Surgical Tech (Appleton & Lange) Part 5

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Surgical Tech (Appleton & Lange) Part 5 - Quiz

For all those surgical students preparing for exams based on the book the Surgical Tech Appleton & Lange Part 5, this quiz is for you. It will not only test your understanding on the topic, but will also advance your knowledge on it.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    In the event that a child needs emergency surgery, and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission

    • A.

      No permission is necessary

    • B.

      Permission is signed by a court of law

    • C.

      Permission is signed by the physician

    • D.

      A written consultation by two physicina other than the surgeon will suffice

    Correct Answer
    D. A written consultation by two physicina other than the surgeon will suffice
    Explanation
    In the event that a child needs emergency surgery and the parents cannot be located to sign the permission, a written consultation by two physicians other than the surgeon will suffice. This means that if the parents cannot be reached, the medical team can seek the opinion and agreement of two other physicians to proceed with the surgery. This ensures that there is a consensus among medical professionals regarding the necessity of the surgery and helps to protect the child's well-being in urgent situations.

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  • 2. 

    The patient is scheduled for an appendectomy. After completing this procedure the surgeon decides to remove a mole from the shoulder while the patient is still under anesthesia. No permission was obtained for this. The circulating nurse should

    • A.

      Report it to the anesthesiologist

    • B.

      Report it to the chief of surgery

    • C.

      Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority

    • D.

      Let the surgeon proceed because it is his or her responsibility to obtain the consent.

    Correct Answer
    C. Report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority
    Explanation
    The correct answer is to report it to the supervisor or proper administrative authority. This is because the surgeon performed an additional procedure without obtaining permission, which is a violation of medical ethics and legal requirements. The circulating nurse has a responsibility to report this incident to the appropriate authority to ensure that proper action is taken and the patient's rights are protected.

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  • 3. 

    The surgical consent form can be witnessed by each of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      The surgeon

    • B.

      A nurse

    • C.

      An authorized hospital employee

    • D.

      The patient's spouse

    Correct Answer
    D. The patient's spouse
    Explanation
    The surgical consent form can be witnessed by the surgeon, a nurse, or an authorized hospital employee, but not the patient's spouse. This is because the spouse may have a conflict of interest or bias, and their presence as a witness may not be considered impartial. It is important to have witnesses who are objective and can ensure that the patient is giving informed consent willingly and without any external pressure.

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  • 4. 

    The patient is premedicated and brought to the operating room for a cystoscopy and an open reduction of the wrist. Upon arrival in the operating room, it is observed that the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy. The correct procedure would be to

    • A.

      Cancel surgery until a valid permission can be obtained

    • B.

      Have the patient sign for the additional procedure in the operating room

    • C.

      Ask the patient verbally for consent and have witnesses attest to it

    • D.

      Let the surgeon make the decision as to whether surgery could be done

    Correct Answer
    A. Cancel surgery until a valid permission can be obtained
    Explanation
    Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal requirement before performing any medical procedure. In this case, the patient has only signed for the cystoscopy and not the open reduction of the wrist. Therefore, proceeding with the additional procedure without obtaining valid permission would be a violation of the patient's rights. The correct procedure would be to cancel the surgery until the patient provides consent specifically for the open reduction of the wrist or until a valid permission can be obtained. This ensures that the patient is fully informed and has given their explicit consent for the procedure.

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  • 5. 

    A general consent form is

    • A.

      A form authorizing all treatments or procedures

    • B.

      A form for all patients having general anesthesia

    • C.

      A form for all patients having hazardous therapy

    • D.

      Another name for an operative permit

    Correct Answer
    A. A form authorizing all treatments or procedures
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "a form authorizing all treatments or procedures." A general consent form is a document that gives permission for various medical treatments or procedures to be performed on a patient. This form ensures that the patient understands the risks and benefits of the treatments and gives their informed consent for them to be carried out. It is a standard practice in healthcare settings to obtain a general consent form from patients before providing any medical intervention.

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  • 6. 

    The ultimate responsibility for obtaining consent lies with the

    • A.

