rods. This means that they have a cylindrical shape with rounded ends. The term "bacilli" refers to a group of bacteria that are characterized by their rod-like shape. This shape allows them to have a larger surface area for nutrient absorption and movement. Additionally, their rod shape enables them to form chains or clusters, which can aid in their survival and reproduction. Therefore, the correct answer is rods.

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99. All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___________.

Explanation

Throat packs are not kept dry and used to prevent oral secretions, irrigation fluid, blood, and bone or tooth fragments from becoming lodged in the pharynx.

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100. Which term is used to describe "the multiplication of organisms in tissue"?

Explanation

The term "infection" is used to describe the multiplication of organisms in tissue. Infection occurs when harmful microorganisms, such as bacteria or viruses, invade and multiply within the body's tissues, causing damage and leading to various symptoms. This can happen in any part of the body and can be caused by a variety of pathogens. Infections can range from mild to severe and can be treated with medications like antibiotics.

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101. The coronary arteries arise form the ________.

Explanation

The correct answer is "aorta." The coronary arteries arise from the aorta, which is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. These arteries supply oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle itself, allowing it to function properly. The other options, vena cavae, pulmonary artery, and subclavian artery, do not give rise to the coronary arteries.

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102.  A nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell for survival is called a ___________.

Explanation

A virus is a nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell for survival. Unlike bacteria, fungi, and protozoa, viruses cannot survive or reproduce without a host cell. They invade the host cell and use its machinery to replicate and produce more viruses. This dependency on the host cell is what distinguishes viruses from other types of microorganisms.

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103. For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct?

Explanation

The correct answer is "The arterial incision is made with a #10 blade on a long #3 handle." This statement is incorrect because for an aortofemoral bypass, the arterial incision is typically made with a #15 blade on a long #3 handle, not a #10 blade. The #15 blade is smaller and more suitable for making precise incisions in blood vessels.

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104. Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a (n)_______________.

Explanation

Nissen fundoplication is a surgical procedure performed to correct a hiatal hernia. A hiatal hernia occurs when the upper part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. This can cause symptoms such as heartburn, chest pain, and difficulty swallowing. Nissen fundoplication involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophagus to strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter and prevent stomach acid from flowing back into the esophagus. By correcting the hiatal hernia, this procedure helps alleviate the symptoms associated with it.

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105. Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair a(n) ____________.

Explanation

The Roux-en-Y technique is commonly used to repair a total gastrectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the entire stomach and creating a new connection between the esophagus and the small intestine. This allows for the digestion and absorption of food to continue despite the removal of the stomach. The Roux-en-Y technique is often chosen for total gastrectomies due to its effectiveness in maintaining proper digestion and minimizing complications.

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106. Which of the following bone isnot part of the cranium:

Explanation

The palatine bone is not part of the cranium. The cranium is made up of several bones that enclose and protect the brain, including the sphenoid, ethmoid, and occipital bones. The palatine bone, on the other hand, is located in the facial skeleton and forms part of the hard palate and the floor of the nasal cavity.

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107. An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for __________.

Explanation

An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for semicritical items. Semicritical items are those that come into contact with mucous membranes or non-intact skin but do not penetrate body tissues. Examples include endoscopes, respiratory therapy equipment, and anesthesia equipment. Intermediate level disinfection involves the use of a germicide that kills most microorganisms, but not necessarily high numbers of bacterial spores. This level of disinfection is sufficient for semicritical items as it reduces the risk of infection transmission while still allowing for a shorter and less complex disinfection process compared to critical items.

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108. An enzyme is usually used as a (n) ____________.

Explanation

An enzyme is usually used as a soaking solution because enzymes are proteins that can break down organic substances. Soaking items in an enzyme solution helps to remove stains, dirt, and organic matter by breaking them down into smaller, more easily removable particles. Enzymes are especially effective for removing protein-based stains, such as blood or grass stains, making them a common choice for soaking solutions in laundry or cleaning applications.

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109. The external iliac arteries branch into the ________ arteries.

Explanation

The external iliac arteries, which are located in the pelvis, branch into the femoral arteries. The femoral arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the lower limbs.

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110. When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a(n) _________.

Explanation

When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as an electrical current. This term is used to describe the flow of electric charge through a conductor. The movement of electrons or other charged particles creates a flow of current, which can be used to power various electrical devices. The other options, such as active current, open current, and closed current, are not commonly used terms in the context of electrical charges in motion.

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111. An end ileostomy is created from the ___________.

