Surgical Tech ( Appleton And Lange) Part 11

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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Appleton and Lange part 11 Questions 1000 - 1099


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Which muscle is utilized to effect a TRAM flap in breast reconstruction?

    • A.

      Latissimus dorsi

    • B.

      Transrectus abdominis

    • C.

      Pectoralis major

    • D.

      Pectoralis minor

    Correct Answer
    B. Transrectus abdominis
    Explanation
    The transrectus abdominis muscle is utilized to effect a TRAM flap in breast reconstruction. The TRAM (transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous) flap procedure involves taking a section of tissue, including skin, fat, blood vessels, and the transrectus abdominis muscle, from the lower abdomen and using it to reconstruct the breast. This muscle provides the necessary blood supply to the tissue flap and helps in creating a new breast mound.

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  • 2. 

    The most widely used method of scar revision next to scar removal is

    • A.

      Chemical peel

    • B.

      Sanding

    • C.

      Z-plasty

    • D.

      Planing

    Correct Answer
    C. Z-plasty
    Explanation
    Z-plasty is a widely used method of scar revision because it is effective in improving the appearance of scars. It involves creating small triangular flaps of skin on both sides of the scar and then rearranging them in a zigzag pattern. This technique helps to break up the scar tissue and redistribute tension, resulting in a more aesthetically pleasing scar. Z-plasty also allows for better alignment of the scar with natural skin tension lines, making it less noticeable. Compared to scar removal or other methods like chemical peel or planing, Z-plasty offers a more comprehensive and long-lasting solution for scar revision.

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  • 3. 

    The Pereyra needle is used in which specialty area of surgery?

    • A.

      Neurology

    • B.

      Urology

    • C.

      Orthopedics

    • D.

      Ophthalmology

    Correct Answer
    B. Urology
    Explanation
    The Pereyra needle is used in urology. This needle is specifically designed for percutaneous nephrolithotomy, a surgical procedure used to remove kidney stones. It is used to access the kidney through a small incision in the back, allowing for the insertion of instruments to break up and remove the stones. Therefore, the correct answer is urology.

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  • 4. 

    Which ureteral catheter is used to dilate the ureter?

    • A.

      Garceau tapered tip

    • B.

      Basket catheter

    • C.

      Braasch bulb

    • D.

      Stent

    Correct Answer
    A. Garceau tapered tip
    Explanation
    The Garceau tapered tip is used to dilate the ureter. This catheter has a tapered tip that allows for easy insertion and dilation of the ureter. It is commonly used in medical procedures to widen or open up a narrowed or blocked ureter.

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  • 5. 

    The use of distilled water during a highly invasive genitourinary procedure such as a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)  is prohibited for irrigation because of the potential for

    • A.

      Hemolysis of RBC

    • B.

      Electrolytic dissipation of current

    • C.

      Increase of blood pressure

    • D.

      Body fluid shift

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemolysis of RBC
    Explanation
    Distilled water is pure water with no minerals or ions. When used for irrigation during TURP, it can cause hemolysis of red blood cells (RBC). This is because the distilled water lacks the necessary electrolytes and minerals to maintain the osmotic balance of the RBCs. The sudden change in osmolarity can cause the RBCs to burst, leading to hemolysis. Therefore, the use of distilled water for irrigation in TURP is prohibited to prevent this potential complication.

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  • 6. 

    Why is a 30-cc bag Foley used after a TURP?

    • A.

      Hemostasis

    • B.

      Decompression

    • C.

      Creation of negative pressure

    • D.

      Aspiration

    Correct Answer
    A. Hemostasis
    Explanation
    After a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), there may be bleeding in the surgical area. Using a 30-cc bag Foley helps in achieving hemostasis, which means stopping or controlling the bleeding. By inserting the Foley catheter and inflating the balloon with 30-cc of fluid, pressure is applied to the surgical site, helping to stop the bleeding and promote healing. This method ensures that the surgical area remains clean and prevents any further bleeding or complications.

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  • 7. 

    The three lumens of a Foley are used for inflation, drainage, and

    • A.

      Prevention of urine reflux

    • B.

      Access for sterile urine specimens

    • C.