      Operating room supervisor

    • B.

      Circulating nurse

    • C.

      Surgeon

    • D.

      Unit charge nurse

    Correct Answer
    C. Surgeon
    Explanation
    The surgeon is ultimately responsible for obtaining consent because they are the one performing the procedure and have the most knowledge about the risks and benefits involved. They are the ones who will be directly responsible for the patient's care and outcomes, so it is important for them to have a clear understanding of the patient's consent before proceeding with any procedure. The operating room supervisor, circulating nurse, and unit charge nurse may also play a role in the consent process, but the ultimate responsibility lies with the surgeon.

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  • 7. 

    The surgical consent is signed

    • A.

      Before induction

    • B.

      In the holding area

    • C.

      The morning of surgery

    • D.

      Before administration of preoperative medications

    Correct Answer
    D. Before administration of preoperative medications
    Explanation
    The surgical consent is signed before administration of preoperative medications to ensure that the patient has fully understood the risks and benefits of the surgery and has given their informed consent. By signing the consent form before receiving any medication, the patient is in a clear state of mind and able to make an informed decision. This also allows the healthcare team to verify that the patient has fully understood the procedure and any potential complications before proceeding with the surgery.

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  • 8. 

    An informed consent

    • A.

      Authorizes routine duties carried out at the hospital

    • B.

      Protects patient from unratified or unwanted procedures

    • C.

      Protects the surgeon and the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation

    • D.

      B & C

    Correct Answer
    D. B & C
    Explanation
    An informed consent protects the patient from unratified or unwanted procedures by ensuring that they have a clear understanding of the risks, benefits, and alternatives to a medical procedure before giving their consent. It also protects the surgeon and the hospital from claims of an unauthorized operation by documenting that the patient was fully informed and agreed to the procedure. Therefore, the correct answer is B & C.

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  • 9. 

    Implied consent

    • A.

      Is the preferred option for consents

    • B.

      Is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted

    • C.

      In never legally vaild

    • D.

      Is the permission for surgical action

    Correct Answer
    B. Is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted
    Explanation
    Implied consent is allowed by law in emergencies when no other authorized person may be contacted. This means that in certain situations where obtaining explicit consent is not possible, such as when a person is unconscious or unable to communicate, medical professionals are legally allowed to proceed with necessary treatments or procedures based on the assumption that the individual would have consented if they were able to. This ensures that urgent medical care can be provided in critical situations where immediate action is required to save a person's life or prevent further harm.

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  • 10. 

    Which statement regarding the withdrawal of a consent by a patient is NOT true?

    • A.

      The surgeon informs the patient of the dangers if the procedure is not carried out

    • B.

      The surgeon informs the hospital administration of the patient's refusal

    • C.

      The surgeon obtains a written refusal from the patient

    • D.

      The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure

    Correct Answer
    D. The surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure
    Explanation
    The statement "the surgeon may do the procedure if he documents that it is necessary as a lifesaving measure" is not true. If a patient withdraws their consent, the surgeon cannot proceed with the procedure, even if it is necessary to save the patient's life. Consent is a fundamental principle of medical ethics, and without it, the surgeon cannot perform any procedure on the patient.

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  • 11. 

    Which position would be the most desirable for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy?

    • A.

      Lithotomy

    • B.

      Kraske

    • C.

      Knee-chest

    • D.

      Modified prone

    Correct Answer
    B. Kraske
    Explanation
    The most desirable position for a pilonidal cystectomy or a hemorrhoidectomy is the Kraske position. This position involves the patient lying on their abdomen with their hips flexed and their knees bent. The Kraske position provides optimal access to the surgical site, allowing the surgeon to effectively remove the cyst or hemorrhoids. Additionally, this position helps to minimize the risk of complications and allows for better visualization during the procedure.

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  • 12. 

     A position often used in cranial procedures is called

    • A.

      Fowler's

    • B.

      Kraske

    • C.

      Trendelenburg

    • D.