Explanation

An end ileostomy is created from the terminal ileum. This is because the terminal ileum is the last part of the small intestine before it connects to the large intestine. During an ileostomy, the surgeon creates an opening in the abdominal wall using the terminal ileum, allowing waste to bypass the colon and exit the body through a stoma. This procedure is often performed in cases where the colon needs to be bypassed or removed due to disease or injury.

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112. What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland?

Explanation

Operating on the parotid gland can be a major concern due to the risk of damaging the facial nerve. The parotid gland is located near the facial nerve, which controls the muscles of facial expression. Any injury to the facial nerve during surgery can result in facial weakness or paralysis. Therefore, surgeons must exercise extreme caution to avoid damaging the facial nerve while operating on the parotid gland.

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113. Which of the following is a topical anesthetic inserted into the nose prior to a plastic nasal procedure?

Explanation

Tetracaine is a topical anesthetic that is commonly used to numb the nose before a plastic nasal procedure. It works by blocking the nerve signals in the area, providing temporary pain relief. Bupivacaine, meperidine, and fentanyl are also anesthetics, but they are not typically used topically in the nose for this type of procedure.

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114. Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?

Explanation

A taper needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel because it has a pointed tip that allows for precise and controlled penetration into the vessel. The taper shape of the needle also helps to minimize tissue trauma and reduce the risk of bleeding during the closure process. The other needle types mentioned, such as blunt, conventional cutting, and side cutting, may not be as effective or suitable for closing blood vessels due to their different shapes and characteristics.

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115. What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)?

Explanation

The Ellik evacuator is a surgical instrument that is used to remove tissue fragments from within the bladder during a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). This instrument is designed to suction out the tissue fragments and fluid from the bladder, allowing for better visibility and access to the prostate. It is commonly used in TURP procedures to ensure that all the necessary tissue is removed and to minimize the risk of complications.

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116. Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after cardiac procedure?

Explanation

The intra-aortic balloon pump is a mechanical device designed for circulatory support after a cardiac procedure. It is inserted into the aorta and works by inflating and deflating a balloon in sync with the patient's heartbeat. This helps to improve blood flow and oxygenation to the heart muscle, reducing the workload on the heart and improving cardiac function. The other options listed (cell saver, Fogarty embolectomy catheter, arterial line) are not specifically designed for circulatory support after a cardiac procedure.

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117. Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?

Explanation

The palmaris longus muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist. It is a long, slender muscle that runs along the inner side of the forearm. When it contracts, it pulls the hand towards the palm, causing flexion at the wrist joint. This muscle is absent in some individuals, but when present, it aids in various hand movements such as gripping and flexing.

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118. The "Hunchback" of Notre Dame probably suffered from:

Explanation

Kyphosis is the excessive curvature of the upper spine, causing a hunched or rounded back. This condition is commonly associated with the term "hunchback." Therefore, it is likely that the character in "The Hunchback of Notre Dame" suffered from kyphosis.

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119. When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________ should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument.

Explanation

When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a back and forth motion should be used to avoid scratching the surface of the instrument. This is because a back and forth motion distributes the cleaning force evenly and reduces the risk of applying excessive pressure on a specific area, which could lead to scratching. Circular motion or using an abrasive cleanser can potentially cause scratches on the instrument's surface. A wire brush should also be avoided as it can be too harsh and abrasive for stainless steel instruments.

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120. Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth are:

Explanation

Fontanelles are soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth. They are commonly known as "soft spots" on a baby's head. Fontanelles allow for the growth and expansion of the skull during infancy. They gradually close as the baby grows and the bones of the skull fuse together. The presence of fontanelles is a normal part of a baby's development and is not indicative of any specific condition or abnormality.

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121. What theory states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell?

Explanation

The theory that states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity for a specific chemical constituent of a cell is called drug-receptor interaction. This theory suggests that drugs interact with specific receptors on cells, leading to a biological response or effect. By binding to these receptors, drugs can alter the normal functioning of cells and produce therapeutic effects. This concept is fundamental in understanding how drugs work and designing new drugs with specific receptor affinities.

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122. Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck?

Explanation

The internal jugular veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions of the face and neck. These veins are located on each side of the neck and are responsible for draining deoxygenated blood from the head and neck back to the heart. The internal jugular veins are important for maintaining proper blood flow and circulation in these areas of the body.

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123. The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except:

Explanation

The anatomical position is a standardized position used to describe the human body. It is characterized by several features, including palms facing forward (not posterior), thumbs pointing laterally, face pointing anteriorly, and the body standing upright. Therefore, the correct answer in this case is "palms facing posterior" because in the anatomical position, the palms should be facing forward.

