Surgical Tech (Appleton & Lange) Part 9

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Surgical Technology Quizzes & Trivia

Appleton & Lange study guide questions 800 - 899


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    A procedure done to give the colon a rest and is then reversed is

    • A.

      Temporary colectomy

    • B.

      Temporary colostomy

    • C.

      Abdominoperineal resection

    • D.

      McVey procedure

    Correct Answer
    B. Temporary colostomy
    Explanation
    A temporary colostomy is a procedure where a surgically created opening, called a stoma, is made in the abdominal wall to divert the flow of stool from the colon. This allows the colon to rest and heal. The procedure is reversible, meaning that the stoma can be closed and normal bowel function can be restored. This is different from a permanent colostomy, where the stoma is permanent and the colon is not reconnected. Temporary colostomy is commonly performed in cases of bowel obstruction, diverticulitis, or to allow healing after certain surgeries.

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  • 2. 

    A device that may obviate the need for an abdominoperineal resection because a low anterior anastomosis can be performed is a (n)

    • A.

      End-to-end anastomosis (EEA)

    • B.

      GIA

    • C.

      TA 55

    • D.

      LDS

    Correct Answer
    A. End-to-end anastomosis (EEA)
    Explanation
    An end-to-end anastomosis (EEA) is a device that can potentially eliminate the need for an abdominoperineal resection because it allows for a low anterior anastomosis to be performed. This means that the device can connect two sections of the intestine together, allowing for the restoration of normal bowel function without the need for removing the rectum and anus. By avoiding the need for a more invasive surgery like abdominoperineal resection, the EEA device can potentially lead to a faster recovery and better quality of life for the patient.

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  • 3. 

    An advanced inflammation of the bowel could be conservatively treated with which procedure?

    • A.

      Temporary colostomy

    • B.

      Anterior resection

    • C.

      Hemicolectomy

    • D.

      Abdominal perineal resection

    Correct Answer
    A. Temporary colostomy
    Explanation
    An advanced inflammation of the bowel could be conservatively treated with a temporary colostomy. This procedure involves creating an opening in the abdomen called a stoma, through which a portion of the colon is brought to the surface. This allows waste to bypass the inflamed or damaged section of the bowel, giving it time to heal. The colostomy is temporary because once the inflammation subsides, the stoma can be closed and normal bowel function can be restored.

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  • 4. 

    Blunt dissection of the gallbladder from the sulcus of the liver requires the use of a

    • A.

      Metzenbaum

    • B.

      Kelly

    • C.

      Tampon

    • D.

      Peanut

    Correct Answer
    D. Peanut
    Explanation
    The correct answer is peanut because a peanut is commonly used as a surgical instrument during blunt dissection of the gallbladder from the sulcus of the liver. It is small, smooth, and can be easily maneuvered to separate tissues without causing excessive damage or bleeding. The other options, such as Metzenbaum scissors, Kelly forceps, and tampons, are not typically used for this specific procedure.

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  • 5. 

    Direct visualization of the common bile duct is accomplished with a

    • A.

      Cholangiocath

    • B.

      Cholangiogram

    • C.

      Choledochoscope

    • D.

      Trocar

    Correct Answer
    C. Choledochoscope
    Explanation
    A choledochoscope is a medical instrument that is used to directly visualize the common bile duct. It is inserted into the duct through a small incision or through an endoscope. The choledochoscope has a light source and a camera that allows the healthcare professional to see the inside of the duct and identify any abnormalities or blockages. This procedure is commonly used to diagnose and treat conditions such as gallstones, tumors, or strictures in the common bile duct.

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  • 6. 

    "Scratch" marking is done in surgery of the

    • A.

      Chin

    • B.

      Eye

    • C.

      Breast

    • D.

      Thyroid

    Correct Answer
    D. Thyroid
    Explanation
    In surgery of the thyroid, "scratch" marking is done. This likely refers to a technique used to mark the surgical site or identify specific areas of the thyroid gland. The marking may be done to guide the surgeon during the procedure and ensure accurate and precise surgical intervention. The term "scratch" may refer to a superficial marking made on the skin or surface of the thyroid gland using a surgical instrument. However, without further context or information, it is difficult to provide a more specific explanation.

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  • 7. 

    Fogarty biliary catheters are used to

    • A.

      Drain the gallbladder

    • B.

      Drain the common bile duct

    • C.

      Instill contrast media

    • D.