      Lithotomy

    Correct Answer
    A. Fowler's
    Explanation
    Fowler's position is often used in cranial procedures as it involves the patient being placed in a semi-sitting position with the head elevated. This position allows for better visualization and access to the surgical site, particularly in procedures involving the head and brain. It helps to reduce swelling and improve drainage, making it a common choice for cranial surgeries. The other options, Kraske, Trendelenburg, and lithotomy, are positions used in different surgical procedures but are not specifically associated with cranial procedures.

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  • 13. 

    In positioning for laminectomy, rolls or bolsters are placed

    • A.

      Horizontally, one under the chest and one under the thighs

    • B.

      Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip

    • C.

      Lonitudinally to support the chest from sternum to hip

    • D.

      Below the knees

    Correct Answer
    B. Longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip
    Explanation
    Rolls or bolsters are placed longitudinally to support the chest from axilla to hip during positioning for laminectomy. This helps provide proper alignment and support to the patient's chest and upper body, ensuring stability and comfort during the procedure. Placing the rolls or bolsters horizontally under the chest and thighs or below the knees would not provide the same level of support and alignment required for a laminectomy.

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  • 14. 

    The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is

    • A.

      Mofified Trendelenburg

    • B.

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • C.

      Supine

    • D.

      Dorsal recumbent

    Correct Answer
    A. Mofified Trendelenburg
    Explanation
    The correct answer is modified Trendelenburg. In hypovolemic shock, the patient's blood volume is significantly reduced, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. The modified Trendelenburg position involves elevating the patient's legs above the level of the heart, which helps to increase venous return and improve blood flow to vital organs. This position promotes the redistribution of blood from the lower extremities to the central circulation, helping to improve perfusion and stabilize the patient's condition.

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  • 15. 

    A Mayfield table would be used for which type of surgery?

    • A.

      Ophthalmic

    • B.

      Gynecologic

    • C.

      Neurologic

    • D.

      Urologic

    Correct Answer
    C. Neurologic
    Explanation
    A Mayfield table would be used for neurologic surgery. This type of surgery involves procedures on the brain and nervous system. The Mayfield table is specifically designed to securely position the patient's head during these surgeries, providing stability and precise positioning. This helps the surgeon access and operate on the delicate structures of the brain and nervous system with accuracy and safety.

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  • 16. 

    Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll

    • B.

      Hyperextension of the neck

    • C.

      Utilization of skin-stay sutures

    • D.

      Firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures

    Correct Answer
    D. Firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures
    Explanation
    Good exposure for thyroid surgery is ensured by all of the following except firm retraction of the laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures. The laryngeal nerve and surrounding structures should not be forcefully retracted during thyroid surgery as this can cause injury to the nerve and result in vocal cord paralysis. The other options listed, such as modified dorsal recumbent with shoulder roll, hyperextension of the neck, and utilization of skin-stay sutures, are all techniques that can help provide good exposure for thyroid surgery.

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  • 17. 

    A procedure requiring the patient to be positioned supine in modified lithotomy is

    • A.

      Colonoscopy

    • B.

      Abdominoperineal resection (APR)

    • C.

      Marsupilization of pilonidal cyst

    • D.

      Ileostomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Abdominoperineal resection (APR)
    Explanation
    Abdominoperineal resection (APR) is a surgical procedure performed to remove the rectum and anus, usually due to cancer or other diseases. The patient is positioned supine in modified lithotomy, which means lying on their back with their legs supported in stirrups. This position allows the surgeon better access to the perineal area during the surgery. Colonoscopy, marsupilization of pilonidal cyst, and ileostomy do not typically require the patient to be positioned in modified lithotomy.

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  • 18. 

    In which procedure may the patient be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left?

    • A.

      Cerclage

    • B.

      Marsupilization of Bartholin's cyst

    • C.

      Shirodkar

    • D.

      Cesarean section

    Correct Answer
    D. Cesarean section
    Explanation
    In a cesarean section, the patient may be placed in a supine position with the right side slightly elevated by a wedge to tilt the patient to the left. This positioning helps to prevent compression of the inferior vena cava by the uterus, which can lead to decreased blood flow and potential complications during the procedure.