      Continuous irrigation

    • D.

      Additional hemostasis

    Correct Answer
    C. Continuous irrigation
    Explanation
    The three lumens of a Foley catheter are used for various purposes. One of these purposes is continuous irrigation. Continuous irrigation involves the continuous flow of a sterile solution through the catheter to flush out the bladder and prevent blockages or infections. This can be helpful in cases where there is a need to keep the bladder clean or to remove blood clots or debris. Therefore, continuous irrigation is a valid use of the lumens of a Foley catheter.

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  • 8. 

    The purpose of the kidney elevator is to

    • A.

      Increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest

    • B.

      Increase the space between the ribs

    • C.

      Stabilize the patient

    • D.

      Support the body in the flexed position

    Correct Answer
    A. Increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest
    Explanation
    The kidney elevator is used to increase the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest. This is important in certain medical procedures, such as kidney surgeries or examinations, where it is necessary to have better access to the kidneys. By elevating the kidney, the space between the lower ribs and iliac crest is widened, providing more room for the medical professional to work and reducing the risk of injury to surrounding organs.

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  • 9. 

    Why is the table straightened before closing a kidney incision?

    • A.

      To facilitate easier respirations

    • B.

      To create better approximation of tissues

    • C.

      To facilitate better circulation

    • D.

      To prevent nerve damage

    Correct Answer
    B. To create better approximation of tissues
    Explanation
    Straightening the table before closing a kidney incision helps to create better approximation of tissues. By straightening the table, the surgeon ensures that the patient's body is in the correct position, allowing for better access to the kidney and surrounding tissues. This positioning helps the surgeon to accurately align and close the incision, resulting in a more precise and effective closure. It also helps to minimize any tension or gaps in the tissue, promoting proper healing and reducing the risk of complications.

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  • 10. 

    Nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is termed

    • A.

      Prostatistis

    • B.

      Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

    • C.

      Balanitis

    • D.

      Prostatism

    Correct Answer
    B. Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)
    Explanation
    Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) is the correct answer because it accurately describes the nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate. BPH is a common condition in older men where the prostate gland grows in size, causing urinary symptoms such as frequent urination, weak urine flow, and difficulty emptying the bladder. Prostatitis refers to inflammation of the prostate gland, balanitis is inflammation of the head of the penis, and prostatism is a general term for symptoms related to prostate enlargement.

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  • 11. 

    Urethral strictures can be dilated by use of each of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Philips filiform and followers

    • B.

      Van Buren sounds

    • C.

      Braasch bulb

    • D.

      McCarthy dilators

    Correct Answer
    C. Braasch bulb
    Explanation
    The Braasch bulb is not used for dilating urethral strictures. Philips filiform and followers, Van Buren sounds, and McCarthy dilators are all commonly used instruments for this purpose. The Braasch bulb may be used for other procedures, but not specifically for dilating urethral strictures.

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  • 12. 

    A staghorn stone is one that lodges and continues to grow in the

    • A.

      Renal calyx

    • B.

      Space of Retzius

    • C.

      Uteter

    • D.

      Hilum

    Correct Answer
    A. Renal calyx
    Explanation
    A staghorn stone refers to a type of kidney stone that gets lodged and continues to grow in the renal calyx. The renal calyx is a part of the kidney where urine collects before it flows into the ureter. This type of stone can cause significant obstruction and can be challenging to remove due to its size and location.

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  • 13. 

    In cystoscopy, the irrigating solution is

    • A.

      Distilled water

    • B.

      Glycine

    • C.

      Mannitol

    • D.

      Sorbitol

    Correct Answer
    A. Distilled water
    Explanation
    Distilled water is the correct answer for the irrigating solution used in cystoscopy. This is because distilled water is free from impurities and minerals, making it safe to use for irrigation purposes without causing any harm or irritation to the patient's bladder. Additionally, distilled water is readily available and cost-effective, making it a suitable choice for this procedure. Glycine, mannitol, and sorbitol are not commonly used as irrigating solutions in cystoscopy.

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  • 14. 

    Which of the following is NOT considered a permanent urinary diversion?

    • A.

      Ileal conduit

    • B.