      Facilitate stone removal

    Correct Answer
    D. Facilitate stone removal
    Explanation
    Fogarty biliary catheters are specifically designed to facilitate stone removal. These catheters have an inflatable balloon at the tip that can be inflated to capture and remove stones from the bile duct or gallbladder. By inflating the balloon and gently pulling back, the stones can be safely extracted from the biliary system. This procedure is commonly used in cases where there are gallstones or other obstructions that need to be removed to restore proper bile flow.

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  • 8. 

    In laparoscopy, tubal patency is checked by

    • A.

      Irrigating with normal saline

    • B.

      Injecting renografin into the tube

    • C.

      Injecting methylene blue into the cervical canal

    • D.

      Irrigating tube with Lugol's solution

    Correct Answer
    C. Injecting methylene blue into the cervical canal
    Explanation
    In laparoscopy, tubal patency is checked by injecting methylene blue into the cervical canal. Methylene blue is a dye that is commonly used to assess tubal patency during laparoscopic procedures. It is injected into the cervical canal and if the dye flows freely through the fallopian tubes and spills out into the abdominal cavity, it indicates that the tubes are open and patent. This test helps to evaluate the function and patency of the fallopian tubes, which is important in diagnosing infertility or other reproductive issues.

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  • 9. 

    In a thyroidectomy, a loop retractor retracts the

    • A.

      Platysma muscle

    • B.

      Cervical fascia

    • C.

      Thyroid veins

    • D.

      Sternocleidomastoid muscle

    Correct Answer
    D. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
    Explanation
    In a thyroidectomy, a loop retractor is used to retract the sternocleidomastoid muscle. This muscle is located in the neck and plays a crucial role in head and neck movements. By retracting the sternocleidomastoid muscle, surgeons gain better access to the thyroid gland, allowing for a safer and more efficient procedure. The platysma muscle, cervical fascia, and thyroid veins are not directly involved in the retraction process during a thyroidectomy.

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  • 10. 

    Which structure(s) are identified and preserved in thyroid surgery?

    • A.

      Parathyroid glands

    • B.

      Hyoid bone

    • C.

      Thyroglossal duct

    • D.

      Thyroid bone

    Correct Answer
    A. Parathyroid glands
    Explanation
    During thyroid surgery, the parathyroid glands are identified and preserved. These small glands are located near or attached to the thyroid gland and play a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body. Preserving the parathyroid glands is important to prevent complications such as hypoparathyroidism, which can lead to low calcium levels. The other options mentioned in the question, including the hyoid bone, thyroglossal duct, and thyroid bone, are not structures that are typically identified or preserved during thyroid surgery.

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  • 11. 

    Bariatric surgery treats

    • A.

      Ulcers

    • B.

      Obesity

    • C.

      Thyroid disease

    • D.

      Carcinoma of the pancreas

    Correct Answer
    B. Obesity
    Explanation
    Bariatric surgery is a type of surgery that is specifically designed to treat obesity. It involves various procedures such as gastric bypass and gastric sleeve, which aim to reduce the size of the stomach and limit the amount of food that can be consumed. This surgery helps individuals with severe obesity to lose weight and improve their overall health. Therefore, the correct answer is obesity.

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  • 12. 

    Which incision would require cutting through Scarpa's fascia?

    • A.

      Subcostal

    • B.

      Inguinal

    • C.

      Phannenstiel

    • D.

      McBurney

    Correct Answer
    B. Inguinal
    Explanation
    The incision that would require cutting through Scarpa's fascia is the inguinal incision. Scarpa's fascia is a layer of connective tissue located in the lower abdomen, and it is present in the inguinal region. When performing an inguinal incision, surgeons would need to cut through Scarpa's fascia to access the underlying structures in that area. The other options, subcostal, Phannenstiel, and McBurney, do not involve cutting through Scarpa's fascia.

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  • 13. 

    A gastroplasty

    • A.

      Reduces stomach size

    • B.

      Corrects gastric junction stenosis

    • C.

      Releases adhesions

    • D.

      Provides avenue for hyperalimentation

    Correct Answer
    A. Reduces stomach size
    Explanation
    A gastroplasty is a surgical procedure that is performed to reduce the size of the stomach. This can be done through various techniques such as gastric banding or sleeve gastrectomy. By reducing the size of the stomach, the amount of food that can be consumed is limited, leading to weight loss. This procedure is often performed in individuals who are severely obese and have not been successful with other weight loss methods.