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  • 19. 

    The position for most open bladder surgery would be

    • A.

      Lithotomy

    • B.

      Supine, bolster under pelvis

    • C.

      Reverse Trendelenburg

    • D.

      Fowler's modified

    Correct Answer
    B. Supine, bolster under pelvis
    Explanation
    The correct answer is supine, bolster under pelvis. In open bladder surgery, the patient is positioned supine, which means lying on their back. Placing a bolster under the pelvis helps to elevate the area and provide better access to the bladder during the surgical procedure. This position allows the surgeon to have a clear view and easier access to the surgical site.

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  • 20. 

    In which circumstance could the patient sustain injury to the pudendal nerves?

    • A.

      Positioned on the fracture table

    • B.

      Positioned in lateral chest

    • C.

      Positioned in lithotomy

    • D.

      Positioned on the urological table

    Correct Answer
    A. Positioned on the fracture table
    Explanation
    When a patient is positioned on the fracture table, there is a risk of injury to the pudendal nerves. This is because the fracture table is designed to stabilize and immobilize the patient, often requiring the legs to be placed in stirrups. This position can put pressure on the pudendal nerves, which are responsible for providing sensation to the genital area. Compression or stretching of these nerves can lead to injury and subsequent symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the perineum and genitals.

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  • 21. 

    Which factor is important to consider when positioning the aging patient?

    • A.

      Skeletal changes

    • B.

      Limited range of motion of joints

    • C.

      Tissue fragility

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    When positioning an aging patient, it is important to consider all of the factors mentioned: skeletal changes, limited range of motion of joints, and tissue fragility. Skeletal changes such as osteoporosis can make the patient more prone to fractures, while limited range of motion of joints can affect their ability to move and maintain proper positioning. Additionally, aging skin becomes more fragile and prone to damage, making it crucial to handle the patient with care to avoid skin tears or pressure ulcers. Considering all of these factors is essential for ensuring the safety and comfort of the aging patient.

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  • 22. 

    When positioning the patient for a procedure, which of the following provides maximum patient safety and maximum surgical site exposure?

    • A.

      Patient's body does not touch metal on table

    • B.

      Equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel are not resting on the patient

    • C.

      Bony prominences are padded

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    Positioning the patient for a procedure requires ensuring maximum patient safety and surgical site exposure. To achieve this, it is important that the patient's body does not touch any metal on the table, as this can cause discomfort or injury. Additionally, equipment, Mayo stand, or personnel should not rest on the patient to avoid unnecessary pressure or obstruction during the procedure. Lastly, padding bony prominences helps prevent pressure ulcers and provides added comfort for the patient. Therefore, all of the above measures contribute to maximum patient safety and surgical site exposure.

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  • 23. 

    When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, a breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently because of

    • A.

      Patient anxiety

    • B.

      Dispersal of cancer cells

    • C.

      Contamination

    • D.

      Infection

    Correct Answer
    B. Dispersal of cancer cells
    Explanation
    When preparing a patient for a breast biopsy, the breast scrub is either eliminated or done very gently to avoid the dispersal of cancer cells. Scrubbing the breast vigorously can cause the cancer cells to spread to other parts of the breast or even to nearby lymph nodes, potentially leading to the spread of the disease. Therefore, it is important to handle the breast with care during the biopsy preparation to minimize the risk of cancer cell dispersal.

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  • 24. 

    The ideal place to do the shave prep is in the

    • A.

      Patient's room

    • B.

      Operating room (OR) suite

    • C.

      Holding area of the OR

    • D.

      Room where the surgery will be performed

    Correct Answer
    C. Holding area of the OR
    Explanation
    The holding area of the OR is the ideal place to do the shave prep because it is a designated area specifically designed for preoperative preparations. It is equipped with all the necessary tools and supplies needed for the procedure. Additionally, performing the shave prep in the holding area ensures that the patient is in a sterile environment, minimizing the risk of infection. Shaving in the patient's room or the operating room suite may not provide the same level of sterility and may increase the risk of complications.

