Surgical Tech (Appleton & Lange) Part 4

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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

During surgery a lot of items are used by the surgeon and his team. Proper knowledge of these tools ensures no accidents occur. How conversant are you with surgical tech and medicines? Take up this fourth and final part of the series of questions and find out. All the best!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    What is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization?

    • A.

      It is used to aerate items before sterilization

    • B.

      It is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time

    • C.

      It is the last cycle in the EO sterilizer, which helps exhaust the gas and add air

    • D.

      It adds air to the cycle, which is essential for obtaining item sterility

    Correct Answer
    B. It is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time
    Explanation
    The aerator in EO sterilization is a separate unit that is used to decrease the aeration time. After the sterilization process, the items need to be aerated to remove any remaining ethylene oxide gas. The aerator helps to speed up this process, allowing for quicker turnaround times and ensuring that the items can be safely used again.

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  • 2. 

    Ethylene oxide destroys cells by

    • A.

      Interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes

    • B.

      Coagulation cell protein

    • C.

      Converting ions to thermal and chemical energy causing cell death

    • D.

      Shrinking the cell

    Correct Answer
    A. Interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes
    Explanation
    Ethylene oxide destroys cells by interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes. This means that it disrupts the normal functioning of proteins within the cell, which are essential for various cellular processes. It also affects the reproductive processes of the cell, potentially interfering with cell division and reproduction. As a result, the cell's normal functioning is disrupted, leading to cell death.

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  • 3. 

    Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for

    • A.

      5 minutes

    • B.

      10 minutes

    • C.

      20 minutes

    • D.

      60 minutes

    Correct Answer
    C. 20 minutes
    Explanation
    Activated glutaraldehyde is a high-level disinfectant commonly used to disinfect medical instruments like endoscopes. It is effective against a wide range of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. The disinfection process requires a certain contact time to ensure that all the pathogens are killed. In this case, the correct answer is 20 minutes, indicating that endoscopes need to be immersed in activated glutaraldehyde for a minimum of 20 minutes to achieve proper disinfection. This duration allows enough time for the disinfectant to penetrate the instrument and effectively kill any potential pathogens present.

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  • 4. 

    When using a high-level disinfectant, always

    • A.

      Submerge items while wet

    • B.

      Rinse items with sterile distilled water before using

    • C.

      Soak items in saline before using

    • D.

      Add hot diluent to activated agent

    Correct Answer
    B. Rinse items with sterile distilled water before using
    Explanation
    When using a high-level disinfectant, it is important to rinse items with sterile distilled water before using them. This step helps to remove any residue or leftover disinfectant from the items, ensuring that they are safe to use. Rinsing with sterile distilled water helps to prevent any potential irritation or adverse reactions that may occur if the disinfectant is not properly removed.

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  • 5. 

    The chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is

    • A.

      Formaldehyde

    • B.

      Cidex

    • C.

      Ethylene oxide

    • D.

      Peracetic acid

    Correct Answer
    D. Peracetic acid
    Explanation
    Peracetic acid is the chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing. Peracetic acid is a strong oxidizing agent that effectively kills microorganisms by disrupting their cell walls and denaturing proteins. It is commonly used in healthcare settings for sterilizing medical equipment and instruments due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity and its ability to penetrate hard-to-reach areas. Peracetic acid is preferred over other sterilizing agents like formaldehyde, Cidex, and ethylene oxide due to its rapid action, low toxicity, and environmental friendliness.

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  • 6. 

    The Endoflush system

    • A.

      Flushes out a vessel interior

    • B.

      Initially cleans reusable channeled instruments

    • C.

      Flushes debris from bladder

    • D.

      Cleans and sterilizes endoscopes

    Correct Answer
    B. Initially cleans reusable channeled instruments
    Explanation
    The Endoflush system is designed to initially clean reusable channeled instruments. This means that it is specifically used to flush out the interior of these instruments, ensuring that any debris or contaminants are removed. This initial cleaning process is an important step in preparing the instruments for further cleaning and sterilization.

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  • 7. 

    Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization?

    • A.

      Nylon

    • B.

      Muslin

    • C.

      Paper

    • D.

      Plastic

    Correct Answer
    A. Nylon
    Explanation
    Nylon is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization because it is not permeable to the gas used in the sterilization process. Gas sterilization requires the gas to penetrate the packaging material in order to effectively sterilize the contents. Nylon is a non-permeable material, meaning that it does not allow gases to pass through it easily. Therefore, it would prevent the gas from reaching the items inside and would not result in proper sterilization.