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124. The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal muscle is called a (n)

Explanation

The correct answer is EMG. EMG stands for electromyography, which is the process of measuring and recording the electrical activity produced by skeletal muscles. This technique is commonly used to diagnose and evaluate muscle disorders, nerve damage, and other conditions that affect the muscles. EEG (electroencephalography) is used to measure brain activity, ECG (electrocardiography) is used to measure heart activity, and a PET scan (positron emission tomography) is a medical imaging technique used to visualize metabolic processes in the body.

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125. Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma?

Explanation

The Caldwell view is a radiographic view that shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital floor, and zygoma. This view is obtained by angling the x-ray beam 15 degrees caudally, which allows for visualization of these specific structures. It is commonly used in the evaluation of facial fractures and sinus pathology.

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126. A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the :

Explanation

A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the diaphysis. The diaphysis is the long, cylindrical middle portion of a long bone, located between the epiphysis (ends) of the bone. Fractures in the diaphysis are common and can occur due to trauma or repetitive stress.

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127. Which statement is NOT correct regarding the placement  of the bone flap?

Explanation

The bone flap is not placed after the muscle layer is closed with an absorbable suture.

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128. Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignanat in _______% of all patients?

Explanation

Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignant in 60% of all patients. This means that 60 out of every 100 patients with symptomatic lesions in the mediastinum have a malignant condition. It is important to note that this statistic only applies to patients who are experiencing symptoms related to their mediastinal lesions, and not to all patients with mediastinal lesions in general.

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129. Implied consent may apply when ________.

Explanation

Implied consent may apply when conditions are discovered during surgery because in such situations, the patient is already under anesthesia and unable to give explicit consent. In emergency situations, surgeons are authorized to proceed with necessary procedures to treat the discovered conditions without obtaining explicit consent from the patient. This is based on the assumption that the patient would have consented if they were conscious and aware of the situation.

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130. Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy?

Explanation

The correct answer is midchest to midthighs and bilaterally. This answer describes the anatomic area that will be prepped for a laparotomy. A laparotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the abdominal wall to gain access to the abdominal cavity. Prepping the area involves cleaning and sterilizing the skin from the midchest to the midthighs on both sides of the body. This ensures that the entire area where the incision will be made is free from bacteria and other contaminants.

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131. Chondroblasts produce:

Explanation

Chondroblasts are specialized cells found in cartilage tissue. Their primary function is to produce and maintain the extracellular matrix of cartilage. This matrix is composed of collagen fibers, proteoglycans, and other substances that give cartilage its strength and flexibility. Therefore, the correct answer is "cartilage matrix" as chondroblasts are responsible for its production.

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132. The thickened cartilage "cushions" found in the knee and vertebral joints that absorb compression are:

Explanation

The thickened cartilage "cushions" in the knee and vertebral joints that absorb compression are known as the menisci. These crescent-shaped structures are located between the bones, acting as shock absorbers and improving stability in the joints. They help distribute the forces evenly across the joint surfaces, protecting the bones and preventing excessive wear and tear. The menisci also contribute to joint lubrication and facilitate smooth movement within the joint.

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133. The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and left:

Explanation

The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the palatine and maxillae. The palatine bones form the posterior portion of the hard palate, while the maxillae bones form the anterior portion. Together, they create a solid structure that separates the oral and nasal cavities. The zygomatic and temporal bones are not involved in the formation of the hard palate, and the mandible is not a part of the hard palate at all.

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134. The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:

Explanation

The correct answer is vomer and ethmoid. The posterior nasal septum is formed by the vomer bone, which is located at the lower part of the nasal cavity, and the ethmoid bone, which is located at the upper part of the nasal cavity. These two bones contribute to the structure and support of the nasal septum, helping to separate the left and right sides of the nasal cavity.

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135. Which microorganisms is capable of causing an UTI?

Explanation

Staphylococcus epidermidis is capable of causing a urinary tract infection (UTI). This bacterium is a common cause of UTIs, especially in individuals with indwelling urinary catheters or other urinary tract devices. Staphylococcus epidermidis is a part of the normal flora on the skin and mucous membranes, but it can cause infection when it enters the urinary tract. It is often associated with catheter-associated UTIs and can form biofilms on the surface of urinary catheters, making it difficult to treat.

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136. Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm?

Explanation

Papaverine is a drug that is commonly used to suppress arterial vasospasm. Vasospasm is the narrowing or constriction of blood vessels, specifically arteries, which can restrict blood flow and cause various complications. Papaverine works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the walls of the arteries, allowing them to dilate and improve blood flow. This drug is often used in the treatment of conditions such as vasospastic angina, Raynaud's disease, and peripheral vascular disease. It is an effective medication for suppressing arterial vasospasm and promoting better blood circulation.