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  • 14. 

    Which item retracts the spermatic cord structure in herniorrhaphy?

    • A.

      Army-navy retractor

    • B.

      Penrose drain

    • C.

      Green retractor

    • D.

      Silk suture

    Correct Answer
    B. Penrose drain
    Explanation
    A penrose drain is a soft, flexible, and non-absorbable rubber tube that is commonly used in surgery to drain fluids. In herniorrhaphy, a surgical procedure to repair a hernia, the penrose drain may be used to retract the spermatic cord structure. The penrose drain helps to keep the cord out of the way during the procedure, allowing the surgeon to access and repair the hernia without causing damage to the cord. The other options listed, such as the army-navy retractor, Green retractor, and silk suture, do not have the same retraction capabilities as a penrose drain.

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  • 15. 

    After uterus removal in a hysterectomy

    • A.

      Cervical and vaginal instruments are isolated from the instrument set in a discard basin

    • B.

      The cervix is cauterized

    • C.

      New instruments are used on the cervical closure

    • D.

      Cervical instruments are returned to the basket

    Correct Answer
    A. Cervical and vaginal instruments are isolated from the instrument set in a discard basin
    Explanation
    After uterus removal in a hysterectomy, it is necessary to isolate the cervical and vaginal instruments from the instrument set in a discard basin. This is done to prevent any contamination or infection from the removed uterus. The cervix is then cauterized to stop any bleeding and new instruments are used for the cervical closure. Finally, the cervical instruments are returned to the basket for further use if needed.

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  • 16. 

    An irreducible hernia whose abdominal contents have become trapped in the extraabdominal sac is called a (n)

    • A.

      Incarcerated hernia

    • B.

      Sliding hernia

    • C.

      Spigelean hernia

    • D.

      Strangulated hernia

    Correct Answer
    A. Incarcerated hernia
    Explanation
    An incarcerated hernia refers to a situation where the abdominal contents are trapped within the hernia sac and cannot be easily reduced or pushed back into the abdominal cavity. This can lead to complications if the blood supply to the trapped tissues is compromised. It is different from a sliding hernia, where a portion of an organ, usually the stomach, slides into the hernia sac. A spigelean hernia occurs when part of the intestine protrudes through the spigelian fascia, a layer of tissue in the abdominal wall. A strangulated hernia is a type of incarcerated hernia where the blood supply to the trapped tissues is completely cut off, resulting in tissue death and potentially life-threatening complications.

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  • 17. 

    Which type of endoscopy camera procedures the truest color?

    • A.

      One-chip

    • B.

      Two-chip

    • C.

      Three-chip

    • D.

      Four-chip

    Correct Answer
    C. Three-chip
    Explanation
    A three-chip endoscopy camera procedure produces the truest color. This is because a three-chip camera uses three separate sensors to capture red, green, and blue light, which are then combined to create a more accurate representation of colors. In contrast, one-chip and two-chip cameras may not capture colors as accurately due to the limitations of their sensor systems. A four-chip camera, although having more sensors, may not necessarily provide truer colors as the additional sensor may not significantly enhance color accuracy. Therefore, a three-chip endoscopy camera procedure is considered to produce the truest color.

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  • 18. 

    While balancing a video camera in endoscopy requires the scrub person to focus the camera on

    • A.

      A white sponge

    • B.

      A white wall

    • C.

      A glove wrapper

    • D.

      Any of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. Any of the above
    Explanation
    Balancing a video camera in endoscopy requires the scrub person to focus the camera on a white sponge, a white wall, or a glove wrapper. The color white is chosen because it provides a neutral background that helps in adjusting the camera's settings and ensuring accurate visualization during the procedure. Any of the mentioned options can be used interchangeably as long as they provide a white surface for the camera to focus on.

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  • 19. 

    Defogging the video camera is usually responsibility of the

    • A.

      Circulator

    • B.

      Surgeon

    • C.

      Scrub person

    • D.

      Camera operator

    Correct Answer
    C. Scrub person
    Explanation
    The scrub person is responsible for defogging the video camera. This is because the scrub person is typically in close proximity to the camera during surgical procedures and has the ability to quickly clean the lens if it becomes foggy. The circulator is responsible for managing the overall flow of the surgical procedure, the surgeon focuses on performing the surgery, and the camera operator is responsible for operating the camera but may not be in close proximity to the camera at all times. Therefore, the scrub person is the most likely person to be responsible for defogging the video camera.