      Ureterocystostomy

    • C.

      Cutaneous ureterostomy

    • D.

      Nephrostomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Nephrostomy
    Explanation
    A nephrostomy is a temporary urinary diversion procedure where a tube is inserted directly into the kidney to drain urine. It is used in cases of urinary obstruction or when the bladder cannot be accessed. Unlike the other options listed, which are all permanent urinary diversions, a nephrostomy is not considered a permanent solution as it is typically used as a temporary measure until the underlying issue can be resolved or a more permanent diversion can be performed.

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  • 15. 

    Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires all of the following EXCEPT a (n)

    • A.

      Alexander periosteotome

    • B.

      Doyen raspatory

    • C.

      Heaney clamp

    • D.

      Stille shears

    Correct Answer
    C. Heaney clamp
    Explanation
    Rib removal for surgical exposure of the kidney requires various instruments, including an Alexander periosteotome, Doyen raspatory, and Stille shears. These instruments are used to dissect and remove the ribs to provide access to the kidney. However, a Heaney clamp is not necessary for rib removal. Heaney clamps are commonly used in gynecological surgeries for clamping and manipulating tissues, but they are not specifically required for rib removal in kidney surgery.

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  • 16. 

    Penile condylomata are most successfully removed by

    • A.

      Dermabrasion

    • B.

      Laser

    • C.

      Cautery

    • D.

      Ultrasound

    Correct Answer
    B. Laser
    Explanation
    Laser treatment is the most successful method for removing penile condylomata. Laser technology allows for precise and targeted removal of the warts, minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissue. The high-energy laser beam effectively destroys the abnormal tissue, promoting faster healing and reducing the risk of recurrence. Additionally, laser treatment offers the advantage of being less invasive compared to other methods like dermabrasion or cautery, resulting in minimal pain and scarring. Ultrasound is not a suitable method for removing penile condylomata, as it is primarily used for imaging purposes rather than tissue removal.

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  • 17. 

    Removal of a testis or the testes is called

    • A.

      Orchiopexy

    • B.

      Orchiectomy

    • C.

      Epididymectomy

    • D.

      Vasectomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Orchiectomy
    Explanation
    Orchiectomy is the correct answer because it refers to the surgical removal of one or both testicles. This procedure is commonly performed to treat testicular cancer, prevent the spread of cancer, or as a method of hormone therapy for certain conditions. Orchiopexy, on the other hand, is a surgical procedure to fix an undescended testicle, epididymectomy is the removal of the epididymis, and vasectomy is the surgical sterilization procedure for men.

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  • 18. 

    Which solution is NOT used during a transurethral prostatectomy?

    • A.

      Normal saline

    • B.

      Sorbitol

    • C.

      Mannitol

    • D.

      Glycine

    Correct Answer
    A. Normal saline
    Explanation
    During a transurethral prostatectomy, various solutions are used to irrigate the surgical field and maintain visibility. These solutions help to flush out blood, debris, and clots. Normal saline, sorbitol, mannitol, and glycine are commonly used solutions. However, normal saline is not used during a transurethral prostatectomy. This is because normal saline lacks the necessary electrolytes and osmolarity to maintain the integrity of the prostate tissue during the procedure. Instead, solutions like sorbitol, mannitol, or glycine are used as they provide the appropriate electrolyte balance and osmolarity needed for the surgery.

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  • 19. 

    Temporary diversion of urinary drainage by means of an external catheter that drains the renal pelvis is called

    • A.

      Vesicostomy

    • B.

      Nephrostomy

    • C.

      Pyelostomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Pyelostomy
    Explanation
    Pyelostomy is the correct answer because it refers to the temporary diversion of urinary drainage by using an external catheter to drain the renal pelvis. Vesicostomy is the creation of an artificial opening in the bladder for urinary diversion, while nephrostomy involves the insertion of a catheter directly into the kidney to drain urine.

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  • 20. 

    The procedure to treat organic sexual impotence is

    • A.

      Spermatocelectomy

    • B.

      Varicocelectomy

    • C.

      Testicular implant

    • D.