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  • 25. 

    Any area that is considered contaminated

    • A.

      Should be scrubbed last or separately

    • B.

      Should not be scrubbed at all

    • C.

      Should be scrubbed first

    • D.

      Needs no special consideration

    Correct Answer
    A. Should be scrubbed last or separately
    Explanation
    Contaminated areas should be scrubbed last or separately to prevent the spread of contamination to other areas. This is because scrubbing contaminated areas first could result in the transfer of contaminants to cleaner areas, increasing the risk of contamination. By scrubbing these areas last or separately, the risk of cross-contamination is minimized, ensuring a safer and more effective cleaning process.

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  • 26. 

    In preparation for surgery, skin should be washed and painted

    • A.

      From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion

    • B.

      From the periphery to the incision site in a circular motion

    • C.

      In a side-to side motion

    • D.

      In an up-and-down motion

    Correct Answer
    A. From the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "from the incision site to the periphery in a circular motion." This is because washing and painting the skin in this direction helps to minimize the risk of contaminating the incision site. By starting at the incision site and moving outward in a circular motion, any potential bacteria or debris on the skin is pushed away from the incision, reducing the likelihood of infection.

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  • 27. 

    Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin begins

    • A.

      With a preoperative shower

    • B.

      With the shave preparation

    • C.

      In the OR

    • D.

      In the holding area

    Correct Answer
    A. With a preoperative shower
    Explanation
    The correct answer is with a preoperative shower. Preliminary preparation of the patient's skin before a surgery typically involves a preoperative shower. This helps to cleanse the skin and reduce the risk of infection. It is usually done in the hospital or healthcare facility prior to the patient being taken to the operating room. Shave preparation may also be necessary in some cases, but the preoperative shower is a more common and important step in ensuring proper hygiene and minimizing the risk of surgical site infections.

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  • 28. 

    Suction tubing is attached to the drapes with a (n)

    • A.

      Towel clip

    • B.

      Nonperforating clamp

    • C.

      Kocher clamp

    • D.

      Allis clamp

    Correct Answer
    B. Nonperforating clamp
    Explanation
    A nonperforating clamp is used to attach suction tubing to the drapes. This clamp is designed to securely hold the tubing in place without causing any damage or puncturing the material. It provides a tight grip to prevent any leakage or dislodging of the tubing during procedures. The use of a nonperforating clamp ensures a reliable and safe connection between the suction tubing and the drapes, maintaining a sterile environment in the operating room.

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  • 29. 

    All of the following statements regarding sterility are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Wrapper edges are unsterile

    • B.

      Instruments or sutures hanging over the table edge are discarded

    • C.

      Sterile persons pass each other back to back

    • D.

      A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing

    Correct Answer
    D. A sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing
    Explanation
    In sterile environments, it is important for sterile persons to face each other when passing in order to maintain sterility. This is because facing each other reduces the risk of contamination from nonsterile areas or individuals. Therefore, the correct answer is that a sterile person faces a nonsterile person when passing. The other statements mentioned in the question are true and are related to maintaining sterility, such as discarding instruments or sutures hanging over the table edge and ensuring that wrapper edges are unsterile.

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  • 30. 

    When draping a table, the scrub nurse should drape

    • A.

      Back to front

    • B.

      Front to back

    • C.

      Side to side

    • D.

      Either A or B

    Correct Answer
    B. Front to back
    Explanation
    When draping a table, it is important for the scrub nurse to drape from front to back. This ensures that the sterile field is maintained and reduces the risk of contamination. Draping from front to back allows the nurse to easily cover the table and create a barrier between the sterile and non-sterile areas. It also allows for a smooth and efficient workflow during the surgical procedure. Draping in any other direction could compromise the sterility of the field and increase the risk of infection.

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  • 31. 

    A seamless, stretchable material often used to cover extremities during draping is

    • A.

      Esmarch

    • B.

      Ace bandage

    • C.

      Kling

    • D.