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  • 8. 

    Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper?

    • A.

      Polyethylene

    • B.

      Polypropylene

    • C.

      Polyamide

    • D.

      Polyvinyl chloride

    Correct Answer
    B. Polypropylene
    Explanation
    Polypropylene is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper because it has a high melting point and excellent heat resistance. It can withstand the high temperatures and pressures of steam sterilization without melting or deforming, ensuring that the contents of the wrapper remain sterile. Polyethylene, polyamide, and polyvinyl chloride do not have the same heat resistance properties and would not be suitable for steam sterilization.

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  • 9. 

    All of the following statements regarding muslin wrappers are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Muslin must be laundered, even if unused, in order to rehydrate it

    • B.

      A 140-thread count of unbleached muslin is used for wrappers

    • C.

      Muslin is flexible and easy to handle

    • D.

      Small holes can be repaired by stiching on a patch

    Correct Answer
    D. Small holes can be repaired by stiching on a patch
    Explanation
    Muslin wrappers are flexible and easy to handle, a 140-thread count of unbleached muslin is used for wrappers, and muslin must be laundered, even if unused, in order to rehydrate it. However, the statement that small holes can be repaired by stitching on a patch is not true.

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  • 10. 

    Packages wrapped in muslin must have

    • A.

      One thickness

    • B.

      Two thicknesses

    • C.

      Three thicknesses

    • D.

      Four thicknesses

    Correct Answer
    D. Four thicknesses
    Explanation
    Packages wrapped in muslin must have four thicknesses because muslin is a thin and lightweight fabric. To provide adequate protection to the contents of the package, multiple layers of muslin need to be used. By having four thicknesses, the package will have a stronger and more secure wrapping, reducing the risk of damage or breakage during handling and transportation.

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  • 11. 

    The maximum storage life for a muslin wrapped item in a closed cabinet is

    • A.

      7 days

    • B.

      14 days

    • C.

      21 days

    • D.

      30 days

    Correct Answer
    D. 30 days
    Explanation
    Muslin is a breathable fabric that allows air circulation, which helps in preserving the freshness of stored items. In a closed cabinet, the muslin wrapping can provide a certain level of protection against external factors such as dust and insects. With proper storage conditions, such as maintaining a cool and dry environment, the item wrapped in muslin can last for up to 30 days without significant degradation or spoilage. Therefore, the correct answer is 30 days.

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  • 12. 

    An item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if

    • A.

      It is wrapped in woven material

    • B.

      It is enclosed in an impervious material

    • C.

      It is used right away

    • D.

      It is inspected carefully

    Correct Answer
    B. It is enclosed in an impervious material
    Explanation
    An item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if it is enclosed in an impervious material. This means that the material should be able to prevent any liquids or substances from passing through it. By being enclosed in such a material, the item is protected from any potential contamination or damage that may be present on the floor.

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  • 13. 

    When using a pour solution

    • A.

      A portion may be poured and the cap replaced

    • B.

      The contents must be used or discarded after the bottle is opened

    • C.

      The cap may be replaced if it has not been placed on an unsterile surface

    • D.

      The solution may be used on the same case if the cap is not replaced

    Correct Answer
    B. The contents must be used or discarded after the bottle is opened
    Explanation
    When using a pour solution, it is necessary to use or discard the contents after the bottle is opened. This is because once the bottle is opened, there is a risk of contamination and the solution may no longer be sterile. Therefore, it is important to either use the solution or discard it to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the product.

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  • 14. 

    What is the standard safety margin on package wrappers?

    • A.

      Up to the edge

    • B.

      Less than 1 inch

    • C.

      1 inch or more

    • D.

      None of the above

    Correct Answer
    C. 1 inch or more
    Explanation
    The standard safety margin on package wrappers is 1 inch or more. This means that there should be at least a 1-inch gap between the edge of the package and any important information or graphics on the wrapper. This margin ensures that the information remains visible and legible even if the package gets damaged or the wrapper is slightly misaligned. It also allows for any potential shifting or movement of the contents inside the package during transportation or handling.

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  • 15. 

    When opening a wrapper, the circulator should open the top flap

    • A.

      Toward self

    • B.

      Away from self

    • C.