      Penile implant

    Correct Answer
    D. Penile implant
    Explanation
    The correct answer is penile implant. A penile implant is a surgical procedure that involves inserting a device into the penis to help achieve and maintain an erection. This is a treatment option for organic sexual impotence when other methods such as medication or therapy have not been successful. It is typically considered when there is a physical cause for the impotence, such as damage to the nerves or blood vessels in the penis. The penile implant allows for an erection to be achieved on demand, providing a solution for individuals who are unable to achieve or sustain an erection naturally.

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  • 21. 

    Which anomaly is corrected by the MAGPI procedure?

    • A.

      Epispadias

    • B.

      Hypospadias

    • C.

      Phimosis

    • D.

      Chordee

    Correct Answer
    D. Chordee
    Explanation
    The correct answer is chordee. Chordee is a condition where the penis curves downward or upward during an erection. The MAGPI (meatal advancement and glanuloplasty) procedure is a surgical technique used to correct chordee. It involves repositioning the urethral opening and reshaping the glans penis to correct the curvature. This procedure helps to improve the appearance and function of the penis, allowing for normal urination and sexual intercourse.

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  • 22. 

    Microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure is termed

    • A.

      Spermatogenesis

    • B.

      Orchiopexy

    • C.

      Vasovasostomy

    • D.

      Vasectomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Vasovasostomy
    Explanation
    Vasovasostomy is the microscopic reversal of the male sterilization procedure, vasectomy. During vasectomy, the vas deferens is cut and sealed to prevent the passage of sperm. Vasovasostomy reconnects the vas deferens, allowing sperm to once again be present in the ejaculate. Therefore, vasovasostomy is the correct term for the microscopic reversal of male sterilization.

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  • 23. 

    A needle biopsy of the prostate may be accomplished with a (n)

    • A.

      Butterfly needle

    • B.

      Angiocatheter

    • C.

      Tru-cut needle

    • D.

      Taper needle

    Correct Answer
    C. Tru-cut needle
    Explanation
    A Tru-cut needle is commonly used for needle biopsies of the prostate. It is designed with a cutting edge that allows for the collection of a tissue sample from the prostate gland. This type of needle is preferred because it provides a more accurate and reliable biopsy sample compared to other options like a butterfly needle or angiocatheter, which are not specifically designed for prostate biopsies. A taper needle is also not suitable for this procedure as it does not have the necessary cutting edge.

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  • 24. 

    When the male penis is curved ventrally with the meatus and the glans in close proximity to each other it is called

    • A.

      Paraphimosis

    • B.

      Phimosis

    • C.

      Epispadias

    • D.

      Chordee

    Correct Answer
    D. Chordee
    Explanation
    Chordee is the correct answer because it refers to a condition where the male penis is curved ventrally, meaning it bends downward. This curvature causes the meatus (the opening of the urethra) and the glans (the head of the penis) to be in close proximity to each other. Paraphimosis refers to the retraction of the foreskin behind the glans and inability to pull it back to its original position. Phimosis refers to the tightness of the foreskin that prevents it from being pulled back. Epispadias is a condition where the urethra opens on the upper side of the penis.

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  • 25. 

    An endoscopic procedure to treat stress incontinence is a

    • A.

      Y-V- plasty

    • B.

      Stent procedure

    • C.

      Stamey procedure

    • D.

      Colocystoplasty

    Correct Answer
    C. Stamey procedure
    Explanation
    The Stamey procedure is an endoscopic procedure used to treat stress incontinence. It involves the placement of sutures to provide support to the urethra and bladder neck, helping to prevent urine leakage during physical activities or stress. This procedure is minimally invasive and can be performed using a cystoscope, allowing for a quicker recovery time compared to traditional open surgeries. The Y-V-plasty and colocystoplasty are not specifically related to treating stress incontinence, and a stent procedure may not be as effective in providing long-term relief for this condition.

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  • 26. 

    Continuous irrigation following TURP is accomplished by use of a

    • A.

      Suprapubic cystotomy tube

    • B.

      30-cc three-way Foley catheter

    • C.

      5-cc three-way Foley catheter

    • D.