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137. The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:

Explanation

The correct answer is mediastinum. The mediastinum is the space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides. It is located between the two pleural cavities and contains various structures such as the heart, great vessels, esophagus, and trachea. The pericardial cavity refers to the space within the pericardium, which is the protective sac surrounding the heart. The pleural cavity is the space surrounding the lungs. The dorsal cavity refers to the posterior cavity of the body, which includes the cranial cavity and spinal cavity.

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138. Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the:

Explanation

Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the left atrium. The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins, which carry blood from the lungs back to the heart. From the left atrium, the blood then passes through the mitral valve and enters the left ventricle, where it is pumped out to the rest of the body. The pulmonary semilunar valve is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery, and it prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle. The vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the body back to the right atrium of the heart.

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139. Yellow marrow consists of:

Explanation

Yellow marrow is a type of bone marrow that is found in the medullary cavity of long bones. It is composed mainly of adipose tissue, which is responsible for storing fat in the body. Adipose tissue serves as an energy reserve and also provides insulation and cushioning. Yellow marrow does not contain osteoprogenitor cells, blood cell progenitor cells, hyaline cartilage, or spongy bone. Therefore, the correct answer is adipose.

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140. Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the __________.

Explanation

Panendoscopy is a medical procedure that involves viewing the internal structures of the upper digestive tract, including the esophagus, stomach, and sometimes the upper part of the small intestine. It is commonly used to diagnose and evaluate conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), esophagitis, and Barrett's esophagus. Therefore, the correct answer is "esophagus" as it is one of the structures that can be viewed during a panendoscopy.

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141. Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment?

Explanation

Radiation is the term that means loss of heat from the patient's body to the environment. Radiation refers to the transfer of heat energy in the form of electromagnetic waves, such as infrared radiation, from a warmer object to a cooler object. In the context of the question, it means that the patient's body is losing heat to the surrounding environment through the process of radiation.

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142. Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____________.

Explanation

Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as an omission. This means that negligence occurs when someone fails to fulfill their duty or obligation, either by not doing something they should have done or by not taking necessary action. In other words, negligence refers to the failure to act or the failure to exercise reasonable care, which can result in harm or injury to others.

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143. The sphenoid bone forms __________.

Explanation

The sphenoid bone forms portions of the base of the cranium, sides of the skull, and base and sides for the orbits. This means that the sphenoid bone contributes to the structure of the skull by forming parts of the base of the cranium, the sides of the skull, and providing support for the orbits where the eyes are located.

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144. What graft material is not recommended to be used in the popliteal space?

Explanation

The popliteal space is a high-stress area that is subjected to constant movement and pressure. Therefore, it is important to use graft materials that can withstand these conditions and provide long-term durability. PTFE and specialized knitted velour Dacron graft are both known for their strength and ability to withstand the stresses of the popliteal space. The saphenous vein is a natural graft material that is often used in this area due to its compatibility with the surrounding tissues. However, porous Dacron graft is not recommended for use in the popliteal space because its porous nature may lead to increased risk of infection and graft failure.

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145. Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:

Explanation

The femur is not part of the axial skeleton. The axial skeleton consists of the skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage, which includes the sternum and ribs. The femur is the thigh bone and belongs to the appendicular skeleton, which includes the bones of the limbs and their girdles.

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146. Where are the lacrimal glands located?

Explanation

The lacrimal glands are located within the upper eyelids. These glands are responsible for producing tears, which help to keep the eyes lubricated and free from debris. Tears are then spread across the surface of the eye by blinking and the movement of the eyelids.

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147. Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:

Explanation

Synovial joints are not described as "bones held together by cartilage." Synovial joints are characterized by having joint surfaces of bones covered with articulating cartilage, a joint cavity, a 2-layered joint capsule, and being the most freely movable of joints. However, they are not held together by cartilage. Instead, they are held together by ligaments, which connect bone to bone and provide stability to the joint.

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148. The kidneys are bounded by the __________ muscles on the medical side.

Explanation

The psoas muscles are located on the medial side of the kidneys. These muscles are part of the hip flexor group and are responsible for flexing the hip joint. They originate from the lumbar vertebrae and attach to the femur. The kidneys are situated in the retroperitoneal space, and the psoas muscles lie adjacent to them, providing support and protection.

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149. If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened, intravenous __________ may facilitate locating the orifices.

Explanation

Indigo carmine is a dye that is commonly used in medical procedures to help visualize the urinary tract. When the bladder is opened and the ureters are difficult to identify, intravenous indigo carmine can be administered to facilitate locating the orifices of the ureters. This dye helps to color the urine, making it easier for the surgeon or medical professional to identify the ureters and ensure proper placement or treatment.