      After the sides

    • D.

      Over sterile field

    Correct Answer
    B. Away from self
    Explanation
    When opening a wrapper, the circulator should open the top flap away from self. This is because opening the top flap away from oneself helps to prevent contamination. Opening it towards oneself could potentially cause any dirt or particles on the wrapper to fall onto the sterile field, compromising its sterility. Therefore, opening the top flap away from self is the correct procedure to maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 16. 

    When the scrub nurse opens an inner sterile wrapper

    • A.

      The side nearest the body is opened first

    • B.

      The side nearest the body is opened last

    • C.

      The lateral areas are done first

    • D.

      A or B

    Correct Answer
    A. The side nearest the body is opened first
    Explanation
    When the scrub nurse opens an inner sterile wrapper, the side nearest the body is opened first. This is because the side nearest the body is considered the cleanest and least likely to be contaminated. By opening this side first, the nurse can ensure that the sterile contents inside the wrapper remain uncontaminated and ready for use. Opening the side nearest the body last would increase the risk of contamination and compromise the sterility of the contents.

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  • 17. 

    When flipping a sterile item onto the field, the circulator may

    • A.

      Lean over the sterile field to shake item out of package

    • B.

      Project item without reaching over the sterile field

    • C.

      Shake item into sterile basin stand

    • D.

      Lean over sterile linen pack and drop item onto it

    Correct Answer
    B. Project item without reaching over the sterile field
    Explanation
    The circulator should project the item without reaching over the sterile field to maintain the sterility of the field. Reaching over the sterile field can introduce contaminants and compromise the sterile environment. By projecting the item, the circulator can ensure that it lands on the field without touching any non-sterile surfaces. This helps to minimize the risk of infection and maintain a sterile surgical environment.

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  • 18. 

    The room temperature in an operating room (OR) should be

    • A.

      Below 50F

    • B.

      Below 60F

    • C.

      Between 68 and 76F

    • D.

      Between 80 and 86F

    Correct Answer
    C. Between 68 and 76F
    Explanation
    The correct answer is between 68 and 76F. Maintaining a temperature within this range is important in an operating room to ensure the comfort and safety of both the patients and the medical staff. A temperature that is too low can cause discomfort and increase the risk of hypothermia, while a temperature that is too high can lead to excessive sweating and dehydration. Additionally, a controlled temperature helps to prevent the growth of bacteria and maintain a sterile environment, which is crucial during surgical procedures.

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  • 19. 

    If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses

    • A.

      The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation

    • B.

      The glasses should be soaked for 5 minutes in an antiseptic solution before the day begins

    • C.

      The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution daily

    • D.

      No special care is necessary

    Correct Answer
    A. The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation
    Explanation
    The correct answer states that the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation. This is because wearing eyeglasses in the operating room can potentially introduce bacteria or contaminants into the sterile environment. Therefore, it is important to clean the glasses with an antiseptic solution before each operation to minimize the risk of infection or contamination.

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  • 20. 

    Each statement regarding OR attire is true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Lab coats worn out of the OR suite should be clean, closed, and knee lengh

    • B.

      Scrub suits are always changed upon re-entry to the OR suite

    • C.

      Scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry

    • D.

      Nonprofessional personnel and visitors must wear approved attire in the OR

    Correct Answer
    C. Scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry
    Explanation
    The statement "scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry" is incorrect because scrub suits should never be worn out of the OR uncovered, even if they are changed upon re-entry. Scrub suits should always be covered to maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 21. 

    The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a

    • A.

      Lead apron

    • B.

      Double thick mulin apron

    • C.

      3-foot distance from machine

    • D.

      3-foot distance from patient

    Correct Answer
    A. Lead apron
    Explanation
    A lead apron is the most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays because lead is a dense material that effectively blocks the penetration of x-ray radiation. When wearing a lead apron, the radiation is absorbed by the lead, preventing it from reaching the body and causing harm. This is why lead aprons are commonly used in medical settings during x-ray procedures to protect both patients and healthcare professionals from the harmful effects of radiation exposure.

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  • 22. 

    It is considered good technique to

    • A.

      Change the mask only if it becomes moistened

    • B.

      Hang the mask around the neck

    • C.

      Criss-cross the strings over the head

    • D.