      30-cc two-way Foley catheter

    Correct Answer
    B. 30-cc three-way Foley catheter
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the 30-cc three-way Foley catheter. Following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), continuous irrigation is required to prevent blood clots from obstructing the urinary tract. A three-way Foley catheter is used for this purpose as it allows for continuous irrigation through one lumen while draining urine through another. The 30-cc size refers to the balloon capacity of the catheter, which helps secure it in the bladder.

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  • 27. 

    Bladder drainage that diverts urine away from the urethral vaginal area is a (n)

    • A.

      Foley catheterization

    • B.

      Ileal conduit

    • C.

      Cystostomy

    • D.

      Stamey procedure

    Correct Answer
    C. Cystostomy
    Explanation
    A cystostomy is a method of bladder drainage that diverts urine away from the urethral vaginal area. It involves creating a surgical opening in the bladder wall and inserting a catheter to allow urine to drain out. This procedure is commonly used in cases where the normal flow of urine is obstructed or when there is a need for long-term bladder drainage. The other options listed, Foley catheterization, ileal conduit, and Stamey procedure, are not specifically designed to divert urine away from the urethral vaginal area.

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  • 28. 

    When the prostate gland is removed through an abdominal insicion into the anterior prostatic capsule, it is called a __________ prostatectomy.

    • A.

      Perineal

    • B.

      Suprapubic

    • C.

      Retropubic

    • D.

      Transurethral

    Correct Answer
    C. Retropubic
    Explanation
    A retropubic prostatectomy is a surgical procedure in which the prostate gland is removed through an abdominal incision made in the anterior prostatic capsule. This approach allows the surgeon to access the prostate gland from the front, or anterior, side of the body. The term "retropubic" refers to the location of the incision, which is made below the pubic bone. This procedure is commonly used for the treatment of prostate cancer and other conditions affecting the prostate gland.

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  • 29. 

    Kidney stones are sent to the lab in

    • A.

      Saline

    • B.

      Water

    • C.

      Dry state

    • D.

      Formalin

    Correct Answer
    C. Dry state
    Explanation
    Kidney stones are sent to the lab in a dry state because this allows for easier examination and analysis. When the stones are dried, any remaining water or moisture is removed, which helps preserve the stone and prevents the growth of bacteria or other microorganisms. Additionally, drying the stones makes it easier to handle and transport them without the risk of damage or contamination.

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  • 30. 

    A Pereyra procedure is done for

    • A.

      Stress incontinence

    • B.

      Chronic bladder infection

    • C.

      Drainage of the bladder

    • D.

      Impotence

    Correct Answer
    A. Stress incontinence
    Explanation
    A Pereyra procedure is a surgical technique used to treat stress incontinence, which is the involuntary leakage of urine during activities that increase abdominal pressure, such as coughing, sneezing, or exercising. This procedure involves repositioning and supporting the urethra and bladder neck to improve their function and prevent urine leakage. It is not performed for chronic bladder infection, drainage of the bladder, or impotence.

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  • 31. 

    A percutaneous nephrolithotomy utilizes all of the following EXCEPT

    • A.

      Ultrasound wand

    • B.

      Flexible nephroscope

    • C.

      Lithotriptor

    • D.

      Lithotriptor tub

    Correct Answer
    D. Lithotriptor tub
    Explanation
    A percutaneous nephrolithotomy is a minimally invasive procedure used to remove kidney stones. It involves creating a small incision in the back and using specialized instruments to access and remove the stones. The procedure typically utilizes an ultrasound wand to locate the stones, a flexible nephroscope to visualize and remove the stones, and a lithotriptor to break up larger stones. However, a lithotriptor tub is not used in this procedure. A lithotriptor tub is a device used in extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), a different procedure that uses shock waves to break up kidney stones from outside the body.

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  • 32. 

    Orchiopexy can be defined as

    • A.

      Fixation of an ovary

    • B.

      Uterine suspension

    • C.

      Testicle removal

    • D.

      Fixation of a testicle

    Correct Answer
    D. Fixation of a testicle
    Explanation
    Orchiopexy is a surgical procedure that involves the fixation of a testicle. It is typically performed to correct undescended testicles, a condition where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. During orchiopexy, the testicle is carefully repositioned and secured in the scrotum to prevent future complications and promote normal testicular development and function. This procedure is commonly performed in pediatric patients to ensure proper testicular growth and to reduce the risk of infertility and other potential health issues later in life.