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150. Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:

Explanation

The patella is considered a sesamoid bone because it is a small, round bone embedded within a tendon. Sesamoid bones are typically found in locations where tendons pass over joints, providing protection and improving the mechanical advantage of the muscle. The patella is located in the front of the knee joint and acts as a fulcrum, increasing the leverage of the quadriceps muscles during knee extension.

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151. Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ___________.

Explanation

Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are all examples of opioids. Opioids are a class of drugs that are commonly used for pain relief. They work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and blocking pain signals. Opioids can also produce feelings of euphoria and sedation, which can lead to their misuse and addiction.

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152. The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it has formed is:

Explanation

Osteocytes are the correct answer because they are responsible for maintaining the bone matrix once it has formed. Osteocytes are mature bone cells that are embedded within the bone matrix. They function to regulate bone remodeling by detecting mechanical stress and signaling to other bone cells to either resorb or deposit bone. Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, chondrocytes are responsible for cartilage formation, fibroblasts are responsible for producing connective tissue, and osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation.

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153. Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:

Explanation

A damaged cribriform plate is the most serious or life-threatening condition among the options given. The cribriform plate is a bone that separates the nasal cavity from the brain. If it is damaged, it can result in a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which can lead to serious complications such as meningitis or brain infection. This condition requires immediate medical attention and surgical intervention to repair the damaged cribriform plate and prevent further complications.

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154. Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?

Explanation

Gelfoam is used in ENT surgical procedures to reduce edema. Edema refers to the swelling caused by fluid accumulation in the tissues. By using Gelfoam, which is a sterile, absorbable gelatin sponge, it can help absorb excess fluid and reduce swelling in the surgical site. This can promote faster healing and improve patient outcomes.

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155. These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry blood vessels along the bone length:

Explanation

Haversian canals are cylindrical channels found in the center of compact bone lamellae. These canals contain blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissues that supply nutrients and oxygen to the bone cells. They are responsible for carrying blood vessels along the length of the bone, ensuring proper nourishment and oxygenation for the bone tissue.

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156. A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a :

Explanation

A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is referred to as a collateral ligament. This ligament helps to stabilize the knee joint by preventing excessive side-to-side movement. The collateral ligaments are located on both sides of the knee, with the medial collateral ligament (MCL) on the inner side and the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) on the outer side. These ligaments work together with other structures in the knee to provide stability and support during movement.

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157. The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:

Explanation

The Haversian canal in each osteon contains blood vessels. Osteons are the basic structural units of compact bone, and they consist of concentric layers of mineralized matrix called lamellae. The Haversian canal, also known as the central canal, is located in the center of each osteon and contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue. These blood vessels supply oxygen and nutrients to the bone cells, while also removing waste products. Therefore, the presence of blood vessels in the Haversian canal is essential for the maintenance and function of the bone tissue.

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158. Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal bone?

Explanation

The pubis is the anterior portion of the coxal bone. It is one of the three bones that fuse together to form the coxal bone, along with the ischium and ilium. The pubis is located at the front of the pelvis and helps to form the socket of the hip joint. It is important for providing stability and support to the pelvis and lower body.

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159. During ventricular systole?

Explanation

During ventricular systole, the AV valves are closed. This is because ventricular systole refers to the contraction of the ventricles, which causes an increase in pressure within the ventricles. As a result, the AV valves, which are located between the atria and ventricles, close to prevent the backflow of blood into the atria. This closure ensures that blood is efficiently pumped out of the ventricles and into the arteries, allowing for proper circulation throughout the body.

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160. Which risk is not associated with gerneral anesthesia?

Explanation

Muscle relaxation is not a risk associated with general anesthesia. General anesthesia is known to cause muscle relaxation, which is actually one of its desired effects. It helps in achieving complete muscle relaxation, which is important during surgical procedures to facilitate intubation, reduce muscle movements, and provide a stable surgical field. However, cardiac arrest, shock, and allergic reactions are potential risks associated with general anesthesia.

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161. Endochondral and intramembraneous are two mechanisms of:

Explanation

Endochondral and intramembranous are two mechanisms of embryonic skeletal ossification. Endochondral ossification is the process where bones are formed by replacing cartilage with bone tissue, while intramembranous ossification is the process where bones are formed directly from mesenchymal tissue. These mechanisms play a crucial role in the development and growth of the skeletal system during embryonic development.