      Handle the mask only by the strings

    Correct Answer
    D. Handle the mask only by the strings
    Explanation
    Handling the mask only by the strings is considered a good technique because it helps to minimize the risk of contamination. By avoiding touching the mask itself, the chances of transferring germs or pathogens from the hands to the mask are reduced. The strings are typically located on the sides of the mask and can be easily grasped and adjusted without touching the front surface. This practice helps to maintain the cleanliness and effectiveness of the mask in providing protection against respiratory droplets or airborne particles.

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  • 23. 

    Sterile gloves

    • A.

      Should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant

    • B.

      Need not be wiped off

    • C.

      Should be wiped off only in septic cases

    • D.

      Should be wiped off only in eye cases

    Correct Answer
    A. Should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant
    Explanation
    Sterile gloves should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant because the lubricant may interfere with the gloves' ability to maintain a sterile environment. Wiping off the lubricant helps to ensure that the gloves are clean and free from any potential contaminants. This is important in medical settings where maintaining sterility is crucial to prevent the spread of infections.

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  • 24. 

    Electrical cords should be

    • A.

      Removed from outlets by the cord

    • B.

      Wrapped tightly around equipment

    • C.

      Removed from pathways so equpment is not rolled over them

    • D.

      Disconnected from the unit before disconnection from the wall

    Correct Answer
    C. Removed from pathways so equpment is not rolled over them
    Explanation
    Electrical cords should be removed from pathways so equipment is not rolled over them. This is important to prevent damage to the cords and to ensure the safety of individuals using the equipment. Rolling equipment over cords can cause them to become frayed or damaged, increasing the risk of electrical shock or fire. By removing the cords from pathways, the equipment can be moved freely without the risk of damaging the cords or causing accidents.

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  • 25. 

    Scatter radiation effects are directly related to

    • A.

      Amount of radiation

    • B.

      Length of exposure

    • C.

      Accumulation of radioactive substances in OR room

    • D.

      Amount of radiation and length of exposure time

    Correct Answer
    D. Amount of radiation and length of exposure time
    Explanation
    Scatter radiation effects are directly related to the amount of radiation and the length of exposure time. This means that the more radiation a person is exposed to and the longer they are exposed, the greater the potential for scatter radiation effects. These effects can include damage to tissues and organs, increased risk of cancer, and other health problems. It is important to minimize exposure to radiation and limit the amount of time spent in areas with high radiation levels to reduce the risk of scatter radiation effects.

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  • 26. 

    When using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently?

    • A.

      Two

    • B.

      Three

    • C.

      Four

    • D.

      Five

    Correct Answer
    C. Four
    Explanation
    Four people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently when using a patient roller. This is because a patient roller requires coordination and balance to ensure the patient's safety. With four people, they can evenly distribute the weight and provide support from all sides, reducing the risk of injury to the patient and allowing for efficient movement.

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  • 27. 

    When moving the patient from the OR table, who is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury?

    • A.

      Circulating nurse

    • B.

      Scrub nurse

    • C.

      Anethesiologist

    • D.

      Surgical technician

    Correct Answer
    C. Anethesiologist
    Explanation
    The anesthesiologist is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury when moving the patient from the OR table. This is because the anesthesiologist is primarily responsible for the patient's safety and well-being during surgery, including monitoring vital signs, administering anesthesia, and ensuring proper positioning and support to prevent any harm or injury to the patient's head and neck.

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  • 28. 

    To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table

    • A.

      One person stands at the head, one at the foot, while the patient moves over

    • B.

      One person stands next to the strecher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over

    • C.

      One person stands next to the stretcher, stabilizing it against the OR table, while the patient moves over

    • D.

      One person may stand next to the OR table and guide the patient toward him if stretcher whells are locked

    Correct Answer
    B. One person stands next to the strecher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over
    Explanation
    This answer suggests that one person should stand next to the stretcher and one person should stand adjacent to the OR table while the patient moves over. This ensures that there is support and guidance on both sides of the patient during the transfer, minimizing the risk of falls or injuries. It also allows for a smooth and coordinated movement between the stretcher and the OR table.

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  • 29. 

    When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR, all of thefollowing are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Extra personnel are necessary

    • B.

      Support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture

    • C.

      Lifters on the affected side support the fracture

    • D.