      Stockinette

    Correct Answer
    D. Stockinette
    Explanation
    Stockinette is a seamless, stretchable material commonly used to cover extremities during draping. It provides a smooth and comfortable surface, allowing for easy application and removal. Stockinette is often used in medical settings to protect the skin, provide padding, and promote hygiene. It is made from a soft and breathable fabric that helps to prevent irritation and pressure sores. Overall, stockinette is a practical and versatile material that is widely used in healthcare settings.

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  • 32. 

    Drapes are

    • A.

      Adjusted after placement for correct position

    • B.

      Unfolded before being carried to OR table

    • C.

      Passed across the table to surgeon alon with towel clips

    • D.

      Placed on a dry area

    Correct Answer
    D. Placed on a dry area
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "placed on a dry area." This means that after the drapes are adjusted for the correct position and unfolded, they are placed on a dry area before being carried to the OR table. This ensures that the drapes remain clean and free from any moisture or contaminants that could potentially compromise the sterile field during the surgical procedure.

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  • 33. 

    Which statement demonstrates a break in technique during the draping process?

    • A.

      Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient

    • B.

      Discard a drape that becomes contaminated

    • C.

      Discard a sheet that falls below table level

    • D.

      Cover or discard a srape that has a hole

    Correct Answer
    A. Gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient
    Explanation
    During the draping process, it is important to maintain a sterile environment. The statement "gloved hands may touch the skin of the patient" demonstrates a break in technique because it introduces the potential for contamination. Gloved hands should not come into direct contact with the patient's skin to prevent the transfer of microorganisms.

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  • 34. 

    A head drape consists of

    • A.

      Medium sheets, towel, towel clip

    • B.

      Two medium sheets, towel clip

    • C.

      One small sheet, one medium sheet, towel clip

    • D.

      Towel, fenestrated sheet

    Correct Answer
    A. Medium sheets, towel, towel clip
    Explanation
    A head drape is a covering used during medical procedures to protect the patient's head and prevent contamination. It typically consists of medium sheets, a towel, and a towel clip. The medium sheets provide a large enough surface area to cover the head adequately, while the towel helps absorb any fluids or sweat. The towel clip is used to secure the drape in place and prevent it from slipping during the procedure. This combination of materials ensures proper coverage and hygiene during the medical procedure.

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  • 35. 

    Gowns are considered sterile only from

    • A.

      Waist to neck level in front and back, and the sleeves

    • B.

      Waist to shoulder, front and back, and the sleeves

    • C.

      Neck to thighs in front, and the sleeves

    • D.

      Only in front from chest to sterile field level, and sleeves from elbow to cuffs

    Correct Answer
    D. Only in front from chest to sterile field level, and sleeves from elbow to cuffs
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "only in front from chest to sterile field level, and sleeves from elbow to cuffs". This means that gowns are considered sterile only in the front area from the chest to the level of the sterile field, and the sleeves are considered sterile from the elbow to the cuffs. The rest of the gown, including the back and neck area, is not considered sterile.

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  • 36. 

    An acceptable action when drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub is to

    • A.

      Dry from elbow to fingertip

    • B.

      Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first

    • C.

      Keep the hands and arms close to the body, at waist level

    • D.

      Dry one hand and arm thoroughly before proceeding to the next

    Correct Answer
    B. Dry thoroughly, cleanest area first
    Explanation
    When drying the hands and arms after the surgical scrub, it is important to dry thoroughly to remove any remaining moisture. Starting with the cleanest area first ensures that any contaminants or bacteria that may still be present on the hands and arms are not spread to other areas. This helps maintain a sterile environment.

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  • 37. 

    All of the following statements regarding gowning another person are true EXCEPT

    • A.

      Open the hand towel and lay it on the person's hand

    • B.

      Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband

    • C.

      Keep hands on the outside of the gown under a protective cuff

    • D.

      Release the gown once the person touches it

    Correct Answer
    B. Hand the folded gown to the person at the neckband
  • 38. 

    Which statement regarding the scrub procedure is not true?

    • A.