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  • 33. 

    Abdominal resection of the prostate gland through an incision into the bladder is known surgically as a

    • A.

      Retropubic prostatectomy

    • B.

      Suprapubic prostatectomy

    • C.

      Transurethral prostatectomy

    • D.

      Suprapubic cystostomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Suprapubic prostatectomy
    Explanation
    A suprapubic prostatectomy is a surgical procedure in which the prostate gland is removed through an incision made in the lower abdomen, just above the pubic bone. This procedure is done by accessing the prostate gland through the bladder, hence the term "suprapubic". It is different from a transurethral prostatectomy, which is a minimally invasive procedure done through the urethra, and a suprapubic cystostomy, which is the creation of a surgical opening in the bladder for drainage purposes.

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  • 34. 

    A lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery may include removal of which ribs?

    • A.

      5 and 6

    • B.

      7 and 8

    • C.

      9 and 10

    • D.

      11 and 12

    Correct Answer
    D. 11 and 12
    Explanation
    In a lumbar or simple flank incision for ureter or kidney surgery, the ribs that may be removed are 11 and 12. This is because these ribs are located in the lower back region, known as the lumbar area. By removing these ribs, surgeons can gain better access to the ureter or kidney, facilitating the surgical procedure.

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  • 35. 

    An abnormal accumulation of fluid in the scrotum is to a (n)

    • A.

      Hydrocele

    • B.

      Enterocele

    • C.

      Varicocele

    • D.

      Hydronephrosis

    Correct Answer
    A. Hydrocele
    Explanation
    A hydrocele refers to an abnormal buildup of fluid in the scrotum. This condition occurs when the sac surrounding the testicles fills with fluid, leading to swelling and discomfort. It is a common condition that can affect males of all ages, from newborns to older adults. The accumulation of fluid in the scrotum can be caused by various factors, such as injury, infection, or an underlying medical condition. Treatment options for hydrocele may include observation, medication, or surgery, depending on the severity and symptoms experienced by the individual.

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  • 36. 

    What is the alternative approach to surgical TURP that has resulted from advances in radiologic techniques and balloon catheter technology

    • A.

      Ureteroplasty

    • B.

      Tuboplasty

    • C.

      Urethroplasty

    • D.

      Prostatic dilation

    Correct Answer
    C. Urethroplasty
    Explanation
    Urethroplasty is the alternative approach to surgical TURP that has resulted from advances in radiologic techniques and balloon catheter technology. Urethroplasty is a surgical procedure used to repair or reconstruct the urethra, the tube that carries urine from the bladder to the outside of the body. It is a viable alternative to surgical TURP because it utilizes the advancements in radiologic techniques and balloon catheter technology to effectively treat urethral conditions without the need for traditional surgical methods.

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  • 37. 

    Bladder stones are crushed with a

    • A.

      Basket catheter

    • B.

      Lithotrite

    • C.

      Cautery

    • D.

      Resectoscope

    Correct Answer
    B. Lithotrite
    Explanation
    A lithotrite is a medical instrument used to crush bladder stones. It is specifically designed for this purpose and is effective in breaking down the stones into smaller fragments, making them easier to remove or pass through the urinary tract. The other options mentioned, such as a basket catheter, cautery, and resectoscope, are not typically used for crushing bladder stones.

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  • 38. 

    Urethral meatal stenosis is corrected by a (n)

    • A.

      Frenulotomy

    • B.

      Meatotomy

    • C.

      Urethral dilation

    • D.

      Extirpation of the penis

    Correct Answer
    B. Meatotomy
    Explanation
    Meatotomy is the correct answer because it is a surgical procedure used to correct urethral meatal stenosis. Urethral meatal stenosis is a condition where the opening of the urethra becomes narrowed or restricted, causing difficulty in urination. A meatotomy involves making an incision or widening the urethral meatus (the external opening of the urethra) to alleviate the obstruction and improve urine flow. This procedure is a common and effective treatment for urethral meatal stenosis.