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  • 20. 

    A palliative invasive procedure done to prevent malnutrition or starvation is known as

    • A.

      Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) procedure

    • B.

      Gastrotomy

    • C.

      Gastrostomy

    • D.

      Gastrojejunostomy

    Correct Answer
    C. Gastrostomy
    Explanation
    A palliative invasive procedure done to prevent malnutrition or starvation is known as gastrostomy. This procedure involves creating an opening in the stomach through the abdominal wall to provide a direct access for feeding. It is commonly used in patients who are unable to eat or swallow properly due to various medical conditions, such as cancer, neurological disorders, or severe injuries. By inserting a feeding tube through the gastrostomy, essential nutrients and fluids can be delivered directly to the stomach, ensuring adequate nutrition and preventing malnutrition.

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  • 21. 

    The use of noninvasive high-energy shock waves to pulverize gallstones into small fragments for easy passage throught the common bile duct and out of the body is called

    • A.

      Choledochoscopy

    • B.

      Cholelithotripsy

    • C.

      Choledochostomy

    • D.

      Choledochotomy

    Correct Answer
    B. Cholelithotripsy
    Explanation
    Cholelithotripsy is the correct answer because it involves the use of noninvasive high-energy shock waves to break down gallstones into smaller fragments. This procedure allows the fragments to pass through the common bile duct and be eliminated from the body. Choledochoscopy is a procedure to visualize the common bile duct using a small camera, choledochostomy is the creation of a surgical opening into the common bile duct, and choledochotomy is the surgical incision of the common bile duct.

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  • 22. 

    Intraoperative cholangiograms can be performed either through open abdominal or laparoscopic procedures using a contrast medium directly into the common bile duct through a

    • A.

      Cystocath

    • B.

      Cholangiocath

    • C.

      T-tube

    • D.

      Red rubber catheter

    Correct Answer
    B. Cholangiocath
    Explanation
    Intraoperative cholangiograms are imaging procedures performed during surgery to visualize the bile ducts. They can be done using either open abdominal or laparoscopic procedures. A contrast medium is injected directly into the common bile duct to enhance visibility. The correct answer, "cholangiocath," refers to a catheter specifically designed for this purpose, allowing the contrast medium to be injected accurately into the bile duct.

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  • 23. 

    Intra-abdominal pressure during the instillation of CO2 for creation of pneumoperitoneum is 8-10 mm Hg. A pressure reading higher than this may indicate that the needle may be

    • A.

      Buried in fatty tissue

    • B.

      Buried in the omentum

    • C.

      In a lumen of intestines

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    A pressure reading higher than 8-10 mm Hg during the instillation of CO2 for creation of pneumoperitoneum may indicate that the needle is buried in fatty tissue, buried in the omentum, or in a lumen of intestines. This is because these structures have higher resistance to gas flow compared to the peritoneal cavity, causing an increase in pressure. Therefore, if the pressure reading is higher than the expected range, it suggests that the needle is not properly positioned within the peritoneal cavity.

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  • 24. 

    The proper method of removing the gallbladder specimen after complete disscetion and irrigation of the operative site in a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is to

    • A.

      Utilize an endobag

    • B.

      Pull gallbladder through the largest port

    • C.

      Decompress the gallbladder by suctioning bile before removal

    • D.

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    The proper method of removing the gallbladder specimen after complete dissection and irrigation of the operative site in a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is to utilize an endobag, pull the gallbladder through the largest port, and decompress the gallbladder by suctioning bile before removal. This ensures that the specimen is contained and prevents spillage of bile or stones into the abdominal cavity, reducing the risk of infection or other complications.

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  • 25. 

    All of the following are recommendations for actions necessary to support the aseptic principle of "confine and contain" EXCEPT

    • A.

      Restrict patient contacts to an area 3 feet around the patient

    • B.

      Discard sponges into plastic-lined pails

    • C.

      Clean spills immediately with broad spectrum disinfectant

    • D.

      All laundry should be discarded into impervious bags

    Correct Answer
    D. All laundry should be discarded into impervious bags
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "all laundry should be discarded into impervious bags". This is because the aseptic principle of "confine and contain" focuses on preventing the spread of infection by confining and containing potentially contaminated materials. Discarding laundry into impervious bags does not align with this principle, as it does not confine and contain the laundry but rather allows it to be disposed of without proper containment.