      The surgeon should be present

    Correct Answer
    B. Support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture
    Explanation
    When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR, it is important to provide support to the extremity from below the site of fracture to prevent further injury or displacement. Extra personnel are necessary to ensure a safe and smooth transfer of the patient. Lifters on the affected side should support the fracture to minimize movement and maintain stability. The presence of the surgeon is crucial during the transfer to address any immediate concerns or complications. Therefore, the statement "support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture" is incorrect.

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  • 30. 

    Which statement is false regarding the position on the OR table?

    • A.

      Elbow should not rest against the metal table

    • B.

      Feet should be uncrossed

    • C.

      Pillows provide support and comfort to prevent strain

    • D.

      Safety strap is 4 inches below the knee

    Correct Answer
    D. Safety strap is 4 inches below the knee
    Explanation
    The false statement regarding the position on the OR table is that the safety strap is 4 inches below the knee.

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  • 31. 

    To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed

    • A.

      At knee level

    • B.

      At the midthigh area

    • C.

      2 inches above the knee

    • D.

      2 inches below the knee

    Correct Answer
    C. 2 inches above the knee
    Explanation
    The restraint or safety strap should be placed 2 inches above the knee to avoid compromising the venous circulation. Placing the strap at this level allows for proper blood flow and prevents any restriction or compression of the veins in the lower leg. This ensures the safety and comfort of the individual being restrained, reducing the risk of circulatory problems or complications.

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  • 32. 

    A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table. Who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site?

    • A.

      The nurse assistant

    • B.

      The physician

    • C.

      The circulating nurse

    • D.

      The scrub nurse

    Correct Answer
    B. The physician
    Explanation
    The physician is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site during the transfer of a patient with a fractured femur to the OR table. As the primary healthcare provider, the physician has the knowledge and expertise to ensure that the fracture site is handled carefully and that the patient's safety is maintained throughout the process. The nurse assistant, circulating nurse, and scrub nurse may assist the physician in the transfer, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the physician.

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  • 33. 

    Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause

    • A.

      Pressure on the ulnar nerve

    • B.

      Interference with circulation

    • C.

      Postoperative discomfort

    • D.

      Interference with respiration

    Correct Answer
    D. Interference with respiration
    Explanation
    Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause interference with respiration. This is because crossing the arms can restrict the movement of the chest and limit the expansion of the lungs during breathing. This can lead to difficulty in taking deep breaths and may result in inadequate oxygen intake. It is important to keep the patient's arms in a position that allows for unrestricted chest movement to ensure proper respiration.

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  • 34. 

    A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to

    • A.

      Place the pillows under the knees for support

    • B.

      Place the safety strap 3 to 4 inches below the knee

    • C.

      Place the head in a headrest

    • D.

      Protect the heels from pressure on the OR table

    Correct Answer
    D. Protect the heels from pressure on the OR table
    Explanation
    When a patient is in the supine position during a medical procedure, it is important to protect their heels from pressure on the operating room (OR) table. This is because prolonged pressure on the heels can lead to the development of pressure ulcers or bedsores. By taking precautions to prevent pressure on the heels, such as using heel protectors or positioning the patient's feet in a way that relieves pressure, healthcare providers can minimize the risk of these complications and promote patient comfort and safety.

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  • 35. 

    During lateral positioning, a

    • A.

      Pillow is placed between the legs

    • B.

      Sandbag is placed between the knees

    • C.

      Rolled towel is placed under the bottom leg

    • D.

      Sheet is folded flat between the legs

    Correct Answer
    A. Pillow is placed between the legs
    Explanation
    During lateral positioning, a pillow is placed between the legs to provide support and alignment to the hips and lower back. This helps to maintain proper spinal alignment and prevents the legs from crossing over each other, which can lead to discomfort and strain on the hips and lower back. The pillow also helps to distribute the weight evenly and reduces the risk of pressure ulcers by relieving pressure on bony prominences. Additionally, it promotes comfort and relaxation for the patient during their lateral positioning.

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  • 36. 

    To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position

    • A.

      The buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge

    • B.

      The legs must be placed symmetrically

    • C.

      The legs must be at equal height

    • D.

      A pillow should be placed under the sacral area

    Correct Answer
    A. The buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge
    Explanation
    To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position, it is important that the buttocks do not extend beyond the table edge. This ensures that the patient's body weight is evenly distributed on the table, reducing the risk of excessive strain on the lower back. If the buttocks extend beyond the table edge, it can create an imbalance and put extra pressure on the lumbosacral area, potentially leading to discomfort or injury. By keeping the buttocks within the table boundaries, the patient's body can be properly supported and positioned for the procedure.