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162. Which of the following is not a cranial suture:

Explanation

The cranial sutures are fibrous joints that connect the bones of the skull. The epiphyseal suture is not a cranial suture, but rather a type of growth plate found in long bones. The lambdoidal, coronal, sagittal, and squamous sutures are all cranial sutures that connect specific bones of the skull.

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163. This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in blood calcium levels:

Explanation

Parathyroid hormone is responsible for stimulating the breakdown of bone and increasing blood calcium levels. It does this by activating cells called osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue and release calcium into the bloodstream. This hormone also enhances the absorption of calcium from the digestive system and reduces the excretion of calcium by the kidneys. Overall, parathyroid hormone plays a crucial role in maintaining calcium homeostasis in the body.

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164. The midbrain is located just below the _________.

Explanation

The midbrain is located just below the thalamus. The thalamus is a small, central structure in the brain that acts as a relay station for sensory information, directing it to the appropriate areas of the cerebral cortex. The midbrain, also known as the mesencephalon, is a small region that plays a role in various functions such as movement, visual and auditory processing, and regulation of arousal and attention. It is positioned below the thalamus and above the pons, which is another part of the brainstem.

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165. The _______ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation.

Explanation

The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by channeling them to appropriate regions of the cortex for interpretation. It receives sensory information from various parts of the body and sends it to the corresponding areas of the brain for processing. The thalamus plays a crucial role in regulating consciousness, attention, and alertness. It is also involved in controlling motor functions and relaying information between different brain regions. Overall, the thalamus acts as a vital intermediary in the transmission of sensory information to the cortex.

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166. Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery:

Explanation

Arthroscopic surgery is a minimally invasive surgical procedure that uses a small camera called an arthroscope to diagnose and treat problems in the joints. The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is a ligament on the outside of the knee that provides stability. Unlike the other options, a torn LCL can often be treated without the need for surgery. Non-surgical treatment options such as rest, physical therapy, and bracing are usually effective in healing a torn LCL. Therefore, repair of a torn LCL is least likely to require arthroscopic surgery compared to the other options.

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167. The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi.

Explanation

The trachea divides at the carina into right and left bronchi. The carina is a ridge of cartilage located at the point where the trachea splits into the bronchi. It serves as a landmark for the division of the airway and helps to direct airflow into the correct pathways.

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168. What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and trapezius?

Explanation

The nerve that controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx, palate, sternocleidomastoid, and trapezius is the accessory nerve.

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169. A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _________.

Explanation

A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the atrium or the peritoneal cavity. This means that the shunt can be inserted into either the atrium of the heart or the peritoneal cavity, which is the space in the abdomen that contains organs such as the stomach, liver, and intestines. This allows for the diversion of excess cerebrospinal fluid from the ventricles of the brain to either the atrium or the peritoneal cavity, depending on the specific needs of the patient.

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170. Which of the following best describes the area of the skin preparation for a reduction mammoplasty?

Explanation

The correct answer is "chest and breast, chin to hips including axilla." This description best describes the area of the skin preparation for a reduction mammoplasty. It specifies the chest and breast area, extending from the chin to the hips, and includes the axilla (armpit) as well. This comprehensive description ensures that the entire area is properly prepared for the surgery.

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171. These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone:

Explanation

Mineralized salts and collagen are responsible for the hardness and pliability of bone. Mineralized salts, such as calcium and phosphate, provide the bone with its hardness and strength. Collagen, on the other hand, is a protein that gives the bone its flexibility and pliability. Together, these two components work in harmony to give bone its unique combination of hardness and flexibility, allowing it to support the body and withstand mechanical stress.

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172. Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain?

Explanation

Dissociative agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the brain. This means that they disrupt the connections between different areas of the brain, leading to a dissociation or disconnection of thoughts, feelings, and perceptions. Opioids, tranquilizers, and induction do not have this specific effect on the associative pathways of the brain.

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173. Which would be best suited for reprocessing surgical instruments exposed to clostridium?

Explanation

Pre-vacuum sterilization is the best option for reprocessing surgical instruments exposed to clostridium. Pre-vacuum sterilizers use a combination of steam and vacuum to effectively remove air from the chamber and penetrate the instruments, ensuring thorough sterilization. This method is particularly effective against clostridium, a type of bacteria that can cause infections and is resistant to some sterilization methods. Glutaraldehyde and cidex are disinfectants, not sterilizers, and may not completely eliminate clostridium. Isopropyl alcohol is a disinfectant that is not suitable for sterilizing surgical instruments.

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174. Which portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion?