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  • 26. 

    All of the following drains are considered active postoperative drains that are attached to an external force EXCEPT

    • A.

      Sump

    • B.

      Chest

    • C.

      Penrose

    • D.

      Hemovac

    Correct Answer
    C. Penrose
    Explanation
    The question asks for the drain that is not considered an active postoperative drain attached to an external force. The sump, chest, and Hemovac drains are all examples of active postoperative drains that are connected to an external force to facilitate drainage. However, a Penrose drain is a passive drain that relies on gravity for drainage and does not require an external force. Therefore, the correct answer is Penrose.

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  • 27. 

    During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy the surgeon generally stands

    • A.

      At the right side of the patient

    • B.

      At the bottom of the patients table

    • C.

      At the left side of the patient

    • D.

      In front of the first assistant

    Correct Answer
    C. At the left side of the patient
    Explanation
    During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgeon generally stands at the left side of the patient. This positioning allows the surgeon to have a clear view of the surgical site and access to the necessary instruments. It also provides a comfortable and ergonomic working position for the surgeon, as they can easily manipulate the laparoscopic instruments with their dominant hand. Additionally, standing at the left side allows the surgeon to work alongside the surgical team and communicate effectively with the first assistant.

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  • 28. 

    Gastrointestinal decompression during a general surgical procedure can be effected by the use of a

    • A.

      Levine tube

    • B.

      Miller-Abbot tube

    • C.

      Vari-Dyne

    • D.

      A and B

    Correct Answer
    D. A and B
    Explanation
    Gastrointestinal decompression during a general surgical procedure can be achieved by using a Levine tube or a Miller-Abbot tube. Both of these tubes are specifically designed for decompression purposes in the gastrointestinal tract. The Levine tube is a nasogastric tube that is inserted through the nose and into the stomach, allowing for the removal of gastric contents and decompression. The Miller-Abbot tube, on the other hand, is a longer tube that is inserted through the nose or mouth and into the small intestine, providing decompression of both the stomach and small intestine. Therefore, options A and B are both correct as they represent effective methods for gastrointestinal decompression during surgery.

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  • 29. 

    A selected alternative to a conventional ileotomy that denies spontaneous stool exiting from the stoma and requires catheterization of the stoma daily to evacuate the contents is a (n)

    • A.

      Cecostomy

    • B.

      Ileoanal pull-through

    • C.

      Ileal conduit

    • D.

      Kock pouch

    Correct Answer
    D. Kock pouch
    Explanation
    A Kock pouch is a selected alternative to a conventional ileostomy that does not allow spontaneous stool exiting from the stoma. Instead, it requires daily catheterization of the stoma to evacuate the contents. This means that the Kock pouch is a reservoir created from the small intestine that collects stool, and it needs to be manually emptied using a catheter. This option provides a way for individuals to have more control over their bowel movements and avoid the need for an external ostomy bag.

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  • 30. 

    When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is termed

    • A.

      Sliding

    • B.

      Pantaloon

    • C.

      Femoral

    • D.

      Spigelian

    Correct Answer
    B. Pantaloon
    Explanation
    When both direct and indirect hernias occur in the same inguinal area, the defect is termed "pantaloon." This term is used to describe a specific type of hernia where there is a combination of both direct and indirect hernias. The name "pantaloon" is derived from the appearance of the hernia, which resembles a pair of pants or trousers with two separate compartments. In this case, the hernia bulges out in both the medial and lateral aspects of the inguinal area, resulting in a pantaloon-shaped defect.

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  • 31. 

    An inguinal hernia containing a Meckel's diverticulum is called a

    • A.

      Richter's

    • B.

      Litter's

    • C.

      Maydl's

    • D.

      Spigelian

    Correct Answer
    B. Litter's
    Explanation
    Litter's hernia is the correct answer because it refers to an inguinal hernia that contains a Meckel's diverticulum. This type of hernia is named after a German surgeon named Carl Litter, who first described this specific type of hernia. The presence of a Meckel's diverticulum in the hernia can cause complications and requires surgical intervention.

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  • 32. 

    All of the following are designated options of laparoscopic hernia repair EXCEPT

    • A.

      TAPP

    • B.

      ERCP

    • C.

      IPOM

    • D.