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  • 39. 

    In a penile implant, the inflation pump is located in the

    • A.

      Distal penis

    • B.

      Proximal penis

    • C.

      Scrotum

    • D.

      Groin

    Correct Answer
    C. Scrotum
    Explanation
    The correct answer is scrotum. In a penile implant, the inflation pump is typically placed in the scrotum. This allows for easy access and control of the implant, as the scrotum is a convenient and discreet location for the pump. Placing the pump in the scrotum also helps to ensure that it is securely positioned and does not interfere with the functionality or comfort of the implant.

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  • 40. 

    Excision of the tunica vaginalis is a

    • A.

      Vagotomy

    • B.

      Vasectomy

    • C.

      Varicocelectomy

    • D.

      Hydrocelectomy

    Correct Answer
    D. Hydrocelectomy
    Explanation
    Hydrocelectomy is the correct answer because it involves the surgical removal of the tunica vaginalis, which is the sac surrounding the testicles. This procedure is performed to treat a hydrocele, which is a buildup of fluid in the scrotum. By excising the tunica vaginalis, the surgeon can remove the excess fluid and alleviate the symptoms associated with a hydrocele. Vagotomy is the surgical cutting of the vagus nerve to reduce stomach acid production, vasectomy is the surgical sterilization of the vas deferens to prevent sperm from reaching the semen, and varicocelectomy is the surgical removal of varicose veins in the scrotum.

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  • 41. 

    Circumcision refers to

    • A.

      Removal of the foreskin

    • B.

      Removal of the glans

    • C.

      Widening of the urethral opening

    • D.

      Lengthening of the foreskin

    Correct Answer
    A. Removal of the foreskin
    Explanation
    Circumcision refers to the removal of the foreskin. This is a surgical procedure where the foreskin, the retractable fold of skin that covers the head of the penis, is removed. It is a common practice in many cultures and religions for various reasons, including religious, cultural, and health purposes. The removal of the foreskin is believed to have several benefits, such as improved hygiene, reduced risk of urinary tract infections, and decreased risk of certain sexually transmitted infections.

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  • 42. 

    An alternative approach to surgical TURP utilizing a cystoscopic setup as its base is

    • A.

      Suprapubic prostatectomy

    • B.

      Transcystoscopic urethroplasty

    • C.

      Perineal prostatectomy

    • D.

      Retropubic prostateectomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Transcystoscopic urethroplasty
    Explanation
    Transcystoscopic urethroplasty is a surgical approach that utilizes a cystoscopic setup as its base. This procedure involves repairing or reconstructing the urethra using a cystoscope, a thin tube with a camera that is inserted through the urethra. It is a minimally invasive technique that allows for precise visualization and manipulation of the urethra, reducing the risk of complications and promoting faster recovery compared to traditional open surgery. This alternative approach is effective in treating various urethral conditions such as strictures or obstructions.

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  • 43. 

    The laser used to destroy small recurrent bladder tumors is the

    • A.

      CO2

    • B.

      Argon

    • C.

      Nd:YAG

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    C. Nd:YAG
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Nd:YAG because it is a type of laser commonly used in medical procedures, including the destruction of small recurrent bladder tumors. Nd:YAG lasers have a longer wavelength, which allows them to penetrate deeper into tissue, making them effective for treating tumors located in the bladder. CO2 and argon lasers are also used in medical procedures, but they are not specifically mentioned in the context of destroying bladder tumors. Therefore, the correct answer is Nd:YAG.

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  • 44. 

    In creating a continent urinary diversion postcystectomy, all of the following procedures are options for diversion EXCEPT

    • A.

      Kock pouch

    • B.

      Indiana pouch

    • C.

      "Le bag"

    • D.

      Ileal conduit

    Correct Answer
    D. Ileal conduit
    Explanation
    The question is asking for the option that is NOT a procedure for continent urinary diversion postcystectomy. A continent urinary diversion is a surgical procedure that creates a new way for urine to be stored and eliminated from the body after the removal of the bladder. The Kock pouch, Indiana pouch, and "Le bag" are all options for continent urinary diversion. However, the ileal conduit is not a continent urinary diversion procedure. Instead, it involves creating a stoma on the abdomen and diverting urine through a small piece of the small intestine (ileum) to a urostomy bag outside the body.