Explanation

The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for increasing the surface area for enhanced absorption and secretion in the renal tubule system. This portion of the tubule is lined with microvilli, which are tiny finger-like projections that greatly increase the surface area available for the reabsorption and secretion of substances such as water, ions, and nutrients. This increased surface area allows for more efficient and effective filtration and reabsorption processes in the kidneys.

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175. Physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection are __________.

Explanation

The efficiency of disinfection can be affected by various physical factors. Temperature plays a crucial role as higher temperatures can enhance the effectiveness of disinfection. Gross debris refers to visible dirt or organic matter that can interfere with the disinfection process. Its presence can hinder the contact between the disinfectant and the target surface, reducing efficiency. Bioburden refers to the number of microorganisms present on a surface and can impact the effectiveness of disinfection. Therefore, temperature, gross debris, and bioburden are the physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection.

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The room where patients are "recovered" immediately...
A cosmetic procedure performed on the eyelid is a (n) ___________.
While the STSR is passing instruments, the surgeon is focused on the
What does the term apnea mean?
Fluid bottles may be recapped and reused under what  conditions?
 A currette is a surgical instrument used to __________.
Which is the most commonly transmitted bacteria in the operating room?
Which of the following reflects the basic values for health care...
In the health care field, the term _________ is used broadly to refer...
Which pathogen leads in the percentage of surgical site infections?
What is used to create a pathway for electrical current to be returned...
Loss or mishandling of a specimen could be considered negligence and...
The needs or activities related to one's identification or...
The critical parameters for monitoring pediatric patients include all...
Bleeding in a pediatric trauma patient must be controlled to prevent...
What is the function of the iris?
What must be done to electrical devices in the operating room to...
The term D and C represents ______.
Why should saline NOT be used to clean stainless steel surgical...
Arterial saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is measured with the use...
The ___________ is the number one organ injured in a motor vehicle...
The ___________ is used to remove small organic particles and soil...
Escherichia coli normally resides in the lumen of the ___________.
Which of the following focuses on altering the patient's level of...
Which type of instrument will be attached to the Mayo stand during a...
What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
Drug administered within a joint is ___________.
Accountability is defined as a (n) ___________.
Why should cabinets and doors within the operating room be recessed...
Which machine found in the decontamination room uses cavitation?
Bacteria that require oxygen to sustain life are called __________.
To prevent the formation of condensate in nested basins( double...
What name is given to the room in the surgery department that contains...
Crescent-shaped cartilage found in the TMJ and knee joints is the...
The medulla oblongata controls which visceral activity?
When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________...
When placing the pregnant surgical patient in the supine position, the...
What dormant structure can some bacteria form to survive adverse...
____________ means microbes and infection are absent.
Sponges used for procedures requiring smaller incisions are called...
A Tru-Cut needle is used _____.
Operating room walls should have which characteristic?
Incomplete closure of the vertebral column results in:
A bloodborne pathogen that puts health care workers at particular risk...
The beta cells of the islets of Langerhans are responsible for the...
Which of the following is an action of epinephrine?
Mastectomy is the removal of the ____________.
Cystocele is prolapse of the ________.
Drugs with a high potential to cause psychological or physical...
The scope used for visualization of a fetus in utero is called a(n)...
When taking hot surgical instruments from a steam autoclave, the...
During abdominal procedures on patients who are obese, what procedure...
The washer decontaminator does NOT render the instruments __________.
Items are counted in which order for every procedure?
Which diagnostic procedure uses high-frequency sound waves?
The term PACU refers to the _________.
For the posterolateral position, the operating room personnel should...
Which of the following is the generic name for Marcaine?
Which term describes the following coping mechanism: "A patient...
At the end of the washer sterilization cycle, instruments are NOT...
Permanent surgical specimens are usually sent to the pathologist in...
Which female gland secretes a lubricating mucoid substance?
The ultrasonic washer is an example os a __________.
Curved needle holders are generally used during ____________...
What is the best temperature for irrigation used on the brain?
What medical term refers to the abdominal accumulation of air in the...
The pH of vaginal fluid is _________.
Emergency procedures on geriatric patients are associated with...
Gas gangrene and cellulitis is caused by which microorganism?
A unidirectional positive -pressure flow of air that captures microbes...
The dense connective tissue covering outer surface of bone diaphysis...
What disease is NOT an autoimmune disease?
What is a limitation of using water as a presoaking solution?
Which of the following is a reason a patient may be extubated in the...
The process used to relieve pain during surgical intervention refers...
Postoperative instrument handling involves all of the following steps...
Which classification is given to bacteria that can survive in an...