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  • 37. 

    The lithotomy position requires each of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Patient's buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table

    • B.

      Stirrups are at equal height on both sides of the table

    • C.

      Stirrups are at the appropriate height for the length of the patient's legs to maintain symmetry

    • D.

      Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes

    Correct Answer
    D. Each leg is raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes
    Explanation
    The lithotomy position requires the patient's buttocks to rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table, the stirrups to be at equal height on both sides of the table, and the stirrups to be at the appropriate height for the length of the patient's legs to maintain symmetry. However, each leg should not be raised slowly and gently as it is grasped by the toes. This is not a correct step in the lithotomy position.

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  • 38. 

    All of the following are requirements of the Kraske position EXCEPT

    • A.

      Patient is prone with hips over the break of the table

    • B.

      A pillow is placed under lower legs and ankles

    • C.

      A padded knee strap is applied 2 inches above knees

    • D.

      Arms are tucked in at sides

    Correct Answer
    D. Arms are tucked in at sides
    Explanation
    The Kraske position is a surgical position used for procedures involving the rectum and anus. In this position, the patient is prone with hips over the break of the table, a pillow is placed under the lower legs and ankles, and a padded knee strap is applied 2 inches above the knees. However, the arms are not tucked in at the sides in the Kraske position. Instead, they are usually positioned on arm boards or padded supports to ensure proper patient alignment and comfort during the procedure.

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  • 39. 

    When using an armboard, the most imporant measure is to

    • A.

      Support the arm at the intravenous site

    • B.

      Strap the patient's hand to it securely

    • C.

      Avoid hyperextension of the arm

    • D.

      Avoid hypoextension of the arm

    Correct Answer
    C. Avoid hyperextension of the arm
    Explanation
    When using an armboard, it is important to avoid hyperextension of the arm. Hyperextension refers to the excessive straightening of a joint beyond its normal range of motion. In the case of an armboard, hyperextension can cause strain and discomfort for the patient, potentially leading to injury. By avoiding hyperextension, the armboard can properly support the arm without causing any unnecessary stress or discomfort.

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  • 40. 

    Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to

    • A.

      Prevent fractures

    • B.

      Prevent circulatory overload

    • C.

      Allow the respiratory system to adjust

    • D.

      Allow the circulatory system to adjust

    Correct Answer
    D. Allow the circulatory system to adjust
    Explanation
    When a patient is under anesthesia, their circulatory system may be affected. Moving them slowly allows the circulatory system to gradually adjust to changes in position, preventing any sudden shifts in blood flow or pressure that could be harmful. This is important to ensure the patient's safety and avoid complications during and after the procedure.

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  • 41. 

    If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always

    • A.

      Place a pillow between the knees

    • B.

      Place a pillow under the knees

    • C.

      See that the ankles and legs are not crossed

    • D.

      See that the thoracic area is padded adequately

    Correct Answer
    C. See that the ankles and legs are not crossed
    Explanation
    When a patient is in a supine position, it is important for the circulator to ensure that the ankles and legs are not crossed. Crossing the ankles and legs can cause strain on the muscles and joints, leading to discomfort and potential injury. By ensuring that the ankles and legs are not crossed, the circulator helps to maintain proper alignment and positioning of the patient's lower extremities, promoting comfort and preventing any potential complications.

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  • 42. 

    Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the

    • A.

      Cervical plexus

    • B.

      Radial nerve

    • C.

      Ulnar nerve

    • D.

      Brachial plexus

    Correct Answer
    D. Brachial plexus
    Explanation
    Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the cervical spine and innervates the upper limb. When the head and arm are in extreme positions, such as during sports activities or accidents, there is a risk of stretching or compressing the brachial plexus, leading to nerve damage. This can result in symptoms like pain, weakness, and numbness in the arm and hand. Therefore, it is important to avoid extreme positions of the head and arm to prevent injury to the brachial plexus.

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  • 43. 

    Ulnar nerve damage could result from

    • A.

      Poor placement of legs in stirrups

    • B.

      Hyperextension of the arm

    • C.

      Using mattress pads of varying thickness

    • D.