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  • 45. 

    Stones removed during surgery should be sent to the laboratory

    • A.

      Dry

    • B.

      In saline

    • C.

      In formalin

    • D.

      In distilled water

    Correct Answer
    A. Dry
    Explanation
    When stones are removed during surgery, they should be sent to the laboratory in a dry state. This is because sending them in a dry state helps to preserve their integrity and prevent any potential contamination or damage. Additionally, keeping the stones dry allows for easier examination and analysis in the laboratory, as they will not be affected by any residual fluids or substances.

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  • 46. 

    Following anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure, a __________ is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively.

    • A.

      Foley catheter

    • B.

      Ureteral catheter

    • C.

      T-tube

    • D.

      Soft stent

    Correct Answer
    D. Soft stent
    Explanation
    A soft stent is left in place to ensure free drainage of the kidney postoperatively following an anastomosis of a ureter during a ureteral reimplantation procedure. The stent helps to keep the ureter open and allows urine to flow freely from the kidney to the bladder. This helps to prevent any obstruction or leakage of urine and promotes proper healing and recovery after the surgery.

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  • 47. 

    The combined correction of a redundant renal pelvis and resection of a stenotic portion of the ureteropelvic junctions is known as

    • A.

      Pyeloplasty

    • B.

      Foley Y-V procedure

    • C.

      Ureteroplasty

    • D.

      Ureteropyeloscopy

    Correct Answer
    B. Foley Y-V procedure
    Explanation
    Pyeloplasty is the correct answer. Pyeloplasty is a surgical procedure that involves the correction of a redundant renal pelvis and the resection of a stenotic portion of the ureteropelvic junctions. It is performed to relieve the obstruction and improve the drainage of urine from the kidney to the bladder. The Foley Y-V procedure, ureteroplasty, and ureteropyeloscopy are not specifically related to the correction of a redundant renal pelvis and resection of a stenotic portion of the ureteropelvic junctions.

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  • 48. 

    A reverse sterilization procedure in the male is called a (n)

    • A.

      Vasostomy

    • B.

      Vasovasostomy

    • C.

      Epididymovasostomy

    • D.

      B and C

    Correct Answer
    D. B and C
    Explanation
    A reverse sterilization procedure in the male is called a vasovasostomy or an epididymovasostomy. Both options B and C are correct because they refer to different types of reverse sterilization procedures in males. A vasovasostomy involves reconnecting the vas deferens, while an epididymovasostomy involves connecting the vas deferens directly to the epididymis. Both procedures aim to restore fertility in men who have previously undergone sterilization.

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  • 49. 

    Before insertion of a penile implant, the insertion site, as well as the implant itself, is irrigated with

    • A.

      Normal saline

    • B.

      Betadine

    • C.

      Sterile water

    • D.

      Kanamycin and Bacitracin

    Correct Answer
    D. Kanamycin and Bacitracin
    Explanation
    Kanamycin and Bacitracin are antibiotics that are commonly used to prevent infection during surgical procedures. In the case of penile implant insertion, it is important to minimize the risk of infection at the insertion site and around the implant. Therefore, irrigating the insertion site and the implant with Kanamycin and Bacitracin helps to reduce the chances of bacterial contamination and subsequent infection. Normal saline, Betadine, and sterile water do not possess the same antimicrobial properties as Kanamycin and Bacitracin, making them less effective in preventing infection in this context.

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  • 50. 

    To prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient, __________ is given just before clamping of the renal vessels.

    • A.

      Furosemide

    • B.

      Protamine sulfate

    • C.

      Heparin

    • D.

      Mannitol

    Correct Answer
    C. Heparin
    Explanation
    Heparin is given just before clamping of the renal vessels to prevent thrombi from forming in the walls of the renal vein during transfer from the donor to the recipient. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the formation of blood clots. By administering heparin, the risk of thrombi formation in the renal vein is reduced, ensuring a successful transfer of the kidney without any complications related to blood clotting.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 21, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 16, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tigger28384

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