      LEP

    Correct Answer
    B. ERCP
    Explanation
    Laparoscopic hernia repair is a minimally invasive surgical procedure used to repair hernias. TAPP (Transabdominal Preperitoneal), IPOM (Intraperitoneal Onlay Mesh), and LEP (Laparoscopic Extraperitoneal) are all designated options of laparoscopic hernia repair. However, ERCP (Endoscopic Retrograde Cholangiopancreatography) is not a designated option for hernia repair. ERCP is a diagnostic procedure used to examine the bile ducts and pancreatic ducts, not for hernia repair.

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  • 33. 

    Which muscles are incised in the midline of the neck once the skin flaps are completed during a thyroidectomy?

    • A.

      Sternocleidomastoid

    • B.

      Strap

    • C.

      Sternothyroid

    • D.

      Sternoclavicular

    Correct Answer
    B. Strap
    Explanation
    During a thyroidectomy, once the skin flaps are completed, the muscles that are incised in the midline of the neck are the strap muscles. The strap muscles, also known as the infrahyoid muscles, include the sternohyoid, omohyoid, and thyrohyoid muscles. These muscles are incised to gain access to the thyroid gland and allow for its removal. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is not incised in the midline of the neck during a thyroidectomy. The sternothyroid and sternoclavicular muscles are also not incised in this procedure.

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  • 34. 

    Which bone is transected with bone-cutting forceps before removal of a thyroglossal cyst?

    • A.

      Ethmoid

    • B.

      Hyoid

    • C.

      Pterygoid

    • D.

      Zygomatic process

    Correct Answer
    B. Hyoid
    Explanation
    Before the removal of a thyroglossal cyst, the bone that is transected with bone-cutting forceps is the hyoid bone. The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the neck, just above the thyroid cartilage. It serves as an attachment point for various muscles involved in swallowing and speech. Transecting the hyoid bone allows for easier removal of the thyroglossal cyst, which is a congenital abnormality in the midline of the neck.

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  • 35. 

    Drainage of an incision following a simple or modified radical mastectomy is accomplished by a

    • A.

      Penrose

    • B.

      Sump

    • C.

      Closed-wound drainage

    • D.

      Cigarette drain

    Correct Answer
    C. Closed-wound drainage
    Explanation
    Closed-wound drainage is the correct answer for the question. Closed-wound drainage is a method used to drain fluid from a surgical incision. It involves placing a drainage tube or system within the wound, allowing the fluid to exit the body and collect in a reservoir. This helps prevent the buildup of fluid, reduces the risk of infection, and promotes healing. The other options, such as Penrose, sump, and cigarette drain, are not typically used for drainage following a mastectomy.

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  • 36. 

    During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the camera operator usually stands

    • A.

      Across from the surgeon

    • B.

      To the right of the surgeon

    • C.

      To the right of the first assistant

    • D.

      Behind the Mayo stand

    Correct Answer
    C. To the right of the first assistant
    Explanation
    In a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the camera operator is responsible for controlling the camera that provides a visual feed of the surgical site. They need to have a clear view of the surgeon's actions and the area being operated on. By standing to the right of the first assistant, the camera operator can have a direct line of sight to the surgical field and easily capture the necessary footage. Additionally, this position allows for effective communication and coordination between the camera operator, surgeon, and other members of the surgical team.

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  • 37. 

    The maximum pressure allowed to prevent the possible intraoperative complications of bradycardis, blood pressure changes, or potential gas emboli during a laparoscopic procedure is

    • A.

      8 mm Hg

    • B.

      10 mm Hg

    • C.

      15 mm Hg

    • D.

      20 mm Hg

    Correct Answer
    C. 15 mm Hg
    Explanation
    During a laparoscopic procedure, it is important to maintain a certain level of pressure in the abdomen to create a working space for the surgeon. However, excessive pressure can lead to complications such as bradycardia (slow heart rate), changes in blood pressure, and potential gas emboli (air bubbles in the blood vessels). Therefore, the maximum pressure allowed to prevent these complications is 15 mm Hg. This pressure provides adequate working space while minimizing the risk of adverse events.

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  • 38. 

    During surgery, towel clips

    • A.

      May be removed only by the circulator

    • B.

      May not be removed once fastened

    • C.

      May be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen

    • D.

      May be removed and discarded from the field

    Correct Answer
    C. May be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen
    Explanation
    During surgery, towel clips may be removed and discarded as long as the area is covered with sterile linen. This is important to maintain a sterile environment in the operating room. The circulator, who is responsible for managing the surgical environment, may remove the towel clips if necessary, but it is important to ensure that the area is covered with sterile linen to prevent contamination.