A softening of adult bone due to a disorder in calcium and phosphorus...
If adult response is the norm, pediatric patients must be observed for...
Which type of flap allows the tissue to be transfered to remain...
The main function of the liver in metabolism is to __________.
Pharmacodynamics describes the interaction of the ______________.
Which style of cast is applied to the trunk, around the affected leg,...
Which diagnostic imaging procedure allows the surgeon to view anatomic...
Correct placement of indwelling catheters, tubes, and drains may be...
The only method used to ensure the sterility of items is ____________.
During a tonsillectomy, which instrument can be used to put tension on...
How many phalanges are in a normal hand?
Microbes that live on the skin and inside the human body are referred...
The right kidney is located slightly lower that the left, due to the...
The time is takes from the administration of a drug until its action...
Small, clear, plastic drapes with openings that are surrounded by an...
What structures are removed during UPPP?
Modified radical mastectomy involves removal of _____________.
A vertical plane through the body dividing it into right and left is...
The number of microbes or organic debris that exist at a given time is...
"Articulations" refer to:
Bacilli are typically found to be in the shape of
All are true regarding throat packs EXCEPT that ___________.
Which term is used to describe "the multiplication of organisms...
The coronary arteries arise form the ________.
 A nonliving particle that is completely reliant on the host cell...
For an aortofemoral bypass, which statement is NOT correct?
Nissen fundoplication is the procedure performed to correct a...
Roux-en-Y technique is most commonly used to repair a(n) ____________.
Which of the following bone isnot part of the cranium:
An intermediate level of disinfection may be appropriate for...
An enzyme is usually used as a (n) ____________.
The external iliac arteries branch into the ________ arteries.
When an electrical charge is in motion, it is referred to as a(n)...
An end ileostomy is created from the ___________.
What is a major concern when operating on the parotid gland?
Which of the following is a topical anesthetic inserted into the nose...
Which type of needle is appropriate for closing a blood vessel?
What surgical instrument is used to remove tissue fragments from...
Which mechanical device is designed for circulatory support after...
Which muscle is responsible for flexing the hand at the wrist?
The "Hunchback" of Notre Dame probably suffered from:
When stainless steel instruments are manually cleaned, a (n) ________...
Soft connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones at birth...
What theory states that the active substance in a drug has an affinity...
Which veins receive blood from the brain, meninges, and deeper regions...
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following...
The display and recording of the electrical activity of skeletal...
Which radiographic view shows the hard palate, nasal septum, orbital...
A fracture in the shaft of a long bone would be a break in the :
Which statement is NOT correct regarding the placement  of the...
Symptomatic lesions of the mediastinum are malignanat in _______% of...
Implied consent may apply when ________.
Which of the following describes the anatomic area that will be...
Chondroblasts produce:
The thickened cartilage "cushions" found in the knee and...
The two pairs of bones that make up the hard palate are the right and...
The two bones that make up the posterior nasal septum are the:
Which microorganisms is capable of causing an UTI?
Which drug is used to suppress arterial vasospasm?
The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides...
Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the:
Yellow marrow consists of:
Panendoscopy may involve viewing of the __________.
Which term means loss of heat from the patient's body to the...
Negligence is a breach of duty and is defined as ____________.
The sphenoid bone forms __________.
What graft material is not recommended to be used in the popliteal...
Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
Where are the lacrimal glands located?
Which of the following does not describe synovial joints:
The kidneys are bounded by the __________ muscles on the medical side.
If the ureters are difficult to identify when the bladder is opened,...
Which of the following bones is considered a sesamoid bone:
Demerol, Sublimaze, Sufenta, and Alfenta are examples of ___________.
The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone matrix once it...
Which of the following is the most serious or life-threatening:
Why is Gelfoam used in ENT surgical procedures?
These structures are at the center of compact bone lamellae and carry...
A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is a :
The Haversian (central) canal in each osteon contains:
Which of the following constitutes the anterior portion of the coxal...
During ventricular systole?
Which risk is not associated with gerneral anesthesia?
Endochondral and intramembraneous are two mechanisms of:
Which of the following is not a cranial suture:
This hormone stimulates the breakdown of bone and the increase in...
The midbrain is located just below the _________.
The _______ serves as a relay station for sensory impulses by...
Which of the following is least likely to require arthroscopic...
The trachea divides at the ________ into right and left bronchi.
What nerve controls the voluntary muscles of the pharynx, larynx,...
A ventricular shunt can be placed distally in the _________.
Which of the following best describes the area of the skin preparation...
These two components in bone are responsible for the hardness and...
Which agents selectively interrupt the associative pathways of the...
Which would be best suited for reprocessing surgical instruments...
Which portion of the renal tubule system is responsible for increasing...
Physical factors that affect the efficiency of disinfection are...
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