      Reduces the microbial count

    • B.

      Leaves an antimicrobial count

    • C.

      Renders the skin aseptic

    • D.

      Removes skin oil

    Correct Answer
    C. Renders the skin aseptic
    Explanation
    The statement "renders the skin aseptic" is not true. The scrub procedure is designed to reduce the microbial count on the skin and remove skin oil, but it does not render the skin completely aseptic. Aseptic means completely free from microorganisms, which is not achievable through a scrub procedure alone.

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  • 39. 

    If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during a operation

    • A.

      The scrub must also regown

    • B.

      The circulator pulls the glove off

    • C.

      The scrub pulls the glove off

    • D.

      The scrub uses closed-glove technique to reapply gloves

    Correct Answer
    B. The circulator pulls the glove off
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "the circulator pulls the glove off." In an operating room, the circulator is responsible for assisting the scrub nurse and maintaining a sterile environment. If the scrub nurse needs to change a glove during an operation, it is the circulator's role to remove the glove for the scrub nurse to reglove. This is done to prevent contamination and maintain sterility in the operating room.

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  • 40. 

    Which statement regarding the removal of gown and gloves does not meet safe criteria?

    • A.

      The gloves are removed before the gown

    • B.

      The gown is pulled off inside-out

    • C.

      The gown is untied by the circulator

    • D.

      The gloves are removed inside[out

    Correct Answer
    A. The gloves are removed before the gown
    Explanation
    Removing the gloves before the gown does not meet safe criteria because it can lead to contamination. The gloves act as a barrier between the hands and the gown, preventing any potential pathogens or contaminants from transferring onto the hands. By removing the gloves first, there is a risk of touching the contaminated gown with bare hands, increasing the likelihood of cross-contamination. It is recommended to remove the gown first, followed by the gloves, to ensure proper infection control procedures are followed.

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  • 41. 

    An effective surgical scrub procedure is

    • A.

      Time method

    • B.

      Brush-stroke method

    • C.

      3 minute anatomic method

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    An effective surgical scrub procedure involves both the time method and the brush-stroke method. The time method ensures that the scrub is performed for a sufficient duration to effectively remove microorganisms from the hands and arms. The brush-stroke method involves using a specific technique to thoroughly scrub all surfaces of the hands and arms, including between the fingers and under the nails. By combining these two methods, healthcare professionals can achieve a thorough and effective surgical scrub, minimizing the risk of infection during surgical procedures.

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  • 42. 

    Regarding the surgical scrub, which statement  would violate acceptable practice?

    • A.

      Fingernails should not reach beyond fingertip

    • B.

      Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied

    • C.

      Anyone with a cut, abrasion, or hang nail should not scrub

    • D.

      A non-oil based hand lotion may be used to protect the skin

    Correct Answer
    B. Nail polish may be worn if freshly applied
    Explanation
    Nail polish should not be worn during a surgical scrub, even if it is freshly applied. This is because nail polish can harbor bacteria and interfere with proper hand hygiene. It is important to have clean, bare nails during a surgical scrub to minimize the risk of contamination.

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  • 43. 

    Eyeware, goggles, and / or faceshields should be worn

    • A.

      On every case

    • B.

      On orthopedic cases

    • C.

      On vascular cases

    • D.

      On positive HIV cases

    Correct Answer
    A. On every case
    Explanation
    Eyeware, goggles, and/or faceshields should be worn on every case as a precautionary measure to protect the eyes and face from potential hazards or splashes that may occur during any type of case. This includes orthopedic cases, vascular cases, and positive HIV cases. Wearing protective eyewear helps to prevent any potential injuries or exposure to infectious materials, ensuring the safety and well-being of healthcare professionals involved in the procedures.

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  • 44. 

    The surgical scrub is

    • A.

      Sterilzation of the skin

    • B.

      Mechanical cleansing of the skin

    • C.

      Chemical cleansing of the skin

    • D.

      Mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin

    Correct Answer
    D. Mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin
    Explanation
    The surgical scrub involves both mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin. Mechanical washing refers to the physical removal of dirt, debris, and microorganisms from the skin using water, soap, and friction. This helps to physically clean the skin and remove any potential contaminants. Chemical antisepsis, on the other hand, involves the use of antiseptic solutions or agents to kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms on the skin. This step helps to further reduce the risk of infection during surgery. Therefore, the correct answer is "mechanical washing and chemical antisepsis of the skin".

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  • 45. 

    Scrub technique ends

    • A.

      2 inches below the elbow

    • B.

      Just below the elbow

    • C.

      At the elbow

    • D.

      2 inches above the elbow

    Correct Answer
    D. 2 inches above the elbow
    Explanation
    The scrub technique is a method used to clean and sanitize the hands and forearms before performing a medical procedure. The question asks where the scrub technique ends, and the correct answer is "2 inches above the elbow." This means that the scrubbing should be done on the hands and forearms, stopping 2 inches before reaching the elbow joint. This ensures that the entire area that may come into contact with the patient or equipment is properly cleaned and reduces the risk of infection.

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  • 46. 

    Which statement regarding the surgical scrub indicates INAPPROPRIATE preparation by the scrub?

    • A.

      Artificial nails / devices must not cover nails

    • B.

      Nail polish may be worn, if not chipped

    • C.

      Finger nail should not reach beyond fingertips

    • D.

      Skin should be protected with a non oil-based product

    Correct Answer
    B. Nail polish may be worn, if not chipped
    Explanation
    The statement "nail polish may be worn, if not chipped" indicates inappropriate preparation for a surgical scrub because nail polish can harbor bacteria and interfere with proper hand hygiene. In a surgical setting, it is important to have clean and bare nails to minimize the risk of contamination.

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  • 47. 

    Which statement best describes an effective surgical hand scrub?

    • A.

      Teim, no anatomical sequence

    • B.

      Number of strokes, no anatomical sequence

    • C.

      Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence

    • D.

      Number of strokes, elbow to hand sequence

    Correct Answer
    C. Time or number of strokes, hand to elbow sequence
    Explanation
    An effective surgical hand scrub involves scrubbing for a specific amount of time or a specific number of strokes, and the scrubbing motion should start from the hand and move towards the elbow. This ensures that all areas of the hands and arms are thoroughly cleaned and reduces the risk of contamination during surgery.

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  • 48. 

    The brush-stoke method of scrubbing prescribes the number of strokes required. Indicate the number for each: nails, fingers, hand (back and palm) and arms.

    • A.

      40,30,30,30

    • B.

      40,40,20,20

    • C.

      30,20,20,20

    • D.

      30,20,10,10

    Correct Answer
    C. 30,20,20,20
    Explanation
    The brush-stoke method of scrubbing prescribes that for nails, 30 strokes are required. For fingers, 20 strokes are required. For the hand (back and palm), 20 strokes are required. And for the arms, 20 strokes are required.

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  • 49. 

    A surgical treatment for scoliosis could employ the use of

    • A.

      Skeletal traction

    • B.

      External fixation

    • C.

      Compression plate and screws

    • D.

      Harrington rods

    Correct Answer
    D. Harrington rods
    Explanation
    Harrington rods are commonly used in surgical treatment for scoliosis. These rods are implanted along the spine and help to correct the curvature by providing stability and support. They are attached to the vertebrae using hooks and screws, and then connected with a rod to straighten the spine. This surgical procedure aims to reduce the spinal deformity and improve the patient's posture and overall quality of life.

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  • 50. 

    What is a Lebsche used for?

    • A.

      To open the sternum

    • B.

      To retract spinal nerves

    • C.

      To elevate the periosteum

    • D.

      To separate the ribs

    Correct Answer
    A. To open the sternum
    Explanation
    A Lebsche is a surgical instrument used to open the sternum during procedures such as open heart surgery. It is specifically designed to safely and effectively separate the sternum, allowing access to the heart and other organs in the chest cavity. This instrument helps surgeons to perform the necessary procedures while minimizing the risk of damage to surrounding structures and ensuring patient safety.

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