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  • 39. 

    As grossly soiled instruments are returned to the scrub, they should be

    • A.

      Placed in a basin of sterile saline to soak off debris

    • B.

      Wiped off with a sponge moistened with water or soaked in a basin of sterile distilled water

    • C.

      Wiped off with a dry sponge

    • D.

      Discarded so that the circulator can clean them throughly

    Correct Answer
    B. Wiped off with a sponge moistened with water or soaked in a basin of sterile distilled water
    Explanation
    Grossly soiled instruments should be wiped off with a sponge moistened with water or soaked in a basin of sterile distilled water. This helps to remove debris and prevent it from drying and becoming more difficult to clean. Using a sponge moistened with water or soaking in sterile distilled water helps to maintain a clean and sterile environment for the instruments.

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  • 40. 

    Which of the following actions by the scrub person is NOT an acceptable sterile technique principle?

    • A.

      Discarding tubing that falls below sterile field edges without touching the contaminated part

    • B.

      Reaching behind sterile team members to retrieve instruments so they do not collect on the patient

    • C.

      Facing sterile areas when passing them

    • D.

      Stepping away from the sterile field if contaminated

    Correct Answer
    B. Reaching behind sterile team members to retrieve instruments so they do not collect on the patient
    Explanation
    The action of reaching behind sterile team members to retrieve instruments is not an acceptable sterile technique principle because it violates the principle of maintaining a sterile field. By reaching behind team members, the scrub person is introducing potential contamination to the sterile field and increasing the risk of infection for the patient. It is important to always maintain the integrity of the sterile field and avoid any actions that can compromise its sterility.

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  • 41. 

    When the scrubperson is draping a nonsterile table, he or she must

    • A.

      Cover the back edge of the table first

    • B.

      Use a single-thickness drape

    • C.

      Be sure the drape touches the floor

    • D.

      Cuff the drape over his or her gloved hands

    Correct Answer
    D. Cuff the drape over his or her gloved hands
    Explanation
    When the scrubperson is draping a nonsterile table, they must cuff the drape over their gloved hands. This is important because it helps to maintain the sterility of the gloves and prevents contamination of the sterile field. Cuffing the drape over the gloved hands creates a barrier between the nonsterile table and the sterile gloves, ensuring that the gloves do not come into direct contact with the table surface. This helps to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens or other contaminants into the sterile field during the surgical procedure.

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  • 42. 

    When covering a Mayo stand, the scrubperson should

    • A.

      Use a wide cuff

    • B.

      Use no cuff

    • C.

      Open the cover fully before placement

    • D.

      Ask the circulator to pull on the cover

    Correct Answer
    A. Use a wide cuff
    Explanation
    When covering a Mayo stand, the scrubperson should use a wide cuff. This is because a wide cuff provides better coverage and protection for the Mayo stand, ensuring that it remains sterile during the procedure. A wide cuff helps to prevent any contamination from reaching the sterile field and maintains the integrity of the sterile environment. Using a wide cuff also allows for easier and more secure placement of the cover on the Mayo stand, reducing the risk of it slipping or coming off during the procedure.

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  • 43. 

    If a sterile field becomes moistened during a case

    • A.

      Nothing can be done

    • B.

      Extra drapes are added to area

    • C.

      The wet sections are removed and replaced with dry sections

    • D.

      The wet sections are covered with a plastic adherent drape

    Correct Answer
    B. Extra drapes are added to area
    Explanation
    If a sterile field becomes moistened during a case, the correct action to take is to add extra drapes to the area. This is done to maintain the sterility of the field and prevent any contamination that may occur due to moisture. By adding extra drapes, the wet sections are covered and isolated, ensuring that the rest of the field remains sterile. This helps to minimize the risk of infection and maintain a safe surgical environment.

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  • 44. 

    The main purpose of the skin prep is to

    • A.

      Remove resident and transient flora

    • B.

      Remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and to reduce the microbial count

    • C.

      Remove all bacteria from the skin

    • D.