      Placing an arm on an unpadded table edge

    Correct Answer
    D. Placing an arm on an unpadded table edge
    Explanation
    Placing an arm on an unpadded table edge can result in ulnar nerve damage. The ulnar nerve runs along the inner side of the arm and is vulnerable to compression or injury when pressure is applied to it. Resting the arm on a hard surface without any padding can cause compression of the ulnar nerve, leading to symptoms such as numbness, tingling, and weakness in the hand and fingers.

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  • 44. 

    In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent

    • A.

      Compromised respiration

    • B.

      Pressure areas

    • C.

      Circulatory impairment

    • D.

      Brachial nerve damage

    Correct Answer
    A. Compromised respiration
    Explanation
    In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent compromised respiration. This is because when a patient is lying face down, there is a risk of restricted breathing due to the weight of the body compressing the chest and abdomen. Elevating the thorax helps to alleviate this pressure and allows for proper airflow, ensuring adequate respiration during the procedure.

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  • 45. 

    The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

    • A.

      Prevent drying of the eye

    • B.

      Prevent the patient from seeing the procedure

    • C.

      Prevent eye trauma

    • D.

      Protect the eye from anesthetic agents

    Correct Answer
    B. Prevent the patient from seeing the procedure
    Explanation
    The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient to prevent drying of the eye, prevent eye trauma, and protect the eye from anesthetic agents. However, closing the eyelids does not prevent the patient from seeing the procedure, as the patient is under general anesthesia and is unconscious during the surgery.

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  • 46. 

    Diastolic blood pressure refers to

    • A.

      The force created by the contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

    • B.

      The relaxation phase between heartbeats

    • C.

      The first sound heard when taking the pressure on a manometer

    • D.

      The high point of the cycle

    Correct Answer
    B. The relaxation phase between heartbeats
    Explanation
    Diastolic blood pressure refers to the relaxation phase between heartbeats. This is the period when the heart is at rest and the blood is flowing back into the heart. During diastole, the heart muscles relax, allowing the chambers to fill with blood. The diastolic blood pressure measurement indicates the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest, and it is an important indicator of cardiovascular health.

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  • 47. 

    Systolic blood pressure represents

    • A.

      The pressure in the heart chambers, great vin, or close to the heart

    • B.

      The relaxation phase between heartbeats

    • C.

      The low point of the cycle

    • D.

      The greatest force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart

    Correct Answer
    D. The greatest force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart
    Explanation
    Systolic blood pressure represents the greatest force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart. This is the highest pressure in the arteries when the heart beats and pumps blood out. It is an important measure of cardiovascular health and indicates the force exerted on the arterial walls during each heartbeat.

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  • 48. 

    Tachycardia is a (n)

    • A.

      Heartbeat over 100 beats per minute

    • B.

      Irregular heartbeat

    • C.

      Thready, weak heartbeat

    • D.

      Heartbeat less than 60 beats per minute

    Correct Answer
    A. Heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
    Explanation
    Tachycardia is a condition characterized by a heartbeat that exceeds 100 beats per minute. This means that the heart is beating faster than the normal range, which is typically between 60 to 100 beats per minute. Tachycardia can be caused by a variety of factors, such as stress, exercise, certain medications, or underlying medical conditions. It can lead to symptoms like palpitations, dizziness, shortness of breath, and chest pain. Treatment for tachycardia depends on the underlying cause and may involve medication, lifestyle changes, or medical procedures.

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  • 49. 

    The most common artery used to feel the pulse is the

    • A.

      Dorsalis pedis artery

    • B.

      Femoral artery

    • C.

      Radial artery

    • D.

      Carotid artery

    Correct Answer
    C. Radial artery
    Explanation
    The radial artery is the most common artery used to feel the pulse because it is easily accessible and located close to the surface of the skin. It is located on the thumb side of the wrist and is commonly used to check the pulse rate. The dorsalis pedis artery is located on the top of the foot and is not as commonly used for pulse measurement. The femoral artery is located in the groin area and is typically used in medical emergencies. The carotid artery is located in the neck and is used in emergency situations when the patient is unconscious or unresponsive.

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  • 50. 

    The body temperature taken orally is 98.6 F. What is it in Celsius?

    • A.

      37 C

    • B.

      52 C

    • C.

      110 C

    • D.

      212 C

    Correct Answer
    A. 37 C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 37 C. This is because the conversion formula from Fahrenheit to Celsius is (F - 32) * 5/9. By plugging in 98.6 for F, we get (98.6 - 32) * 5/9 = 37 C.

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