      Sterilize the patient's skin

    Correct Answer
    B. Remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and to reduce the microbial count
    Explanation
    The main purpose of skin prep is to remove dirt, oil, and microbes, and to reduce the microbial count. This is important because dirt, oil, and microbes can harbor bacteria and other pathogens, increasing the risk of infection. By removing these substances and reducing the microbial count, the risk of infection during a medical procedure or surgery is minimized. Sterilizing the patient's skin or removing all bacteria from the skin is not necessary or practical, as the skin naturally harbors bacteria and complete sterilization is not possible.

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  • 45. 

    Which is the antiseptic solution of choice for a skin prep?

    • A.

      Cipex

    • B.

      Staphene

    • C.

      Povidone-iodine

    • D.

      Zephiran

    Correct Answer
    C. Povidone-iodine
    Explanation
    Povidone-iodine is the antiseptic solution of choice for a skin prep because it has broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity against bacteria, viruses, and fungi. It is effective in reducing the number of microorganisms on the skin, making it suitable for preoperative skin preparation. Povidone-iodine is also non-irritating and non-sensitizing to the skin, making it a safe and well-tolerated option for skin disinfection.

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  • 46. 

    When are counts done in the OR?

    • A.

      At beginning and end of case

    • B.

      Before beginning of case, at beginning of wound closure, and at skin closure

    • C.

      As case begins and when case is in progress

    • D.

      Before beginning of case and at end of case

    Correct Answer
    B. Before beginning of case, at beginning of wound closure, and at skin closure
    Explanation
    Counts are done before the beginning of the case, at the beginning of wound closure, and at skin closure to ensure that all surgical instruments, sponges, and other equipment are properly accounted for. This helps to prevent any items from being left inside the patient's body after surgery, which can lead to complications and harm the patient. By conducting counts at these specific times, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and well-being of the patient throughout the surgical procedure.

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  • 47. 

    Soiled sponges are

    • A.

      Never touched with bare hands

    • B.

      Left in the kick bucket until the count begins

    • C.

      Removed from the room once the peritoneum is closed

    • D.

      Counted and stacked on a towel or sheet on the OR floor

    Correct Answer
    A. Never touched with bare hands
    Explanation
    Soiled sponges are never touched with bare hands in order to maintain a sterile environment during surgical procedures. Touching the soiled sponges with bare hands can introduce bacteria or other contaminants into the surgical site, increasing the risk of infection for the patient. Therefore, it is important for healthcare professionals to use proper techniques and tools, such as gloves or instruments, to handle and dispose of soiled sponges safely.

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  • 48. 

    Specimens may be passed off the sterile OR table by the scrub person on all of the following items EXCEPT

    • A.

      Sponge

    • B.

      Towel

    • C.

      Basin

    • D.

      Paper

    Correct Answer
    A. Sponge
    Explanation
    The scrub person can pass off specimens on all items listed except for the sponge. This is because the sponge is typically used to absorb fluids and clean the surgical site during the procedure, making it unsuitable for carrying specimens. The towel, basin, and paper can all be used to safely transport specimens without compromising their sterility.

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  • 49. 

    When handling uterine curettings

    • A.

      Never place them in preservative

    • B.

      Keep the endometrial and the endocervical curettings separate

    • C.

      Send the endometrial and the endocervical curettings to the lab in one container

    • D.

      Send them on a 4x4 to the lab because it is too difficult to remove them

    Correct Answer
    B. Keep the endometrial and the endocervical curettings separate
    Explanation
    When handling uterine curettings, it is important to keep the endometrial and endocervical curettings separate. This is because they are different types of tissue and may require different testing or analysis in the lab. By keeping them separate, it ensures that each type of tissue can be properly examined and diagnosed, if necessary. Placing them in the same container could lead to confusion or inaccurate results.

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  • 50. 

    Labor can be induced using

    • A.

      Ergotrate

    • B.

      Diazoxide

    • C.

      Pitocin

    • D.

      Magnesium sulfate

    Correct Answer
    C. Pitocin
    Explanation
    Pitocin is a synthetic form of oxytocin, a hormone that stimulates contractions in the uterus. It is commonly used to induce labor in pregnant women who are past their due date or have medical conditions that require delivery. Pitocin is administered through an IV and helps to initiate and strengthen contractions, ultimately leading to the onset of labor. It is a commonly used method for inducing labor and has been found to be effective in many cases.

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Quiz Review Timeline +

Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.

  • Current Version
  • Mar 22, 2023
    Quiz Edited by
    ProProfs Editorial Team
  • Nov 05, 2012
    Quiz Created by
    Tigger28384

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